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87 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
There are currently _____ paths to take to become an air traffic controller.
3
Persons with air traffic control experience can include ___________.
All of the above are correct
It is possible to get hired as an air traffic controller with no prior experience, and no AT-CTI schooling.
True
Candidates who pass an AT-CTI program must also meet several other requirements to be hired. Which of the below is NOT included in the list of requirements?
You must be under the age of 35
How many years may you remain in the AT-CTI inventory after graduation?
3
What is considered a passing score on the FAA Pre-employment (AT-SAT) test?
70
If you pass the AT-SAT on the first attempt but wish to retake it, how many more attempts can you have?
0
What score must you attain on your AT-SAT to be considered a "well qualified" candidate?
85
Once assigned to an FAA facility, your training will consist of a combination of classromm, simulation, and ________ training that leads to being a fully certified controller.
on-the-job
A ___________ contains candidates from which tentative job selections are made. In most cases, candidates are divided in the "qualified" and "well-qualified" groups. Veterans may be selected over both of these groups.
referral list
What major event happened in the NAS in 1981?
PATCO strike
See and be Seen become known as ________ rules.
VFR
What law persueded companies to enter the aviation field?
Airmail Act
Who was the first Air Traffic Controller?
Archie League
Where was the first ATCU located?
EWR
What color lenses are light guns equipped with?
Red, green, white
The New York City Disaster in 1960 led to all of the following new rules and regulations, except for:
Upgraded radio transmitters
The first two radar systems developed for the ARTCCs and Approach Controls were:
ARTCCS - RDP & APPROACH - ARTS
When was the Federal Aviation Agency established?
1958
In what year was the FAA's name changed from the Federal Aviation Agency to the Federal Aviation Administration?
1967
Light Gun Signal: Cleared for takeoff
Steady green
Light Gun Signal: Airport unsafe do not land
flashing red
Light Gun Signal: taxi clear of runway
flashing red
Light Gun Signal: give way to other aircraft continue circling
steady red
Light Gun Signal: cleared to taxi
flashing green
Light Gun Signal: exercise extreme caution`
alternating red and green
Light Gun Signal: not applicable to aircraft in flight
flashing white
Light Gun Signal: stop
steady red
Light Gun Signal: cleared to land
steady green
Light Gun Signal: return for landing
flashing green
A VHF Omni-Directional Range (VOR) has how many usable magnetic radials?
360
The different classes of VORs are ________.
high, low, terminal
The component of the ILS which provides the descent angle is the ________.
glide slope
Generally, the vertical dimensions of a low altitude VOR airway are from ________.
1,200 feet AGL, up to but not including 18,000 MSL
The non-radar lateral protected airspace of a victor airway within 51NM of the NAVAID is ________.
4 NM either side of center line
The component of the ILS which gives lateral course guidance to the runway is the ________.
localizer
The vertical dimensions of the jet route system are from ________to________.
18,000 feet MSL, up to and including FL450
DME equipment measures the ________.
slant range distance in nautical miles
The Global Positioning System (GPS) constellation of satellites is designed so that a minimum of ________ are always observable by a user anywhere on Earth.
5
The GPS receiver needs at least ________ satellites to yield three-dimensional information, including position, velocity, time, and altitude.
4
The difference between DME slant-range and actual horizontal distance is greatest ________.
at high altitude, near to the NAVAID
Which of the following navigational aids is least accurate?
NDB
An Non Directional Beacon (NDB) used in conjunction with the Instrument Landing System (ILS) is called a(n) ________.
compass locator
L/MF airways are identified on charts by one of four colors followed by the route's identifying number. What are the four colors?
Green, Amber, Blue, and Red
________ is designed primarily as a pilot's operational manual.
The Airport/Facility Directory (A/FD)
On a sectional chart, in the airport data "285 L 72 118.3," the letter "L" indicates
the airport has runway lighting.
An ILS approach becomes a nonprecision approach without the ___________
glide slope
Which of the following components of an ILS is designed to provide the pilot with directional azimuth guidance to the runway?
Localizer
What is the correct phraseology for the Jet Route J54?
"Jay Fifty-Four"
What is the upper limit of a low altitude VOR airway?
Up to, but NOT including 18,000 MSL
The base of the Jet Route structure is ________ feet MSL.
18,000
A series of predetermined maneuvers for the orderly transfer of an aircraft under instrument flight conditions from the beginning of the initial approach to a landing or to a point from which a landing may be made visually is the definition of a (an)
IAP
A major difference between a Sectional Chart and a Terminal Area Chart is that the Terminal Area Chart
provides greater detail and a larger scale.
An IAP is designed to provide?
Both A and B are correct. A) an IFR descent to a point where the active runway is in sight B) an IFR descent to a point where a safe landing can be made.
What is the correct phraseology for the L/MF airway G13?
"Green Thirteen"
The lower limit of Class B airspace is ________.
the surface
What is generally the vertical limit of Class D airspace?
2,500 feet above airport elevation
The upper vertical limit of Class A airspace is ________.
FL600
A Prohibited Area is identified by the letter ________,
P
A Warning Area is established beyond ________ NM from the coast of the United States
3
A Military Operations Area consists of airspace of defined dimensions established for the purpose of ________.
separating certain military training activities from IFR traffic
What airspace contains federal airways?
Class E
What airspace is generally established from the surface to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation and has an operational control tower?
Class C
Airspace of defined dimensions, confined activities, and limitations imposed on nonusers is identified as ________ airspace.
Special Use
Generally extends upward to 10,000 feet MSL
Class B
VFR aircraft are seperated only from IFR aircraft
Class C
VFR aircraft need to receive a clearance from ATC to enter this airspace
Class B
Requires all aircraft to be IFR
Class A
The upper limit of Class G airspace is ________.
the base of the overlying airspace
The terminology for stating the frequency 121.5 would be ________.
“One two one point fife”
A Mach speed of .8 is spoken as ________.
“Mach point eight"
What is the call sign for a civil aircraft with the President aboard?
“EXECUTIVE ONE”
Jet route 35 would be spoken as ________.
“J THIRTY-FIFE”
Name the words you would use to interrupt a lower priority message when you have an emergency or control message to transmit.
“Emergency” and “control”
An action to transfer radar identification of an aircraft from one controller to another when the aircraft will enter the receiving controller’s airspace and radio communication is transferred is a ________.
handoff
What is the action whereby the responsibility for separation of an aircraft is transferred from one controller to another?
Transfer of control
Who is responsible for initiating coordination and obtaining approval for an aircraft to cross an active runway?
Ground controller
V V61783 and V V16783 (similar call signs) are both on frequency. To transmit a message to V V61783, you would state ________.
Navy Six One Seven Eight Tree”
The terminology for stating an altimeter of 28.72 is ________.
“Altimeter two eight seven two”
The surface wind is from 170 degrees at 20 knots. This would be stated as ________.
“Wind one seven zero at two zero”
The physical or automated action to transfer identification of an aircraft from one controller to another if the aircraft will or may enter the airspace of another controller, but radio communications will NOT be transferred, is called a ________.
point out
A controller monitors assigned radio frequencies ________.
continuously
During which step in the relief process does the relieving specialist check, verify, and update the position information obtained?
Review the position
When stating flight levels, an aircraft at 28,000 feet would be said to be at an altitude of __________.
"Flight level two eight zero"
Runway 31C would be spoken as __________.
“Runway tree one center”
The phraseology for contacting Columbia Automated Flight Service Station would be __________.
“COLUMBIA RADIO”
The first priority during coordination or during the transfer of information is __________.
emergencies