Avian

Front 1

Which statement is true regarding highly pathogenic avian influenza?

a. House sparrows experience 100% mortality (Zebra finches 100%). (Vet Path 2003)
b. Virus transmitted to zoo felids fed cooked chicken carcasses.
c. The virus causes subclinical disease in domestic cats.
d. Felid to felid transmission has not been reported.
e. Human to human transmission has been reported.

Back 1

e. Human to human transmission has been reported.

Front 2

Primary lesions in tigers and leopards that died from HPAI H5N1 were:

a. Hemorrhagic gastroenteritis
b. Encephalitis and myocarditis
c. Pneumonia and encephalitis
d. Interstitial nephritis
e. Hepatic necrosis

Back 2

c. Pneumonia and encephalitis

Front 3

Which statement is true regarding duck plague? (JWD 2001)

a. Epizootics most commonly occur in the fall.
b. Epizootics most commonly involve flocks of migratory waterfowl.
c. Birds surviving infection may become carriers.
d. Enzootic in non-migratory waterfowl.
e. Pintails are highly susceptible and blue-winged teal are resistant.

Back 3

c. Birds surviving infection may become carriers.

Front 4

. In which avian orders has avian vacuolar myelinopathy been reported?

a. Ciconiiformes, Anseriformes, Gruiformes
b. Falconiformes, Musophagiformes, Gruiformes
c. Anseriformes, Ciconiiformes, Gruiformes
d. Gaviiformes, Falconiformes, Anseriformes
e. Galliformes, Passeriformes, Falconiformes

Back 4

d. Gaviiformes (loons), Falconiformes, Anseriformes

Front 5

Which statement is true regarding Mycoplasma gallisepticum infection in birds?

a. Enrofloxacin and ocular gentamicin effectively eradicate the organism from house finches. (JWD 2001)
b. Nested PCR is an effective method for detection of MG but is less sensitive than culture. (JWD 2001)
c. House finches from the western US are highly resistant to infection. (JWD 2002)
d. American goldfinches are as susceptible as house finches to experimental infection (JWD 2005)
e. Adult birds are more severely clinically affected than juveniles. (JWD 2005)

Back 5

d. American goldfinches are as susceptible as house finches to experimental infection (JWD 2005)

Front 6

1. Nectar is: [JAMS 2000 14(2)]
a. Low in sucrose and fructose
b. High in amino acids
c. High in trace minerals
d. High in vitamins
e. Low in fiber

Back 6

e. Low in fiber

Front 7

2. Compared to other parrot species, low serum retinol and α-tocopherol concentrations are found in the: [JAMS 2005 19(3)]
a. Pesquet’s parrot
b. Hyacinth macaw
c. African grey parrot
d. Moluccan cockatoo
e. Red-lored amazon

Back 7

a. Pesquet’s parrot

Front 8

4. The structural colors in feathers are: (Ritchie, Harrison, Harrison)
a. Green and yellow
b. Yellow and blue
c. Blue and white
d. White and red
e. Red and green

Back 8

c. Blue and white

Front 9

6. Which statement is true regarding hemosiderosis in birds?
a. Low-iron commercial diets are available which have iron levels similar to wild diets and reliably prevent hemosiderosis in susceptible species. [JAMS 2001 15(3); JAMS 2001 15(4)]
b. The oral iron chelator deferiprone significantly decreased hepatic iron content in pigeons without adverse side effects. [JZWM 2004: 40-49]
c. Black tea leaves incorporated into the diet of starlings had no effect on hepatic iron concentrations. [JZWM 2003: 314-316]
d. Chronically high dietary iron in starlings may lead to significantly increased hepatic copper concentrations. [JZWM 2000: 491-496]
e. Diets low in iron can be used successfully to decrease hepatic iron concentrations in toco toucans diagnosed with iron-storage disease. [JAMS 2004 18(2)]

Back 9

e. Diets low in iron can be used successfully to decrease hepatic iron concentrations in toco toucans diagnosed with iron-storage disease. [JAMS 2004 18(2)]

Front 10

7. Crop milk production in Columbiformes is stimulated by: (RHH)
a. Thyroxine
b. Prolactin
c. Parathyroid hormone
d. Calcitonin
e. GnRH

Back 10

b. Prolactin

Front 11

8. Which of the following does not have an intromittent phallus: (RHH)
a. Canada goose
b. Ostrich
c. Tinamou
d. Flamingo
e. Black buffalo weaver

Back 11

d. Flamingo

Front 12

9. Egg incubators should be cleaned with: (RHH)
a. Gluteraldehyde solution
b. Formalin solution
c. Formalin gas
d. Potassium permanganate
e. Sodium hypochlorite

Back 12

a. Gluteraldehyde solution

Front 13

10. Which parasite causes diphtheritic proventriculitis and is significant cause of mortality in young ostriches?
a. Dicheilonema rhea
b. Chapmania tauricollis
c. Libostrongylus douglassi
d. Houttynia struthionis
e. Trichomonas gallinae

Back 13

c. Libostrongylus douglassi

Front 14

11. Which bacterial pathogen of ratites can be transmitted both horizontally and vertically?
a. Escherichia coli
b. Salmonella spp.
c. Pasteurella spp.
d. Mycobacterium avium
e. Clostridium spp.

Back 14

b. Salmonella spp.

Front 15

12. An inactivated equine vaccine is used with good efficacy in ratites to prevent disease from which virus?
a. Poxvirus
b. Influenza
c. Paramyxovirus
d. Eastern equine encephalitis
e. Herpesvirus

Back 15

d. Eastern equine encephalitis

Front 16

13. Regarding avian Mycobacteriosis, which statement is true? [JAMS 2004 18(1)]
a. Tubercular granulomas calcify in birds and can be easily observed on a radiograph.
b. Bone marrow involvement is an uncommon finding in raptors with mycobacteriosis.
c. Lymphocytosis is a common finding on the CBC of birds with mycobacteriosis.
d. A negative Ziehl-Neelsen staining of feces can be used to rule out mycobacteriosis.
e. Mycobacteriosis should be considered in any raptor with signs of CNS disease.

Back 16

e. Mycobacteriosis should be considered in any raptor with signs

Front 17

15. Which statement regarding kiwis is false? (fowler 5)
a. It is the smallest living member of the order Struthioformes.
b. It is the only bird species with the nostrils near the tip of the bill.
c. It has both R and L ovaries, but only one oviduct.
d. It has the largest egg in proportion to body size of any bird.
e. It has excellent eyesight, but a poorly developed sense of smell.

Back 17

e. It has excellent eyesight, but a poorly developed sense of smell.
-it is opposite: good smell, bad eyesight

Front 18

16. All of the following statements about ratites are true except: (fowler 5)
a. All ratites lack a crop.
b. The humerus is the only pneumatized bone.
c. All injections should be given in the thigh muscles.
d. They have 4 phalanges on each digit.
e. Their feathers have no barbules.

Back 18

b. The humerus is the only pneumatized bone. (NOTE its femur)

Front 19

17. All of the following are true regarding Sphenisciformes except:
a. None of the bones are pneumatic.
b. They lack apteria
c. Tracheal bifurcation occurs very proximally.
d. They are only found in the Northern hemisphere.
e. Lose up to 80% of body weight during molting.

Back 19

d. Penguins-They are only found in the Northern hemisphere.

Front 20

18. The most important cause of mortality in captive penguins exhibited indoors is:
a. Severe bumblefoot
b. Malaria
c. West Nile Virus
d. Aspergillosis
e. Interspecific trauma

Back 20

d. Aspergillosis

Front 21

19. Members of which avian order have external tubular nostrils? (fowler 5)
a. Coraciiformes
b. Podicipediformes
c. Gaviiformes
d. Apodiformes
e. Procellariiformes

Back 21

e. Procellariiformes (NOTE Petrels, Albatrosses, Fulmars)

Front 22

20. The following are true regarding Pelecaniformes except: (fowler 5)
a. They are the only birds that have all 4 toes connected by webbing.
b. The beak should not be held closed due to lack of patent external nares in some species.
c. Nitrous oxide is a useful adjunct to inhalant anesthesia.
d. Full thickness suture patterns should not be used on lacerations of the gular pouch.
e. Heavy infestations with pouch lice (Piagetiella sp.) can cause hemorrhagic stomatitis.

Back 22

c. Nitrous oxide is a useful adjunct to inhalant anesthesia.

Front 23

21. The following are true regarding Ciconiiformes except: (fowler 5)
a. Herons have a modified C6 that allows the neck to be bent during flight.
b. Storks are mute
c. Keep cool by defecating on their legs
d. Spoonbill and scarlet ibis require special dietary pigments for feather color.
e. Intubation is facilitated by the large size and anterior location of the glottis.

Back 23

e. Intubation is facilitated by the large size and anterior location of the glottis. (NOTE due to crista ventralis)

Front 24

22. Crop milk is produced by the members of which order in addition to Columbiformes?
a. Piciformes
b. Phoenicopteriformes
c. Cuculiformes
d. Pelecaniformes
e. Trogoniformes

Back 24

b. Phoenicopteriformes

Front 25

23. Which bird has a multi-compartmental crop that functions like a rumen?
a. Goatsucker
b. Barbet
c. Mousebird
d. Screamer
e. Hoatzin

Back 25

e. Hoatzin

Front 26

24. Which of the following statements regarding crop milk in pigeons is true?
a. Derived from glandular secretions of the proventricular epithelium.
b. Secretion is controlled by FSH.
c. Includes enzymes such as peptidase that aid in squab digestion.
d. Produced by males only.
e. Contains a considerable amount of IgG.

Back 26

a. Derived from glandular secretions of the crop epithelium.- epithelial cells
b. Secretion is controlled by FSH. -prolactin
C. ANSWER Includes enzymes such as peptidase that aid in squab digestion.
d. Produced by males only. -females
e. Contains a considerable amount of IgG. -no

Front 27

Which of the following viruses cause intranuclear inclusion bodies?
a. Circoviridae, polyomaviridae, poxviridae
b. Adenoviridae, herpesviridae, parvoviridae
c. Herpesviridae, polyomaviridae, rhabdoviridae

Back 27

b. Adenoviridae, herpesviridae, parvoviridae

Front 28

Which of the following is correct?
a. The paleopulmo includes the network between the ventrolateral bronchi and the caudal air sac.
b. The neopulmo is well developed in Galliformes and Passeriformes.
c. The paleopulmo is absent in emus and penguins.

Back 28

b. The neopulmo is well developed in Galliformes and Passeriformes.

Front 29

. Diarrhea in young pigeons is most likely caused by either
a. Heavy infestation of Eimeria, E. Coli or S. typhimurium
b. E. Coli, Capillaria, or paramyxovirus
c. Hexamitiasis, Capillaria, S. enteritidis

Back 29

a. Heavy infestation of Eimeria, E. Coli or S. typhimurium

Front 30

Which infection is most frequently found in GI tract of toucans?
a. Giardia
b. Capillaria
c. E. coli

Back 30

c. E. coli

Front 31

. Which of the following is correct?
a. Libostrongylus douglassi causes severe enteritis and mortality in adult ostriches
b. Libostrongylus douglassi eggs are drought-resistant
c. Levamisole is considered an effective treatment against Libostrongylus douglassi

Back 31

b. Libostrongylus douglassi eggs are drought-resistant

Front 32

The most common opportunistic avian mycobacteria include
a. M. avium, M. bovis, M. genavense
b. M. avium, M. intracellulare, M. tuberculosis
c. M. avium, M. genavense, M. intracellulare

Back 32

c. M. avium, M. genavense, M. intracellulare

Front 33

Nasal conchae, which is correct?
a. Rostral nasal concha is absent in quail
b. Epithelium of rostral nasal concha is mucociliary
c. Caudal nasal concha directly connects with the nasal cavity

Back 33

a. Rostral nasal concha is absent in quail

Front 34

What muscle extends from the clavicle to the trachea in ducks?
a. Cleidotrachealis
b. Sternohyoideus
c. Sternotrachealis

Back 34

a. Cleidotrachealis

Front 35

. The caudal thoracic air sac is relatively large in
a. Turkey
b. Pigeon
c. Hummingbird

Back 35

c. Hummingbird

Front 36

The increased length of the avian trachea (compared to mammals) is compensated by
a. Increased tracheal radius and high breathing rate
b. Slower breathing rate and great tidal volume
c. High breathing rate and great tidal volume

Back 36

b. Slower breathing rate and great tidal volume

Front 37

1. Which list is composed of air sacs that are paired in the majority of birds?
a. Caudal thoracic, cranial thoracic, abdominal
b. Caudal thoracic, abdominal, cervicocephalic
c. Caudal thoracic, cranial thoracic, clavicular

Back 37

a. Caudal thoracic, cranial thoracic, abdominal

Front 38

2. Which parabronchi is associated with the functional cranial air sac system?
a. lateroventral
b. medioventral
c. dorsomedial

Back 38

b. medioventral

Front 39

6. Which species has a trachea bifurcated by a median cartilaginous septum?
a. Penguins
b. Eider duck
c. Gannet

Back 39

Penguins

Front 40

4. How many nasal concha are typical in birds?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4

Back 40

b. 3 rostral, middle, caudal (most likely configuration in birds)

Front 41

7. How much more dead space is in a bird’s respiratory system compared to mammal of similar size?
a. 2 times
b. 4 times
c. 6 times

Back 41

4 times
d. Other facts: compensate for this by slower rate of breathing (1/3 that of mammal) and greater tidal volum (4x). Dead space is by long/wide trachea. Tracheas are longer and wider than in a mammal of same size.

Front 42

8. Which dz is the best match possible causes of rhinorrhea (clear nasal discharge)?
a. Chlamydia or mycoplasma
b. Acute trauma
c. Vitamin A def complicated with a gram neg bacterial infection

Back 42

a. Chlamydia or mycoplasma both obligate intracellular organisms that are hard to diagnose (potentially, less so with DNA tests)

Front 43

10. Which air sac doesn’t connect to a secondary bronchi?
a. Caudal thoracic
b. Cervical
c. Abdominal

Back 43

c. Abdominal it connects to a primary bronchi directly. All other air sacs connect directly to secondary bronchi.
i. Cranial air sacs to medioventral secondary bronchi
1. cervical sac = 1st
2. cr thoracic = 3rd
3. clavicular = 3rd and distal end of 1st medioventral bronchi
ii. caudal thoracic air sac = lateroventral secondary bronchi (gen the 2nd)
iii. Indirect connections also exist
1. all but the cervical have these
2. 3-5 lesser connection join sac to lung, branch and extensively anastamose with reg parabronchi in lung
3. Abd air sac has exceptionally large/numerous ones

Front 44

Regarding an outbreak of salmonellosis in a collection of lories & lorikeets (AV DZ 47-2/2003), which of the following statements is false?

a. There was a 22% mortality rate

b. Hepatomegaly, reddening and congestion of the lungs, and injection of the serosal surface of the intestines were the common gross findings.

c. Salmonella enteritidis. is organism usually in psittacine birds (prevalence low <1-2% in populations) followed by Salmonella typhimurium var copenhagen.

d. Histologic changes, including fibrinonecrotic hepatitis and splenitis, bacterial emboli (liver, spleen, lung, kidney, proventriculus), pulmonary congestion and hemorrhage, and enteritis, were indicative of an acute, overwhelming bacterial septicemia

e. Salmonella sp. survives for extended periods on wood, feces, and dirt and can live for 28 months in avian feces. Incubation period is 1 week.

Back 44

1. c—opposite

Front 45

2. Necrotic enteritis of chickens is caused by:

a. Campylobacter jejuni

b. Salmonella typhimurium

c. Clostridium perfringens

d. E. coli

e. Pseudomonas sp.

Back 45

2. c-Clostridium perfringens

Front 46

3. Regarding Clostridial infections of birds, which of the following is false?

a. Clostridium species are large, anaerobic, gram-positive, spore-forming rods that normally inhabit soil & gastrointestinal tract and can produce exotoxins.

b. Birds lacking ceca, such as raptors, Psittaformes, Galliformes, Anseriformes, and Struthioformes, may have clostridial organisms as part of the autochthonous flora.

c. Most psittacines lack ceca or have vestigial remnants. Clostridium in psittacines are aberrant and are either pathogens or transitory passengers.

d. Grossly, the small and large intestines are usually fluid distended with pinpoint to coalescing ulcerations covered by fibrinonecrotic membranes.

e. Penicillins, tetracyclines, metronidazole, clindamycin, or streptomycin to treat.

Back 46

3. b-Birds with well-developed ceca, such as raptors, (XX Psittaformes—NOT XX), Galliformes, Anseriformes, and Struthioformes, may have clostridial organisms as part of the autochthonous flora.

Front 47

4. Regarding Mycobacterial infections of birds, which of the following is false?

a. Differential diagnoses in raptors with multisystemic disseminated caseogranulomas include fungal diseases, such as aspergillosis, and bacterial diseases, including pasteruellosis, salmonellosis

b. Both M. avium and M. genavense are potentially zoonotic.

c. Avian tuberculosis differs from mammalian tuberculosis in that it is predominantly transmitted by the fecal-oral route, whereas mammalian tuberculosis is most frequently transmitted by respiratory routes and aerosols.

d. M. genavense grows rapidly and is easy to isolate, but M. avium requires acidification of the growth media and addition of supplements. PCR and sequencing of the 16s ribosomal RNA are optimal methods for M. avium detection.

e. Histologically, granulomas or caseogranulomas, associated with high numbers of acid-fast bacilli, are confirmatory lesions.

Back 47

4. d--M. avium grows rapidly and is easy to isolate, but M. genavense requires acidification of the growth media and addition of supplements. PCR and sequencing of the 16s ribosomal RNA are methods of choice for optimal M. genavense detection.

Front 48

5. Regarding avian cholera in waterfowl, which of the following is FALSE?

a. Avian cholera, caused by the bacterium Pasteurella multocida, is the most important infectious disease affecting North American waterfowl.

b. Occurs almost annually as acute epizootic at waterfowl concentration areas in Central Valley of CA, Rainwater Basin of NE, areas of TX & MN, & western Canada.

c. Although there are 16 different serotypes of P. multocida, type 2 is responsible for waterfowl mortality thruout Pacific, Central, and Mississippi flyways of North America.

d. White-fronted and lesser snow geese appear to be disproportionately represented in outbreaks, but other species such as northern pintail and mallards are recovered also.

e. Two hypotheses proposed to explain recurrence of avian cholera epizootics--P. multocida persists year-round in water, soil, or other reservoirs at specific wetlands; or carrier birds.

Back 48

5. c—Type 1

Front 49

6. Regarding Salmonellosis, which of the following is false?

a. Pullorum disease, (S. pullorum) & fowl typhoid (S. gallinarum) are diseases of poultry with economic impacts. Wild birds infected by paratyphoid forms(S. typhimurium).

b. Contaminated foods in rearing facilities are of importance for poultry. For wild birds, egg transmission & environmental contamination are primary source.

c. Intestinal microflora influences infection/disease in poultry. Small doses cause infection in 1st few wks. Then, infectious dose progresses higher (acquired microflora protect). Thus, high prevalence in colonial nesters chicks (gulls, herons), but lower adult rates.

d. Experimental studies with full-grown herring gulls disclosed rapid elimination of salmonella from intestines, thus they may be passively infected and are mechanical transport for movement of salmonellae from contaminated environments.

e. Prolonged use of sites by birds & high density of individuals at sites can result in cycles of salmonellosis within populations. Persistently contaminated environments from small % of birds (lifelong carriers) that intermittently excrete salmonellae into environment.

Back 49

6. b--Egg transmission & environmental contamination of rearing facilities are of importance for poultry. For wild birds, contaminated foods are primary source (such as birdfeeders).

Front 50

7. What is the cause of ulcerative enteritis or “Quail disease”?

a. Clostridium perfringens

b. Clostridium difficile

c. Clostridium colinum

d. Clostridium chauvei

e. Clostridium manubri

Back 50

7. c Clostridium colinum

Front 51

8. Which of the following is false regarding colibacillosis in birds?

a. Caused by Escherichia coli, with avian strains generally not important causes of infection for humans or nonavian species

b. Causative agent is common inhabitant of the intestinal tract

c. Disease is in gastrointestinal tract of birds, usually in conjunction with other infections

d. Lesions commonly associated with this disease include pericarditis & perihepatitis

Back 51

8. c-- Disease is in GI tracts of birds, usually in conjunction with other infections
-it usu affects respiratory tract

Front 52

9. Regarding mycoplasmal infections, which of the following is false?

a. Treatment options include--tylosin, erythromycin, tetracyclines, macrolides, aminoglycosides, or fluroquinolones

b. Transmission can be respiratory, venereal, transovarial, or in pigeons--via crop milk

c. House finches and American goldfinches are species in which mycoplasmal conjunctivitis is manifested

d. Birds either die from infection or clear within weeks

e. Mycoplasmas have no cell wall, and thus are resistant to antibiotics that inhibit cell wall development (penicilins, cephalosporins, bacitracin and sulfonamides), prefer to colonize the mucosa of the respiratory and/or genital tract, and require cholesterol for growth.

Back 52

9. d—carriers are common

Front 53

10. Regarding Yersinia pseudotuberculosis, which of the following is false?

a. replicates at low temperatures

b. 5 serovars, 1 &amp; 2 most common in birds

c. originated in northern Europe

d. In turacos, toucans, and barbets, usually manifests as acute death, pneumonia, hepatomegaly, and splenomegaly

e. In pigeons usually manifests as chronic liver, spleen, and cecal abscesses, while disease is rare in finches and psittacines

Back 53

e-- In pigeons usually manifests as chronic liver, spleen, and cecal abscesses, while disease is rare in finches and psittacines

In finches and psittacines usually manifests as chronic liver and spleen abscesses, while disease is rare in pigeons

Front 54

Regarding avian cloacas, which of the following is false

a. Cloaca comprises 3 areas –coprodeum, urodeum, & proctodeum. Coprodeum is largest chamber & connects with rectum. Urodeum is smallest chamber & contains entrance of ureters in its dorsolateral walls.

b. In female birds, the oviduct enters the left ventrolateral wall of the urodeum; in male birds, the ductus deferens open into the ventrolateral walls on each side of the urodeum.

c. The proctodeum, slightly larger than the urodeum, contains a dorsal opening to the cloacal bursa in young birds that regresses to an ostium after involution of the bursa.

d. A copruourodeal fold separates coprodeum from urodeum. During defecation, fold protrudes thru vent to prevent fecal contamination of urodeum & proctodeum.

e. Blood supply to cloaca is via peroneal artery & vein. Nervous supply to cloaca is peroneal nerve that travels parallel to ureter to dorsolateral cloacal wall; at cloacal wall peroneal nerve forms cloacal plexus.

Back 54

1. e--Blood supply to cloaca is via the pudendal artery & vein. Nervous supply to cloaca is pudendal nerve that travels parallel to ureter to dorsolateral cloacal wall; at cloacal wall pudendal nerve forms cloacal plexus.

Front 55

2. Name 3 birds that produce “crop milk” or a substance with a similar purpose. What type of cell create the product, and what is unique about this product versus mammalian milk?

Back 55

2. columbiformes, flamingos, emperor penguin; desquamated fat laden cells for 1st & 3rd, merocrine glands for #2, no carbohydrates or calcium

Front 56

4. Explain how koilin is produced and what it is.

Back 56

4. Cuticle (koilin layer)—CHO-protein complex, thickest opposite dark muscles, scaffolding of interconnecting vertical rods in horiz matrix, matrix madefrom crypt cells and epi—doesn’t harden immediately, but does so d/t pH fall, cuticle wears down and replaced, yellow or green d/t trapped regurged bile pigments from duodenum, cuticle softer in less developed vents

Front 57

6. What is:
a. Meckel’s) diverticulum
b. supraduodenal loop
c. supracecal loop (what birds have these?)

Back 57

6. What is:
a. Meckel’s diverticulum--vestigal yolk sac/duct, division of jejunum & ileum, yolk resorbs by 10th day post-hatch, on axial loop, opposite distal braches of cr mesenteric artery
b. supraduodenal loop—most distal ileum, immediately dorsal to duodenum
c. supracecal loop—most distal ileum in pelicans, penguins, falcons

Front 58

7. How are cecal droppings different from normal droppings and what is purpose of ceca in those with them?

Back 58

7. Ceca—breakdown via symbiotic bacteria, antiperistalsis move food into rectum
a. Ceca function is to separate nutrient rich for digestion & expel non-digestible
b. Fowl—cecal droppings are dark brown and gelatinous, only 1-2x/day

Front 59

8. Explain the anatomy of the avian pancreas.

Back 59

8. Pancreas—pale red or yellow between 2 limbs of duodenum, 3 lobes (dorsal, ventral, splanchnic), bridges between 1st 2 (not in duck & pigeon), splenic lobe cranial from either other lobe, 1-3 ducts into distal ascending duodenum, otherwise similar to mammals

Front 60

9. What is unique about the passeriform liver?

Back 60

9. Liver –R & L lobes join cranially at midline, not covered by septum, R lobe is larger, L lobe divided in galliformes into dorsal & ventral parts, Passeriformes, L lobe is divided, crvent part is around heart, cd vena cava passes thru dorsal R lobe

Front 61

10. What birds lack gall bladders and describe the bile duct system of different birds?

Back 61

a. Gall bladder in most species on visceral surface of R lobe
b. lacking in most parrots, pigeons, ostrich
c. Long GB in woodpeckers, toucans, barbets, even to cloaca in some
d. Yellow at hatching from yolk pigments, red by 8-14d
e. each lobe has own bile duct—hepatocystic from R lobe to GB, hepatoenteric both to duodenum, if no GBR hepatoenteric duct into duodenum

Front 62

Regarding coccidia in sandhill cranes (JZWM 32(1) 2001), which of the following statements is false?

a. Eimeria gruis and E. richenowi are the coccidial species seen in cranes

b. They can lead to disseminated visceral coccidiosis, killing the crane

c. Sporozoites invade just proximal to Meckels diverticulum to ileocecal junction &amp; less, ceca &amp; rectum. Sporozoites found in middle 1/3rd of villi &amp; within lamina propria.

d. No developmental stages in liver & spleen at 5d PI by phase, fluorescence, or EM, although they were present in intestine.

e. By 14 DPI, numerous developmental stages detected in intestine (ceca and jejunum), liver, &amp; lungs but not in heart, kidney, or brain.

Back 62

d--No developmental stages in liver & spleen at 5d PI by phase, fluorescence, or EM, although they were present in intestine.

-No developmental stages in intestine at 5d PI by phase, fluorescence, or EM, although they were present in liver and spleen.

Front 63

2. Regarding Hexamita meleagridis infection in chukar partridges (Avian Diseases--2004;48:3), which of the following statements is false?

a. Hexamita meleagridis is a ciliated protozoan found in the intestines of a wide variety of fowl, including turkeys, chukar partridges, quail, and peafowl

b. Mortality rates were unusually high in the 4-6week old partridges, with losses up to 80%

c. Infectious catarrhal enteritis from this parasite was once a common disease in turkeys.

d. Supranuclear microtubules, a characteristic used to distinguish Hexamita, were present on the anterior end of parasite.

e. H. meleagridis, along with a variety of viruses and bacteria have been associated with poult enteritis mortality syndrome (PEMS), a newly described complex disease syndrome in turkeys.

Back 63

a. Hexamita meleagridis is a ciliated protozoan found in the intestines of a wide variety of fowl, including turkeys, chukar partridges, quail, and peafow

- it is a flagellated protozoan

Front 64

5. Regarding Sarcocysticosis, which of the following is false?

a. Sarcocystis falcatula is obligate two-host coccidian parasite that normally cycles between definitive host (opossums—sexual reproduction) & intermediate hosts (cowbirds/ grackles--asexual reproduction).

b. Infection of other avian intermediate hosts occurs in wild or pet birds maintained in outdoor aviaries. Infection of parrots & other birds housed indoors due to mechanical vectors such as cockroaches, flies, or introduction of contaminated soil .

c. Definitive diagnosis in live bird based on biopsy results of lung/skeletal muscle (quads or pecs, quads preferred). Serologic antigen testing methods not standardized or available.

d. Lesions are typically found in lungs, skeletal muscle, heart, and blood vessels; with less frequency in neurologic tissue.

e. Certain psittacine birds can become infected after accidental ingestion of opossum feces, with Old World species < New World species, while Galliformes and Anseriformes appear especially sensitive to infection.

f. Clinical signs reported in psittacines grouped into several different forms: acute pneumonia and death; muscular disease and weakness, myocardial disease, incidental muscular disease in New World species, an encephalitis, & GI disease.

Back 64

4. e-- Certain psittacine birds can become infected after accidental ingestion of opossum feces, with Old World species > New World species, while Galliformes and Anseriformes appear resistant to infection.

Front 65

3. What is the best antemortem diagnostic for Atoxoplasma in Tanagers? (JZWM 36:2, 265-272)
A. Buffy Coat
B. ELISA
C. Blood PCR
D. Fecal PCR
E. Fecal Examination

Back 65

C. Blood PCR

Front 66

4. Generally, avian chicks versus their adults counterparts have: (JZWM 36:3, 385-390)
A. Increased PCV, increased total protein, increased WBC
B. Increased PCV, decrease total protein, decreased WBC
C. Decreased PCV, increased total protein, increased WBC
D. Decreased PCV, decrease total protein, increased WBC
E. Decreased PCV, decrease total protein, decreased WBC

Back 66

D. Decreased PCV, decrease total protein, increased WBC

Front 67

2. In Arizona, what West Nile Virus vaccine protocol using the killed equine vaccine was found to provide the greatest percentage of seroconversion? (JZWM 36: 257-264)
A. 0.5ml IM, 3 doses, 3 wks apart
B. 1.0ml IM, 2 doses, 2 wks apart
C. 1.0ml SQ, 2 doses, 3 wks apart
D. 1.0ml IM, 3 doses, 2 wks apart
E. 1.0ml SQ, 3 doses, 3 wks apart

Back 67

E. 1.0ml SQ, 3 doses, 3 wks apart

Front 68

12. In mechanically ventilated pigeons (Columbia livia) undergoing coelioscopy, what effects would be considered: (JAVMA 2005, 227:9, 1424-1428)
A. Increased PaCO2
B. Increased PaO2
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Increased blood pressure
E. Cardiovascular depression

Back 68

E. Cardiovascular depression

Front 69

13. What was the most significant risk factor noted in a survey of poultry farms during an outbreak of H7N2? (JAVMA 2005, 226:5, 767-772)
A. Food and litter sources
B. Offsite rendering
C. Routine biosecurity
D. Domestic animals on premises
E. Younger chicks

Back 69

B. Offsite rendering

Front 70

1. Which test is NOT considered one of the hallmarks in laboratory diagnosis of confirmed Psittacosis in Humans? (JAVMA 2005, 226:4, 532-539)
A. IgM titer >16 by microimmunofluorescence
B. PCR of blood
C. Culture from respiratory secretions
D. 4-fold titer increase by CF in paired sera
E. Reciprocal titer of >32 between paired sera

Back 70

B. PCR of blood

Front 71

15. A confirmed case of Avian Chlamydiosis is defined by any one of the following EXCEPT: (JAVMA 2005, 226:4, 532-539)
A. Cytology identification of elementary bodies in macrophages
B. PCR positive of antigen in blood
C. Isolation of organism from a clinical specimen
D. 4-fold titer increase by CF in paired sera
E. Immunofluorescence of antigens from tissues

Back 71

B. PCR positive of antigen in blood

Front 72

16. A probable case of Avian Chlamydiosis is defined by compatible illness and any one of the following EXCEPT: (JAVMA 2005, 226:4, 532-539)
A. ELISA positive of antigen in a fecal swab
B. PCR positive of antigen in blood
C. Suspected link to a human case
D. IFA positive of antigen of respiratory tract secretions
E. Single high serologic titer

Back 72

C. Suspected link to a human case

Front 73

17. Which route of delivery of Doxycycline to budgerigars was found to keep a target plasma concentration for 42 days? (JAVMA 2003, 223:7, 993-997)
A. Medicated seed (100mg/kg feed)
B. Medicated seed (300mg/kg feed)
C. Medicated water (400mg/L water)
D. Medicated water (200mg/L water)
E. None of the doses provided therapeutic levels

Back 73

B. Medicated seed (300mg/kg feed)

Front 74

19. What was the adverse reaction in a Peregrine Falcon (Falco peregrinus) after administration of imidocarb dipropionate? (JAMS 2005, 19:4, 294-296)
A. Fainting
B. Anemia
C. Death
D. Vomiting
E. Seizure

Back 74

D. Vomiting

Front 75

20. Which hormone is more responsible for carbohydrate metabolism and glucose regulation in avian species? (JAMS 2005, 19:4, 297-302)
A. Serotonin
B. Insulin
C. Somatostatin
D. Glucagon
E. Gastrin

Back 75

D. Glucagon

Front 76

24. Which NSAID drug is not recommended for IM administration due to severe muscle necrosis? (JZWM 2001, 32:2, 222-229)
A. Flunixin
B. Ketoprofen
C. Carprofen
D. Meloxicam
E. Tepoxalin

Back 76

A. Flunixin

Front 77

25. Which parasite severely affects the endothelial cells in the pulmonary vasculature in avian species? (JZWM 2001, 32:2, 252-256)
A. Toxoplasma
B. Neospora
C. Eimeria
D. Sarcocystis
E. Isospora

Back 77

D. Sarcocystis

Front 78

29. What mineral abnormality in the plasma was noted in Gallus gallus during administration of deferiprone? (JZWM 2004, 35:1, 40-49)
A. Zinc deficiency
B. Zinc excess
C. Copper deficiency
D. Copper excess
E. Magnesium deficiency

Back 78

A. Zinc deficiency

Front 79

30. Which species has lower serum ionized calcium (iCa)? (JZWM 2004, 35:2,147-153)
A. Ara ararauna
B. Columba livia
C. Gallus gallus
D. Rhynchopsitta pachyrhyncha
E. Phoenicopterus ruber

Back 79

D. Rhynchopsitta pachyrhyncha = thick billed parrot

Front 80

31. Which one was the best sedative or combination recommended for Pigeons (Columba livia)? (JAMS 2001, 15:2, 95-100)
A. Low dose medetomidine
B. High dose medetomidine
C. Medetomidine and ketamine
D. Medetomidine and midazolam
E. None were recommended

Back 80

E. None were recommended

Front 81

7. Which type of feeding strategy may be associated with Mycoplasma gallisepticum infection in passerines? (Fowler 5, Chapter 32)
A. Tube feeders
B. Ground feeding
C. Platform feeders
D. Hopper feeders
E. Satellite feeders

Back 81

A. Tube feeders

Front 82

9. What is the best therapy for hemochromatosis in passerines? (Fowler 5, Chapter 32)
A. Low vitamin C diet
B. Low iron diet
C. Deferoxime
D. Tannins in diet
E. Regular phlebotomy

Back 82

E. Regular phlebotomy

Front 83

10. Which is not in the order Piciformes? (Fowler 5, Chapter 31)
A. Toucans
B. Kingfishers
C. Puffbirds
D. Woodpeckers
E. Barbets

Back 83

B. Kingfishers (Coraciiformes)

Front 84

12. Which of the following food item should LESS likely be fed to toucans? (Fowler 5, Chapter 31)
A. Orange
B. Papaya
C. Banana
D. Melon
E. Grape

Back 84

A. Orange

Front 85

13. Which is not in the order Coraciiformes? (Fowler 5, Chapter 30)
A. Hornbills
B. Hoopoes
C. Kingfishers
D. Woodpeckers
E. Motmots

Back 85

D. Woodpeckers

Front 86

14. Which is true and unique about Ground Hornbill Anatomy? (Fowler 5, Chapter 30)
A. Lack carotid arteries
B. Short blunt bill
C. Short eyelashes
D. Sexually monomorphic
E. Web feet

Back 86

A. Lack carotid arteries

Front 87

16. Greater Indian Hornbill has an increased incidence or which neoplasia? (Fowler 5, Chapter 30)
A. Hepatoma
B. Renal adenocarcinoma
C. Intestinal lymphoma
D. Squamous cell carcinoma of the casque
E. Uropygial adenocarcinoma

Back 87

D. Squamous cell carcinoma of the casque

Front 88

17. Which belongs to the Sphenisciformes order? (Fowler 5, Chapter 11)
A. Tinamous
B. Loons
C. Albatrosses
D. Penguins
E. Grebes

Back 88

D. Penguins

Front 89

18. Which of the following belongs to the Trogoniformes? (Fowler 5, Chapter 29)
A. Bee eater
B. Quetzal
C. Turaco
D. Rollers
E. Toucanette

Back 89

B. Quetzal

Front 90

19. Which of the following belongs to the Musophagiformes? (Fowler 5, Chapter 26)
A. Bee eater
B. Quetzal
C. Turaco
D. Rollers
E. Toucanette

Back 90

C. Turaco

Front 91

22. Which species has analogous digit and suspensory anatomy to chiropterans? (Fowler 5, Chapter 28)
A. Hornbills
B. Swifts
C. Owls
D. Mousebirds
E. Quetzals

Back 91

D. Mousebirds

Front 92

23. Which group has larger erythrocytes to adapt them to high altitude flying? (Fowler 5, Chapter 28)
A. Blue Jays
B. Swifts
C. Ravens
D. Conures
E. Doves

Back 92

B. Swifts

Front 93

24. Which belongs to the Trochiliformes order? (Fowler 5, Chapter 27)
A. Swifts
B. Mousebirds
C. Frogmouths
D. Hummingbirds
E. Trogons

Back 93

D. Hummingbirds

Front 94

25. Which birds do NOT exhibit torpor? (Fowler 5, Chapter 28, 27, 23)
A. Hummingbirds
B. Swifts
C. Mousebirds
D. Frogmouths
E. Cuckoos

Back 94

E. Cuckoos

Front 95

26. The external nares are often not present in which avian order? (Fowler 5, Chapter 13)
A. Trochiliformes
B. Sphenisciformes
C. Phoenicopteriformes
D. Pelecaniformes
E. Gaviiformes

Back 95

D. Pelecaniformes

Front 96

27. Which of the following is FALSE regarding turaco anatomy? (Fowler 5, Chapter 26)
A. More primary feathers than other non-passerine species
B. Unique copper based feather pigments coverdin (green) and turacin (red)
C. Lack eyelashes
D. All species are sexually dimorphic
E. Do not have a defined crop

Back 96

D. All species are sexually dimorphic

Front 97

28. Which species of owl has the largest world-wide distribution? (Fowler 5, Chapter 24)
A. Barn owl
B. Grass owl
C. Screech owl
D. Horned owl
E. Eagle owl

Back 97

A. Barn owl

Front 98

29. Which disease in owls is characterized by hepatitis and splenitis? (Fowler 5, Chapter 24)
A. Adenovirus
B. Poxvirus
C. Herpesvirus
D. Pasteurellosis
E. Salmonellosis

Back 98

C. Herpesvirus

Front 99

30. Which group is characterized by having all 4 digits of the feet connected by webbing? (Fowler 5, Chapter 13)
A. Trochiliformes
B. Sphenisciformes
C. Phoenicopteriformes
D. Pelecaniformes
E. Gaviiformes

Back 99

D. Pelecaniformes

Front 100

31. Which ratite has emerald green eggs? (Fowler 5, Chapter 10)
A. Ostrich
B. Emu
C. Rhea
D. Kiwi
E. Cassowary

Back 100

B. Emu

Front 101

32. Which if the following is FALSE as related to the Kiwi (Apteryx spp)? (Fowler 5, Chapter 10)
A. Nostrils are located at base of bill
B. Acute smell and hearing, but poor vision
C. Paired functional ovaries
D. Males have a phallus
E. Lack a pectin in the eye

Back 101

A. Nostrils are located at base of bill

Front 102

34. Which is the most common vector of avian malaria in penguins? (Fowler 5, Chapter 11)
A. Aedes
B. Culex
C. Culiseta
D. Culicoides
E. Anopheles

Back 102

B. Culex

Front 103

40. Which of the following is not known to cause disease in Cranes? (Fowler 5, Chapter 20)
A. Leucocytozoon gruis
B. Eimeria gruis
C. Eimeria reichenowi
D. Capillaria spp
E. Syngamus spp

Back 103

A. Leucocytozoon gruis

Front 104

42. The uropygial gland is absent in which psittacine? (Fowler 5, Chapter 22)
A. Conures
B. Macaws
C. Amazons
D. Lories
E. African Greys

Back 104

C. Amazons

Front 105

What is the only poisonous bird species group?
A. Hooded Pitohui (Pitohui dichrous) – a “rubbish bird” of New Guinea that the natives don’t dare to capture or eat

Back 105

And what is the toxic agent?
A. Homobatrachotoxin – found in the feathers and skin, very similar compound found in Poison Dart frogs in South America
B. Dumbacher, John P., Bruce M. Beehler, Thomas F. Spande, H. Martin Garraffo and John W. Daly. 1992. Homobatrachotoxin in the Genus _Pitohui_: chemical defense in birds? Science, vol. 258, pp. 799-801.

Front 106

Which of the following was identified in pigeons when comparing mechanical versus spontaneous ventilation during coelioscopy?**

a. before coelioscopy, the ETCO2 overestimated PaCO2 in the spontaneous ventilation group
b. after coelioscopy hypoventilation worsened in the spontaneous ventilation group despite and increase in the respiratory rate
c. before coelioscopy the mechanical ventilation group had higher heart rates than the spontaneous ventilation group
d. after coelioscopy the mechanical ventilation group became acidotic
e. after coelioscopy the PaO2 in the spontaneous ventilation group increased from baseline

Back 106

b. after coelioscopy hypoventilation worsened in the spontaneous ventilation group despite an increase in the respiratory rate

JAVMA 05 227(9):1424******

Front 107

Which of the following was true when assessing testicular biopsy and semen quality in budgies?

a. repeated testicular biopsy decreased sperm production over time
b. biopsy of the periphery of the testicle is recommended for more accurate evaluation of spermatogenesis
c.testicular tissue healed without scarring even after repeat biopsies
d.cytologic samples of testicles were more suitable for evaluation than histologic sections in a larger number of birds
e. macroscopic evaluation was better than cytologic but not histologic evaluation of the testicles

Back 107

d.cytologic samples of testicles were more suitable for evaluation than histologic sections in a larger number of birds
-repeated biopsies led to cicatrization without affecting sperm production
-macroscopic evaluation in conjunction w/ cyotogy or histo was accurate to stage sexual status but some testes assessed as inactive grossly were in fact very active on histo
-biopsy of the periphery is not recommended b/c insufficient cross sections of tubules may be obtained

JAMS 08 22(4):300