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257 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What species of wood is used as a standard for strength properties of other species of wood used in aircraft structures?
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Sitka Spruce |
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What type of wood quality must be used in the repair of aircraft structures?
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The wood must be aircraft quality |
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What is the difference between laminated wood and plywood?
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Laminated wood consists of two or more layers of wood glued together with the grain in parallel |
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What are the two types of glue used for aircraft wood structure repair?
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Casein and synthetic Resin Glue |
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What method is used to prepare plywood for bending?
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The wood is soaked in hot water and then place on a form until completely dry |
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What are the results of using insufficient gluing pressure when making a wood joint?
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Thick glue lines which indicate a weak joint |
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How long should a wood glue joint be kept under pressure before removing the clamps?
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at least 7 hours at a temperature of 85 degrees Fahrenheit |
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What are some of the various methods used to apply pressure to joints in aircraft gluing operations?
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Brads, Nails, Screws, Clamps, and Presses |
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Why does the strength of a scarf joint depend upon the accuracy of the two beveled surfaces?
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Because an inaccurate bevel will reduce the amount of effective glue area |
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What type of patch is preferred for repair of stressed plywood skin?
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A scarf patch. |
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Are mineral streaks acceptable in aircraft wood?
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Yes providing careful inspection fails to reveal any decay |
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How can the moisture content of wood be determined?
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Use a Moisture Meter |
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What area of a wood spar may not be spliced?
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Wing attachment fittings, Landing gear fittings, Engine mount fittings, and lift-and-interplane strut fittings |
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What type of joint is generally used in splicing structural members in aircraft?
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Scarf Joint |
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What is compression wood and why is it not acceptable for aircraft structures?
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Characterized by high specific gravity and has the appearance of excessive growth of summer wood. It is very detrimental to strength |
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What determines the required quality and strength of fabric that is to be used for covering aircraft?
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Determined by the pounds per square foot of wing loading and the never exceed speed |
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When are anti-tear strips' recommended, and where are they used?
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Used on aircraft with never exceed speeds in excess of 250mph. They are installed over the ribs under the surface tape. Recommended for the complete upper surface of the wings and the bottom surface that is in the slipstream |
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What is the maximum permissible deterioration of aircraft fabric before it is considered unworthy?
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30 percent |
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What should be the strength of the fabric used for re-covering an aircraft?
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At least as good as those originally used by the aircraft manufacturer |
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What is the purpose, location, and the method of installing drain grommets in aircraft fabric?
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Allow moisture to leave the aircraft as well as furnish ventilation. Located at trailing edges as close to the rib as practical and at the lowest point of each fuselage bay |
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What is the purpose of reinforcing tape?
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To prevent the stitching cord from cutting through the fabric |
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What type of fabric is not affected by moisture and mildew?
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Fiberglass Fabric |
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What methods are used to check the strength of doped fabric?
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Fabric Punch Testers or a Laboratory Test |
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What type of machine-sewed seams are used in aircraft covering?
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Plain Overlap seams, Folded-Fell seams, and French Fell seams |
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What should be done with structure that will come in contact with doped fabric?
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Treat with a protective coating such as aluminum foil, dope-proof paint or cellulose tape |
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If the original rib stitch spacing cannot be determined when re-covering an aircraft. What rib stitch spacing should be used?
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Use the Rib Stitch Spacing Chart in Advisory Circular 43.13-1B |
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What is the standard tie-off knot used during rib stitching?
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A modified Seine Knot |
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What do you call the edge of cloth, tape, or webbing that has been woven to prevent raveling?
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Selvage Wedge |
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The types of fabric used for covering aircraft are organic and synthetic. Name two organic and two synthetic fibers.
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Organic fiber are Cotton and Linen. Synthetic Fibers are Fiberglass and nylon |
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When covering aircraft, where is surface tape used?
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Sewed seams, lapped edges, and rib stitching or screws
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Name the safety and health precautions to be observed in operating a dope room, including storage of material.
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Well lighted and ventilated using spark proof motors, lights, and swtches. Flammable material should be stored in fireproof containers. The room should be isolated by metal partitions and fireproof doors. |
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What type of tests can be performed to identify existing paint finishes?
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Apply a coat of engine oil. Wipe down with M E K |
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What causes blushing, when applying dope or lacquer, and how can it be prevented?
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Humid Conditions, Rapid Evaporation of thinners. Prevented by heating the room or by using blush retarding thinner |
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What is the purpose of using fungicidal dope when finishing aircraft fabric?
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To Prevent Rotting of the fabric |
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What are the identification marking requirements for United States registered fixed wing aircraft?
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Capital N folowed by the registration number. 12 inches tall and 2 thirds as wide as they are high except for 1 and W and M |
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What are three types of dope used for aircraft finishes?
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Clear, semi-pigmented, and pigmented dope |
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What would happen if dope were used over paint or enamel?
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It would have the tendency to lift and remove such materials |
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What is applied to metallic surfaces as a corrosion resistant covering before the application of enamel or lacquer?
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Zinc Chromate Primer |
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What are the most common methods of applying aircraft finishes?
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They are dipping, brushing, or spraying |
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What type of paint may be used over any paint system that is in good condition?
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Epoxy |
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What is normally the cause of runs and sags in a spray paint finish?
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Holding the gun too long in one place |
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What causes an "orange peel" or "pebble" finish?
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The spray gun setting, incorrect air pressure, incorrect paint viscosity and holding the gun to far from the work |
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What is used to thin zinc chromate primer?
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Toluene |
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Which federal regulation prescribes the size and location requirements for aircraft identification numbers?
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FAR Part 45 |
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What type of materials should be thoroughly protected when using paint remover?
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Synthetic rubber surfaces, tires, fabric and acrylic |
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What is the grip length of a rivet?
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Combined thickness of the materials being joined |
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Where are special rivets, such as Huck or Cherry lock rivets, used?
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In places where access to both sides of the riveted structure is impossible |
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What is bonded honeycomb (sandwich) construction?
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It is a laminar construction consisting of a combination of alternating dissimilar materials
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What type of materials are used in honeycomb construction?
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Stainless steel, titanium, magnesium, plywood, resin impregnated paper, glass, nylon, cotton cloth |
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Where are sandwich construction assemblies used?
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bulkheads, control surfaces, fuselage panels, wing panels, radomes, empennage skins, or shear webs.
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6. What procedures should be used to prevent damage to the hole when drilling through plexiglass?
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Back with wood, slow the feed as the point breaks through, use a bit with a modified tip anlge |
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What calculation must be made when bending sheet metal?
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the degree of bend, radius of the bend, thickness of the metal, type of metal |
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What factors are used to determine setback?
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The radius of the bend and the thickness of the material.
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What is a joggle? |
A joggle is an offset formed on an angle strip to allow clearance for a sheet or extrusion.
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What are several methods used in forming sheet metal?
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Folding, bumping, crimping, shrinking, and stretching.
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What may cause plastic to craze?
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Stresses and harmful solvents |
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What rules apply for the replacement of 2017-T3 and 2024-14 rivets with 2117-T3 rivets?
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You may replace 2017-T3 rivets of 3/16 inch diameter or less, and 2024-T4 rivets of 5/32 inch diameter or less with 2117-T3 rivets for general repairs
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Briefly describe the anodizing process and what purpose it serves.
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Aluminum alloys are placed in an electrolytic bath, which causes a thin film of hydroxide to form on the surface. provides excellent resistance to corrosion, but it is also an excellent bond for paint
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What are the acceptable repair methods for bonded honeycomb structure that has been damaged?
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Potted compound repair method and Laminated glass fabric cloth overlay method |
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What size drill should be used for the common shank rivet diameters of 3/32 inch, 1/8 inch, and 5/32 inch?
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For a 3/32 rivet, a number 40. For a 1/8 rivet, a number 30. For a 5/32 rivet, a number 21.
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What is used for hole filling in a bonded honeycomb repair?
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Potting compound
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What type weld joint must be used to weld magnesium?
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Butt Weld |
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Why must all flux be removed from the metal after welding magnesium?
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Flux will cause corrosion |
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What must be done In order to successfully weld titanium?
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The weld zone must be shielded with an inert gas |
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4. What is gas shielded arc welding?
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Prevents the atmosphere from contaminating the weld |
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What are the advantages of gas-shielded arc welding?
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It results in a stronger, more ductile, and more corrosion resistant weld
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What is an advantage of electric arc welding over gas welding?
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It causes less buckling and warping of the welded material.
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What will be the result of using a torch tip that is too large or too small?
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too large the heat will be too great and holes may be burned in the metal. If the torch tip is too small, the heat provided may be insufficient to produce proper penetration
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How do you determine the correct size filler rod to be used in welding?
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By the thickness of the metals being joined. |
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What is brazing?
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Brazing is a metal joining process in which the bonding material is a non-ferrous metal with a melting point lower than that of the metals being welded
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What is one method of controlling expansion when welding a joint?
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By tack welding at intervals along the joint.
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Why is it especially desirable to use a soft flame when welding aluminum?
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To avoid blowing holes in the metal when the puddle is formed.
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What is the purpose of using flux when welding aluminum?
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flux is designed to remove the aluminum oxide by chemically combining with it.
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What is the maximum safe pressure for acetylene gas when welding?
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15 p s i |
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How can dents at a steel tube cluster joint be repaired?
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Weld a steel patch plate over the dented area and surrounding tubes |
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What type of flame should be used when silver soldering?
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A Neutral Flame |
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What are the procedures for preparing a metal fuel tank for welding?
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Washed, Steamed, and then filled with C O2 gas |
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When splicing tubing by the inner sleeve method, what method can be used to insert a tight fitting inner sleeve into the replacement tube?
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The sleeve can be chilled with dry ice or in cold water.
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What are three types of commonly used flight control systems?
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They are the cable, the push-pull, and the torque tube systems
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What is used in large metal aircraft to keep control cable tension within acceptable limits?
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Cable Tension Regulators |
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What is a fairlead?
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It is a cable guide used to guide cables in a straight line
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Where does breakage of control cables occur most frequently?
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where cables pass over pulleys and through fairleads
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Which flight control surfaces are considered the primary group?
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The elevators, the ailerons, and the rudder.
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Which flight controls are considered the secondary group?
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The trim tabs and the spring tabs.
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Which flight controls are included in the auxiliary group?
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wing flaps, speed brakes, spoilers, slats, leading edge flaps and slots
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How do wing flaps affect landing speed and approach angle of an aircraft?
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flaps increase the camber of a wing and therefore the lift of the wing making it possible for the speed of the aircraft to be decreased without stalling. This permits a steeper gliding angle
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What is a balance tab?
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It is an auxiliary control with fixed linkage. when the control surface is moved the tab moves in the opposite direction
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What is a trim tab?
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an auxiliary control attached to the trailing edge of a control surface that is positioned by movement of a cockpit control to balance the forces acting on the control surface.
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What is the purpose of the collective pitch control in a helicopter?
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It is used to change the lift (pitch) of the main rotor blades.
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What unit on a helicopter is used to compensate for torque created by the main rotor?
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The tail rotor.
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What control operates the helicopter tail rotor?
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The anti-torque pedals.
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What are the three axes of an aircraft, and which control surfaces cause the aircraft to move about each axis?
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Longitudinal axis is controlled my the ailerons, lateral axis is controlled by the elevators, and verticle axis is controlled by the rudder. |
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When installing an aircraft bolt, what precaution would you "take regarding the position of the bolt?
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The bolt head should be positioned on top or forward |
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How is propeller torque corrected for during assembly and rigging in some single engine aircraft?
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leading edge of the vertical fin offset to the longitudinal center line
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What reference publications should be used to rig an aircraft, including the control system?
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Aircraft Specifications, Type Certificate Data Sheets and Maintenance Manual
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What needs to be done to prepare an aircraft for an annual or 100 hour inspection?
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It should be thoroughly cleaned and remove or open all access panels |
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What is the difference between an annual and a 100-hour inspection?
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There is no difference |
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Who has the authority to sign off and return to service a 100-hour inspection?
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Airframe and Powerplant mechanic
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What are the operating conditions which make the 100-hour inspection mandatory?
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aircraft that carry persons for hire or is used to give flight instruction for hire.
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Where can you find a checklist for the 100-hour inspection?
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FAR part 43 appendix D |
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Where would you find the recommended statement for recording the approval or disapproval for return to service of an aircraft after a 100-our inspection?
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FAR Part 43 |
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Who can approve an aircraft for return to service after an annual inspection?
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An A&P mechanic who holds an Inspection Authorization
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Who can approve an aircraft for return to service after a progressive inspection has been performed?
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A certified mechanic holding an Inspection Authorization, the aircraft manufacturer, or a certificated repair station
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Does an aircraft being operated under a progressive inspection program require a 100-hour inspection if it is used to give flight instruction for hire?
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No |
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What are the privileges of a certificated mechanic with regards to propellers?
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may make minor repairs and alterations to a propeller. He is not authorized to make major repairs or major alterations
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What is the maximum time that a 100-hour inspection maybe extended?
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10 hours |
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What are two sources of power used to extend and retract landing gear?
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electrical and hydraulic.
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When should landing gear retraction checks be accomplished?
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During annual and other type inspections, after replacing landing gear components, and after any hard landing.
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What is used to inflate an oleo type landing gear shock strut?
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Inflate the strut with a high-pressure source of dry air or nitrogen.
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Where would you look to find proper tire inflation information?
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Operators Manual, the Aircraft Maintenance Manual and in special tire inflation pressure charts
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What is the purpose of a hydraulic shimmy damper?
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prevent nose wheel vibration or shimmy
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What type care should be given to landing gear shock struts?
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inspected regularly and the exposed portion should be wiped clean daily |
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What is the effect of under inflated tires?
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rapid or uneven wear at or near the edges of the tread.
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What is the purpose of the rubber packing mounted on the mating surface of the outer wheel half of a split type wheel?
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To prevent air leakage |
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What are three types of aircraft brake systems?
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independent, power boost, and power control type
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What is the purpose of a shuttle valve in a power brake system?
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isolating the emergency brake system from the normal brake system.
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What component in the landing gear system keeps the landing gear in alignment?
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Torque Links |
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What is used to prevent a nose gear from being retracted with the wheel out of the center position?
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Centering devices, such as an internal centering cam or an external track
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What is the purpose of the fusible plug in some aircraft wheels?
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designed to melt at specific elevated temperatures and relieve air pressure to prevent the tire from blowing out or breaking of the wheel.
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What is the purpose of the antiskid system?
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bring the airplane to a stop without skidding
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What are two methods of bleeding brakes?
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gravity method and the pressure method
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What are the three types of hydraulic fluid currently being used in civil aircraft?
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Vegetable base, mineral base, and phosphate ester base fluids.
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What is the color of mineral base hydraulic fluid?
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Red
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How do you determine which type of hydraulic fluid to use in a specific system?
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the aircraft maintenance manual, or on the instruction plate attached to the reservoir or unit being serviced.
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What will happen to the seals in a vegetable base hydraulic system if it is serviced with mineral base or phosphate ester base fluids?
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The seals will swell, break down, and block the system.
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When hydraulic lines have been disconnected, what precautions should be taken to prevent contamination of the system?
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capped or plugged immediately after disconnecting
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What happens to the hydraulic fluid flow if the filter element becomes clogged with foreign matter?
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There is a bypass valve
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Why are some hydraulic reservoirs pressurized?
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To ensure a positive flow of fluid
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What methods are used to pressurize hydraulic reservoirs?
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air pressure directly from the aircraft cabin pressurization system. Another method is an aspirator or venturi-tee.
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Name three types of hydraulic accumulators? |
diaphragm type, bladder type. and piston type. |
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What is the purpose of a pressure relief valve in a hydraulic system?
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limit the amount of pressure in the system |
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What is the purpose of an unloading valve in a closed hydraulic system?
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provide a low-pressure path for the fluid to flow from the pump back to the reservoir when the system has no flow requirements |
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What is the function of a wing flap overload valve?
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Prevent flaps being lowered at excessive airspeed |
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What protects a direct-pressure type hydraulic pressure gage from pressure surges? |
dampening device in the form of a very small restrictor |
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What are pneumatic systems used for in aircraft? |
operate brakes, open and close doors, starting, pump driving, and operating emergency devices. |
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What happens to the air when a unit in a pneumatic system is operated? |
The air is dumped overboard. |
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Why should a pneumatic system be purged periodically? |
remove contamination, moisture, or oil from the components and lines |
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What is the purpose of the relief valve in a pneumatic system? |
protects the system against over-pressurization |
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What is the principle control element in a cabin pressurization system? |
The cabin outflow valve. |
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What is the purpose of the negative pressure relief valve in the pressurization system? |
prevents accidentally obtaining a cabin altitude which is higher than the altitude of the aircraft. |
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What control changes the position of the outflow valve? |
pressurization controller |
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What are the two groups of independent cabin compressors?
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positive displacement compressors and centrifugal compressors. |
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What method is used by turbine-powered aircraft for pressurization? |
Bleed-air |
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What limits the degree of cabin pressurization? |
structural design features of the fuselage, and by the capacity of the superchargers to maintain a constant volume of airflow to the fuselage. |
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What are three methods of supplying heat to the conditioned air when the "heat of compression" is not sufficient for this purpose? |
Gasoline combustion heaters, electric heaters, and exhaust gas air-to-air heat exchangers. |
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What is the function of ventilating air in a combustion heater? |
carry the heat to the places where it is needed. |
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What are the sources for ventilating air? |
a blower, ram-air inlet, or cabin compressors |
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What are the components of an air cycle cooling system?
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expansion turbine, air-to-air heat exchanger, and various valves which control airflow |
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What causes a temperature drop in an air cycle cooling system? |
compressed air passes through the expansion turbine it performs the work of turning the turbine and undergoes a pressure and temperature drop. |
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What are the components in a vapor cycle (freon) cooling system? |
compressor, condenser, expansion valve, and evaporator |
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How do you determine the liquid level in a vapor cycle cooling system? |
Operate the system for approximately 5 minutes. then observe the flow of freon through the sight glass. A steady flow indicates that a sufficient charge is present. If the freon charge is low, bubbles will appear
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What is a continuous flow oxygen system? |
oxygen will flow continuously from the charged cylinder through a high-pressure line to the pressure-reducing valve, which reduces the pressure to that required at the mask outlets |
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What must be done if an oxygen system has been depleted and not recharged within two hours? |
must be purged with dry nitrogen or dry air and oxygen |
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How are high and low pressure oxygen cylinders identified? |
High pressure cylinders are green. low pressure cylinders are light yellow |
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What three flight instruments are normally operated from the pitot-static system?
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Airspeed indicator, Altimeter, and Vertical Speed Indicator |
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What instrument indications will result if the static pressure line becomes disconnected inside the cabin of a pressurized aircraft?
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The altimeter and airspeed indications will both be lower than normal, and the vertical speed indicator will indicate a momentary descent and then return to zero. |
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What is required after replacement of components connected to the pitot-static system? |
A leak test |
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What are the sources of power for gyroscopic instrument operation? |
by vacuum, electricity, or by air pressure
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What causes an electric driven gyro rotor to tilt when the aircraft is turned? |
Gyroscopic precession |
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What is used as a guide for range marking of aircraft instruments? |
Aircraft Specifications or Type Certificate Data Sheets and the specific aircraft Maintenance or Flight manual. |
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Where are instrument range marking placed? |
to the outer edge of the cover glass or over the calibrations on the dial face of the instrument. |
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What other type mark is required when range markings are applied to the glass instrument cover? |
An Index Mark |
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What is a synchro-type remote indicating system? |
electrical system used for transmitting information form one point to another |
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What type fuel quantity system is an electronic fuel-measuring device that accurately determines the weight of the fuel in the tanks of an aircraft? |
capacitor-type fuel quantity system |
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What is meant by "swinging a compass"? |
the adjustment of the magnets in order to reduce deviation |
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When inspecting a magnetic compass, the bowl should be filled with liquid and should not contain any bubbles or discolorations. What is the purpose of the liquid in the bowl? |
dampen the oscillations of the float. |
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Which instrument is used to indicate the speed of the crankshaft of a reciprocating engine and the speed of the main rotor assembly in a turbine engine? |
tachometer. |
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What type indicating system is used to indicate turbine engine exhaust gas temperature (EGT)? |
A thermocouple system. |
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What does the manifold pressure gage indicate when the engine is not operating? |
It indicates atmospheric pressure. |
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What is used to check a manifold pressure gage for correct indication when the engine is not operating? |
Either a barometer, or an altimeter |
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Name the basic components of a communication system.
|
microphone, transmitter, transmitting antenna, receiving antenna, receiver, and a headset or loud-speaker.
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What is the most common communication system in use today?
|
It is the VHF system
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Which radio system is used for long-range communication? |
The HF (High Frequency) system. |
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What is a transceiver? |
a self-contained transmitter and receiver which share the same power supply, antenna, and tuning |
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What are the components of a typical VOR system? |
A receiver, a visual indication, antennas, and the power supply |
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What are the basic components of an autopilot system? |
The gyros, the servos, and the amplifier. |
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What are the sensing 'elements of an autopilot system? |
directional gyro, turn-and-bank gyro, attitude gyro, and altitude control |
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What are the output elements of an autopilot system? |
the servos that actuate the control surfaces |
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What is the purpose of a bonding jumper on a radio shock mount? |
To provide a low-impedance ground return and minimize radio interference |
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What is the frequency of an Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT)? |
121.5 MHz |
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How can you determine when the batteries of an ELT should be replaced, even though the set operates? |
The useful life of the batteries is determined by the battery manufacturer, and the battery replacement date must be marked on the outside of the transmitter |
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Describe the proper method of routing coaxial cable from the antenna to the receiver. |
Secure the cables firmly at intervals of approximately 2 feet. they should not be routed or tied to other wire bundles. Be sure that the bend is at least 10* the size of the cable diameter |
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Where is the preferred location for mounting a VOR antenna on a small aircraft? |
on top the forward part of the cabin with the apex of the vee toward the front |
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Where should DME antennas be located? |
on the lower surface of the aircraft in a position that will not be blanketed by the wings when the aircraft is banked |
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What are marker beacons? |
Part of the ILS system, and are used to indicate the aircraft position on the approach to the runway. |
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What is the indication of the middle marker beacon? |
It is an amber light and an audible tone. |
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What is the purpose of a fuel dump system?
|
emergency system provided so that the flight crew can quickly bring the weight of the airplane down to the maximum landing weight if an emergency occurs |
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Other than reducing weight, what other function can be accomplished with a fuel jettisoning system? |
Fuel can be dumped from the heavy wing In order to maintain lateral stability. |
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What are two types of; fuel cells? |
Bladder-type fuel cells and integral fuel cells. |
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How is the weight of a bladder-type fuel cell supported? |
depends on the structure of the cavity in which it sits |
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What is "wet wing" construction? |
the fuel cells are built into the wings of the aircraft structure. They are not removable |
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What are the advantages of a single point pressure fueling system? |
greatly reduces the time required to service large aircraft. It eliminates aircraft skin damage from hoses and hose nozzles, and reduces the chances of fuel contamination
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What is the purpose of a fuel temperature indicator on a turbine engine? |
means for checking the temperature of the fuel in the tanks and at the engine to determine when there may be danger of ice crystals forming in the fuel. |
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What is the purpose of warning lights in connection with fuel systems? |
to indicate when the fuel pressure is too low, or to indicate when the fuel quantity in a tank is below a certain amount. |
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What are the four general types of fuel quantity gages? |
sight glass, mechanical, electrical, and electronic. |
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Which type fuel quantity gage is considered to be more accurate than the other types? |
The electronic-capacitance type |
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What is a cross-feed system? |
An interconnected fuel system designed so that fuel can be fed from various tanks to any engine |
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What is the purpose of the baffles in a fuel tank? |
To prevent the fuel from surging |
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How can a fuel tank be checked for leaks after a repair? |
By a pressure check and soapy water to identify the leak |
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What is the purpose of a circuit breaker? |
open the circuit when an overload exists & protect the wiring |
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What tool is used to measure the size of unmarked electrical wire? |
A wire gage |
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What are the colors of aircraft position lights and where are they mounted? |
A green light is mounted on the right wingtip, a red light on the left wingtip, and a white light is mounted in a position where it is visible from the rear of the aircraft. |
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What are the factors to be considered when selecting wire size for electrical power? |
Allowable power loss, permissible voltage drop, and current-carrying ability |
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When is a circuit breaker or fuse designed to open the circuit? |
before the conductor emits smoke. |
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What are the three most common faults that occur in an electrical circuit? |
open circuits, shorted circuits, and low power in circuits |
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What size electrical conduit should be used for a specific cable bundle? |
the conduit should have an inside diameter that is 25% larger than the maximum diameter of the conductor bundle. |
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When should electrical switches be de-rated from their nominal current rating? |
For high rush in circuits, inductive circuits, and DC motor circuits |
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When do DC electric motors draw several times their rated current? |
During starting. |
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What could cause an AC electric motor to run too fast? |
An excessive supply voltage or the motor field windings shorted |
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What could cause an AC electric motor to run too slow? |
Low applied voltage, defective wiring, or no lubrication. |
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How is the output voltage of an alternator controlled? |
By using a voltage regulator |
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What should be checked before any aircraft electrical load is increased? |
The associated wires, cables, and circuit protection devices |
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What is the main advantage of using AC for aircraft electric power systems? |
voltage of AC power systems is easily changed by the use of transformers. Reduces the weight |
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In AC power systems. How is DC obtained for battery charging? |
Rectifiers |
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How long should bonding jumper wires be made? |
As short as possible |
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What is the purpose of a brake anti-skid system? |
To permit effective braking throughout the landing roll, regardless of runway conditions |
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What does an anti-skid warning light indicate? |
indicates that the system is turned off or there is a system failure |
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What type of warning devices are usually provided for retractable landing gear? |
A red light or an aural device |
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When does the aural device operate in a landing gear warning system? |
When the throttle is retarded and the landing gear is in any position other than down and locked. |
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What type of position indicators are normally used to indicate that the landing gear is down and locked? |
Normally there is a green light for each gear |
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Which positions of retractable landing gear normally have a position indicator? |
The up and locked position and the down and locked position |
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When should you check landing gear switches, lights, warning horn, or buzzer for proper operation? |
During a landing gear retraction check. |
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How does a takeoff warning horn differ from a landing gear warning horn? |
The takeoff horn is intermittent, whereas the landing gear warning is continuous. |
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What items may cause a takeoff warning horn to operate in a typical transport jet aircraft? |
When throttles are advanced and these conditions exist: Speed brakes not down. Flaps not in the takeoff range. Auxiliary power exhaust door open. Stabilizer not in the takeoff setting. |
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Describe the operating principle of inflatable deicer boots. |
the tubes are inflated with pressurized air, and deflated in an alternating cycle. which causes the ice to break off |
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What are two methods of inflating pneumatic deicer boots? |
By a vacuum pump or bleed air |
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What methods are used to attach deicer boots to the leading edges of wing and tail surfaces? |
Bonding to the surface with cement, fairing strips and screws, or a combination of both |
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What is the purpose of an air-oil separator in a pneumatic deicing system? |
To remove the oil to prevent deterioration of the rubber deicing boots |
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What is used to clean deicer boots? |
A mild soap and water solution. |
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What must be done before you can make a cold patch repair to a deicer boot? |
The deicer boot must be relieved from its installed tension |
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What component of a pneumatic deicer system normally allows suction to be supplied to the boots for hold down in flight? |
The solenoid distributor valve |
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Describe the operating principle of thermal anti-icing systems. |
deice the leading edges by supplying much hotter than normal air |
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What methods are used to supply heated air for thermal anti-icing systems? |
Bleed Air, engine exhaust heat exchangers, and ram air |
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How is overheating prevented in a thermal anti-icing system using bleed air? |
A thermal switch will cause a shut-off valve to close and stop the flow of bleed air |
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In a thermal anti-icing system, what happens to the air after it has heated the leading edge of the wing? |
exhausted to the atmosphere |
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What problems are associated with electrically heated windshields? |
Delamination, arcing, scratches, and discoloration |
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What is windshield delamination? |
Delamination is the separation of the plies. |
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What does arcing usually indicate in an electrically heated windshield? |
there is a breakdown in the conductive coating |
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What type of power is used to operate windshield wiper systems? |
Electrical or hydraulic power |
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What are common problems encountered with windshield wipers? |
aerodynamic forces to reduce the wiper blade loading pressure on the windshield, causing ineffective wiping. achieving fast enough wiper oscillation. |
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How does a pneumatic rain removal system work? |
uses high pressure, high temperature engine compressor bleed air which is blown across the windshields to form a barrier |
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In what area of an aircraft would you find carbon monoxide (CO) detectors? |
Cabins and cockpits. |
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What color does a CO detector change to when carbon monoxide fumes are present? |
Green |
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What are two types of smoke detectors? |
Photoelectric and visual. |
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Where are smoke detectors used in the aircraft? |
cargo and baggage compartments |
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How are the thermal switches wired in a thermal switch fire detection system? |
in parallel with each other, but in series with the indicator lights. |
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Describe the operating principle of a thermal switch fire detection system. |
consists of one or more lights, which are energized by aircraft power when connected to the circuit by a thermal switch. thermal switches are heat-sensitive units that complete the circuit at a certain temperature. |
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Describe the operating principle of a continuous loop fire detection system. |
consists of one or more wires imbedded in a special ceramic core within an inconel tube. In case of fire or an overheat condition, the core resistance drops and current flows between the signal wire and ground, energizing the alarm system.
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How does a thermocouple fire detection system differ from the thermal switch system? |
A thermocouple depends upon the rate of temperature rise |
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What are two types of fire extinguishing systems? |
High rate of discharge system, and the conventional systems |
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What type of extinguishing agent is usually found in a HRD system? |
Halons |
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What type of extinguishing agent is usually associated with a conventional type extinguishing system? |
C O2 |
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What is the purpose of the yellow disk in a CO2 fire extinguishing system? |
Indicates a Normal Discharge |
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In a turbine engine freon fire extinguishing system, how are the bottles discharged? |
By an explosive discharge cartridge which is detonated electrically. |
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How is a freon fire-extinguishing system protected from temperature rises in excess of set limits? |
A high temperature valve will sense the overheat condition and rupture a safety disk. |
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How can you determine the service life of a fire extinguisher discharge cartridge? |
from the manufacturer's date stamp, which usually placed on the face of the cartridge. |
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What type hand-held fire extinguishers are available for extinguishing interior aircraft fires? |
water, carbon dioxide (CO2), and dry chemical extinguishing agents.33 |
