• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

Card Range To Study

through

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/222

Click to flip

Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;

Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;

H to show hint;

A reads text to speech;

222 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Eardrum goes this way with (-) pressure
Out
Eardrum goes this way with (+) pressure
In
Name the three type of Immittence Tests
-Static Acoustic Compliance
-Tympanometry
-Acoustic Reflex Threshold
Static Acoustic Compliance
-Ease of flow of acoustic energy through the middle ear
-hermadic=airtight seal
-c2= outer & inner
-c1= outer
Normal Static Acoustic Compliance
.28-2.25 cm3
Equivalent Ear Canal Volume
Estimate of volume of ear canal between probe tip and eardrum
Tympanometry
Objective measure for evaluation of the mobility of the Tympanic Membrane and condition of middle ear.
Type A Tympanogram
-Normal middle ear
-Intensity lowest at 0 daPa
-range +/- 100 DaPa
Type B Tympanogram
-No maximum compliance
-Occurs with conductive loss
-bad middle ear
-added mass in middle ear (cholesteotoma, fluid)
-needs medical attention
Type C Tympanogram
-peak exceeds -100 daPa
-negative ear pressure
-eustachian tube not properly functioning
-middle ear infection
Type Ad Tympanogram
(deep, discontinuous)
-high static acoustic compliance
-overly mobile eardrum
-ossicles are broken
Type As Tympanogram
(shallow, stiff)
-stiffened ossicular chain
-otosclerosis
-conductive loss
-low acoustic compliance
Tensor Tympani Muscle
(Trigeminal CN V)
pulls back eardrum making it stiff
Stapedius Muscle
(Facial Nerve XII)
when contracted affects fluids
-reaction to loud sound
What dB is needed to spark acoustic reflex
above 85 dB
Acoustic Reflex Testing
-Contraction causes middle ear to stiffen
-both sides contract, stronger in side where it is delivered or better
Acoustic Reflex Threshold
lowest intensity needed to elicit a middle ear muscle contraction
Which frequency is problematic in Acoustic Reflex Threshold
4000 Hz
Which freq (high or low) evokes best responses during Acoustic Reflex Threshold
Best at LOW frequncies
Which type of hearing loss is Acoustic Reflex Testinf sensitive to
Conductive Hearing Loss
What change signifies a reflex in ART
.02 cm3
What Intensity is used to start ART
70 dB
DPOAE
Distortion Product Otoacoustic Emission
DPOAE
Distortion Product Otoacoustic Emission
TEOAE
Transient Otoacoustic Emission
TEOAE
Transient Otoacoustic Emission
Tympanometry
Determines the maximum compliance of middle ear from pressure-compliance function
Tympanometry
Determines the maximum compliance of middle ear from pressure-compliance function
Acoustic Reflex
Monitors contraction of Inra-Aural muscles of the middle ear in response to intense sounds
Acoustic Reflex
Monitors contraction of Inra-Aural muscles of the middle ear in response to intense sounds
Static Acoustic Compliance Measure Procedure
1) select probe
2) increase to +200 daPa, eardrum inward and stiff, measure c1
3) decrease to 0 daPa, maximally compliant, take C2
Static Acoustic Compliance Measure Procedure
1) select probe
2) increase to +200 daPa, eardrum inward and stiff, measure c1
3) decrease to 0 daPa, maximally compliant, take C2
DPOAE
Distortion Product Otoacoustic Emission
TEOAE
Transient Otoacoustic Emission
Tympanometry
Determines the maximum compliance of middle ear from pressure-compliance function
Acoustic Reflex
Monitors contraction of Inra-Aural muscles of the middle ear in response to intense sounds
Static Acoustic Compliance Measure Procedure
1) select probe
2) increase to +200 daPa, eardrum inward and stiff, measure c1
3) decrease to 0 daPa, maximally compliant, take C2
DPOAE
Distortion Product Otoacoustic Emission
TEOAE
Transient Otoacoustic Emission
Tympanometry
Determines the maximum compliance of middle ear from pressure-compliance function
Acoustic Reflex
Monitors contraction of Inra-Aural muscles of the middle ear in response to intense sounds
Static Acoustic Compliance Measure Procedure
1) select probe
2) increase to +200 daPa, eardrum inward and stiff, measure c1
3) decrease to 0 daPa, maximally compliant, take C2
How do you measure SAC?
C2 - C1 will get you state of middle ear only
Tympanometry Procedure
1) airtight seal
2) +200 daPa, take compliance reading
3) decrease pressure and take multiple measurements
4) -200 daPa take final reading.
Inpedance (Frictional Resistance)
Determined by ligaments of ossicles
Reactance (Frictional Resistance)
Mass and stiffness combined
______ has the largest effect on Impedance during high frequencies.
Mass
________ has the greatest affect on Impedance in low frequency sounds.
Stiffness
Probe in immittance measure delivers _______ (high/low) frequencies.
Low
Which muscle gradually relaxes in Acoustic Reflex Decay
Stapedius
Electrocochleography
Early
Latency: 2-3 ms
Site: cochlea
Peaks: SP and AP (summating and action potentials)
Auditory Brainstem Response
Fast
Latency: 0-10 ms
Site: Brainstem
Peaks: I-V
Middle Latency Response
Middle
Latency: 10-50 ms
Site: Thalamus and Cortex
Peaks: Na, Pa, Nb

Patient has to be calm but alert
assessment of hearing threshold in lower frequencies
Late Auditory Evoked Response
Late
Latency: >100 ms
Site: Cortex
Peaks: P1, N1, P2
Auditory P300 Response
Slow
Latency: 300 msec
Site: Diffuse Sites
Peaks: P3
Equipment Needed for Auditory Evoked Responses
-Stimulus Generator and Transducer
-Electrodes
-Analog Section (amplifiers)
-Digital Section (Signal Averager)
-Output Section (plotter, oscilloscope, etc)
Stimulus in ABR
click or tone "pip" 10 seconds or faster
We want impedence during ABR to be less than _____
5 ohms
Absolute Latency
Time at which an evoked response wave component (peak) occurs after presentation of a stimulus
Interpeak Latency
Time interval between absolute latencies of 2 wave components.
Source of ABR wave I
Auditory Nerve distal portion (as leaves cochlear nucleus)
Source of ABR wave II
Auditory Nerve Proximal portion (as enters brainstem)
Source of ABR wave III
Cochlear Nucleus
Source of ABR wave IV
Superior Olivary Complex
Source of ABR wave V
Lateral Lemniscus
Auditory Evoked Potential
electrical potentials or activity caused by a signal
Auditory Evoked Potential Equipment Needs
-Differential Amplifier
-Signal Averager
-Filters
-Stimulus Generator
-Transducer to Deliver Stimulus
-Electrodes
-Response Delay
Auditory Evoked Potential - Electrodes
Noninverting electrode (signal plus noise)
InvertingInverting electrode (noise only)

When you inverting the inverting one, noises cancel out and enhances output (signal)
Applications of Auditory Evoked Potentials (AEP)
Neonatal Screening
Prediction of Sensitivity
Diagnosis of nervous system function
Interoperative Monitoring
Transtympanic electrocochleography
Tiny needle electrodes through eardrum on surface of oval window
electrode placement - extratympanic
less invasive placement
Auditory Brainstem Response stimulus
clicks or short tone pips
Click stimulus
brief transient sounds with spectral representation
-energy across representations
-wideband energy with a lot of different freqs
transient
short duration sounds
Tone burst
more frequency specific than click
ABR Threshold
lowest intensity at which wave V can be detected
Within what range of ABR is behavioral?
10-20 dB
Maturational Growth of ABR
birth: I and V
6 mos: I, II, V
1 year: I, II, III, V
18 mos: I, II, III, IV, V
What does the hashed portion of the Latency Intensity Function represent
Normal range from normal hearing population
ABR in conductive loss
Higher intensity needed to evoke a response, so the level we obtain ABR at is higher. Latency Intensity Function will be higher than normal hashed range
ABR high frequency cochlear loss
Cochlear hearing loss exhibits recruitment, so elevated ABR thresholds but higher freqs are in normal range. Wave V appears normal
ABR procedure
1) moderately high intensity (1000-4000 Hz)
2) decrease till wave V disappears (lower 5 dB steps)
3) replicate all waveforms
4) document wave V latency
5) plot LI function
Clicks are _________ stimulus
wideband
ABR is used to screen _________
newborns
Auditory Steady State Response (ASSR)
-not affected by state of patient
-brainstem or aud cortex, determined by sound played
-sounds are mudulated
-mainly use amplitude modulated tones
-defined by frequenc content of neural response
-goes up to 120 nHL
Limitations of ABR
-clicks are not freq specific
-not good at low freqs
-takes time
-interpretation of waveform
________ tones are typically used in ASSR tests.
AM (Amplitude Modulated)
Carrier Frequency in ASSR
modulated at fast or slow rates (approx 60 Hz)
_______ is RARELY used un ASSR tests
FM (Frequency Modulated tones)
ASSR goes up to _____ nHL while ABR only goes up to ______ nHL
80, 120
ASSR is defined by ________ of neural response
Frequency Content
ASSR locks into ________
rate of modulation
ABR in Otoneurological Assessment is used to detect ______ lesions.
retrocochlear
ABR is considered neurologically abnormal if
-absent waveform componants
-prolonged IPL
-Interaural wave V latency difference
-large shift in wave V latency with high stimulation rates
-wave V/I aplitude ratio - no norms
-poor morphology
Retrocochlear lesions ______ neural conduction velocity
slow
Typical time between waves I-V in ABR
4 ms
IPL (interpeak latencies)
if generator from I-V is extended, this indicates a lesion on the auditory pathway
What causes peak V to be missing
lesion affects high up in brainstem
ABR VIII nerve tumor - auditory nerve
-peaks after wave I are often delayed
-IPLs are longer than normal
-poor morphology (shape of the response)
ABR Braintsem Tumor
wave V may be missing or have longer latencies
-IPLs are longer than normal
-poor morphology
ABR misses ______% of small tumors
30-50
Reliability
how well is a test repeatable
Validity
does test measure what it is supposed to measure
Sensitivity
how well does it correctly diagnose a disorder
specificity
how well does it correctly reject the incorrect
Standard ABR tests cannot detect small tumors _____ cm
<1
Sensitivity in ABR
% of tumor cases detected (true-positive)
Specificity in ABR
% of non-tumor cases correctly identified
_______ important to the acoustic reflex arc
Facial (VII) nerve
Stacked ABR
-Based on activity from different regions of auditory nerve
-combination of these make up the amplitude of auditory brainstem response
-need a sound that willl activate all these regions
1) activate all the regions
2) separate responses to different frequency regions of inner ear (masking and subtraction)
3) stacking the responses
Masking used in stacked ABR
High pass masking noise
Frequencies used in Stacked ABR
8000, 4000, 2000, 1000, 500 Hz
4 kHz high pass masking noise means _______
4 kHz is the cutoff freq of the high pass filter, no freqs high than it will be detected
Stacked ABR has ________ sensitivity and _______ specificty
95 sens, 85 spec
Which freqs (high or low) are activated first in stacked ABR and why?
high, because they are located at the base of the basilar membrane
How many ms does it take to reach apical end of basilar membrane
1ms
How many ms does it take to reach apical end of basilar membrane
1ms
What stimulus is used to elicit a response in AEP
clicks
Which AEO can be used in the diagnosis of meniere;s disease
Electrocochleography
How many seconds after stimulus presentation should all waves occur
10 ms
retrochochlear has to do with ____ and ____ structures
auditory nerve and brainstem
ABR is used to detect ________ problems
retrocochlear
If peak V is missing there is a problem in the ______
brainstem
ABR detects ______% of large tumors
90-95
What type of injuries are physician induced?
Iatrogenic
What 2 associations count Interoperative monitoring as part of an audiologists scope of practice.
ASHA and AAA
Interoperative Monitoring
-Inexpensive and effective method for detecting changes in function
-real time or nearly real time monitoring of function
-imaging methods are difficult to use in the operating room and provide only information about structure.
Auditory (introperative monitoring) is used to preserve which cranial nerve
8th cranial nerve
Indentification of specific neural tissue in intraoperative monitoring
localization of the auditory and vestibular nerves in the cerebello-pontine angle for section of the vestibular nerve
IOM (intraoperative monitoring) objectives
-to avoid intraoperative injury to neural structures
-to facilitate specific stages the the surgical procedure
-to reduce the risk of post-operative neurologic injury
0to assist the surgeon in identifying specific neural structures (vestibular portion of the 8th cranial nerve)
The ______ end of the basilar membrane is associated with high frequencies
base
the ______ end of the basilar membrane is associated with low frequencies.
apical
what is the "sweet spot" on the basilar membrane that is associated with maximum dispacement
center
inner hair cells
-neural transduction
-receptor cells in inner ear towards CNS and brain
-AFFARENT to brain within cochlea
change sound
single row
3,500
located in medialis (central core of the inner ear)
mechanoelectrical transduction (change sound to neural info)
Outer Hair Cells
-not a lot of affarent information
-inner ear, change mechanical property of cochlea, this is HOW the basilar membrane vibrates
-motion of these changes the way the membrane vibrates
-increase magnitude of vibration
-makes our threshold more sensitive by having increased displacement
3-5 rows
12,000
outside of cochlear spiral
cuticular plate
top of the hair cells, there are sterocilia on these
how many sterocilia are on the outer hair cells
150-160
how many sterocilia are on the inner hair cells
40
What are the 2 classes of OAE
-spontaneous OAE (SOAE)
-Evoked OAE (EOAE)
Outer Hair Cells
-not a lot of affarent information
-inner ear, change mechanical property of cochlea, this is HOW the basilar membrane vibrates
-motion of these changes the way the membrane vibrates
-increase magnitude of vibration
-makes our threshold more sensitive by having increased displacement
3-5 rows
12,000
outside of cochlear spiral
cuticular plate
top of the hair cells, there are sterocilia on these
how many sterocilia are on the outer hair cells
150-160
how many sterocilia are on the inner hair cells
40
What are the 2 classes of OAE
-spontaneous OAE (SOAE)
-Evoked OAE (EOAE)
3 types of EOAEs
-Stimulus frequency OAE
-Transient OAE
-Distortion Product OAE
What types of hearing loss obscure detection of OAE
-conductive loss
-cochlear loss of worse than 35 dB
Intermodulation Distortion equation
2F1-F2
DPOAE
predicts when distortion product will occur
DPOAE stimulus
F2 always higher than F1 in stimulus pair,
-frequency separation of 2 tones
-relative levels (difference between tones is typically 10 dB)
-range of freq tested is 1.5-10 kHz
_____ (low or high) tones are problematic for DPOAE
low
this type of hearing loss will result in an absent OAE
conductive
if the DPgram goes below the yellow line it is (absent or present)
absent
DPOAEs can be conducted for cochlear loss up to _______ dB HL
60
Functions of the Outer Ear
-Shape and amplify sounds
-sound collector
-assist us to locate sound
-protects eardrum
Ear Canal
-sound propegates down ear canal
-pull differently in kids than adults to see
-lined with epithelial tissue
-outer 1/3 is cartilaginous cerumen producing glands
-medial 2/3 is bony (osseous) portion of the ear
Tympanic Membrane
outer layer - cartilaginous tissue that lines inner ear
middle layer - fibrous connective tissue like trampoline
inner layer - mucous lining inside (easily infected)
traits of a healthy tympanic membrane
pearly white, semi-transparent, cone of light, cone shaped
middle ear serves as a __________ to deal with a problem known as ________.
acoustical to mechanical transformer, impedence mismatch
functions of the middle ear
-converts acoustic energy into mechanical energy
-amplify sounds - transfer function
-match impedence of air filled outer ear with fluid filled inner ear
-middle ear muscles control ossicular chain
parts of the middle ear
-tympanic membrane
-airfilled space called middle ear cavity
-tube known as eustachian tube
-mechanican lever system (3 ossicles)
-2 muscles (tensor tympani and stapedius)
-axial ligaments to hold middle ear bones
the name of the flaccid portion of the tympanic membrane
pars flaccida
name the three bones of the middle ear
mealleus, incus, stapes
the largest middle ear bone that is coupled to the tympanic membrane is the
malleus
incus bone
runs medially and forms the lenticular process
stapes bone
footplate is embedded in the oval window
malleoincudal joint
malleus and incus
incudostapedial joint
incus and stapes
the purpose of the ligaments of the middle ear is to _____
-minimize component of impedence
-minimize resitance
anterior ligament
-connects to malleus
-origin is the anterior wall
posterior ligament
-in the incus
-holds the short process of the incus to the anterior wall of the middle ear space
Chorda Tympani nerve
a branch of the facial nerve responsible for taste from anterior 2/3 of tonge
-runs between malleus and incus
Eustachian tube
-opens into nasopharynx
-pressure equalization
-prevents us from hearing our own voices
-drainage of fluid from middle ear to throat
Tensor palatini muscle
contracts to raise velum and close off nasopharynx
-controls openining of eustachian tube
_______ is ear pain when pressure changes suddenly
otalgia
the angle f the eustachian tube in adults is ______ degrees, the angle of the eustachian tube in children is ______.
10, 45
arial ratio
-surface area of eardrum and stapes footplate
-TM = 55 mm 2
-stapes footplate = 3.2 mm 2
-ratio = 17
force transmitted is greater pressure but increased at oval window
-LARGEST CONTRIBUTOR TO OVERCOMING IMPEDANCE MISMATCH
-think of heel hurting more than boot
three methods of overcoming impedance mismatch
-arial ratio
-lever ratio
-buckling motion of eardrum
Disorders related to the Eustachian Tube
-Type C tymp bc of the negative pressure in the ear
-megative pressure due to cold, sinus infection, etc
-barotrauma which is the sudden change in air pressure diving, airplane, violent sneeze
-Manubrium is so retracted because of negative pressure that the manubrium becomes prominent
valsalva maneuver
plug nose and blow out through cheeks
toynbee maneuver
plug nose and swallow
Basic Treatments of Eustachian Tube Dysfunction
-decongestants, antihistamines for allergies
-antibiotics for sinus infection
-steroid treatment if ET is swollen
Patulous Eustachian Tube
ET opens too much
-popping and pressure during swallowing
-autophony (head in the barrel, reverberations of own voice)
Cholesteotoma
-Disease in which skin cells/debris collect and grow in ME cavity
-increase in size and tissue collects, destroys surrounding tissue
-Epidermal Cyst=skin in the wrong place
-insidious-when eardrum is intact
*can form a conductive loss
Symptoms of Cholesteotoma
mild to moderate hearing loss
-type B tymp with low static acoustic compliance
-elevated air conduction thresholds
-otorrhea (AWFUL smell)
-Chalky white substance
-dizziness
-weakness in the face
Causes of Cholesteotoma
-tympanic mebrane perforation (debris)
-Eustachian tube dysfunction (most common)
Audiologists role for cholesteotomas
1) recognize symptoms because this requires imediate medical referral
2) complete audiologic evaluation before and after surgery to ensure no damage
Cholestetoma acquired
unknown prevalence
-HIGH reoccurance rate
-ossicular chain errosion
(most require prosthetic middle ear)
Mastoidectomy
procedure used to remove cholesteotoma near mastoid
Disarticulation of the ossicles
Common cause is jolt to the head (trauma)
-subluxation is an incomlete dislocation or sprain of the ossicles
-loosening of joints impacts impedence properties
disarticulation of the ossicles audiometric profile
mild to moderate hearing loss
-PTA and SRT elevated
-word recognition scores close to 100%
-Type Ad
-Acoustic reflex is elevated or totally absent
-maximum 60 dB hearing loss
disarticulation of the ossicles treatment
surgical - requires medical referral
ME can be rebuilt with prostheses for ossicles
Otosclerosis
AKA otospongiosis
-hardening of the ear
-affects stapes and bony labrynth of cochlea
-imobolizing the stapes footplate
-2.5 times more common in women
-bilateral in 85% of patients
blueish around eyes
otosclerosis - audiological manifestations
progressive conductive loss
-tinnitus
-ear discomfort
CARHART NOTCH AT 2000 Hz due to innertial changes
-affects low freqs first
Tymp As
-
paracusis willisii
sign of otosclerosis
-can hear speech better in the presence of background noise
schwartze sign
behind the tympanic membrane-median wall. Red glow on promontory because of increased blood flow
Treatment for otosclersis
Surgery because it is a progressive disorder
or amplification such as hearing aids
stapedectomy/stapedotomy
scrape bone growth or replace with prosthetic device
-success rate is 90-95%
Otitis Media
Most common reason that children receive antibiotics or undergo surgical care
-35 million children receive
3-5% of visits to a medical doctor
75% of children experience at least 1 episode of OM by age 3
-diagnoses has increased by 150% between 1975 and 1990
-half will have 3 or more ear infections during the first 3 years.
Prevalence
totaly number of people who had the disease at any given time
incidence
annual number of people who have a case of a particular condition
Otitis media is more common in males or females
males
what seasons is otits media most common in
spring and winter
risk factors for otits media
-downs syndrome (fragile x)
-cleft palate and other craniofacial disorders
-kids in inner cities or kids who attend daycare
Ethnic groups who have high rates of OM
-native americans
-eskimos
-aboriginee in australia
Predisposing factors for otitis media
-at risk groups
-poorly functioning eustachian tube
-trauma in pressure changes
-anatomic dysformities of middle ear space
-gender/demographics
-mucous membrane not functioning correctly
effusion
escape of fluid into tissue or cavity
-cause of transient conductive loss in children
Acute (time course of OM)
short term (less than 21 days) rapid onset, resolves self
Chronic (time course of OM)
persitant, long term (longer than 8 weeks) slower onset, perforation and discharge
Recurrent (time course of OM)
3 or more bouts of acute withing a 6 month time period)
Serious/nonsuppurative (fluid types of OM)
thin STERILE fluid that looks like water.
Purulent/suppurative (fluid type of OM)
pus in fluid, white blood cells, debri, bacteria
mucoid (fluid type of OM)
thick, opaque and mucous-like. not always infected, sometimes is
Sanguinois (fluid type of OM)
blood contained in the fluid
Audiometric profile of OM
type B tymp, low static acoustic compliance
-mild to moderate hearing loss
_______ pressure leads to OM
negative
Disease pathway of OM
1) upper respiratory infection
2) nasal secretions infect ET
3) Inflamed ET
4) middle ear cavity absorbed oxygen and has lower than normal ME pressure
5) pressure drops, creates vaccum, tympanic membrane goes in
6) sucks fluid out of lining of middle ear
7) bacteria is in middle ear space
8) bacteria into fluid
9) INFECTION
10) can cause perforation, white blood cells,
most common treatment of OM
antibiotics
*bacteria killed some fluid may remain
myringotomy
small incision of the TM
tympanostemy (pressure equalization) tubes
used to treat eust tube dysfunction
barotrauma
bursting
Eustachian tubes (open)
type B tmyp, hi SAC, large volume
Eustachian tubes (clogged)
type B tymp, low SAC, low volume