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268 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
which neurons are called the final common pathway?
- spinal motor neurons
spinal motor neurons receive _____ and _____ input from the same spinal segment
- sensory
- interneuron
spinal motor neurons also receive input from ___________, _______ and _______
- other spinal segments
- the brain stem
- the cortex
the integrated activity of multiple inputs to the spinal motor neurons __________ and makes _____ possible.
- regulates balance
- coordinated movement
give the 3 major functions served by the many inputs to spinal neurons
- bring about voluntary activity
- adjust posture to make the body stable to support movement
- coordinate muscle to make the movement smooth and precise
where is voluntary muscle activity planned?
- the cortex
cortical commands are sent to muscle via these two pathways
- corticospinal tract
- corticobulbar tract
other areas besides the cortex that are involved in voluntary muscle activity
- the basal ganglia
- the neocerebellum
posture regulating systems involve portions of the (3 things)
- cortex
- cerebellum
- cord
the spinocerebellum functions to _____ and _____ movement
- smooth
- coordinate
the motor cortex is involved in both the ______ and ______ of voluntary activity
- planning
- execution
____ – is the concept that the cortex is more important in various functions in those species in which __________.
- encephalization
- the cortex is highly developed
loss of the cortex is more important in _____ than in _______
- primates
- lower animals
axial muscles are those of the ______ and the ______
- trunk
- proximal portions of the limbs
distal muscles are those of the
- distal portions of the limbs
axial muscles are concerned with ______ and _______
- posture
- gross movement
distal muscles are concerned with _____, or _______
- fine
- skilled movement
axial muscles are controlled by _____ or _____ spinal pathways
- medial
- ventral
distal muscles are controlled by ______ spinal pathways
- lateral
pyramidal tracts of the spinal cord are those of the _________ which pass through the ______
- lateral cerebrospinal tract
- pyramids of the medulla (where they dessucate)
extrapyramidal fibers are the fibers of the _____. They are also fibers of the medulla but do not pass through the _____.
- ventral corticospinal tract
- pyramids
drugs, especially _______, are said to have "extrapyramidal" effects, interfering with the activity of _______
- phenothiazines
- axial muscle
these extrapyramidal effects can be, for example, ______ or _____
- tremors
- dyskinesias
upper vs. lower motor neurons
- upper motor neurons are those of the brain and spinal cord
- lower are those that innervate skeletal muscle
The Motor Cortex – The portion of the cortex concerned with _______ is located just forward of the ____________
- somatic motor function
- somatosensory cortex
posture regulating systems are multiple. they involve structures and integration of the _____, ______, ______, and _____.
- spinal cord
- medulla
- midbrain
- cortex
name the five structures that make up the basal ganglia
- caudate nucleus
- putamen
- globus pallidus
- subthalamic nucleus
- substantia nigra
two other structures are associated with the basal ganglia
- striatum
- lenticular nucleus
the striatum is composed of the _____ and the _______
- caudate nucleus
- putamen
the lenticular nucleus is composed of the ______ and the ________
- putamen
- globus pallidus
transmitters utilized in the basal ganglia include (3)
- ACh
- dopamine
- GABA
disorders characterized by excessive or abnormal movements are called
- hypekinetic disorders
Parkinson's disease is characterized by degeneration of _______ neurons in the ________ tract
- dopaminergic
- nigrostriatal
the degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in Parkinson's disease deprives ACh interneurons in the ______ of _____________
- striatum
- balancing inhibitory dopamine input
parkinson's disease symptoms
- akinesia and bradykinesia
- rigidity
- tremor
- shuffling gait
- excessive salivation
the cerebellum sits over the _____ and ______ and is thus in good position to interact with _____________
- medulla
- pons
- the major motor and sensory pathways of the brain
the connections from the cerebellum to the rest of the CNS feed in at the ____ and _____
- medulla
- pons
small, medial portion of the underside of the cerebellum is called the ________ or the _______
- flocculonodular node
- vestibulocerebellum
the flocculonodular node is concerned with _______ and has vestibular (inner ear) connections. It may be the site of where _______ develops.
- equilibrium
- motion sickness
the medial core of the cerebellum is the __________ also called the ______ or ________
- spinocerebellum
- intermediate cerebellum
- paleocerebellum
the medial core of the cerebellum recieves input from _________ and from the _____ and coordinates and smoothes movements
- proprioceptors
- motor cortex
lateral portions of the cerebellum are called the ________, also called the _________ or ________
- cerebrocerebellum
- neocerebellum
- lateral cerebellum
functions of the autonomic nervous system include
- smooth muscle
- the heart
- secretion by glands
the outflows of the ANS are divided into these two components (include specific names for outflows)
- Sympathetic Nervous System (Thoracolumbar outflow)
- Parasympathetic Nervous System (Craniosarcal outflow)
the major portion of study of the ANS is devoted to the_____ portions of the system
- motor
both the SNS and the PNS consist of ________ and ______ neurons
- preganglionic
- postganglionic
the preganglionic neurons of the SNS are located in the ____________ of the ______ and ______ segments of the cord
- intermediolateral gray
- thoracic
- lumbar
pre-ganglionic neurons of the SNS flow out through the _______
- ventral roots
pre-ganglionic neurons of the SNS pass via the _____________ to the ____________
- white rami communicantes
- paravertebral sympathetic ganglion chain
the paravertebral sympathetic ganglia contain nerve cell bodies of the __________
- post-ganglionic neurons
the pre-ganglionic axons synapse on the post-ganglionic nerve cell bodies in the
- paraverterbal sympathetic ganglion chain
preganglionic neurons of the PNS arise in two location
- the nuclei of cranial nerves
- the sacral intermediolateral spinal horns
the preganglionic axons of the PNS flow out in _____ and _____ nerves to ganglia on or near the organs and tissues innervated
- cranial nerves
- sacral spinal nerves
the preganglionic neurons of the PNS synapse on postganglionic neurons which flow out to
- organs/tissues
transmission at the synaptic and junctional sties in the ANS is
- chemically mediated
the two principle transmitters in the ANS are
- acetylcholine
- norepinephrine
secondarily ________ and ______ may also serve transmitter roles in the ANS
- dopamine
- GnRH
in addition to listed transmitters, _______ are also found in ANS neurons
- cotransmitters
all preganglionic neurons in both the SNS and PNS are ______ neurons
- cholinergic
PNS postganglionic neurons are ______ neurons
- cholinergic
anatomically postganglionic SNS neurons to sweat (hot) glands are ______ neurons
- cholinergic
anatomically postganglionic SNS neurons which cause vasodilation in skeletal muscle blood vessels are ______ neurons
- cholinergic
the only norepinephrine releasing neurons are the ___________ neurons
- postganglioninc SNS neurons
transmission in sympathetic ganglia routinely results in several types of _____________
- post synaptic potentials
characteristics of a "fast EPSP"
- generates AP's in the postganglionic neuron
- is due to ACh and Nicotinic receptor of post-synaptic membrane
characteristics of a "slow IPSP"
- produced in the post-ganglionic membrane by dopamine released from an interneuron
- the interneuron is stimulated by ACh via a muscarinic receptor
characteristics of a "slow EPSP"
- produced by ACh acting on a muscarinc receptor in a postganglionic neuron
characteristics of a "late slow EPSP"
- lasting minutes
- produced in the postganglionic neuron by GnRH or a similar peptide
the adrenal medulla is functionally a __________
sympathetic ganglia
preganglionic ACh fibers innervate the secretory cells ________
- adrenal medulla
in response to ACh stimulation, secretory cells of the adrenal medulla ___________________
- secrete epinephrine and norepinephrine into the bloodstream
postganglionic PNS receptor sites are cholinergic neurons, specifically using _______ receptors
- muscarinic
the SNS functions to help during ______ situations, but is always active in _________________
- stressful
- regulation of BP, metabolic function, dilation of the pupil, etc.
in general only the _____ innervates blood vessels and controls constriction/dilation
- SNS
the smooth muscle surrounding hollow viscera is usually innervated by ___________
- both SNS and PNS neurons
- generally, dicharge of one system stimulates, and the other inhibits
in the sphincter innervation system both PNS and SNS innervation is _________
- excitatory, however one constricts and the other dilates
the effects of cholinergic discharge are usually ______, ______, or _______
- discrete
- local
- of short duration
effects of norepinephrine are usually more ______ or ______
- persistent
- widely spread
three types of integration in autonomic reflexes
- simple reflex arcs to the spinal cord
- complex arcs involving the medulla and hypothalamus
- complex arcs with the hypothalamus and limbic system
the medulla oblongata contains so called __________ for control of ____, ______, and ______
- "vital centers"
- BP
- heartrate
- respiration
other medullary autonomic reflexes include
- swallowing
- coughing
- sneezing
- gagging
vomiting is another medullary reflex involving ________ as well as ______ reflexes
- somatic (skeletal muscle gets in volved)
- autonomic
the "vomiting center" is located in the ___________ of the _______
- reticular formation
- medulla
among inputs to the vomiting center are these six stimuli
- emotional stimuli (sights and sounds via the limbic system)
- direct irritation of GI mucosa
- blood-borne substances stimulating the CTZ
- vestibular stimuli (balance, equilibrium)
- heart?
- CNS - cortex
nausea can ariase from the ____________ in the _________ on the ______ of the _______
- chemoreceptor trigger zone
- area postrema
- lateral wall
- 4th ventricle
- the CTZ is more permeable than other portions of the CNS to ________
- drugs, toxins, etc.
the hypothalamus is connected to the anterior pituitary by _______ and portions to the anterior lobe are __________
- vascular connections (a portal system)
- permeable to blood-borne subastances
the posterior pituitary is connected to the hypothalamus by _____
- neurons
the hypothalamus is little concerned with visceral reflexes themselves, but involved in more complex phenomenon in which visceral reflexes and emotional responses are involved. These include influence on (3)
- endocrine secretion
- autonomic function
- motor function
relation of the hypothalamus to autonomic function (SNS/PNS)
- PNS center - no evidence of existance
- SNS - several SNS responses can be brought about by stimulation so this is difficult to determine
hypothalamus and sleep
- little evidence of a "sleep center", but lesions here damage the RAS, impairing alertness
part of the hypothalamus recieves input from the _____ and is believed to be involved in regulation of functions linked to _______. These are controlled by the two
- optic tract
- light/dark cycles (circadian rhythms)
- suprachismatic nuclei
the hypothalamus contains two centers for appetite control
- feeding center
- satiety center
anorexia is associated with destruction of the
-feeding center of the hypothalamus
- stimulation normally causes eating
stimulation of the satiety center causes ______ and destruction causes ______
- cessation of eating
- hyperphagia
the feeding center is _____ active and the SC functions to inhibit when full
- tonically (always)
when glucose utilization is low the satiety center is
- inhibitied
- active when glucose is high (inhibiting the FC)
transmitters involved in regulating food intake appear to include _____, ______, and ______
- norepinephrine
- neuropeptide-Y
- possibly others
four theories regarding afferent signals modifying hunger/satiety neurons in the hypothalamus
- lipostatic hypothesis
- gut peptide hypothesis
- glucostatic hypothesis
- thermostatic hypothesis
the gut peptide hypothesis states that
- food in the GI decreases feeding via hormones and insulin carried to the hypothalamus
the glucostatic hypothesis states that
- glucose utilization in the hypothalamus decreases feeding
the lipostatic hypothesis states that
- adipose tissue produces a signal that decreases food intake. The protein leptin (thin) is produced in proportion to the amount of body fat. Obese humans produce leptin in proportion to obesity, so they may have a defective receptor.
the thermostatic hypothesis states that
- changes in body temperature triggers hunger/satiety
5 minor factors that modify food intake
- limbic system - lesions cause omnophagia
- the environment (hot/cold)
- the state of filling/distention of stomach/GIT
- metabolic imbalances (diabetes) - low energy output
- cultural and phychological factors
thirst is regulated in the hypothalamus by systems that detect ______ and _______
- plasma osmolarity
- extracellular fluid volume
the hypothalamus contains _______, cells which sense osmolality of the blood.
- osmoreceptors
in the hypothalamus, extracellular fluid volume is controlled by input from _______ and the _________
- baroreceptors
- Renin-Angiotensin system
antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is also called _______
- vasopressin
vasopressin's function in the kidneys
- increases the permeability of the collecting ducts to water, causing urine to become more concentrated
the final effect of vasopressin, in that it causes reuptake of water into the blood, leaving solutes behind is that ______
- the osmolality of blood is diluted
- the two major stimuli causing vasopressin secretion in the posterior pituitary is _______ by way of the ______
- increased plasma osmolality and low ECF volume
- hypothalamus
- a secondary effect of vasopressin is vasoconstriction without an increase in BP. This occurs by what mechanism
- stimulation of smooth muscle contraction
- decreacing cardiac output via the area postrema
- this phenomenon is used to control hemorrhage without stimulating the heart
two receptors responsible for the action of vasopressin, and 2nd messengers
- V1 receptors (phospholipase C) vasoconstricts blood vessels
- V2 receptors (adenalyl cyclase) causes effects in the kidney
diabetes insipidus is characterised by ______ and _______
- polyuria
- polydispia
diabetes insipidus may be due to _____________ or ____________
- failure to secrete vasopressin
- failure of the kidney to respond to vasopressin (Nephrogenic DI)
SIADH stands for __________ and is due to hypersecretion of vasopressin. Causes ______ and ______ and is caused by _____
- Syndrome of Inappropriate AntiDiuretic hormone Hypersecretion
- concentrated urine/dilute ECF
- tumors and other causes
two primary functions of oxytocin are _______ and ________
- milk secretion
- uterine contraction
oxytocin's effect on milk secretion is due to _______________
- contraction of myoepithelial cells lining the ducts of the breasts
three causes of oxytocin secretion
- touch receptors in the nipple
- genetal stimulation
- emotional stimulation
oxytocin may have an effect during _________ because of _______ and may cause ____ or ______
- late pregnancy
- upregulation of receptors
- initiation or enhancement of labor
two controllers of posterior pituitary secretion are
- vasopressin (ADH)
- oxytocin
in response to corticotropin RH (___), the anterior pituitary secretes _______
- (CRH)
- adrenocorticotropin hormone (ACTH)
in response to thyrotropin RH (___), the anterior pituitary secretes _______
- TRH
- thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
in response to gonadotropin releasing hormone (___), the anterior pituitary secretes _______
- GnRH
- leutenizing hormone (LH) OR
- follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) depending on the modulation of GnRH
GRH vs. GIH
- growth hormone releasing hormone
- growth hormone inhibiting hormone
PRH vs. PIH
- prolactin releasing H
- prolactin inhibiting H
temperature regulating center in the hypothalamus is sensitive to two types of input
- cutaneous temp. receptors (mostly cold)
- temp-sensitive cells within the hypothalamus
high temperature response is mediated solely through ______
- heat sensitive cells in the hypothalamus
fever is produced in response to pyrogens which cause monophages, monocytes, etc. to release _____ which, through action of the OVLT, alters the ______ area of the hypothalamus
- cytokines
- preoptic
activation of the pre-optic area of the hypothalamus produces ______ which are derived from ______ and ______
- prostaglandins
- membrane phospholipids
- DAG
the rim of tissue around the inner layer of the cortex is called the ________ and is part of the ______
- allocortex
- limbic system
the limbic system consists of certain nuclei of the brain including the _______, _______ and _______
- amygdala
- hipocampus
- septal nuclei
the allocortex and neocortex are in close approximation but have _______
- few interconnecting nerve tracts
a characteristic of limbic system circuits is that they exhibit ____________, causing lengthy emotional response
- prolonged after-discharge
limbic system functions (in coordination with the hypothalamus) include _____, _____, ______, and _____
- feeding behavior
- rage and fear
- sexual behavior
- motivation
physical aspects of mating are controlled through ___________
- lower brain stem reflex arcs
behavioral components of sexual behavior are controlled by ______ and _______
- the limbic system
- the hypothalamus
the area of localization of sexual function in the male is the _______
- amygdala
three things that abolish seeking sexual behavior in females of other species
- removal of neocortex
- removal of limbic system
- lesions in the hypothalamus
exposure of females to androgen steroids ______ does not seem to affect steroid secretion as an adult but may affect ______
- in utero
- behavior
fear is characterized by _____ or ______. rage is produced similarly but involves
- fleeing/avoidance
- attacking/fighting
fear reaction seems to be centered in the _____ and _____, while rage seems to be centered in the ______ and ______
- hypothalamus and amygdala
- hypothalamus and septal nuclei
these portions of the midbrain, when stimulated lead to pelasure, while others lead to unpleasant feelings
- hypothalamus
- limbic system
the cite where motivation and reward is located is currently thought to be the ________
- nucleus accumbens
malfunctions of the nucleus accumbens may result in ______, ______, and perhaps ______
- addiction
- depression
- ADD
four similarities of the four monoamine neuron types
- neurons are found in relatively few places
- axons project diffusely via the MFB to all areas of the cortex
- axons are small and unmyelinated
- varicosities - diffuse effect rather than specific stimulation
serotonergic neuron cell bodies are located in the _________ of the brain stem and project via the MFB to the entire cortex
- midline raphe nuclei
serotonin receptor subtypes can affect the following six functions
- depression
- sleep
- anxiety
- migraine headaches
- nausea/vomiting
- addiction
norepinepherine releasing neurons originate in two places (include locations of those places)
- in the locus ceruleus on the floor of the 4th ventricle
- the lateral tegmental system of the pons and medulla
dopamine containing neurons arise from 3 locations
- substantia nigra (projects to the corpus striatum (nigrostriatal))
- ventral tegmental area
- arcuate nucleus of the hypothalamus
the dopaminergic pathway from the ventral tegmental area is involved in _____, _______, and _______
- psychoses
- depression
- addiction
- possibly eating disorders
the dopaminergic pathway from the arcuate nucleus in the hypothalamus to the median eminence of the hypothalamus is called the
- tuberoinfundibular system
the tuberinfundibular system is involved in the secretion of ______
- prolactin
four important pathways for acetylcholine releasing neurons
- from the basal forebrain to the cortex, hippocampus
- from the brain stem to the thalamus and substantia nigra
- from the basal nucleus of Meynert and associated nuclei diffusely to amygdala and cortex
- from the pontopeduncular and lateral tegmental nuclei diffusely to the amygdala and entire neocortex
alzheimer's desease results in a loss of acetylcholine receptors that pass from
- the basal nucleus of mynert and associated nuclei to the amygdala and neocortex
the cholinergic neurons involved in motivation, perception, and cognition pass from
- the pontopeduncular and lateral tegmental nuclei diffusely to the amygdala and the entire neocortex
ACH neurons are also involved in _______ and _______ and is an excitatory transmitter in the ______
- vision
- drinking
- basal ganglia
________ neurons are located in the CNS but their role is uncertain
- epinephrine
the limbic system and associated structures also contain ______ and ______ receptors
- opioid
- GABA
the higher functions of the CNS, namely _____, _____, ______, and _____ are mediated through the neocortex
- learning
- memory
- judgement
- language
learning is _______. Memory is _______
- the ability to alter behavior based on past experience or instruction
- the ability to recall facts
virtually all intellectual functions are language based and occur where?
- Wernicke's area, often described as the "seat of intelligence"
word formation occurs in where?
- Boca's area
this sort of memory is associated with conscious recall, often involving comparison of past events to current events
- explicit memory
explicit memory can be divided into two types
- episodic explicit memory - events
- semantic explicit memory - words, rules, language, etc.
explicit memory is dependent on the _____ and parts of the _______
- hipocampus
- medial temporal lobe
implicit memory is also called ______ or ______ memory
- nondeclarative
- reflexive
this type of memory is developed through constant repitition
- implicit memory
an area that recieves and analyses signals from multiple areas of the cortex or subcortical areas is called
- an association area
conversion of explicit to implicit memory involves _______
- cerebellum
three steps of the explicit memory process of formation
- working or short-term memory which lasts a few seconds or minutes (frontal cortex)
- processing in the hippocampus and adjacent cortec to generate long term memory
- storage in diverse parts of the neocortex
long term memory is like computer data in that it is _______
- corruptable
one way to enhance ability to transition of information from intermediate to long term memory
- rehearsal of the same information over and over again
this type of learning involves an organism learning about a single stimulus. _______ involves multiple stimuli
- nonassociative learning
- associative learning
forms of nonassociative learning include _______ and _______
- habitiuation
- sensitization
________ refers to the response to a single neutral stimulus. The first response is curiosity. Each exposure leads to --> no response.
- habituation
_______ is when a stimulus is paired more than once with a pleasant or unpleasant consequence
- sensitization
stimuli that produce sensitization have _______ - a recognizable factor that increases its value to the organism.
- arousal value
associative learning includes ________
- conditioned reflexes
in conditioned reflexes, the stimulus which normally produces the response is called the __________
- unconditioned stimulus (food in dog's mouth)
the stimulus which acquires a response is called the ___________
- conditioned stimulus (ringing bell)
_______ refers the conditioning of visceral responses not normally under voluntary control
- biofeedback
________ is conditioning in which a subject is thought to perform some operation on the environment in order to avoid a punishment or obtain reward
- operant conditioning
the left (categorical) hemisphere generally contains these three things
- written and spoken language skils
- numeric & scientific skills
- reasoning skills
the right (representational) hemisphere generally contains these four things
- musical/artistic awareness
- space/pattern perception
- insight
- imagination/generation of mental images
________ lesions in the categorical hemisphere cause ________
- parietal
- aphasias
lesions in the representational hemisphere create ________, which are ________________
- agnosias
- inability to identify objects utilizing a particular sense
lesions in the parietal representational hemisphere can produce
- unilateral inattention and neglect
Wernicke's area is found at the ________ of the _______ of the ________
- posterior end
- temporal lobe gyri
- categorical hemisphere
the _______ is a tract connecting wernicke's area and Broca's area
- Arcurate fasciulus
________ processes information from Wernicke's area into a verbal response and projects the respons to the _________ for implementation of the resonance by the lips, tongue, and larynx.
- Broca's area
- motor cortex
Broca's area is found in the ______ at the ________ of the ______ of the ________
- frontal lobe
- inferior end
- motor cortex
- categorical hemisphere
abnormalities of language functions not due to defects in ______ or _______ or ________ are called aphasias
- vision
- hearing
- motor paralysis
animals become frustrated when unable to distinguish between two stimuli. this is called ________
- experimental neurosis
ablation of the frontal lobe has four effects in humans
- intelligence is little effected
- responses requiring memory participation are abnormal
- temporal ordering of events is abnormal
- there is a decrease in neurotic or psychotic behavior
reasons we don't do prefronal lobotomies in humans with psychoses
- not all symptoms abate
- followed by a lack of concern about pain
- lack of concern about relationships, social amenities (social control)
psychoses are severe disorders of though characterized by five things
- marked impairment of behavior
- inability to think coherently
- inability to comprehend reality
- inability to realize these abnormalities
- often includes delusions and hallucinations
psychoses are divided into two groups
- organic conditions
- functional disorders
________ are psychoses characterized by the marked impairment of behavior plus confusion, disorientation, and memory disturbance
- organic psychoses
organic psychoses are often associated with definable ______, ____, or _____ changes
- toxic
- metabolic
- neuropathic
_________ are idiopathic psychoses, marked by orientation and intact memory but severly disordered reasoning, behavior, emotion...etc.
- functional psychoses
functional disorders are not associated with toxic, metabolic, neuropathic changes, but include the _________ and _______
- manic-depressive disorder
- schizophrenia/paranoia
scizophrenia is a comlex syndrome of _______ and ____ thoughts, ______, _____ , __________, and ______________
- disorganized and bizzare
- delusions, hallucinations
- impaired affect (emotion)
- impaired psychological functioning
four positive symptoms associated with schizophrenia
- hallucinations
- delusions
- disorganized speech
- disorganized behavior
five negative symptoms associated with schizophrenia
- affective (emotional) flattening
- alogia - no conversation initiation
- avolition - lack of drive
- anhedonia - no pleasure from normal activities
- withdrawal - emotional/social
four cognitive symptoms associated with schizophrenia
- impaired attention
- impaired executive function
- impaired memory
- decreased verbal fluency
four mood symptoms associated with schizophrenia
- depression
- anxiety
- hostility
- excitement
prevalence of psychosis is about ___ in all societies and the age of onset is usually 18(male) - 25(female) and rarely appears after age ___
- 1%
- 40
- schizophrenia has a ____ incidence when a 1st degree relative has it and a ____ if both parents have it ____ for a homozygus twin
- 10%
- 40%
- 48%
schizophrenia is caused when _____ or ____ neurons overstimulate _____ cells
- GABA or ACh
- pyramidal cells of the cortex
the transmitter usually implicated in schizophrenia is _______, given that all ______________
- dopamine
- antipsychotics block dopamine receptors
the dopamine pathways involved in psychoses are ______ and _______
- mesocortical
- mesolimbic
PET images of psychoses sufferers show receptor dysfunction in the _______ and _______
- caudate nucleus
- frontal cortex
in psychoses, in the caudate nucleus, there seem to be an increased number of _____ and ___________________
- D-2 receptors
- an increased number in the frontal cortex
it has been suggested that the positive symptoms of psychosis originate in the _______
- mesocaudate
it has been suggested that the negative symptoms of psychosis originate in the ________
- prefrontal cortex
in addition to dopamine, some antipsychotics block the actions of _______ in the _____. These gents are more effective
- serotonin
- cortex
the most common functional psychosis is _________
- schizophrenia
the first schizophrenia episode may be sudden in onset or preceded by ______, ______ or ______ behavior
- withdrawn
- suspicious
- peculiar (shizoid)
schizophrenia causes disturbance in _____ and _____
- sleep
- appetite
residual symptoms of schizophrenia include (5)
- anxiety
- suspicion
- poor judgement
- lack of insight
- lack of volition (drive)
- historicity (inability to learn from mistakes)
shizophrenia is difficult to treat because ____________
- patients usually have difficulty understanding the importance of their medications
prognosis for schizophrenia
- poor
- may be intermittent
- may improve later in life
______ is defined as a pervasive and sustained emotion that markedly affects the person's perception of the world and their ability to adequately function in society
- mood
___________ are mood changes that _____________
- mood disorder
- affect functional ability
mood disorders are very generally divided into these two categories
- bi-polar (manic/depressive) disorder
- depressive disorders
if sympoms are not severe enough for bi-polar disorder _____ may be present
- dysthymic disorder
prevalence of depressive disorders is about _____
- 17%
- 10% within 12 months
depression is most common from ages ______ and in 2-3x more common in women
- 25-44
patients have a 3 fold increased risk of ______ with every 1st degree relative who has it
- depression
about half of depression patients exhibit a _______ abnormality including ___________ and __________
- neuroendocrine
- hypercortisol secretion
- failure of dexomethasone to suppress secretion
the DST test has a high degree of fals negatives and false positives, but does detect a potential for ______
- suicide
four hypothesis regarding depression (in chronological order)
- biogenic amine hypothisis
- synaptic changes in receptor sensitivity
- 5-HT/NE link hypothesis
- dopamine in depression
- this hypothesis regarding depression states that inadequate monoaminergic transmission was responsible.
- biogenic amine hypothesis
the biogenic amine hypothesis was based on the effects of ______ which depletes 5-HT, NE, DA
- reserpine
problem with the biogenic amine hypothesis was that ________ and it was then thought that ___________ were brought about by receptor down-regulation
- the time course was too quick
- synaptic changes in receptor sensitivity
this hypothesis regarding depression stated that no single transmitter system was responsible, but that changes must affect two systems to cause depression
- 5-HT/NE link hypothesis
- most people think serotonin is more important
the final hypothesis of depression states that the final common pathway for antidepressant medications is increased_______ transmission in the ________
- dopamine
- nucleus accumbens
- drugs may have priamary action on 5-HT or NE, but ultimately they affect DA transmissions
__________ is said to be due to genetic deficiency of D2 receptors in the nucleus accumbens.
- reward deficiency syndrome
five transmitters interact in the motivation/reward function of the nucleus accumbens
- glutamate
- GABA
- serotonin
- opioids
- dopamine
individuals with reward deficiency syndrome may exhibit ______
- anhedonia
individuals with reward deficiency syndrome may seek out dopamine releasing stimuli such as
- food
- alcohol
- opiates
- cocaine
- methamphetamine
- antidepressants
- antianxiety agents
physical symptoms of depression include (5)
- fatigue (esp. morning)
- pain (headaches)
- sleep disturbances
- appetite disturbances
- loss of interest in sex
intellectual or cognitive symptoms of depression (4)
- decreased ability to concentrate
- slowed thinking
- poor memory
- indeciciveness
psychomotor disturbances of dpression
- speech, physical movements, thinking may appear slow
- may be psychomotor agitation
(pacing, wringing hands, shouting)
epilepsy is characterized by a periodic reoccurance of _______ with or without convulsions
- seizure
only about ____of those suffering seizure develops epilepsy
- 1/3
epilepsy is most common in _____ and ________
- the young
- the elderly
seizures associated with _____, ______, ______ or _____ should not be considered epilepsy
- drug withdrawal
- illness
- toxins
- fever
three risk factors for epilepsy
- genetic predisposition
- mental retardation/palsy
- old age - tumor/head trauma, CV disease
in an individual with epilepsy, these 5 things can provoke siezure
- sleep deprivation
- emotional stress
- hyperventillation
- hormonal changes (menses/puberty)
- head trauma, CNS infection, stroke
seizure is characterized by _______ discharges occurring _______ in a large population of cortical neurons
- paroxysmal
- synchronously
seizures look like a ______ on an EEG
- large spike
seizures can be traced to an unstable ______ or _______ cell
- cortical
- sub-cortical gray matter
in a seizure, abnormal activity begins in a _____ and spreads to normal neurons, changing normal conductances and altering the _____________
- focus
- balancing inhibitory pathways
factors relating to an unstable membrane potential in epileptics
- defects in voltage gated channels
- defects in a transport proteins
- elevated excitatory transmitter levels (5-HT, NE, ACh, and other)
- low levels of inhibitatory transmitter levels (GABA)
- changes in glucose, oxygen, sodium levels
antiseizure medications ________ of neurons to chemical by _____________
- elevate the threshold
- blocking ion channels
- keeps a "focus" from firing abnormaly
other antiseizure medications prevent the spread of the abnormal activity by ________
- limiting synaptic transmission
seizures are best treated _______
- early after onset
two main types of seizures
- generalized seizures - both hemisphere (40%)
- partial seizures - localized to one hemisphere (60%)
three types of partial seizures
- simple partial
- complex partial
- partial with secondarily generalized tonic/clonic seizures
three types of generalized seizures
- absent seizures
- myoclonic seizures
- tonic/clonic seizures
______ seizures are characterized by staring spells and common in children
- absent seizures
- generalized
tonic/clonic seizures are a generalized seizure which begins with a clinching of muscles (_______) and goes on to a full convulsive seizure (______)
- petit mal
- grand mal
________ seizures are characterized by quick, sudden jerks experienced mostly in the mornings
- myoclonic seizures
_______ seizures are those in which the person remains conscious and has a wide variety of manifestaion
- simple partial seizure
_______ are seizures in which consciousness is impaired - often associated with purposeless movements
- complex partial
partial seizures are often________
- secondarily generalized