Atc Final Exam

Front 1

type of controller who performs clerical duties

Back 1

Flight Data Controller

Front 2

type of controller who assists other controllers in the tower

Back 2

Flight Data Controller

Front 3

type of controller position normally first assigned to new controllers at a facility

Back 3

Flight Data Controller

Front 4

this controller receives and relays IFR departure clearances to the clearance delivery controller.

Back 4

Flight Data Controller

Front 5

this type of controller operates the flight data processing equipment

Back 5

Flight Data Controller

Front 6

this type of controller relays weather and NOTAM information to other posisitons of operation

Back 6

Flight Data Controller

Front 7

this type of controller aid other tower controllers by relaying any directed information

Back 7

Flight Data Controller

Front 8

this type of controller collects, tabulates, and stores daily records

Back 8

Flight Data Controller

Front 9

this type of controller prepares the automatic terminal information service (ATIS) recordings.

Back 9

Flight Data Controller

Front 10

this type of controller processes field condition reports

Back 10

Flight Data Controller

Front 11

what does FDIO stand for?

Back 11

flight data input/output

Front 12

what is the FDIO?

Back 12

device that mechanically prints IFR clearances obtained automatically

Front 13

Clearances are printed in a standard format on this type of form

Back 13

flight progress strips/flight strips

Front 14

A flight progress strip

Back 14

1)aircraft identification
2) Revision #(FDIO strip only) or Strip request originator
3)Type of Aircraft
4)Computer identification number(FDIO only)
5)Assigned Transponder code
6)proposed departure time.
7)requested altitude
8)departure airport
9)route of flight and destination

Front 15

What does NBCAP stand for?

Back 15

National Beacon Code Allocation Plan

Front 16

Transponder Code 1200

Back 16

Reserved for VFR aircraft not in contact with an ATC facility

Front 17

Transponder Code 7500

Back 17

reserved for aircraft being hijacked

Front 18

Transponder Code 7600

Back 18

reserved for aircraft experiencing radio communication failure

Front 19

Transponder Code 7700

Back 19

reserved for aircraft experiencing some type of emergency

Front 20

What year was Project Beacon Created and by whom?

Back 20

1961. President John F. Kennedy

Front 21

what does FDP stand for?

Back 21

Flight Data Processing

Front 22

what is the FDP

Back 22

-computer system that processes flight data.
-Located at each of the ARTCCs.
-Stores and updates aircraft flight plan information

Front 23

How much time prior to the proposed departure time is a flight progress strip printed on the FDIO

Back 23

30 min

Front 24

what does ARTS stand for

Back 24

automated radar terminal systems

Front 25

what does SR stand for?

Back 25

Strip Request

Front 26

what does AM stand for?

Back 26

amendment message

Front 27

what does NWS stand for

Back 27

national weather service

Front 28

what does PIREPs stand for?

Back 28

pilot reports

Front 29

what does ATIS stand for?

Back 29

automatic terminal information service

Front 30

what is ATIS?

Back 30

-continuous-loop audiotape -usually recrorded by the flight data controller
-transmitted on VHF frequency for pilot reception
-recordings inform both arriving and departing pilots
-gives weather conditions and other pertinent information at the airport.

Front 31

What 17 things are included in the ATIS?

Back 31

1)name of airport
2)The ATIS phonetic alphabet code
3)UTC time of weather observation
4)cloud ceiling
5)visibility in miles and/or fractions of a mile
6)current temp in degrees Fahrenheit
7)current dewpoint temp in degrees Fahrenheit
8)wind direction and speed
9)altimeter setting
10)instrument approach procedure(s) currently in use
11)runway(s) used for arrivals.
12)runway(s) used for departures
13)pertinent NOTAMs or weather advisories
14)braking action reports
15)low-level wind-shear advisories
16)remarks or other info
17)instructions for the pilot to advise the controller that the ATIS recording has been recieved

Front 32

type of controller responsible for obtaining and relaying departure clearances to pilots

Back 32

Clearance Delivery Controller

Front 33

aircraft clearance should include what 7 things

Back 33

1)aircraft identification

2)clearance limit

3)departure procedure

4)route of flight

5)altitude

6)departure frequency

7)transponder code

Front 34

what type of controller is responsible for amending clearances when necessary

Back 34

Clearance Delivery Controller

Front 35

what type of controller is responsible for the safety of aircraft that are taxing on taxiways or inactive runways

Back 35

Ground Controller

Front 36

what type of controller issues instructions to aircraft taxiing to or from runways, or to vehicles operating around the airport

Back 36

Ground Controller

Front 37

True or False: a ground controller is only responsible for aircraft where it can be observed?

Back 37

True

Front 38

a ground controller should issue instruction before or after an aircraft location has been determined?

Back 38

after

Front 39

name 3 ways an aircrafts location can be determined

Back 39

1)visual observation
2)pilot report
3)airport surface RADAR

Front 40

after determining the aircraft's location, the ground controller should:

Back 40

issue positive instructions to the pilot.

Front 41

what is included in a controller's positive instructions to a pilot(4)

Back 41

-aircraft identification
-name of ground controller's facility
-the route to be used while taxiing
-any restrictions applicable to the pilot

Front 42

what word should ground controllers never use

Back 42

cleared

Front 43

this type of controllers primary responsiblity is to prevent runway incursions

Back 43

Ground Controller

Front 44

name the categories of aircraft

Back 44

-category I
-category II
-category III

Front 45

-lightweight
-single engine
-propeller-driven
-personal aircraft
-Cessna 152
-Cessna 172
-Piper Cherokee
-Bellanca Viking
-high performance single-engine aircraft (i.e. T-28) not included

Back 45

Category I

Front 46

-lightweight
-twin engine
-propeller driven aircraft
-weighs 12,500lbs or less
-Twin Commanche
-Piper Seneca
-Cessna 320
-larger aircraft(i.e. Lockhead Lodestar or Douglas DC-3) not included

Back 46

Category II

Front 47

-all other aircraft not in Category I or II
-high performance
-single engine, large twin-engine, four-engine propeller-driven, and turbojet

Back 47

Category III

Front 48

this type of controller is responsible for safely sequencing arrivals and departures at the airport

Back 48

Local Controller

Front 49

this type of controller is responsible for proper runway separation between aircraft

Back 49

Local Controller

Front 50

Aircraft may not begin take off roll until at least one of the following conditions exits: (2)

Back 50

1)preceding landing aircraft has taxied off the runway
2)the preceding departing aircraft is airborne and has crossed the departure end of the runway or has turned to avoid any conflict.

Front 51

if both departing aircrafts are category I...

Back 51

...3,000ft separation interval may be used.

Front 52

if a category II aircraft precedes a Category I aircraft in departure...

Back 52

...3,000ft separation interval may be used

Front 53

if either departing aircraft is a Category III aircraft...

Back 53

...6,000ft separation interval MUST be used.

Front 54

True or False: a local controller must actually wait for the appropriate separation interval to clear an aircraft for takeoff.

Back 54

FALSE

Front 55

clearance is issued because reasonable assurance that the correct separation will exist before the departing aircraft actually begins it takeoff roll.

Back 55

anticipated separation.

Front 56

flight path parallel to the landing runway in the direction of landings and departures

Back 56

UPWIND

Front 57

flight path at right angles to the landing runway on the departure end.

Back 57

CROSSWIND

Front 58

flight path parallel to the landing runway in the direction opposite to the landing.

Back 58

DOWNWIND

Front 59

flight path at right angles to the landing runway off its approach end and extending from the downwind leg to the intersection of the extended runway centerline

Back 59

BASE

Front 60

flight path in the direction of landing along the runway centerline extending from the baseleg to the runway

Back 60

FINAL

Front 61

What does ARTCC stand for?

Back 61

air route traffic control center

Front 62

what is an ARTCC?

Back 62

an air traffic control facility whose primary function is to provide separation to aircraft en route between airports

Front 63

what three types of controllers work at an ARTCC?

Back 63

-flight data controller
-RADAR controller
-RADAR associate/nonRADAR controller

Front 64

what does MARSA stand for?

Back 64

military assumes responsibility for separation of aircraft

Front 65

what is a MARSA?

Back 65

a condition whereby the military service responsibility for air traffic control separation between participating military aircraft.

Front 66

What does ADIZ stand for?

Back 66

air defense identification zones

Front 67

What is an ADIZ?

Back 67

area of airspace within which the identification, location, and control of aircraft is required for U.S. national security

Front 68

what does EFC stand for?

Back 68

expect further clearance

Front 69

what does CAF stand for?

Back 69

cleared as field

Front 70

what does ARSR stand for?

Back 70

airport radaio service area

Front 71

what does ASDE stand for?

Back 71

airport surface detection equipment

Front 72

what does ASR stand for?

Back 72

airport surveillance RADAR

Front 73

what does CENRAP stand for?

Back 73

central RADAR ARTS presentation

Front 74

what does LOA stand for?

Back 74

letter of agreement

Front 75

What does ASOS stand for?

Back 75

automated surface observation system

Front 76

5 things on a flight progress strip (CRADS)

Back 76

[C]learance
[R]oute
[A]ltitude
[D]eparture
[S]quawk code

Front 77

what does TIPH stand for?

Back 77

taxi into position and hold

Front 78

what does PIC stand for?

Back 78

pilot in control

Front 79

what does LAHSO stand for?

Back 79

land and hold short

Front 80

94% of _____ _____ ______ occure in VFR __________ ______

Back 80

Wake Turbulence Accidents/Weather Conditions

Front 81

what four things factor into wake turbulence

Back 81

-weight
-speed
-shape of wings
-configuration

Front 82

The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is: (3)

Back 82

-heavy
-clean
-slow

Front 83

name the 4 aircraft weight categories

Back 83

-heavy
-large
-small(+)
-small

Front 84

what type of aircraft is considered a superheavy although it does not meet definition

Back 84

B757

Front 85

name the three components of RADAR

Back 85

-Transmitter
-Antenna
-Reciever

Front 86

purpose of RADAR transmitter

Back 86

generates signal/pulse

Front 87

purpose of RADAR antenna

Back 87

transmits and receives signal

Front 88

purpose of RADAR receiver

Back 88

"ear", measures time/distance

Front 89

What is the difference between the three types of RADAR: PAR, ASR, ARSR

Back 89

-PAR:military~moveable, lateral and vertical guidance, 2 antenna, being replaced by ILS and GPS

-ASR:majority

-ARSR: centers

Front 90

what does the ASDE do?

Back 90

prevents runways incursions

Front 91

name the 4 features of Secondary RADAR

Back 91

-Ident Feature

-Code Selection

-Emergency and lost communication pre-set codes

-altitude encoding

Front 92

transponder codes like 7600, and 7500 are all ____-____ _____

Back 92

pre-set codes

Front 93

what does "RADAR service terminated" mean?

Back 93

aircraft not being watched anymore

Front 94

what is the purpose of the phrase "say altitude"?

Back 94

verify Mode C transponder is working accurately

Front 95

what does "say position" mean?

Back 95

verify position

Front 96

what does "Stop altitude squawk..." mean?

Back 96

-turn altitude encoding mode c transponder off~it is not working properly

-controllers will see everything but altitude

Front 97

what type of RADAR can be used in RADAR identification (3)

Back 97

-primary
-secondary
-both

Front 98

what is a primary target

Back 98

one with no transponder encoding

Front 99

What are the 3 methods of RADAR identification

Back 99

1)identify target with in 1 mile of end of runway at primary airport

2)pilot report over point on RADAR map display

3)observing turns of 30 degrees or more

Front 100

3 methods of secondary RADAR identification

Back 100

1)ident feature

2)select stand by

3)select codes

Front 101

what are the 6 ways to transfer RADAR identification

Back 101

-handoff

-RADAR contact

-point out

-point out approved

-traffic

-traffic observed

Front 102

RADAR IDENTIFICATION:
-transfer from one controller to another

-in or out of house

Back 102

handoff

Front 103

what two steps do you take to hand off

Back 103

slu and click

Front 104

when performing a handoff, if the automated doesn't work:

Back 104

use landline

Front 105

RADAR IDENTIFICATION:

-accepting aircraft is seen on RADAR

-can be used in handoff or point-out

Back 105

RADAR contact

Front 106

w/point out or handoff method, recognize traffic (2 types of RADAR identification)

Back 106

-traffic

-traffic observed

Front 107

SCENARIO:an aircraft wishes to briefly pass out of TOL airspace into DTW airspace. Name at least 3 possibilities

Back 107

-handed off

-not allowed in

-point out traffic

-etc.

Front 108

5 pro's of RADAR separation

Back 108

-permits a reduction of lateral and vertical separation from non-RADAR procedures

-saves customer cost of aircraft operation

-reduces controller workload

-Enhances Safey

Front 109

cots of a new transponder

Back 109

$60,000

Front 110

what does MSAW stand for?

Back 110

minimum safe altitude warning

Front 111

what is the MSAW

Back 111

a function of air traffic control computer systems that alerts the controller whenever a mode-C equipped aircraft is bellow or is predicted to descend below a predetermined minimum safe altitude