• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

How to study your flashcards.

Right/Left arrow keys: Navigate between flashcards.right arrow keyleft arrow key

Up/Down arrow keys: Flip the card between the front and back.down keyup key

H key: Show hint (3rd side).h key

A key: Read text to speech.a key

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/500

Click to flip

500 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
The tool control program is based on what
inventory concept?
Instant inventory concept.
What officer is responsible for coordinating
the tool control program?
Material Control officer.
What division is responsible for monitoring
the tool control program?
Quality Assurance.
Tools of poor quality are reported to what
office?
Fleet Material Support Office.
Who has the overall responsibility for control
of all tool containers and their keys?
Work center supervisor.
What officer must be notified that a missing
tool cannot be found?
Maintenance Officer (MO).
What two manuals outline the
chain-of-command responsibilities in regards
to occupational safety?
OPNAVINST 5100.19 and OPNAVINST 5100.23.
What is the primary source of information
involving the use of hazardous materials?
Material Safety Data Sheet.
Who is responsible for training shop personnel
in the use of the material safety data
sheet?
Work center supervisor.
In naval aviation technical manuals, what
safety term is used to indicate an operating
procedure, practice, or condition that may
result in injury or death if not carefully
observed?
Warning.
In naval aviation technical manuals, what
safety term is used to indicate an operating
procedure, practice, or condition that may
result in damage or destruction to equipment?
Caution.
What type of diagram is useful for showing
the relationship of components of a system
and the sequence in which the different
components operate?
Block.
What type of diagram is a graphic
representation of a system that shows how a
component fits with other components but
does not indicate its actual location in the
aircraft?
Schematic.
What type of diagrams use actual drawings of
components within the system?
Installation.
The logical/deductive reasoning process of
finding a malfunction is known by what term?
Troubleshooting.
What are the seven steps encompassed in the
troubleshooting aids generally found in the
aircraft MIMS?
Visual inspection, operational check, classify the trouble, isolate the trouble,
locate the trouble, correct the trouble, and conduct final operational check.
During a visual inspection, a hydraulic system
should be checked for what primary concerns?
Proper servicing levels.
What are the four basic categories of malfunctions?
Hydraulic, pneumatic, mechanical, or electrical.
When you conduct the final operational
check, how many times must the affected system
be actuated?
Five (5).
What components should be checked for
proper position prior to applying electrical
and hydraulic power?
Hydraulic selector valves and electrical switches.
When troubleshooting, what records should
you check to see if there is a previous history
of the same type of discrepancy?
Aircraft discrepancy records.
What equipment or tool should you use to
check the voltage and continuity of a circuit in
an electrically controlled hydraulic system?
Multimeter.
What substance is used to reduce friction,
cool metallic parts, prevent wear, and protect
against corrosion?
Lubricants.
What are the four methods of applying
lubricants?
Grease gun, squirt can, hand, and brush.
What type of lubrication fittings rests level
with the surface and will not interfere with
moving parts?
Flush fittings.
Where would you find the prewash lubrication
chart for a particular aircraft?
Maintenance Requirements Cards (MRC).
What document should you consult for special
safety requirements and personal protective
equipment prior to using any lubricant?
Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS).
What characteristics of an aircraft are
directly dependent upon its weight and
balance condition?
Flight.
What technical manual covers weight and
balance?
NAVAIR 01-1B-50.
What is the standard method used by the Navy
for weighing aircraft?
Mobile Electronic Weighing System (MEWS).
How often must heavy-duty portable scales
and MEWS scales be calibrated?
Every six (6) months.
What is the minimum time required for an
electronic scale to warm up?
Twenty (20) minutes.
What actions must be accomplished if the
Weight and Data Handbook is lost?
Weigh (or reweigh) and balance the aircraft.
What are the four types of aircraft slings?
Wire rope, fabric or webbing, structural steel or aluminum, and chain.
What is the most common type of aircraft
lifting sling used today?
Wire rope.
What types of slings do not contain flexible
components?
Structural steel.
What manual covers load testing and
inspection information for aircraft slings?
NAVAIR 17-1-114.
How often should inspection and lubrication
of aircraft slings be accomplished?
Before each use or monthly.
What are the two types of hydraulic aircraft
jacks used by the Navy?
Axle and tripod.
Aircraft jacks are serviced with what type of
fluid?
Standard authorized aircraft hydraulic fluid.
What type of jack is used for changing aircraft
tires?
Axle.
What division performs 13-week special
inspections on axle jacks?
AIMD Support Equipment Division.
What important safeguard prevents you from
lowering a jack too fast?
Safety locknuts.
Details on jacking restrictions and
procedures can be found in what publication?
Aircraft MIMs.
For shipboard operations, what is the
minimum number of tie-down chains required
for each jack?
Three (3).
How many principal structural units are there
in a fixed-wing aircraft?
Nine.
On a semimonocoque fuselage, what component
absorbs the primary bending loads?
Longerons.
What aircraft structure is designed to transmit
engine loads, stresses, and vibrations to
the aircraft structure?
Nacelle.
What is the main structural member of a wing
assembly?
Spar.
What is the primary purpose of a stabilizer?
To keep the aircraft in straight and level flight.
What type of flight controls provides control
over pitch, roll, and yaw?
Primary controls.
What flight control is operated by a
side-to-side movement of the control stick?
Aileron.
What type of flight control system is used on
aircraft that travel at or near supersonic
speeds?
Power-operated or Power-boosted.
What flight control provides lateral control?
Aileron.
What flight control provides longitudinal control?
Elevator.
When is the mechanical control of an F-14
wing sweep used?
Emergency wing sweep.
Trim tabs, wing flaps, and speed brakes are
all considered what type of flight controls?
Secondary flight controls.
What is the main purpose of a speed brake?
Reducing aircraft speed.
What type of shock strut is used on all naval
aircraft?
Air-oil shock strut.
What component of a nose landing gear
resists sudden twisting loads that are applied
to the nosewheel during ground operation?
The shimmy damper.
What force is used to raise the arresting hook
of an aircraft?
Hydraulic power.
What component of a catapult system allows
the aircraft to be secured to the carrier deck?
The holdback assembly.
What is the major advantage of a helicopter
over a fixed-wing aircraft?
Lift and control are independent of forward speed.
Most Navy helicopters have what fuselage
design?
Monocoque.
What type of stress is produced by two forces
pulling in opposite directions along the same
straight line?
Tension.
What force is the opposite of tension?
Compression.
What type of stress is a combination of tension
and compression?
Bending.
What type of stress is the result of a twisting
force?
Torsion.
What is the most widely used metal in modern
aircraft construction?
Aluminum alloy.
What is the world's lightest structural metal?
Magnesium.
At what temperature does transparent plastic
become soft and pliable?
225 F.
Radomes, wing tips, stabilizer tips, and antenna
covers are made from what type of
plastic?
Reinforced plastic.
What metal property allows it to resist
abrasion, penetration, cutting action, and
permanent distortion?
Hardness.
What metal property enables a metal to return
to its original shape after an applied force has
been removed?
Elasticity.
At what temperature does aluminum alloy
become a liquid form?
1,110 F.
What term is defined as the eating away or
pitting of the surface or the internal structure
of a metal?
Corrosion.
What property allows two metals to be
welded, brazed, or soldered?
Joining.
What are the three basic metal working
processes?
Hot-working, cold-working, and extruding.
What type of metal contains iron as its
principal constituent?
Ferrous.
What are the two most commonly used
methods of hardness testing?
The Brinell and Rockwell tests.
What are the two classes of wrought alloys?
Heat treatable and nonheat treatable.
What type of metal is used in the construction
of fire walls and fuselage skin adjacent to the
engine exhaust outlet?
Titanium alloys.
What measurement must be taken to
determine the Brinell number of a metal?
The diameter of the impression.
How does a Rockwell tester measure the
hardness of a metal?
Measures the depth of the impression.
The Riehle tester is designed for making tests
comparable to what bench type machine?
Rockwell tester.
What hardness tester is used for testing
aluminum alloys, copper, brass, and other
soft metals?
Barcol tester.
What type of plastic will soften when heated
and harden when cooled?
Thermoplastic.
What type of plastic will harden when it is
heated?
Thermosetting.
Plastic sheets should be stored in a bin and
must be tilted at least how many degrees from
vertical?
10 .
What are the three types of advanced composites
used on naval aircraft?
Graphite, Boron, and Kevlar®.
Solid rivets are classified according to what
three factors?
Size, material, and head shape.
A rivet with the code number MS 20426 has
what type of rivet head?
Countersunk.
What code identifies a rivet with a plain head
marking?
1100-F.
Rivets used primarily for joining magnesium
alloy structures have what alloy designation?
5056.
When space is too restricted to properly use a
bucking bar, what type of rivet should be
used?
Protruding head, and flush 100-degree countersunk head.
Hi-shear (pin) rivets are available in what
two head styles?
Blind.
What fastener has a shear and tensile
strength at least equal to the requirements of
AN and NAS bolts?
Lock bolt.
A 4002 series Camloc fastener consists of
what total number of principal parts?
4 parts.
What metal is used in the construction of
threaded pins of Hi-lok fasteners?
Cadmium-plated alloy steel.
Jo-bolts are available in what three head
styles?
100-degree flush head, Hexagon protruding head, and 100-degree millable
head.
How many threads must be extending through
the nut of a replacement bolt for it to be
considered the correct length?
Two.
What type of wrench is used to loosen
or tighten countersunk-head and
internal-wrenching bolts?
Allen wrench.
How many times can a self-locking nut be
reused?
It cannot be reused.
What type of nut is designed to be used with a
cotter pin or safety wire?
Castle nut.
What type of nut is used on an assembly that is
frequently removed?
Wing nut.
What three types of screws are most
commonly used in aircraft construction?
Machine, structural, and self-tapping screws.
What type of screw is as strong as a bolt of the
same size?
Structural screw.
Flush-head machine screws are available in
what degree(s) of head angle?
82- and 100-degree only.
What type of screw should NOT be used when
replacing an original screw in an aircraft
structure?
A self-tapping screw.
When should a ball socket and seat washer be
used on a bolt?
When bolts are installed at an angle to the surface.
When you install a hose between two duct
sections, what is the maximum allowable gap
between the duct ends?
3/4 inch.
If the correct torque value is not specified on a
Marman clamp, what manual should you
consult to locate the correct torque value?
Maintenance Instruction Manual (MIM).
Where space is limited, what type of fitting is
used to connect a cable to a quadrant?
Ball end.
A turnbuckle barrel with internal left-hand
threads can be identified by what means?
By a groove or knurl around the end of the barrel.
What is the total thread tolerance for a
turnbuckle assembly?
7 threads.
What type of cable guide should be used for a
small opening where a single cable passes
through a wall separating unpressurized
compartments?
Grommet.
What manual should you first consult when
replacing an aircraft wire?
Maintenance Instruction Manual (MIM).
What type of terminal is generally recommended
for use on naval aircraft?
Solderless crimped-type.
What device is used on naval aircraft to allow
the continuous satisfactory operation of
onboard electrical equipment?
Static discharger.
What are the two most commonly used types
of torque wrenches?
Dial or beam-indicating type and the setting type.
What manual provides torquing information
for a large variety of nuts, bolts, and screws
used in aircraft construction?
NAVAIR 01-1A-8.
What is the purpose of a cotter pin?
A cotter pin is used to secure bolts, nuts, screws, and pins.
How many different methods are used to
secure a turnbuckle?
Two.
How many pieces of safety wire are used to
secure a turnbuckle using the wire-wrapping
method?
Two.
A soft-faced hammer is known by what name?
Mallet.
When rivets are too long for repair, you can
size them to the correct length with what tool?
Rotary rivet cutter.
What must you use to form a bucktail on a
rivet?
Bucking bar.
Locally manufactured bucking bars are
normally made from what type of steel?
Tool steel.
To transfer hole locations from the airframe
or skin to a patch, you should use what tool?
Hole finder.
What is the color of a 1/8-inch Cleco
fastener?
Copper.
What is the difference between snips and
shears?
Normally, shears are used to cut heavier gauge metal.
What are the five types of pneumatic riveters?
One-shot gun, fast-hitting gun, slow-hitting gun, corner gun, and squeeze
riveter.
What rivet gun is generally used for heavy
hitting, and under suitable conditions, is the
fastest method of riveting?
One-shot gun.
What will happen if you apply too much
pressure to the drill?
It can cause the drill to side slip and the hole to be elongated.
Most pneumatic drills are powered by what
type of motor?
Vane air.
A flexible shaft drill is also known by what
other name?
Snake drill.
The combination of bending and stretching of
metal, using male and female dies, forms
what type of countersink?
Dimple.
Why is it necessary to use a hot dimpling
process for aluminum alloys?
Aluminum alloys are subject to cracking when formed.
Portable power-operated snips are more
commonly referred to by what name?
Unishears.
What sheet metal equipment would you use to
fabricate a wire edge?
Bar folder.
What brake has removable steel fingers of
varying widths?
Box and pan brake.
What is the most commonly used layout fluid?
Bluing fluid.
What is the only thing you should use a
scriber for when laying out aluminum or
magnesium?
To indicate where the metal is to be cut or drilled.
The amount of material consumed in the
bending process is known by what term?
Bend allowance.
What is the outside dimension of the formed
part called?
Base measurement.
The setback is the combination of the metal
thickness and what other factor?
Radius.
Machines used to cut sheet metal are
classified into what two groups?
Power and manual operated.
When using a vise and forming blocks to
manually form a part, what are the three
materials that the mallet you use must be
made from?
Rubber, plastic, or rawhide.
When you cut sheet metal, how much should
you add to allow for trim?
1/4 in.
Before making any bends on the layout, what
should you do to make sure the brake settings
are right?
Use a piece of scrap metal.
How many adjustments must be checked on
the bar folder before you can properly bend
and fold metal?
Two.
To form cylindrical or conical shapes, you
should use what machine?
Slip-roll forming machine.
What machine should you use to make a
groove on a bucket?
Beading rolls.
What determines the minimum rivet
diameter?
The thickness of the metal being riveted.
What is the Navy standard countersink
angle?
100°.
A CP350 blind rivet tool is used to pull what
type of rivet?
Huch rivet.
When drilling out a self-plugging rivet, what
size drill bit would you use to drill a 1/8-inch
rivet?
No. 31 drill bit.
After cleaning the damaged area of an
aircraft, what is the next step in the repair
process?
Inspect for secondary damage.
What kind of damage can turn into permanent
damage if not properly treated?
Corrosion damage.
Damage caused by tools, bolts, rivets, and
nuts left adrift is known as what type of
damage?
Foreign object damage.
What type of damage can be identified by
loosened, sheared, or popped rivets?
Stress.
When inspecting an area for damage, you
should always check rivet and bolt holes for
what condition?
Elongation.
What type of test should always be performed
on metal after a fire has occurred?
Hardness test.
If you suspect a crack exist, what type of
inspection should you perform?
Nondestructive inspection.
Small cracks that can be stop-drilled, dents,
scratches, or other minor damage that does
not require major repair or replacement and
does not restrict flight status is defined as
what type of damage?
Negligible damage.
Damage that cannot be repaired by any
practical means is defined as what type of
damage?
Damage requiring replacement.
The major requirement on making a repair is
to ensure you duplicate what condition?
Strength of the original part or structure.
The process of interpreting and transcribing
of information from blueprints, drawings, and
written instructions for the metal to be made
into aircraft parts is known by what term?
Layout.
If you are required to fabricate multiple parts
of the same dimensions, what can you use to
ensure a higher degree of uniformity and
speed production?
A template.
What can you use to maintain aerodynamic
smoothness when repairing negligible
damage, steps, and gaps?
Aerodynamic filler.
What step must you take before applying a lap
patch over a crack?
Stop-drill both ends of the crack.
As a general rule, when you make a flush
patch, what is the maximum clearance
between the skin and the filler?
1/32 in.
When making a repair over an internal
structure, what rivet pattern must you use?
The existing rivet pattern.
The main spanwise members designed
primarily to take bending loads on the wing
or other airfoils are known as what type of
members?
Spars.
What structural members are designed to give
the airfoil shape and rigidity?
Ribs.
What structural member runs fore-and-aft
along the length of the fuselage and is
continuous across frames and bulkheads?
Longeron.
The self-sealing fuel cells now in naval
service are made up of what total number of
primary layers of material?
Four.
What is the main advantage of a bladder-type
fuel cell over a self-sealing fuel cell?
Less total weight.
When applying the nylon barrier of a
rubber-type bladder fuel cell, you should use
what method of application?
Brush, swab, or spray.
The milled skins of an integral fuel cell are
normally fastened to the aircraft by what
means?
Bolts.
A fuel leak that reappears 30 minutes after it
is wiped dry is classified as what category of
leakage?
Seep.
What is the first step you should take to stop a
fuel leak in an integral fuel cell?
Retorque all fasteners 6 inches on either side of the leak.
To allow the gun piston to return before
another cycle can begin, the trigger of a
sealant injector gun must be released
approximately how often?
Every 30 seconds.
What gas is used to pressure test a repair
made on an integral fuel cell?
Nitrogen.
What are cracks and small surface fissures in
transparent plastic materials called?
Crazing.
What should you use to clean excessive
masking paper adhesive residue from plastic?
Aliphatic naphtha.
What is normally used to measure scratches
on plastic materials?
Optical micrometer.
To sand out scratches in transparent plastic,
what is the maximum coarse number of
abrasive paper that you may use?
No. 240A.
What substance is often applied to the buffing
wheel in place of, or in addition to, a buffing
compound that acts similar to wax to fill
hairline scratches and provides a high gloss
to plastic surfaces?
Plain tallow.
How many times greater will plastics expand
and contract as compared to metal?
Three (3) times greater.
When repairing the surface of reinforced
plastics and sandwich construction laminates,
what should you use over the build-up
repair area to work out the excess resin and
air bubbles?
Cellophane.
In addition to the stepped method, what other
method of repair may be used to ply damage
to solid laminates?
Scarfed method.
What type of coating is frequently used to
protect frontal surfaces of reinforced plastics
exposed to high speeds?
Rain erosion coating.
A hole, break, or crack in one or both facings,
resulting in damage to the honeycomb/core, is
referred to as what type of damage?
Puncture damage.
What type of repair patch is normally used to
ensure aerodynamic smoothness on aircraft
control surfaces?
Flush patch.
Advanced composite materials consist of a
combination of what materials?
A combination of high-strength stiff fibers embedded in a common matrix
(binder) material.
What type of inspection is used to analyze the
extent of the damage and effectiveness of
repair to composite materials?
Nondestructive inspection.
What types of fibers are golden yellow in
color and are used in many secondary
structures replacing fiber glass or as a hybrid
with fiber glass?
Kevlar® fibers.
What is used as a single-ply arrangement of
unidirectional or woven fibers in a matrix?
Lamina.
Crazing and cracking of composite materials
by ultraviolet radiation is categorized as what
type of damage?
Environmental damage.
What type of damage inspection method is
limited to finding defects close to the surface
in composite materials?
Tap test.
What does a dark area on the developed film
indicate when viewing an X-ray of composite
materials?
A thinner area of a part.
"As is" damage is classified as what type of
damage?
Negligible damage.
Damage to the aircraft's skin that cannot be
allowed to remain "as is" is classified as what
type of damage?
Repairable damage.
Where can you find information about
structural damage classification, inspection
procedures, typical repair procedures, and
tool and materials lists?
The aircraft’s structural repair manual (SRM).
What is the classification of damage when
water gets trapped in a honeycomb area?
Class VII.
What enables you to identify and classify
aircraft damage by confining the repairs to
load-carrying requirements?
Repair zones.
What are the most critical zones in defining
aerodynamic smoothness of control surfaces?
Leading edges of wings and tails, forward nacelles and inlet areas, and
forward fuselages.
What is a good tool for removing small areas
of damage on laminates, although it has a
tendency to damage the honeycomb core?
A hole saw.
What type of dust and particles are
conductors, can cause shorts in electrical
equipment, and contaminate hydraulic systems?
Graphite.
When making bonded repairs, what materials
present health and fire hazards to personnel?
Solvents.
What types of composite material particles
and dust cannot be disposed of by burning
and must be packaged, tagged, and buried in
an approved landfill?
Carbon and graphite fibers.
What is the primary objective of any paint
finish?
To protect exposed surfaces against corrosion and deterioration.
How can you identify the paint system of an
aircraft?
A decal or stencil located on the right side of the aircrafts aft fuselage.
By what means should chemical or
mechanical paint removal be accomplished?
The mildest means possible.
What appearance should chemical paint
stripper have that indicates the paint is ready
to be removed?
Wrinkled appearance.
What treatment is an extremely important
part of the corrosion control process?
Chemical conversion.
What is the pot life of Epoxy-polyamide
primer once the two parts are mixed?
Eight (8) hours.
What type of evaluation should all personnel
receive prior to being assigned duties
involving the mixing and application of
polyurethane paint system coatings?
A preplacement and periodic medical evaluation.
What is the closest distance that unprotected
personnel should be allowed to newly painted
surfaces upon completion of the painting
operation?
Fifteen (15) feet.
For excellent adhesion, what is the
drying period for Elastromeric rain
erosion-resistant coating?
Seven (7) days.
Regarding painting specifications for letters
and numerals, how is the space measurement
between letters an numerals determined?
It is always one-sixth (1/6) of the height of the letter or numeral.
What are tactical paint scheme patterns
based on?
Optical principles.
What type of paint spray gun is designed for
small jobs?
Suction-feed type.
What is the probable cause if your paint spray
gun is leaking in the front?
The fluid needle is not seating properly.
What is the desirable distance from the
surface that you should hold the spray gun in
order to get the proper coverage and a smooth
coat of paint?
Between six (6) and ten (10) inches.
What may cause dusting and rippling in a
paint finish?
Excessive air pressure.
Basic sealants are classified in how many
general categories?
Three (3), pliable, drying, and curing.
What is used to apply Class B sealing
materials?
An extrusion gun and spatula.
According to NA-01-1A-16, who can perform
NDI inspections?
Certified personnel only.
What type of examination must a candidate
receive before selection as an NDI inspector
and annually there after?
Eye exam.
What is the minimum amount of experience
required from a technician who is currently
certified and engaged in NDI in order to train
and certify NDI operators?
3 years.
How often must active NDI technicians
recertify?
3 years.
How often must an NDI technician or
operator perform the methods in which they
are certified?
Two times a month.
How long must a NDI operator maintain
proficiency without being required to update
training for recertification?
6 months.
The original copy of the NDI certification is
held by whom?
The individual.
Who verifies the entries in the work center
supervisor's Technician/Operator work
record?
Quality Assurance (QA).
What command has cognizance over the NDI
program?
Naval Air Systems Command (NAVAIR).
What command provides training for all
NADEPs?
Naval Air Systems Command (NAVAIR).
Who is responsible for monitoring the NDI
programin activities under their cognizance?
Aircraft Controlling Custodians (ACC).
What activity is responsible for ensuring
compliance with qualification requirements
and enforcing the Industrial Radiation Safety
Program (RASP) requirements in accordance
with the RASP manual?
Intermediate Maintenance Activity (IMA).
What division is responsible for monitoring
the organization’s NDI training program?
Quality Assurance (QA).
What activity is responsible for requesting
NDI inspection on aircraft?
Organizational Maintenance Activity (OMA).
For a magnetic particle inspection to be
performed, a part must be made of alloys that
contain a high percentage of what material?
Iron.
When conducting a magnetic particle inspection,
the magnetic field is interrupted by
what factor?
Discontinuity.
Which method of magnetization is used to find
radial discontinuities around the edges of
holes and detect longitudinal discontinuities?
Circular magnetization.
When you inspect hollow or tubelike parts, it
is important to inspect what surface?
Inside surface.
What type of current should be used for the
detection of surface discontinuities?
Alternating current (ac).
To detect subsurface discontinuities, you
would use direct current with what type of
magnetic particle inspection?
Wet magnetic particle method.
The particles that are used in magnetic
particle inspections have what two characteristics?
High permeability and low retentivity.
The smallest particles are more easily
attracted to and held by what type of discontinuities?
Very fine discontinuities.
Fluorescent particles are widely used in wet
baths and are easily seen on dark backgrounds
when what type of light is used?
Black light.
What method of inspection is used to detect
flaws in areas that are not accessible or
favorably oriented for use by other test
methods?
Radiation (X-Ray).
X-rays can be a health hazard when
improperly used because of what factor?
They produce radiation.
What method of inspection uses vibration or
sound waves?
Ultrasonic inspection.
What inspection method is used to detect
discontinuities parallel to the test surface on
materials one-half inch thick or greater?
Straight-beam.
What is the best inspection method to use
around fastener holes, cylindrical components,
and welds?
Angle-beam.
What ultrasonic method is used to detect
surface cracks and subsurface discontinuities
in field activities?
Surface wave.
Electric currents that are induced in a
conductor of electricity by a reaction with a
magnetic field are known as what type of
currents?
Eddy currents.
What type of coil has the ability to better
define the exact location of discontinuities?
Surface coil.
A simple, inexpensive, and reliable method
for detecting discontinuities that are open to
the surface is known as what type of inspection?
Dye penetrant.
Welding training and testing are conducted at
what facilities?
Naval Aviation Depot (NADEP).
What is the recertification interval for
IMA-level aeronautical equipment welders if
proficiency is maintained?
3 years.
If you fail the first test weld(s), what amount
of time do you have to submit the retest welds
after notification of failure?
30 days.
What are the two main purposes of the
welding torch?
To properly mix the gasses and direct the flame against the part to be welded.
What is the temperature range of acetylene
when mixed with oxygen?
5,700 to 6,300°F.
What are the three main characteristics of
oxygen?
Odorless, colorless, and slightly heavier than air.
If an oxygen bottle has a white band around it,
what type of oxygen does it contain?
Breathing oxygen.
What pressure does the low pressure (0 to 500
psi) gauge on a single-stage regulator
indicate?
Working pressure.
Acetylene is colorless, but has what feature
that makes it easily detected?
A distinct odor.
At what pressure does acetylene become
self-explosive?
29.4 psi.
What is another name for a low-pressure
welding torch?
Injector.
What color is the acetylene hose on an
oxyacetylene welding system?
Red.
The thread fittings for the oxygen hose
hookup of an oxyacetylene welding system
always have what type of threads?
Right-handed threads.
Regardless of the shade of your welding
goggle's lens, they should be protected by
what type of material?
Clear cover glass.
Bronze and aluminum welding rods are
examples of what type of welding rods?
Nonferrous.
What type of flame has three distinct zones
and is used to weld nickel alloys?
Carburizing flame.
What type of flame has a small, white pointed
cone in the inner zone with a purple tinge and
is used to fuse brass and bronze?
Oxidizing flame.
An overheated welding tip, accompanied by a
popping sound, indicates what action has
occurred?
Backfire.
Define the term “flashback” as it applies to a
welding torch.
Flashback is the burning of gases within the torch.
When the torch is held properly, the tip should
be in line with what structure?
The joint to be welded.
What welding technique is the best method for
welding lighter metals?
Forehand method.
Tee and lap joints are classified as what type
of welds?
Fillet welds.
Corner and butt joints are classified as what
type of welds?
Groove welds.
What type of joint is formed when two pieces
of metal are placed edge-to-edge with no
overlap and welded together?
Butt joint.
What type of joint is formed when two pieces
of metal are welded approximately
perpendicular to each other?
Tee joint.
What type of joint is formed by welding two
overlapping metals together?
Lap joint.
What type of joint is formed when two or more
parallel or nearly parallel pieces of metal are
welded together?
Edge joint.
What type of electrode is used in GTA welding
because of its ability to resist high
temperatures?
Tungsten alloy.
DC reverse polarity in a welding machine
causes a greater concentration of heat in
what location?
At the electrode.
Directional and distributional control of the
shielding gas is provided by what
component?
Gas cups.
What is the most common type of shielding
gas used in the tungsten-arc welding process?
Argon.
When striking an arc, you should hold the
electrode what distance above the work
piece?
1/8 inch.
The process that uses a consumable wire
electrode is known as what type of welding?
Gas Metal Arc (GMA).
What determines the melting rate of the filler
wire?
Current level.
When you use the GMA welding method to
weld aluminum, what is the preferred
shielding gas?
Helium.
When you use the GMA welding method, why
should you pull the gun back quickly when
contact is made between the electrode and the
work piece?
To prevent sticking.
If you hear a loud crackling sound while you
are GMA welding, what direction should you
move the wire-feed speed dial to correct this?
Counterclockwise.
When using GMA welding equipment, where
should you attach the ground connection?
Ensure it is firmly attached to the work piece.
When GMA welding equipment is not in use,
what should you do to the power source?
Completely disconnect it.
What is the only metal that cannot be
hardened by heat-treatment?
Pure metal.
Uneven heating of metal often causes what
actions to occur?
Distortion and cracking.
The slow heating of metal ensures what condition?
Uniformity.
The heating rate for hardened tools and parts
should be slower than metals that are in what
condition?
Not in a stressed condition.
What is the process of holding a metal at a
temperature until it is heated throughout and
changes have had time to take place?
Soaking.
How can you reduce the distortion and
cracking of metal?
Preheating.
The process for rapidly cooling heated metal
is known by what term?
Quenching.
Alloy steels are generally hardened by
cooling with what substance?
Oil.
The form of heat-treatment used to reduce
residual stresses, induce softness, and alter
ductility is known by what term?
Annealing.
The process in which an iron-based metal is
allowed to cool at room temperature, in still
air, after being heated to approximately
100°F is known by what term?
Normalizing.
The process of quenching a metal after it is
heated to a temperature slightly above the
critical temperature is known by what term?
Hardening.
The process by which steel is heated to just
below critical and held there for a period of
time, and then cooled with oil, water, or brine
is known by what term?
Tempering.
What is the process of producing a hard case
over a tough core known as?
Case hardening.
The process of hardening steel by introducing
carbon to the heated metal is known by what
term?
Carburizing.
The process of hardening alloy steel by holding
it at temperatures below the critical point
in anhydrous ammonia is known by what
term?
Nitriding.
The carbon in steel, which exists as particles
of iron carbide, scattered throughout the iron
mixture is known by what term?
Ferrite.
If the cooling is slow, the carbon particles are
relatively course and few. In what condition
will this leave the steel?
A soft condition.
Before steel can be hardened completely, it
must be heated to a certain point, before it is
rapidly quenched. What is this point called?
Upper critical point.
If you don't have an instrument to determine
the temperature of steel being heated, you can
judge it by what factor?
Its color.
What term describes an aluminum alloy with
a protective coating of aluminum?
Alclad.
What increases artificially aged alloys' resistance
to corrosion?
They are slightly overaged.
What is the recommended time interval between
removal from the heat and immersion
during the quenching process?
10 seconds or less.
Small aluminum parts are normally quenched
in what substance to ensure good resistance
to corrosion?
Cold water.
What quenching method is used to quench
large forgings to prevent cracking and minimize
distortions?
Hot water.
The process of removing the effects of
heat-treatment in alloys is referred to by what
term?
Annealing.
It takes a 2-hour soak at 750° to 800°F,
followed by a maximum cooling rate of 50°
per hour to 500°F to remove the effects of a
partial or full heat-treatment and obtain what
condition?
Maximum softness.
Aircraft wheels are made from what two
materials?
Aluminum or magnesium alloy.
What are the two general types of wheels used
on naval aircraft?
Divided and demountable flange.
On a demountable flange wheel, what holds
the flange in place?
A lockring.
What is the basic unit of an aircraft wheel
assembly?
The wheel casting.
All main landing gear wheel braking
components are attached to the wheel
casting. What do these components consist
of?
Brake drum or brake drive keys.
What are the two major causes of aircraft
wheel failures?
Corrosion and loss of bearing lubrication.
What solvent should be used to clean
bearings, bearing cups, wheel bores, and
grease retainers?
P-D-680, type II.
Before installing felt grease retainers, what
should you soak them in?
VV-L-800 oil.
During wheel installation, how far do you
back off the axle nut when the wheel no longer
spins freely?
One castellation (one-sixth turn).
Where can you find the procedures for
aircraft wheel installation?
Applicable MIM.
What activity determines wheel overhaul
requirements?
Intermediate maintenance activity (IMA).
To what manual should you refer to find
information on cleaning aircraft wheels?
NAVAIR 04-10-1.
A fuse plug can be kept in service if the
eutectic core material does NOT extend what
maximum distance above the surface of the
hex nut?
One-sixteenth (1/16) inch.
What grease should you use to repack wheel
bearings?
MIL-G-81322 grease.
What is the recommended method for
repacking bearings?
Pressure method.
Gouges, nicks, and pockmarks on the outside
ends of bearing hubs are considered
significant if they exceed what depth?
0.020 inch.
What part of the tire gives it tensil strength,
resistance to internal pressure, and the ability
to maintain its shape?
The cord body.
What is the most common tread pattern
design used on naval aircraft tires?
Ribbed pattern.
What term refers to a tire's maximum
recommended load for a specific type of
service?
Ply rating.
What is the final nondestructive inspection
method used for rebuilt tires?
Laser beam optical holographic method.
If only one numerical designation is used for
a tire, what does it refer to?
The outside diameter.
Where is tire-marking information recorded
after a tire change?
VIDS/MAF.
What does R or TR followed by a number on a
tire indicate?
The number of times the tire has been rebuilt.
All tubeless tires and tires with tubes must be
suitably vented to release trapped air if they
exceed what psi?
100 psi.
How are vent holes marked on tubeless tires?
A bright green dot.
What type of damage is caused by sunlight?
Ultraviolet (UV) damage.
A tire should be sent to AIMD or IMA if it
shows repeated pressure loss that exceeds
what percent of the correct operating pressure?
5 percent.
Tire slippage marks are what color?
Red.
How often should slippage marks on aircraft
tires be inspected?
After each flight.
What explosionproof, bead-breaking equipment
is intended for shipboard use?
Lee-IX.
An aircraft inner tube can still be reused up to
what maximum age?
5 years.
How are tubeless tires identified?
By the word tubeless on the sidewall.
During tire inflation, the setting on the
pressure regulator should NEVER exceed
what psi?
600 psi.
How often is a remote tire inflator assembly
required to be calibrated?
Every 6 months.
After inflating an aircraft tire, what is the
minimum time you must wait before checking
for a detectable pressure loss?
10 min.
A nonserviceable tire that has been "H"
coded is considered to be in what condition?
Nonretreadable.
What solution should be used to clean tires
that have come into contact with grease, oil,
and other harmful materials?
Soap and water.
What will cause a tire to wear faster in the
center?
Overinflation.
A type III tire is used with what type of tube?
Type III.
Radial vent ridges molded on the surface are
found on what type (s) of inner tubes?
Type III and type VII.
To prevent sticking, used tubes should be
dusted with what substance?
Talc.
Small leaks in tubes can be detected by using
what type of check?
Soapy water check.
If an inner tube is free of leaks and defects, it
is considered to be in what category?
Serviceable.
A nonserviceable inner tube that has bent,
chafed, or damaged metal valve threads
should be classified as what type of tube?
Repairable.
What is the primary use for MIL-H-46170
hydraulic fluid?
Preservative hydraulic fluid.
What is the temperature range of
MIL-H-83282 hydraulic fluid?
–40°F to +275°F.
Where do you annotate that you have mixed
hydraulic fluid in a particular aircraft?
Aircraft logbook.
What is the maximum acceptable Navy
Standard Class hydraulic fluid particulate for
naval aircraft?
Navy Standard Class 5.
What manuals specify how aircraft hydraulic
fluid sampling is conducted?
Applicable MIM’s or MRC’s.
What are the four approved lubricants to be
used on O-ring seals?
MIL-H-5606, MIL-H-83282, MIL-H-46170, and MIL-G-81322.
What type of contamination is most often
found in aircraft hydraulic systems?
Particulate contamination.
What unit of measurement is used for
particulate matter?
Microns.
Oxidation of hydraulic fluid can produce
what type of contaminants?
Organic solid contamination.
Most metallic contamination in a hydraulic
system is produced by what component?
Hydraulic pumps.
The presence of air in a hydraulic system has
what effect?
Air causes a spongy response during system operation.
What two factors determine if a sampling
point is adequate?
Its mechanical features and its location in the system.
The internal porting of the sample point
should not impede the passage of particulate
matter up to what size?
500 microns.
What is the primary contamination measurement
method used at all levels of maintenance?
Patch test.
When is the best time to take a hydraulic fluid
sample?
Immediately after flight and before shut down.
Before taking a hydraulic fluid sample from a
hydraulic test stand, you must recirculate the
fluid for how long?
5 minutes.
How many samples should you take from each
sampling point?
Two.
When sampling hydraulic fluid, what size test
filter should you use?
47-mm filter.
An aircraft’s hydraulic systems should be
operated a minimum of how many complete
cycles while undergoing recirculation
cleaning?
15 cycles.
Hydraulic test stands used for system flushing
must be equipped with a 3-micron absolute
filters and have an internal reservoir that
holds how many gallons?
16 gallons.
Whenever possible, purging operations
should be accomplished at what activity?
NADEP (Naval Aviation Depot).
Considering maintenance man-hours and
material requirements, what is the most
effective decontamination method?
Recirculation.
What component is used to provide a means
of quickly disconnecting a line without the
loss of hydraulic fluid?
Quick-disconnect coupling.
When the quick-disconnect coupling is
disconnected, what component prevents the
loss of fluid and entrance of air?
A spring in each half closes the valve.
A hydraulic seal that is used between two
stationary items is referred to by what name?
A gasket.
High-operating pressures require what
components to be used with O-rings?
Backup rings.
A damaged O-ring storage envelope should
be repaired with what type of tape?
Moistureproof, pressure-sensitive tape.
Tools used for installing and removing
O-rings should be made from what material?
Soft metal.
What is the shelf life of Teflon® backup rings?
Teflon® backup rings do not have a shelf life.
What is the purpose of a wiper in an exposed
piston shaft installation?
To clean and lubricate.
What three factors contribute to fluid loss in a
hydraulic system?
Leakage, system maintenance, and malfunction.
What are the three types of hydraulic SE used
in the Navy?
Portable, fluid dispensing, and stationary.
What size filter does the H-250-1 hydraulic
servicing unit use?
3-micron (absolute).
What is the holding capacity of the integral
reservoir of a HSU-1 servicing unit?
2 gallons. The total capacity of the unit is 3 gallons when a 1 gallon can is mounted to the unit.
On the HSU-1 servicing unit, the sight gauge
reads from0 to 2 gallons in what increments?
1/4-gallon increments.
What size filter is used on the Model 310
servicing unit?
3-micron (absolute).
What is the length of the service hose of a
Model 310 servicing unit?
15-foot service hose.
What are the three most common types of fluid
level indicators?
Sight glass, gauge, and piston-style.
All support equipment must be maintained
according to what publications?
The applicable MIMs and MRCs.
What is the purpose of a portable hydraulic
test stand?
They can be connected to an aircraft hydraulic system to provide power
normally obtained from the aircraft hydraulic pumps.
What is the power source of the A/M27T-5
portable hydraulic power supply unit?
Model 3-53 Detroit diesel engine.
What is the purpose of the emergency stop
handle on the A/M27T-5 unit?
Used for emergency diesel engine shutdown.
What is the range of the high-pressure gauge
on the A/M27T-5 unit?
0 to 6000 psi.
What is the main difference between the
A/M27T-5 unit and the A/M27T-7 unit?
The A/M27T-7 is powered by an electric motor.
What publication supplies detailed
information on the A/M27T-7 unit?
NA 17-15BF-91.
At what level should the reservoir of a
hydraulic test stand be maintained?
Three-fourth full.
After you start a hydraulic test stand, what is
the first thing you must do?
Allow the engine to warm up to its normal operating temperature.
What actions must be taken prior to
connecting a hydraulic test stand to an
aircraft?
Recirculation cleaning, deaeration, and fluid sample analysis.
Once you have the hoses connected to the
aircraft, what action must you take prior to
applying hydraulic power to an aircraft?
Check the aircraft reservoir levels.
What component is used to adjust the
operating pressure of a hydraulic test stand?
Pump compensator.
What is the purpose of a stationary hydraulic
test stand?
Used for shop-testing hydraulic system components.
Stationary hydraulic test stands are used at
what levels of maintenance?
Intermediate and depot.
Other than hydraulic components, what other
types of components can be tested on the
HCT-10?
Pneumatic components.
What three things must be externally connected
to the HCT-10 unit for it to operate?
Electrical power, water, and compressed air.
How many different test circuits does the
HCT-10 unit have?
Three test circuits.
What test circuit is used to test double-acting
hydraulic cylinders?
Dynamic test circuit.
What component on the HCT-10 prevents
operation when the door of the test chamber is
open?
Safety interlock.
Where is the nonbypass filter installed on a
support equipment unit used to test or service
an aircraft hydraulic system?
Upstream of the major fluid discharge port.
What can be used in place of an approved
metal closure to protect fittings on a hydraulic
test stand?
Clean, adequately secure polyethylene bag.
What is the purpose of air bleeding a piece of
hydraulic support equipment?
It allows entrapped air to escape from a closed hydraulic system.
What is one method used to keep air from
being introduced into a hydraulic system
when you are replacing a component?
Prefilling replacement components with new, filtered hydraulic fluid.
What function must be accomplished prior to
connecting a test stand to an aircraft?
Self-recirculation cleaning.
What cleaner is used to clean all sampling
points on a hydraulic test stand?
MIL-PRF-680.
Howmuch fluid must you drain froma hydraulic
test stand before you can take a sample?
One quart.
How many different methods are there for
decontaminating a hydraulic system?
Four.
What size filter does the hydraulic fluid pass
through before entering the purifier tower
during purification cleaning?
25-micron (absolute) filter.
What decontamination method would
you use for support equipment that is
heavily contaminated with particulate
matter?
Flushing.
What decontamination method is NOT
authorized at organizational and
intermediate level maintenance?
Purging.
What are the two basic types of hose used in
military aircraft and related equipment?
Synthetic rubber and Teflon®.
What material is used to cover a Teflon®
hose?
Braided stainless steel wire.
How is a synthetic rubber hose identified?
Indicator stripe and markings stenciled along the length of the hose.
A hose fitting consists of what separate parts?
Nipple, socket, swivel nut or flange, and the sleeve.
What color is an aluminum alloy 2024 hose
fitting?
Blue.
How are commercially manufactured hose
assemblies identified?
Identified by a band near one end of the assembly.
How are locally fabricated hose assemblies
identified?
Hose assembly identification tag or label.
What type of cover is used to protect a hose
assembly that is subjected to high
temperatures?
Firesleeve.
All hose assemblies manufactured in a shop
must have what test completed before they are
installed on an aircraft?
Either a hydraulic or pneumatic pressure test.
What is the first thing you must do when you
discover a swivel nut leaking?
Check for proper torque.
What is the acceptance life for a synthetic
rubber hose assembly?
Eight years (32 quarters) from the cure date.
What is the service life of a synthetic rubber
hose assembly that is exposed to the weather,
fuel, or heat?
Seven years (28 quarters).
How are rigid tubing assemblies sized?
Outside diameter and wall thickness.
What type of tubing is used in a high-pressure
hydraulic system that has 3000 psi or above?
Corrosion-resistant steel (CRES).
What type of tubing is used for
general-purpose lines?
Aluminum alloy tubing.
What color is a carbon steel tube fitting?
Black.
What manual must you refer to when
fabricating a tube assembly?
NA 01-1A-20.
What is the primary objective when cutting a
piece of tubing?
To produce a square end free from burrs.
What must be done to a tube immediately
after it has been cut?
Remove all burrs.
What is the primary objective when bending a
piece of tubing?
Obtain a smooth bend without flattening the tube.
What are the two types of tube joints used on
naval aircraft?
Flared and flareless.
What is used to lubricate the threads of a
hydraulic line prior to installation?
MIL-H-5606 hydraulic fluid.
What is the preferred cleaner for cleaning a
tube assembly?
Dry-cleaning solvent MIL-PRF-680.
The depth of a dent in a tube assembly must
not exceed what percentage of the tubing
diameter?
Twenty percent.
How many different types of repairs can be
made on a tube assembly?
Two, permanent and temporary.
What unit transforms hydraulic fluid pressure
into mechanical force, which performs work
by moving some mechanism?
An actuating unit.
Aircraft actuating cylinders are used when
which of the following mechanism movements
are required?
Linear or reciprocating motion.
If hydraulic pressure is used to move a
single-acting actuating cylinder in only one
direction, what force is used to move it in the
opposite direction?
Spring tension.
The operation of a single-acting,
spring-loaded, piston-type actuating cylinder
is normally controlled by what component?
A directional control valve.
Most piston-type actuating cylinders are of
what type?
Double-acting type.
An unbalanced, double-acting, piston-type
actuating cylinder uses a directional control
valve capable of directing fluid in what total
number of ways?
Four.
When the cylinder is in the down and locked
position, the locking ball bearings are held in
the locking position by what means?
A ball-lock plunger.
To equalize the displacement of fluid on either
side of the piston, a double-action, finger-lock
actuator incorporates what component?
An inner cylinder.
During normal extension of a landing gear
finger-lock actuator, what forces move the
piston over the fingers?
Hydraulic pressure and spring tension.
In a power-operated flight control system, all
the force necessary for deflecting the control
surface is supplied by what type of pressure?
Hydraulic pressure.
A tandem-type, control surface, actuating
cylinder uses a synchronizing rod for what
purpose?
To equalize the flow of fluid into the actuator piston chambers.
In the maintenance of actuating cylinders,
what is the most common trouble
encountered?
External leakage.
What type of motor converts hydraulic
pressure into rotary mechanical motion?
A hydraulic motor.
Hydraulic motors are commonly used to
operate what aircraft equipment?
Radar and wing flaps.
To relieve pressure created by thermal
expansion of the fluid, a system that has a
balanced poppet-type selector valve must also
incorporate what other type of valve?
A thermal relief valve.
The poppets of a poppet-type selector valve
are actuated by what means?
The cams on the camshaft.
When all four of the poppets of a poppet-type
selector valve are held firmly seated by the
springs and there is no fluid flow, the valve is
in what position?
The neutral position.
External leakage from a poppet-type selector
valve could be caused by what condition?
A damaged gasket under the sealing plug.
Currently, what type of selector valve is the
most durable and trouble-free?
The slide-type.
The slide-type selector valve has raised,
machined portions that are known by what
term?
Lands.
A slide-type selector valve has three grooves
at the end next to the eye. The grooves are
known by what term?
Detents.
A slide-type selector valve should have a light
film of hydraulic fluid applied to the exposed
areas of the slide primarily for what purpose?
To prevent corrosion.
A solenoid-operated selector valve is
controlled by what means?
Electrically.
A solenoid-operated selector valve directs the
flow of fluid to and from the actuator by the
use of what component?
The selector slide.
For the proper cleaning, inspection, repair,
and testing of selector valves, you should use
what series of NAVAIR manuals as a guide?
03 series.
When testing a solenoid selector valve, you
must bleed all air from the valve before
applying pressure for what reason?
To prevent a leak from going undetected.
What is the purpose of a check valve?
To allow fluid to flow in one direction only.
A bypass check valve differs from an
automatic check valve in what way?
It can be manually opened to allow fluid to flow in both directions.
In what two ways are sequence valves
operated?
Mechanically operated or pressure-operated.
What are the two types of mechanically
operated sequence valves?
Balanced and unbalanced.
Trouble associated with a mechanically
operated sequence valve is most commonly a
result of what problem?
Improper adjustment.
Isolation of the normal system from the
emergency hydraulic system is the main
function of what valve?
The shuttle valve.
Excessive heating of a shuttle valve is a good
indication of what type of problem?
Internal leakage.
An actuating units speed of operation is
controlled by what component?
A restrictor.
To retard the action of a hydraulic cylinder by
limiting the flow of fluid in both directions,
you should use what device?
A two-way restrictor.
What is the primary purpose of a hydraulic
fuse?
It is a safety device.
Hydraulic fluid entering a hydraulic fuse is
divided into two flow paths by what means?
The control head.