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530 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Pre-exercise assessments include review of:
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medical history
medication lifestyle past and present exercise habits symptoms throrough physical examination |
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large muscle groups exercise= __________ movements
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rhythmic
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T/F: cardiovascular contraction is affected by aging.
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False
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How does age affect heart rate, stroke volume, cardiac output?
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with absence of disease, these are not affected
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How does age affect return to baseline HR, BP, O2 cosumptions, CO2 elimination
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As age increases, there is a slower return to baseline
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How does age affect ventricular volume and filing rates?
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Filing is slowed due o stiffer valves and chamber
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Which cardiovascular aspects are affected by age?
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slower return to baseline HR, BP, O2 consumption and CO2 elimination, left ventricular volume and filling rates lower/are slowed due to stiffer valves and chamber
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Lung wall motility ________ with age
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decreases
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Respiratory rate ________ with age, ___________ metabolic cost for respiration
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increases, increasing
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Endurance training can improve efficiency of lungs at older age
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true
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Max VO2 decreases about __% per decade after age ___.
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5% after age 25
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max VO2 decreases with age; the rate at which it decreases is _______ with regular endurance training
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halved
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Exercise ______ impacts LDL and HDLS
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Positively
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Glucose tolerance generally ______ with age, leading to :
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decreases with age, leads to hyperinsulinemia and Type 2 diabetes
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exercise will ______ glucose storage as well as glucose metabolism
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increase
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What is the most consistent finding in an aging population
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arthritis
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arthritis can be from _____ illness
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systemic
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what is DJD
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deterioration of joint surfaces, destruction of hyaline cartilage, hardening of subchondral bone, narrowed joint space, overgrowth of bone at joint
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Exercise can ________ body weight, _________ ROM, _______ functional status
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decrease body weight
maintain ROM increase functional status |
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What is osteopenia
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decreased mineralization. it is reversible.
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what are the intrinsic and extrinsic factors of osteoporosis?
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intrinsic: age and inactivity
extrinsic: calcium intake, absorption, nutritional deficiencies (vitamin D and C), endocrine imbalance, disease, and drug and alcohol use |
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osteoporosis may present as:
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collapse or microfracture
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osteoporosis is irreversible osteopenia with
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loss of volume
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how does age affect the nervous system?
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slowed reaction times and nerve conduction velocities
more accidents and falls |
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thorough physical examination should include a ____ test
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stress test
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exercise prescription, frequency of activity:
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may start only for 5-10 minutes twice a week, but 15-20 minutes 3-4 times per week should be goal.
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exercise prescription, intensity
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HR monitoring, 50-70% of age predicted max
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exercise prescription, program sequence
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warm up, stretching, and cool down
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does age affect temperature tolerance
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YES. it is not as well tolerated
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What is the leading cause of exercise induced death over the age of 35?
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Cardiovascular problems
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Cardiovascular history should include questions about:
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exertional chest pain
fainting light headedness dizziness family history |
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positive responses to cardiovascular questions on a physical catch ____ of problems
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1/2
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signs and symptoms of cardiac disease
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chest pain
dyspnea fatigue palpitations syncope claudication skin and nail appearance parasthesia edema |
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personal history of ____(7) can lead to cardiac disease
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inactivity
smoking hyperlipidemia obesity diabetes marfan's syndrome connective tissue disorder |
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What are the symptoms/stigmata of Marfan's syndrome
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tall and thin
arm span longer than height disproportionately long legs thoracic kyphosis pectus excavatum hyperlaxity in joints visual problems |
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cardiac physical exam includes: (4)
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heart sounds
heart rate respiration rate blood pressure |
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Cardiac screening can reveal: (3)
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hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
coronary anomalies myocarditis |
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What are the characteristics of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
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left ventricle outflow obstruction with septal hypertrophy, disarray of ventricular muscle fibers
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what cardiac disorder is usually clinically absent but often presents personal or familial history of syncope
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hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
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what tests can rule out hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
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x-ray, EKG, echocardiogram (echo is standard)
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what are the most common coronary anomalies?
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aortic problems
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T/F: most coronary anomalies are clinically asymptomatic
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TRUE
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Someone with ______________ may complain of early fatigue, angina, or exercise induced syncope
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a coronary anomaly
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coronary anomalies usually strike which age range?
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they may strike across any age range
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what are the clinical signs of myocarditis?
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exercise intolerance, dyspnea, cough, tachycardia
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what causes 50% of cases of myocarditis?
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acute viral cases- coxsackie B virus
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what is the most common valve disorder?
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MVP
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T/F: athletes are usually cleared if no significant history of valve disorder is present
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TRUE
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Exercise induced bradycardia can create :
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atrial arrythmia
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exertional palpitations or syncope are red flags for
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conduction disorders
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athletes with cardiac red flags (exertional palpitations, syncope) are usually disqualified for __ months
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6
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What are some risk factors of anemia?
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malnutrition and chronic disease
overtraining, use of NSAIDS, family history, heavy menstrual flow |
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what are some signs and symptoms of anemia?
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pallor, swollen tongue, nail deformity, scally lips, impaired attention
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what is a blood disorder that is a recessive genetic trait?
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sickle cell anemia
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what percentage of african americans are carriers of sickle cell anemia?
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8-10%
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how much does your risk of sudden death increase as a carrier of sickle cell?
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27-40xs
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how does sickle cell anemia affect the body?
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abnormally shaped RBCs inhibit oxygen carrying capability
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signs of deep vein thrombosis
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tenderness, distended veins, edema, positive Homan's sign
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what can happen in athletes with Marfan's syndrome?
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aortic aneurysms
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what is commotio cordis?
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Arrhythmia or sudden death caused by low impact, blunt trauma without apparent heart injury
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commotio cordis most often causes what type of arrhythmia?
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ventricular fibrillation
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what sport accounts for almost half of commotio cordis conditions?
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baseball
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commotio cordis occurs almost always with ____ chest trauma. (L or R)
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right
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what percentage of people survive commotio cordis
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only 10% (3/4 of reported cases got CPR)
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what age and gender is most often affected by commotio cordis
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boys under age 14
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what are some theories behind the effects of commotio cordis
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-thinner chest wall
-slower reflexes to protect themselves -abrupt deceleration of heart, direct concussive effect, undetectable injury |
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5 principles of injury:
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Terminology
Injury type Tissue structure Contributory factors Rehabilitation |
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severity is typically based on type of ____ or on ______ of _______.
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tissue (bone vs ligament)
level of dysfunction (mild, moderate, severe) |
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level of dysfunction is usually based on what?
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subjective complaints
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what can contribute to slow progression of injury?
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delayed, improper, or inadequate treatment
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what is ischemia
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Inadequate blood supply (circulation) to a local area due to blockage of the blood vessels to the area
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define osteonecrosis
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Bone death resulting from poor blood supply to an area of bone. Also known as aseptic necrosis or avascular necrosis
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define osteopenia
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Osteoporosis is defined as a bone density T score of -2.5 SD or below.
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define osteoporosis
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the thinning of bone tissue and loss of bone density over time.
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most common bone disease?
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osteoporosis
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causes of osteonecrosis
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mechanical disruption, occlusion of arteries, injury or pressure to arterial walls, occlusion of venous outflow
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with a fx, stability influences healing after how many days?
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3-5
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with fx healing, what happens at 3-4 days?
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hematoma forms, bone edges become necrotic, osteoclasts seen in area
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with fx healing, what happens for up to 4 weeks?
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soft callus formation by osteoblasts, cartilage cells
As osteoblasts move from blood supply, convert to chondrocytes |
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with fx healing, what happens at 3-4 weeks?
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hard callus formation, osteoclasts continue to remove dead cells, blood supply develops
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how long after fx does external blood supply return
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4-6 weeks
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how long after fx does medullary blood supply return
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6-10 weeks
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how long after fx does normal strength return?
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12 weeks
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osteoarthritis is also called
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DJD
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for cartilage healing, what happens at 48 hours?
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fibrin clot
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for cartilage healing, what happens at 5 days?
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fibroblast appearance
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for cartilage healing, what happens at 2 weeks?
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fibroblasts differentiate into chondrocytes
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for cartilage healing, what happens at 2 months?
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collagen I gives appearance of healing
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for cartilage healing, what happens at 6 months?
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type I and II cartilage has normal appearance
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how long does it take for full tendon strength to return?
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40-50 weeks
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where do fibroblasts come from in tendon healing?
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periosteum, bone, synovial sheath
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for tendon healing, what happens at 1 week
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collagen seen
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for tendon healing, what happens at 10 days
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maximum collagen deposition
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for tendon healing, what happens at 4 weeks
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collagen content increases and aligns along tendon's axis
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for tendon healing, what happens at 5 weeks
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collagen III deposition completed, collagen I replaces it
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for ligament healing, what happens at 48-72 hours?
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matrix forms
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for ligament healing, what happens at 1-2 weeks
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random collagen and fragile vascularization
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for ligament healing, what happens at 2-3 days up to 6 weeks
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proliferation phase
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for ligament healing, what happens at 6 weeks to 12 months
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macrophages and fibroblasts diminish
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with ligament healing, how long does the collagen stabilize?
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up to 12 months
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how long does full ligament healing take to return to normal tensile strength?
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40-50 weeks
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how long does muscle take to return to normal tensile strength
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7-11 days
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regeneration markers are seen at __ weeks for muscle healing
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2 weeks
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when does striated muscle appear during muscle healing?
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18 days
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muscle contraction returns to 90% strength how long after injury?
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6 weeks to 6 months
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define neuropraxia
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a condition in which a nerve remains in place after a severe injury although it no longer transmits impulses.
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define axontomesis
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Damage to nerve cells that destroys the axons but that does not destroy the supporting structures of the cells, making regeneration possible.
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define neurotomesis
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a peripheral nerve injury in which the nerve is completely disrupted by laceration or traction. It requires surgical approximation, with unpredictable recovery.
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grade 1 concussion symptoms:
(cantu) |
No LOC, amnesia for less than 30 minutes
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grade 2 concussion symptoms:
(cantu) |
LOC less than 5 minutes, amnesia of 30 minutes to 24 hours
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grade 3 concussion symptoms:
(cantu) |
LOC more than 5 minutes or amnesia more than 24 hours
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return to play after grade 1 concussion
(cantu) |
first-asymptomatic for 1 week
second-2 weeks after asymptomatic for 1 week third- one month, must be asymptomatic for 1 week |
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return to play after grade 2 concussion
(cantu) |
first-asymptomatic for 1 week
second-one month, must be asymtomatic for 1 week |
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return to play after grade 3 concussion
(cantu) |
first-Minimum of 1 month, may return to play if asymptomatic for 1 week
second-Terminate season, although may return to play next season if asymptomatic |
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Signs and Symptoms of concussion
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Depression, Dizziness, Drowsiness, Excess sleep, Fatigue, Feel “in a fog”, Feel “slowed down”, Irritability, Memory problems, Nausea, Nervousness, Numbness/tingling, Poor balance, Poor concentration, Ringing in ears, Headache, Sadness, Sensitive to light, Sensitive to noise, Trouble falling asleep, Vomiting
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what is anterograde amnesia?
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a loss of the ability to create new memories after the event that caused the amnesia, leading to a partial or complete inability to recall the recent past, while long-term memories from before the event remain intact.
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what is retrograde amnesia?
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a loss of access to events that occurred, or information that was learned, before an injury
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what percentage of concussions result in LOC?
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only reported in 8.9% of cases
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suggested protocol for RTS after concussion
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1. symptom free reports
2. 20 minute bike workout with sprints 3. non-contact sports skills 4. limited contact sports skills |
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what percentage of soccer injuries are concussions?
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4%
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force of heading a ball (in soccer) is estimated to be about ___ of what is necessary to provide a concussion
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1/2
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what are NCAA banned drugs?
|
psychomotor stimulants, anabolic steroids, specific substances-beta blockers, diuretics, street drugs, peptide hormones
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define hyperhydrosis
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a medical condition in which a person sweats excessively and unpredictably
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define diaphoresis
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excessive sweating commonly associated with shock and other medical emergency conditions
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define polydipsia
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excessive thirst
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define polyuria
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excessive urination
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polydipsia and polyuria are signs of what?
|
thyroid issues, diabetes
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define arthalgia
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joint pain
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define myalgia
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muscle pain
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define polyphagia
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increase appetite
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define postural hypotension
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a form of low blood pressure that happens when you stand up from sitting or lying down. Orthostatic hypotension can make you feel dizzy or lightheaded, and maybe even faint.
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define parasthesia
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a sensation of tingling, burning, pricking, or numbness of a person's skin with no apparent long-term physical effect.
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Type 1 diabetes usually affect what population
|
children or young adults
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type I diabetes is mediated by what?
|
immune system
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type I diabetes used to be called
|
insulin dependent diabetes
|
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what does type I diabetes do?
|
Body slowly destroys cells in the pancreas that make insulin
Insulin is necessary to regulate blood glucose level |
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What Are the Signs and Symptoms Of Type 1 Diabetes?
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1.High levels of sugar in the blood.
2.High levels of sugar in the urine. 3.Frequent urination (and/or bed-wetting in children). 4.Extreme thirst. 5.Extreme weight loss. 6.Weakness and tiredness. 7.Feeling edgy and having mood changes. 8.Feeling sick to your stomach and vomiting |
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type II diabetes used to be called what?
|
non-insulin dependent diabetes
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which type is the most common type of diabetes?
|
type II
|
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type II diabetes affects what population?
|
people over 45 and overweight
|
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what does type II diabetes do to the body?
|
your body does not make enough insulin or your body still makes insulin but can't properly use it.
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What Are The Signs and Symptoms Of type 2 Diabetes?
|
1.Repeated or hard-to-heal infections of the skin, gums, vagina, or bladder.
2.Blurred vision. 3.Tingling or loss of feeling in the hands or feet. 4.Dry, itchy skin. 5. develops slowly 6. increased thirst and need to urinate 7. feelings of edginess, tiredness, sick to stomach 8. increased appetite with loss of weight |
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What Does Living With Diabetes Mean?
|
1.Insulin, which lowers blood sugar.
2.Food, which raises blood sugar. Most people have three meals and at least two snacks every day. 3.Exercise, which lowers blood sugar. 4.Blood and urine testing. |
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what are some complications of diabetes and how can it be corrected?
|
-Hypoglycemia, or low blood sugar; sometimes called an insulin reaction. This occurs when your blood sugar drops too low. You correct this problem by eating some sugar (such as 3 glucose tablets, 6 ounces of regular soda, or 5 or 6 Lifesavers).
-Hyperglycemia. occurs when blood sugar is too high |
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signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia
|
Fast development
Unusual behavior Perspiration Loss of coordination Hunger |
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signs and symptoms of hyperglycemia
|
Slow development
Fruity smelling breath Thirst and urination Nausea and vomiting Loss of consciousness |
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for diabetics, delay exercise if blood glucose is less than ____ or over ____ AND ______ are present
|
less than 100
over 250 ketones |
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What is diabetes insipidus
|
Inadequate secretion of ADH from the pituitary gland
Prevents water from being absorbed in the kidney Polyuria and polydipsia with normal blood glucose levels |
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what is acromegaly
|
Overproduction of HGH
Tall, thick jaw, protruding frontal bone, thick hands and feet Organ systems also affected |
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what is caused by inadequate secretion of ADH?
|
diabetes insipidus
|
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what is caused by overproduction of HGH?
|
Acromegaly
|
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what is a disease caused by hyperthyroidism
|
Graves disease
|
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what is Graves disease?
|
a disease caused by hyperthyroidism. causes impaired glucose metabolism and heat regulation. tremors, weakness, difficulty in swallowing, fatigue, facial and eye tics are S&S
|
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how is hyperthyroidism treated?
|
with medication, radiation, surgery
|
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what does hypothyroidism cause?
|
decreased cardiac output
problems with temp regulation-don't vasodilate to cool |
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what are some S&S of hypothyroidism
|
dry skin, myalgia, parasthesia, edema, bradycardia, poor peripheral circulation
|
|
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how is hypothyroidism treated?
|
thyroid hormone replacement
|
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T/F: Parathyroid disorders are common in athletes
|
FALSE
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parathyroid disorders regulates _____ metabolism
|
calcium
|
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what are the S&S of parathyroid disorders?
|
Weakness, arthralgia, hyperactive reflexes
|
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how do you treat hyper-parathyroid disorders?
hypo-parathyroid? |
hyper-surgery
hypo-vitamin D and Calcium supplements |
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Addison's disease is caused by inadequate secretion of _______ hormones
|
adrenal
|
|
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what are the S&S of addison's disease?
|
Hyperpigmentation, fatigue, hypotension, weakness, GI upset, joint pain
Can cause acute shock and hypoglycemia Fluid and electrolyte imbalances |
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how can addison's disease be treated?
|
corticosteroids and hydrocortisone
|
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Cushing's syndrome is caused by overproduction of _______ hormones
|
adrenal
|
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what disease is caused by overproducation of adrenal hormones?
Underproduction? |
over-Cushing's syndrome
inadequate- Addison's disease |
|
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what are the S&S of Cushing's syndrome
|
Moon face, pendulous abdomen, atrophy, bruising, impaired wound healing
Emotional disturbances, depression, decreased libido, maculinazation of females |
|
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how can Cushing's syndrome be treated?
|
surgery, radiation, suppressive medications
|
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what can cause similar S&S to Cushing's syndrome
|
Overuse of corticosteroids may produce similar symptoms
|
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what are the common ergogenic aides that we see today?
|
Anabolic Steroids
Human growth hormone Beta2agonists Caffeine Creatine Chromium Picolinate Amino Acids L-Carnitine L-tryptophan HMB DHEA |
|
|
what was the alternative to testosterone that dr. john ziegler developed in 1956?
|
Dianabol
|
|
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what are the positive effects of testosterone use?
|
Muscle mass
Less fat Females - body shape changes Increased hematocrit |
|
|
what are the negative effects of testosterone use?
|
Mood - aggressiveness to depression
Cholesterol profiles Heart attack Stroke Liver tumors Prostate problems Kidney damage |
|
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T/F: HGH causes changes in protein synthesis
|
FALSE
|
|
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positive effects of beta2agonists
|
increased muscle mass, decreased fat, decreased oxidative effect
|
|
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negative effects of beta2agonists
|
tachycardia, tremor, (2) deaths
|
|
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what is the ergogenic aide used in body building as part of "stripping" procedure
|
beta2agonists
|
|
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beta2agonists are very useful as what type of medication?
|
asthma medication
|
|
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what are some side effects of creatine use?
|
Muscle, liver, kidneys?
Cramping Weight gain GI upset Renal dysfunction Dehydration |
|
|
what is a chemical popular in diet drugs?
|
chromium picolinate
|
|
|
what are the building blocks of protein?
|
amino acids
|
|
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to gain one lb of muscle a week, you need how much protein?
|
35-55 g
|
|
|
what is the composition of muscle
(protein/water/etc) |
15-22% protein
70-75% water 5-7% other (salt,lipid,glycogen) |
|
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the average american diet already has about ____% more protein than needed
|
50%
|
|
|
what claims to increase FFA metabolism, pyruvate sparing
|
L-Carnitine
|
|
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unpure forms of L-Carnitine, such as ___________, may decrease strength
|
d- Carnitine
|
|
|
what is L-tryptophan
|
seratonin booster
|
|
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what is HMB
|
Beta-Hydroxy-Beta-Methlylbutyrate
|
|
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what is DHEA
|
Dehydroepiandrosterone
|
|
|
Where is DHEA made?
|
in the adrenal glands
|
|
|
what was a precursor to androgens and testosterone in humans?
|
DHEA
|
|
|
what is hematemesis?
|
bloody vomit
|
|
|
vomited blood:
red: coffee grounds: |
red-swallowed blood
coffee grounds-collected blood |
|
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acute, local, constant abdominal pain could be?
|
peritonitis
|
|
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what does abdominal rigidity mean?
|
protective spasm-usually needs immediate referral
|
|
|
night GI pain is caused by what?
|
increased parasympathetic activity.
|
|
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fatty foods irritate what organs?
|
gallbladder or pancreas
|
|
|
rectal blood caused by?
|
-Simple causes are hemorrhoids or fissures
-Chronic - IBS, cancer, parasites -Dark and tarry (melena) - upper GI bleeding |
|
|
constipation is caused by?
|
diet, dehydration, medications, stress, inactivity, disease
|
|
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diarrhea is caused by?
|
Exercise, stress, and medications may increase motility
|
|
|
jaundice affects what organs?
|
liver, gallbladder, pancreas.
|
|
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what is dyspepsia?
|
heartburn or indigestion.
-Burning, nausea, vomiting, and loss of appetite |
|
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how to treat dyspepsia?
|
dietary changes and antacids
|
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|
primary dyspepsia is caused by?
secondary? |
primary-food, drugs, alcohol
secondary- disorder |
|
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how does gastroesophageal reflux occer?
|
esophogeal sphincter malfunctions and acid enters esophagus
|
|
|
how to treat gastroesophageal reflux?
|
dietary and lifestyle changes, stress management, antacids
|
|
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how are peptic ulcers formed?
|
gastric juices digest the submucosal layers of the stomach and duodenum
|
|
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peptic ulcer can lead to _______
|
hemorrhage
|
|
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what are some causes of peptic ulcers?
|
elderly, NSAIDS, alcohol and drugs
|
|
|
how can peptic ulcers be treated
|
food, psychology, antacids, antibiotics, acid reducers
|
|
|
what is gastroenteritis and what are its causes?
|
-Inflammation of the mucosal lining of the stomach
-Infection, food poisoning, traveler’s diarrhea, viral flu |
|
|
lower GI irritation is usually marked by what?
|
persistent diarrhea and hematochezia
|
|
|
what is hematochezia?
|
the passage of fresh blood per anus, usually in or with stools
|
|
|
what can cause lower GI irritation
|
diet, alcohol, stress, vibration of activity
|
|
|
what are two autoimmune bowel disorders?
|
Crohn's disease, ulcerative colitis
|
|
|
IBS is most common in what gender?
|
females
|
|
|
What is the difference between diverticulosis and diverticulitis?
|
-Losis – multiple herniation in intestinal mucosa
10% of population -Itis - feces becomes trapped and causes pain, bloating, illness Treated with fiber, medication |
|
|
define hernia
|
Any bulging of an organ – may be palpable
|
|
|
S&S of hernia?
|
Pain, increased with activity or with Valsalva or with position
|
|
|
what type of repair is often used for hernia?
|
Laproscopic repair
|
|
|
what is a hemorrhoid?
|
Varicose veins in the rectum or anus
can be internal or external |
|
|
S&S of hemorrhoids
|
blood, itching, pain
|
|
|
how to treat hemorrhoids?
|
stool softner, topical medication, may need surgery
|
|
|
spleen trauma S&S
|
Left upper quadrant trauma, often after acute infection
Shock, nausea, vomiting In rare instances, presents slowly |
|
|
what progresses faster: spleen or liver trauma
|
spleen
|
|
|
Hepatitis viral causes:
|
A – oral/oral
B – oral/fecal (hand washing after bathroom use) BCD – body fluids |
|
|
which types of hepatitis are more likely to damage liver?
|
B and C
|
|
|
what are the three stages of hepatitis?
|
-Initial – may be asymptomatic even though disease is communicable
-Icteric – produces jaundice, may last 6 to 8 weeks May produce splenic and lymph node swelling as it resolves -Recovery – may take 4 months |
|
|
what is an effect of cirrhosis of the liver?
|
necrosis and fibrosis
|
|
|
is cirrhosis treatable?
|
no, will need transplant eventually. is fatal.
|
|
|
what causes cirrhosis?
|
chronic liver disease and malnutrition
|
|
|
define cholelithiasis
|
gallstones
|
|
|
what are factors that can increase risk of gallstones
|
age, obesity, diabetes, high cholesterol
|
|
|
what happens if gallstones block bile duct?
|
causes cholecystitis-acute UGI illness, can be chronic
|
|
|
what is a symptom of gallstones?
|
intermittent RUQ pain worse after fatty meals
|
|
|
what is pancreatitis?
|
Digestive enzymes activate in pancreas rather than the duodenum
Results in self digestion Dramatic presentation of acute illness Can be fatal |
|
|
what are the 4 types of pathogens?
|
bacteria
viruses parasites (protozoa) fungi |
|
|
how do bacteria pathogens work?
|
they replicate independent of the host
|
|
|
how do virus pathogens work?
|
they use hosts cellular mechanisms to replicate
|
|
|
how do parasite pathogens work?
|
they replicate independent of host, exist in the environment and the host
|
|
|
how do bacteria pathogens work?
|
they replicate independent of the host
|
|
|
how do virus pathogens work?
|
they use hosts cellular mechanisms to replicate
|
|
|
how do parasite pathogens work?
|
they replicate independent of host, exist in the environment and the host
|
|
|
how do parasite pathogens work?
|
they replicate independent of host, exist in the environment and the host
|
|
|
how do fungi pathogens work?
|
they replicate by spores, dependent on host and environment for survival
|
|
|
how do fungi pathogens work?
|
they replicate by spores, dependent on host and environment for survival
|
|
|
Signs and symptoms of immune response
|
fever, fatigue, lymphadenitis, localized pain, redness, heat, swelling, unusual muscle and joint pain
|
|
|
URI are usually viral or bacterial?
|
Viral
|
|
|
URI are most easily spread through what?
|
nasal secretions
|
|
|
what are some S&S of URI
|
Rhinitis, rhinorrhea, sinusitis, sore throat, non-productive cough, sneeze, headache, malaise, chills, low grade fever, laryngitis, and arthralgia
|
|
|
When is it ok to work out when you are sick?
|
Rhinorrhea, rhinitis, sinusitis, sore throat, non-productive cough, sneezing
(stop if symptoms worsen) |
|
|
When is it not ok to work out if you are sick?
|
Fever, productive cough, myalgia, vomiting, or diarrhea
|
|
|
How is influenza spread?
|
Through respiratory secretions
|
|
|
S&S of influenza
|
Two days of URI symptoms with fever, myalgia, and headache
May develop productive cough, pharyngitis, conjunctivitis, and nausea Diaphoresis and fatigue may last for for a few additional days |
|
|
what is diaphoresis
|
(hyperhydrosis) excessive sweating
|
|
|
are pneumonia and tuberculosis viral or bacterial?
|
bacterial
|
|
|
what bacteria cause pneumonia?
|
strep or staph
|
|
|
what bacteria cause tuberculosis?
|
mycobacterium
|
|
|
what is hyperpnea?
|
increased depth of breathing
|
|
|
what is hemoptysis?
|
coughing up of blood
|
|
|
what is a pneuomothorax?
|
collapsed lung
|
|
|
what is pulmonary edema?
|
an abnormal buildup of fluid in the air sacs of the lungs, which leads to shortness of breath
|
|
|
what is atelectasis?
|
the collapse of part or (much less commonly) all of a lung.
|
|
|
what are the S&S of tuberculosis?
|
-Can have vague, non-disabling symptoms
-May lead to hemoptysis or spontaneous pneumothorax -Actelectasis (may change breath sounds) -Pulmonary edema |
|
|
where are UTIs commonly found
|
Urethra
Bladder Prostate Kidneys |
|
|
how are UTIs treated?
|
Antibiotics or antifungals, analgesics, antipruritics (itching if yeast)
|
|
|
what are the bacterial STDs
|
chlamydia and gonorrhea
|
|
|
what is the most common STD
|
chlamydia
|
|
|
effects on women from chlamydia:
|
-PID
-Infertility - one in four cases of PID will develop infertility -Chronic Pelvic Pain -Ectopic pregnancy |
|
|
how to test for chlamydia?
|
cultures of cervix, urine testing
|
|
|
s&s of gonorrhea
|
often asymtomatic until causing PID
|
|
|
what are some serious complications caused by gonorrhea?
|
septic arthritis, endocarditis, meningitis
|
|
|
is syphilis viral or bacterial?
|
bacterial
|
|
|
what are the four stages of syphilis?
|
-Primary - development of a chancre sore
-Secondary - 6 to 12 weeks later - general illness -Latent -Tertiary - One third of people who are latent Three to 10 years after the initial infection Spirochetes damage skin, bone, neural and cardiovascular system |
|
|
what are the signs of bacterial infections (stds)
|
Dysuria, dysparenia, pelvic pain
(pain with urination, pain in the female genitals with sexual contact) Colored, odiferous discharge |
|
|
S&S of vaginitis
|
-Yeast, bacteria or infection
-Colored and malodorous discharge -Itching and “cottage cheese discharge |
|
|
S&S of UTI
|
-Often starts with the common symptom
-Development of abdominal and kidney pain -Fever, malaise and flank pain |
|
|
What are the viral STDs
|
-HIV/AIDS
-Papilloma virus (60 diff HPV, 20 cause genital warts) -Hepatitis A,B,C,D -Herpes virus |
|
|
what are the protozoa STDs
|
Trichimonas vaginalis
(Can be passed by towels, toilet seats, etc. Pain, burning, discharge Treated with Flagyl) |
|
|
Fungus that causes yeast infections?
|
Candida albicans fungus
|
|
|
is tinea bacterial, viral, or fungal?
|
Fungal infections
|
|
|
what is pediculosis
|
crabs
(common problem- can live off of the body for about 1 day, eggs hatch in 7 days) |
|
|
what is intertrigo
|
chaffing of the skin
|
|
|
what is osteomyelitis?
|
bone infection
-infected bone can occlude blood flow, leading to necrosis -antibiotics, debridement, and bone grafting may be necessary |
|
|
GAS=?
|
General Adaptation Syndrome
|
|
|
who described the general adaptation syndrome?
|
Hans Selye
|
|
|
what are the 3 stages of GAS
|
alarm reaction
resistance exhaustion |
|
|
describe the alarm stage of GAS
|
the initial reaction to a change in homeostasis.
ex: injury response |
|
|
describe the resistance stage of GAS
|
lasts days, weeks, months, or years. The body reacts by adapting to the stress.
Example: conditioning routines |
|
|
describe the exhaustion stage of GAS
|
the body is no longer able to maintain homeostasis, and cells or systems begin to fail.
Example: stress fractures |
|
|
3 things can happen when applying stress to the body:
|
Adapt -example:acclimatization
Injured, but will recover - minor strains, fractures Death - severe sprains |
|
|
3 phases of healing after injury:
|
Inflammation
Proliferation Remodeling or maturation |
|
|
primary injury is due to:
|
the tissue destruction caused by the injury force.
|
|
|
secondary injury is due to:
|
cell death caused by reduced oxygen to the area.
|
|
|
signs of inflammation
|
head, swelling, redness, pain, loss of function
|
|
|
on of the first steps of acute inflammation is:
|
initial vasoconstriction-prevents blood loss and allows coagulation to start
|
|
|
second step of acute inflammation:
|
the blood vessels in the area dilate. This causes blood flow to stagnate in the area. Vasodilation allows for accumulation of blood and blood products in the injured area
|
|
|
which chemical mediator inhibits coagulation?
|
heparin
|
|
|
which chemical mediator causes vasodilation and increased venule permeability
|
histamine
|
|
|
which chemical mediator dilates arterioles and is also a pain producer?
|
kinins
|
|
|
which chemical mediator is also a vasodilator and seems to moderate the length of the inflammatory response?
|
prostoglandins
|
|
|
which chemical mediator is a local vasodilator
|
serotonin
|
|
|
which chemical mediator is a fatty acid that stimulates smooth muscle contractions
|
leukotrienes
|
|
|
which chemical mediator increases the permeability of the cell membrane?
|
necrosin
|
|
|
______ cells are connective tissue cells which release chemicals which are vasodilators and increase cell permeability
|
Mast
|
|
|
which cells are involved in phagocytosis?
|
leukocytes
|
|
|
what stimulates prothrombin to break into thrombin?
|
factor x
|
|
|
what causes fibrinogen to break into fibrin
|
thrombin
|
|
|
what do platelets release? (4)
|
phospholipids, fibronectin, growth factors, fibrinogen
|
|
|
what binds fibrin and collagen
|
fibronectin
|
|
|
what are the two most common types of phagocytes?
|
Neutrophils and polymorphinuclear leukocytes (PMN)
|
|
|
what are the most abundant white blood cells?
|
neutrophils
|
|
|
proliferation phase cannot begin until:
|
cellular debris is cleaned up
|
|
|
3 processes occur in the proliferation phase:
|
-Resolution, in which there is little tissue damage
-Regeneration, or replacement of injured tissue with similar tissue -Granulation, or the replacement with scar tissue |
|
|
what cells are responsible for development of an extracellular matrix and new capillaries?
|
fibroblasts
|
|
|
what is granulation tissue?
|
combination of the extracellular matrix and capillary buds
|
|
|
early healing is by type __ collagen
|
Type III collagen
|
|
|
type ___ collagen is eventually replaced by type ___, which is stronger and along lines of stress
|
Type III initially, replaced by Type I
|
|
|
what does hyaluronic acid do?
|
draws water into the area, causes swelling and pain during injury cycle
|
|
|
what is the diaphysis?
|
shaft of a long bone
|
|
|
what is the metaphysis?
|
flared area between the diaphysis and epiphysis
|
|
|
what is the epiphysis?
|
hardened end of a long bone
|
|
|
what is the physis?
|
epiphyseal plate, growth plate
|
|
|
what is the apophysis?
|
cartilagenous zone between bone and tendon
|
|
|
what is an effect of a Bowing fracture
|
permanent plastic deformation
|
|
|
what is a greenstick fracture
|
incomplete fracture with a portion of the cortex and periosteum intact
|
|
|
what is a torus fracture
|
impaction fracture of the metaphysis
|
|
|
what are the 3 common fracture patterns seen in kids?
|
bowing, greenstick, torus
|
|
|
common fracture sites in kids:
|
wrist radius and ulna, clavicle, tibia, fibula
|
|
|
common dislocation site in kids
|
fingers, shoulders, elbow
|
|
|
common avulsion fractures in kids:
|
1. Avulsion of the anterior intercondylar immenence of the knee - avulsed attachment of the the ACL
2. Avulsion of the tibial tubercle |
|
|
_________, or fatigue fractures of growing apophyses in kids, would present as __________ in adults.
|
apophysitis in kids, tendinitis in adults
|
|
|
what is osgood schlatters syndrome?
|
apophysitis of the tibial tubercle
|
|
|
what is Sinding Larsen Johansson syndrome?
|
apophysitis of inferior pole of the patella
|
|
|
what is little league elbow
|
Chronic valgus stress from throwing leads to lateral compression and medial traction.
|
|
|
what is little league shoulder
|
Stress fracture of the proximal humeral physis
|
|
|
what does Freiberg's disease affect?
|
second metatarsal head.
|
|
|
what does Legg-Calve’-Perthes disease affect?
|
proximal femoral epiphysis
|
|
|
what is Osteochondritis dissecans
|
local avascular necrosis with separation of subchondral bone.
-Overlying cartilage may not be damaged -Pain, locking, swelling, local tenderness -Usually spontaneously heal within a year |
|
|
what is scheuermann's disease?
|
ring apophysis in spine effected. Increases thoracic kyphosis
|
|
|
what is sever's disease
|
mimics Achilles tendinitis
-Rest and heel lifts |
|
|
which side most commonly has a discoid meniscus? (in kids)
|
more often on lateral side
-Presents with clicking, locking, and aggravation with activity -Reshaped arthroscopically |
|
|
what is the most common hip disorder in adolescence?
|
slipped capital femoral epiphysis
|
|
|
signs of slipped capital femoral epiphysis (in kids)
|
Painful limp, groin pain, referred pain in thigh or knee (Often presents as knee pain)
Limited abduction and ER |
|
|
what is tarsal coalition
|
failure of tarsals to segmentalize
|
|
|
what are the S&S of neurological problems
|
Syncope or coma
Parasthesia Abnormal motor control, coordination, or tone Seizure Headache Changes in vision, hearing, or other senses Changes in mental status |
|
|
what are the two signs that show meningeal irritation?
|
Kernig's sign-Extension of the knees is attempted: the inability to extend the patient’s knees beyond 135 degrees without causing pain constitutes a positive test
Brudzinski's sign-Flexion of the patient’s lower extremities (hips and knees) when the neck is put into flexion constitutes a positive sign |
|
|
what does posturing show?
|
lack of communication between brain and body
|
|
|
what are the two types of posturing
|
Flexed – decorticate
Extension – decerebrate |
|
|
what are the two types of hematomas in the brain
|
epidural and subdural
|
|
|
which type of hematoma is usually the result of a traumatic injury and is caused by ruptured arteries?
|
epidural
|
|
|
which type of hematoma is usually the result of repeated head injury and is caused by ruptured veins?
|
subdural
|
|
|
S&S of post concussion syndrome
|
headache, dizziness, attention deficits, changes in mood
|
|
|
evidence of cerebral palsy and anoxic brain injury=
|
posture and motor disturbances, although sensory, perceptual or mental processes may be disturbed
|
|
|
most common type of cerebral palsy:
hypertonic hypotonic dyskinetic |
hypertonic
|
|
|
causes of epilepsy/seizure/convulsion?
|
Head injury, drug toxicity, infection, organic brain anomalies
|
|
|
recurrent seizures are termed _______
|
epilepsy
|
|
|
epilepsy is usually diagnosed before what age
|
30
|
|
|
what is spina bifida
|
Incomplete formation of neural tube
|
|
|
spina bifida may cause
|
meningeal herniation
|
|
|
what is multiple sclerosis
|
Regions of plaque in the CNS causing demyeliation
|
|
|
is neurological degeneration reversible?
|
no
|
|
|
symptoms of MS
|
Vision changes, difficulty speaking, parasthesia, incoordination, weakness, fatigue
|
|
|
what is reflex sympathetic dystrophy
|
Distal extremity gets continuous sympathetic stimulation
Causes pain, hypersensitivity, reluctance to move treated with nerve blocks |
|
|
What is ALS
|
Lou Gehrig's disease, unknown etiology,
Gradual, progressive weakening Spasticity, reflex changes, tics Dysarthria and difficulty in swallowing |
|
|
is poliomyelitis bacterial or viral
|
viral
|
|
|
what does poliomyelitis do to the body
|
Destroys motor neurons in anterior spinal cord
|
|
|
Myasthenia gravis is an _________ disorder
|
autoimmune
|
|
|
S&S of myasthenia gravis
|
Fatigue, double vision, ptosis (sagging eyelids)
|
|
|
is myasthenia gravis curable?
|
manageable but not curable
|
|
|
muscular dystrophy is a _______ disorder
|
genetic
|
|
|
with duchennes muscular dystrophy, muscle fibers degenerate and are replaced with _________
|
fibrotic tissue
|
|
|
what is the most disabling form of muscular dystrophy
|
Duchennes
|
|
|
is there a cure for muscular dystrophy
|
no, but management is improving
|
|
|
is pain objective or subjective
|
Subjective
|
|
|
what is the purpose of pain
|
Warning sign
Withdrawal response Results in muscle spasm and guarding of the area |
|
|
what are 5 types of pain
|
acute
chronic-more than 6 weeks referred- little relation to injury: Kehr's sign, back pain radiating pain- back pain sclerotomic- referred bony pain |
|
|
tissue sensitivity: (most to least)
|
1. Periosteum and joint capsule
2. Bone, tendon, and ligament 3. Muscle and cortical bone 4. Synovium and joint capsule |
|
|
what do pacinian corpuscles detect
|
deep pressure
|
|
|
are meissners and pacinian corpuscles phasic or tonic?
|
phasic
|
|
|
what do merkels corpuscles detect?
|
deep pressure, hair follicles
|
|
|
what do ruffini corpuscles detect?
|
touch, tension, heat
|
|
|
are krauses end bulbs thermo or mechanoreceptors
|
thermoreceptors
|
|
|
define adaptation
|
the decline in the generation potential (strength) and frequency that occurs with prolonged or repeated stimulation.
|
|
|
which fibers give pain that is brief and well localized?
which fibers give slow/aching/burning pain? |
fast- A alpha
slow- C fibers |
|
|
pain gate theory theorizes that which fibers block which?
|
A beta afferent fibers block the impulses of A delta and C fibers
|
|
|
what is the best modality for pain relief?
|
there is no best answer.
|
|
|
dyspnea is caused by:
|
low oxygen content
(Airway obstruction, metabolic imbalances, stress, restriction in the airway, cardiac disease, lung disease) |
|
|
non-productive cough caused by:
|
allergies
|
|
|
clear production from cough caused by:
|
URL
|
|
|
purulent cough caused by:
|
LRI
|
|
|
drowning or near drowning has a ___% survival rate
|
90%
|
|
|
what is flail chest and what is it usually accompanied by?
|
Unstable rib segment from multiple fracture
Usually accompanied by pneumothorax |
|
|
COPD ______ tidal volume, ________ residual volume
|
Decreases tidal volume, increased residual volume
|
|
|
COPD can be caused by
|
Asthma, bronchitis, emphysema, cystic fibrosis
|
|
|
what usually causes rhinitis?
|
allergy
|
|
|
what causes sinusitis
|
infections and allergies
|
|
|
what causes bronchitis
|
infection and environment
|
|
|
what are the initial symptoms of bronchitis
|
Fever, non-productive cough, sore throat, and musculoskeletal pain are initial symptoms
|
|
|
what are final symptoms of bronchitis
|
Productive cough, wheezing, and systemic infection follow
|
|
|
pneumothorax is caused by
|
increased lung pressure or pleural injury
|
|
|
S&S of pneumothorax
|
Hyperpnea, decreased breath sounds, hyperresonance
|
|
|
what is the treatment for pneumothorax
|
decompression with a chest tube
|
|
|
what is a hemothorax
|
Blood in the pleural cavity
|
|
|
what is Pneumomediastinum
|
Air spontaneously leaks into space between pulmonary compartments
|
|
|
S&S of Pneumomediastinum and what are the risks with it?
|
Chest pain behind sternum, neck pain, difficulty in swallowing
Risk for embolism and pneumothrorax |
|
|
what is amenorrhea
|
delayed menarche
|
|
|
what is secondary amenorrhea
|
cessation for greater than 3 months
|
|
|
what is dysmenorrhea
|
excessive menstrual pain
|
|
|
what is Luteal phase deficiency and what problems does it cause
|
Luteal phase shortened because not enough progesterone is produced
Problems include infertility and irregular menstruation |
|
|
renal trauma is usually caused by:
and is marked by: |
Usually blunt trauma
Marked by gross hematuria |
|
|
what is a urolithiasis
|
kidney stone
|
|
|
what are kindey stones composed of
|
salts, calcium, uric acid
|
|
|
S&S of kidney stones
|
Severe unilateral pain in low back and abdomen, radiating to thigh
Vomiting, pallor, tachycardia |
|
|
what is monorchidism
|
when only one testicle is developed
|
|
|
S&S of prostate disorder
|
Dysuria, painful urination, urgency, frequency, nocturia,
Dull ache |
|
|
S&S of testicular torsion
|
Usually but not always traumatic
Nausea, vomiting Testicle elevation |
|
|
what is varicocles
|
varicose veins in the scrotum
|
|
|
what is endometriosis, age affected, S&S, leads to?
|
Endometrium grows outside of uterus
30 to 40 years old Painful menstruation, pain with intercourse Can lead to fibrosis and infertility |
|
|
what happens in an ectopic pregnancy?
|
Fertilized ovum attaches outside of the uterus, usually in fallopian tube
as embryo grows, will rupture the tube Acute pain and tenderness, vaginal bleeding, syncope, and shock |
|
|
signs of breast disease
|
Masses, changes in shape, resiliency, size, tenderness, or discharge are signs
|
|
|
ovarian cysts are usually ______
|
asymtomatic
|
|
|
which high school winter sports have the highest number of direct fatalities?
|
wrestling, gymnastics
|
|
|
which high school winter sports have the highest number of indirect fatalities?
|
basketball
|
|
|
which collegiate winter sports have the highest number of direct fatalities?
|
hockey and gymnastics
|
|
|
which collegiate winter sports have the highest number of indirect fatalities?
|
basketball
|
|
|
which high school spring sports have the highest number of direct fatalities?
|
track and field, baseball
|
|
|
which high school springsports have the highest number of indirect fatalities?
|
track and field
|
|
|
which collegiate spring sports have the highest number of direct fatalities?
|
track and field
|
|
|
which collegiate spring sports have the highest number of indirect fatalities?
|
track and field
|
|
|
what contributes to athlete deaths in football
|
improper coaching techniques
helmets/equipment not adequate |
|
|
what contributes to athlete deaths in soccer
|
goals falling on athletes
|
|
|
what contributes to athlete deaths in wrestling
|
many direct injuries/fatalities
weight reduction |
|
|
what contributes to athlete deaths in hockey
|
checking
conditioning equipment technique |
|
|
what contributes to athlete deaths in baseball
|
head first sliding
getting struck with ball or bat |
|
|
what contributes to athlete deaths in track and field
|
pole vaulting
struck with thrown object |
|
|
what female sport has the highest number of direct fatalities at the high school and college level
|
cheerleading
|
|
|
cardiac events cause ___% of sudden deaths in athletes
|
78%
|
|
|
define Arachnodactyly
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a condition in which the fingers are abnormally long and slender in comparison to the palm of the hand. (marfans syndrome stigmata)
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NCAA statistics on use do not match drug testing results - ___% report use in last month, but less than ___% of tests are positive
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20% reported, 1% caught
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NCAA - less than __% of schools drug test/educate coaches
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28%
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what are some common orthopedic problems with female athletes
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Retropatellar pain
Shoulder pain Spondylolysis Stress fractures Bunions Anemia Menstrual irregularities Vaginitis ACL tears |
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what is retropatellar pain?
how is it treated? |
Patellofemoral pain syndrome
Treatment – orthotics, braces, conditioning |
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what shoulder problems are more common in females than male athletes
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subluxation and impingement
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female athletes in which sports suffer the greatest rates of spondylolysis
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gymnasts and cheerleaders
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what is amenorrhea
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delayed menarche
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what is secondary amenorrhea
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cessation for greater than 3 months
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what are the 3 types of drug names
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chemical
generic trade |
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how are prescription drugs classified?
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I to V with I highly addictive and high potential for abuse
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how are enteral drugs taken?
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oral
sublingual rectal |
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how are non-enteral drugs taken?
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inhalation
injection topical transdermal |
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define absorption
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diffusion across a membrane
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is the blood brain barrier water or lipid soluble?
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water-soluble stop, but lipid soluble can pass
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where are lipid soluble drugs metabolized?
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the liver
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where are drugs with higher molecular weights processed?
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in the kidney, excreted in bile
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how many half lives of a drug is needed to hit a steady state
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5
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effect of drug once absorbed and transported=
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pharmodynamics
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why would you take an antipyretic drug
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to reduce fever
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why would you take an analgesic
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to reduce pain
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side effect of NSAIDS
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GI irritation
Hepatic and liver injury Overdose Reye’s syndrome – children with chicken pox or influenza Intolerance and hypersensitivity If on NSAIDS and injured – may have increased bleeding due to anticoagulation |
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what are the 5 types of acids that are classified drugs
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acetic
enolic fenamic proprionic carboxylic |
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what type of acid is ibuprofen?
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proprionic
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what type of acid is aspirin?
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carboxylic
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examples of narcotics
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codeine, morphine, heroin
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side effects of narcotics
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drowsiness, dizziness, blurred vision, nausea, vomiting, and constipation
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how do anesthetics work?
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by blocking the effect of acetylcholine
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side affects of muscle relaxants:
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Sedative effect
Interfere with ADLs Drowsiness, dizziness, nausea, vertigo, ataxia, headache |
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what do antitussives do
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suppress coughing
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what do expectorants do
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help decrease viscosity of the mucous
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what are bronchodialators
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beta 2 agonists (Cause smooth muscle relaxation)
Albuterol, Proventil and Ventolin are common |
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side effects of bronchodilators
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racing heart, nervousness or edginess
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what are the three effects of antibacterials
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Cell membrane synthesis inhibition - penacillin
Protein synthesis inhibition - tetracycline DNA/RNA inhibition - fluoroquinolone |
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when should antiemetics be used
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Pregame anxiety or motion sickness - Dramamine
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examples of stimulants:
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amphetamines, cocaine, ephedrine, and mesocarb
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examples of narcotics
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diamorphine (heroin), morphine, methadine, pethidine.
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what does EPO stand for
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Erythropoietin
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EPO is a ______ hormone that occurs naturally in the body
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peptide
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EPO is released from where?
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the kidneys
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where does recombinant EPO have a legitimate use?
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in the treatment of anaemia in patients with diseases such as kidney disease, HIV and some cancers.
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side effects of EPO
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Recombinant EPO can cause excessive blood thickening (more prone to clot, increases risk of heart attack, stroke)
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Endocrine disorders generally manifest themselves by disturbing:
1. energy levels 2. body temp 3. fluid levels 4. exercise tolerance 5. any or all of the above might be disturbed by endocrine disorders |
5. any or all of the above might be disturbed by endocrine disorders
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the most significant long term deficits would be caused by a CVA (cerebrovascular accident) that causes:
1. inflammation and hypoxia in the brain 2. mechanical distortion of the brain tissue secondary to bleeding 3. disruption of normal neurological function 4. CVAs are transient and leave no long term problems |
1. inflammation and hypoxia in the brain
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the initial survival rate for near drowning is closest to:
1. 30% 2. 50% 3. 70% 4. 90% |
4. 90%
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T/F: the leading cause of death during exercise for those over age 35 is due to cardiovascular disease
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True
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As a consequence of athletic participation, we would be most likely to see a female athlete with which problem?
1. dysmenorrhea 2. primary amenorrhea 3. secondary amenorrhea 4. luteal phase deficiency |
3. secondary amenorrhea
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Blood that has collected in the digestive tract and is then vomited would look most like:
1. a melted strawberry milkshake 2. cherry jell-o 3. coffee grounds 4. hawaiian punch |
3. coffee grounds
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The tissue with the most proprioceptors (and thus the greatest sensitivity to pain is):
1. periosteum 2. bone 3. muscle 4. synovium |
1. periosteum
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The general adaptation syndrom was first described by:
1. Selye 2. Wolfe 3. Weber 4. Olson |
1. Selye
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After initial knitting of bone, bone heals in which direction or order?
1. from the inside out 2. from the outside in 3. inside and outside heal at the same rate and speed 4. it depends on the size of the gaps in the fracture |
1. from the inside out
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most upper respiratory infections (URIs) are caused by:
1. strep bacteria 2. staph bacteria 3. influenza virus 4. rhinovirus |
4. rhinovirus
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Bacterial infections do NOT regularly occur in the:
1. urethra 2. bladder 3. kidney 4. prostate 5. any of these tissue might harbor a bacterial infection |
5. any of these tissue might harbor a bacterial infection
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Vaginitis is caused by:
1. yeast infection 2. bacterial infection 3. viral infection 4. any of the above |
4. any of the above
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Levels of dysfunction after injury is usually quantified by:
1. doing functional tests of the athlete 2. doing neurological and balance testing 3. collecting subjective reports from the athlete 4. observing gate or other activities of daily living |
3. collecting subjective reports from the athlete
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After fracture, bone regains normal tensile strength at about:
1. 4-6 weeks 2. 6-10 weeks 3. 10-12 weeks 4. 6 months |
3. 10-12 weeks
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After grade 3 sprain, ligament regains normal tensile strength at about:
1. 1-2 weeks 2. 6-10 weeks 3. 6-8 months 4. 10-12 months |
4. 10-12 months
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Complete the following sentence: Most secondary cell death after injury is caused by lack of:
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oxygen
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Most of the chemical released by the body after initial injury have what action?
1. stimulate motor nerves 2. stimulate sensory nerves 3. stimulate both motor and sensory nerves 4. stimulate sensory nerves by inhibit motor nerves |
3. stimulate both motor and sensory nerves
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Repair and regeneration at the cellular level requires an environment that is:
1. higher in oxygen than normal tissue 2. lower in oxygen than normal tissue 3. higher in blood flow than normal tissue 4. lower in blood flow than normal tissue |
2. lower in oxygen than normal tissue
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T/F: our goal in treating pain should be to eliminate it so the athlete can return to practice and play as quickly as possible
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False
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The single best modality for relieving pain is:
1. heat 2. cold 3. electrical stimulation 4. it all depends |
4. it all depends
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Gastroenteritis is caused by:
1. bacterial agents 2. food borne pathogens 3. viral agents 4. traveling 5. any of these may cause gastroenteritis |
5. any of these may cause gastroenteritis
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The classic yellowing of hepatitis is seen in which stage?
1. initial 2. icteric 3. recovery 4. it is seen during all stages until very late in recovery |
2. icteric
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Urolithiasis is the proper name for:
1. kidney stones 2. gall stones 3. having a single testicle 4. having a single ovary |
1. kidney stones
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Which person would most exemplify the stigmata of Marfan's syndrome?
1. Napoleon Bonaparte 2. Abraham Lincoln 3. Shaquille O'Neil 4. Hilary Clinton |
2. Abraham Lincoln
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If you are a sickle cell trait carrier, your risk of sudden death in athletics is increased by how much?
1. 0% 2. 8-10% 3. 2-5 times 4. 25-40 times |
4. 25-40 times
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"Flail chest" is most often accompanied by:
1. pneumonia 2. pneumothorax 3. bronchitis 4. death |
2. pneumothorax
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Type I diabetes usually manifests itself before age:
1. 5 2. 10 3. 15 4. 20 |
4. 20
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Which is NOT descriptive of a diabetic athlete with a low blood sugar?
1. strange behavior 2. perspiration 3. 'fruity' smelling breath 4. rapid change in physical well being 5. all of these ARE signs of a low blood sugar |
3. 'fruity' smelling breath
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Which person best exemplifies a person suffering from acromegaly:
1. A young Barry Bonds 2. Abraham Lincoln 3. Napoleon Bonaparte 4. Andre the Giant |
4. Andre the Giant
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Most, but not all, cases of cerebral palsy manifest themselves with:
1. hypertonia 2. hypotonia 3. dyskinesis 4. random seizures |
a. hypertonia
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Myasthenia gravis would be best characterized as:
1. annoying but not serious 2. manageable but not curable 3. curable but persistant 4. fatal and untreatable |
2. manageable but not curable
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which pathogen replicates by means of spores?
1. bacteria 2. viruses 3. parasites 4. fungi |
4. fungi
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The most common STD is:
1. chlamydia 2. gonorrhea 3. syphilis 4. herpes |
1. chlamydia
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Pediculosis or pubic lice can lay eggs and cause a secondary infestation within what time period after an initial infestation?
1. 1 day 2. 1 week 3. 1 month 4. 3 months |
2. 1 week
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The most common cause of osteopenia in athletes is:
1. fracture 2. overtraining 3. eating disorder 4. infection |
3. eating disorder
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After a tendon injury, full tensile strength returns at about:
1. 1 week 2. 1 month 3. 1 year 4. 1 decade |
3. 1 year
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Acclimatization is a positive example of what process in the general adaptation syndrome?
1. alarm 2. resistance 3. exhaustion 4. recovery |
2. resistance
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The main action of heparin is:
1. short term inflammatory agent 2. long term inflammatory agent 3. anticoagulant 4. pain inhibitor |
3. anticoagulant
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Neutrophils and PMNs are examples of:
1. phagocytes 2. fibroblasts 3. fibroclasts 4. chondrocytes |
1. phagocytes
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Complete the following sentence: the decline in generation potential and frequency that occurs with repeated stimulation of a nerve is called?
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adaptation
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GI pain at night is usually caused by:
1. sympathetic nerve activity 2. parasympathetic nerve activity 3. ulceration of tissue 4. endocrine activity |
2. parasympathetic nerve activity
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Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is usually marked by:
1. increased gastric motility 2. decreased gastric motility 3. recurrent changes in gastric motility 4. there is a wide variation in the presentation of IBS, so any of these might be correct |
4. there is a wide variation in the presentation of IBS, so any of these might be correct
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T/F: Signs of significant problems in the renogenital system may be ignored because of an athlete's reluctance to talk about problems with a health care practitioner
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TRUE
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Endometriosis would be most likely to affect women in which age group?
1. early adolescent 2. late teens 3. early thirties to forties 4. endometriosis affects boys, not girls |
3. early thirties to forties
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most cases of myocarditis occur after exposure to:
1. strep bacteria 2. staph bacteria 3. coxsackie B virus 4. epstein barr virus |
3. coxsackie B virus
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A purulent cough is usually a sign of:
1. URI 2. LRI 3. bronchitis 4. sinusitis |
2. LRI
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Complete the following: the clinical name for having an increased thirst is:
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polydipsia
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If you suspect a diabetic athlete has a low blood sugar you should:
1. activate the EMS system 2. give them a small snack 3. have them lie down for a few minutes 4. take some insulin |
2. give them a small snack
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For someone who suffers from epilepsy, we would advocate:
1. ceasing all physical activity 2. continuing with mild to moderate exercise 3. continue with any physical activity EXCEPT contact sports 4. continue all physical activity, but wear a padded foam helmet when participating |
2. continuing with mild to moderate exercise
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Peripheral neuropathy usually manifests itself with disruption of:
1. motor control 2. sensory awareness 3. vasomotor control 4. any of the above might be seen |
4. any of the above might be seen
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