Study your flashcards anywhere!

Download the official Cram app for free >

  • Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off

How to study your flashcards.

Right/Left arrow keys: Navigate between flashcards.right arrow keyleft arrow key

Up/Down arrow keys: Flip the card between the front and back.down keyup key

H key: Show hint (3rd side).h key

A key: Read text to speech.a key


Play button


Play button




Click to flip

106 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What is the difference between endocrine and exocrine glands?
Exocrine glands secrete their products into ducts that then carry them onto cavies, lumen or outer surface of body. Endocrine glands secrete their products into interstitial fluid.
What 6 hormones does the anterior pituitary produce?
Human Growth Hormone (hGH), Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), luteinizing hormone (LH), Prolectin (PRL), Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
What hormones does the posterior pituitary hormone produce?
Oxytocin and Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
What hormones does the thyroid produce?
thyroid hormones (T4 and T3), calcitonin (CT)
What hormone does the parathyroid produce?
PTH -- parathyroid hormone
What hormones does the adrenal cortex produce?
Mineralcoticoids, glucocorticoids, and androgen
What hormones does the adrenal medulla produce?
epinephrine and norepinephrine
What hormones does the pancreas produce?
glucagon and insulin
What hormones do the ovaries produce?
estrogens and progesterone
What hormone does the testes produce?
What hormone influences blood glucose levels?
glucagon increases blood glucose levels. Insulin decreases the level of blood glucose
What hormones regulate blood levels of electrolytes?
Calcitonin (CT) decreases blood CA+ by promoting movement of blood Ca+ into bone matric. PTH moves Ca+ from bone to blood and slows Ca+ and Mg+ lost in urine. Mineralcorticoids (such as Aldosterone) increase Na+ and decreases K+ in the blood.
What is the normal range of red and white blood cells?
RBC 4.5-5 million/cubic mm
WBC 5,000-10,000/cubic mm
What is the clinical significance of an increase in each type of WBC?
Neutrophils -- bacterial inf or leukemia
Eosinophils -- allergic or parasitic disease
Basophils -- chronic infection or leukemia
Lymphocytes -- viral infection or leukemia
Monocytes -- infectious monocytosis or leukemia
Descirbe the process of blood clotting?
Substances released from damaged tissue result in the formation of prothrombinase, which converts prothrombin into thrombin. Thrombin converts soluble fibrinogen into insoluble fibrin.
What is the function of heparin?
it is an anticoagulant that inhibits the conversion of prothrombin into thrombin.
What is the function of warfarin?
it is an anticoagulant that antagonizes vitamin K thus inhibiting 4 clotting factors.
What effect does aspirin have on blood clotting?
It inhibits vascular spasm and platelet aggregation.
Describe the ABO blood typing system.
RBCs can contain A, B, both or no antigen. Blood plasma can contain the opposite antibody. IE: Antigen A/Anti-B antibody; Antigen B/Anti-A antibody; Antigen A&B/no antibodies; or No antigens/Anti-A&B antibodies
Describe Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn?
Rh negative mother develops antibodies to Rh positive fetus. Mother's anti-Rh antibodies may pass from mother's blood to the fetus and destroy fetus' RBCs.
What is the normal pacemaker of the heart and what is normal heart rate?
Sinoatrial node is the heart's pacemaker. Normal heart rate is 60-100 bpm.
On EKG, what does the P wave represent?
activity of the atria (depolarization)
On EKG, what does ORS complex represent?
activity of the ventricles (depolarization)
On EKG, what does T wave represent?
recovery activity of the ventricles (repolarization)
What are S1 and S2 and how are they produced?
S1 is the first and longer heart sound produced by the AV valves closing after ventricular systole begins. S2 is the second and shorter heart sound and is produced by the semilunar valves closing at the end of ventricular systole.
Describe left heart failure.
SX: lung congestion, acute pulmonary edema
Commonly results from acute cardiac infarction
Describe right heart failure.
SX: systemic congestion and peripheral edema. Coomonly results from chronic pulmonary heart disease.
What is the primary cause of CAD - coronary artery disease?
atheroscerosis -- the accumulation of atherosclerotic plaques in coronary arteries that leads to reduction in blood flow to the myocardium.
What is the most common cause of valvular heart disease and which valve is most commonly effected?
Cause -- rheumatic fever
generally effects the mitral valve.
What is hypertension and what are the influencing factors?
BP greater than 140/90
Factors: family history, high Na+ intake, obesity, endocrine and nervous factors
what does hGH -- human growth hormone -- do?
1. causes cells to grow and multiply and increase rate of protein synthesis
2.promotes breakdown of liver glycogen into glucose
3. increases lipolysis and use of fatty acids for ATP production
what controls hGH?
hGH is controlled by hypothalmic releasing and inhibiting hormones.
What does TSH (thyroid stimulating hormone) do?
TSH stimulates the thyroid to synthesize and release T4 and T3.
What controls TSH?
TSH is controlled by blood levels of T4 and T3 thru a negative feedback system and by hypothalmic releasing hormone.
What does follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) do?
In females FSH acts on the ovaries to stimulate egg production and release of estrogen. In males FSH acts on the testes to stimulate sperm production.
How is FSH controlled?
Stimulated by gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH) from the hypothalmus and blood levels of estrogen (in females) and blood levels of testosterone (in males.)
What does Luteinizing hormone do?
LH triggers the release of oocyte from ovaries and stimulates the secretion of estrogens and progesterone after ovulation. In males LH stimulates the secretion of testosterone.
How is LH controlled?
LH is controlled by gonadotropin releasing hormone and blood levels of estrogens (in females) and blood levels of testosterone (in males.)
What does Prolectin do?
PRL brings about milk secretion after pregnancy.
How is Prolectin controlled?
PRL is controlled by releasing and inhibiting hormones from the hypothalmus.
What does ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone) do?
ACTH controls production and secretion of glucocorticoids by the adrenal cortex.
How is ACTH controlled?
A hypothalmic releasing hormone as well as stress related stimuli (low blood glucose or physical trauma) stimulate secretion of ACTH. High blood levels of glucocorticoids control ACTH.
What does oxytocin do?
During delivery oxytocin enhances contraction of smooth muscle in the uterus wall. After delivery it stimulates milk ejection.
What does ADH (antidiuretic hormone) do?
ADH promotes water resorption from renal tubules and decrease urine production. It also decrease water lost thru sweating.
Why is ADH called a vasopressin?
ADH causes constriction of arterioles thus causing blood pressure to increase.
What do the thyroid hormones (T4 and T3) do?
-increase basal metabolic rate
-increase oxygen use and cellular metabolism
-growth & development of body
What controls T4 and T3?
regulated by hypothalmic releasing hormones and TSH thru a negative feedback system. May also be influenced by things like the weather.
What is the function of mineralocorticoids?
help control homeostasis of water, Na+, and K+
What does aldosterone do?
increases Na+ resorption from renal tubes and stimulates excretion of K+ in urine. Thus increases blood Na+ and water levels and decrease K+ levels.
What do glucocorticoids do?
-promote breakdown of proteins into amino acids
-promote glucose formation from amino or lactic acids
-stimlulate lipolysis
-stress resistance in the form of vasopression and elevated bp
-anti-inflammatory but retard tissue repair
-depress immune response
What controls glucocorticoids secretion?
What do epinephrine and norepinephrine do?
help the body resist stress by increasing heart rate, force of cardiac contraction, blood flow to organs,and BP
What does glucagon do?
increase blood glucose levels when it falls below normal by accelerating the conversion of glycogen into glucose and conversion of amino and lactic acids into glucose. Also satimulates the release of glucose from the liver.
What does insulin do?
Decreases blood glucose level by speeding up the diffusion of glucose into cells, accelerates conversion of glucose into glycogen and fatty acids, promotes uptake of amino acids into body cells and increases protein synthesis within cells, slows the liver's conversion of glycogen into glucose
T or F: Lymphatic vessels transport lipids from the gastrointestinal tract to the blood.
T or F: Lymph is more similar to interstitial fluid than to blood.
T or F: Lymphatic tissue is present only in a few isolated organs in the body.
T or F: The unique structure of lymphatic capillaries allows fluid to flow into them but not out of them.
T or F: Lymphatic vessels resemble veins in structure.
Interferons are considered non-specific (innate) resistance or specific resistance?
List the 3 types of specific immune response.
1 T and B lymphocytes
2 Antigen and Antibody
3 Mediated Immune Response
What do interferons do?
IFNs stimulate uninfected cells to produce proteins that interfere with virus reproduction.
How are IFNs released?
When lymphocytes, macrophages, and fibroblasts become infected with a virus, they release the protein, IFN.
What are the 3 mechanism by which complement cells work?
1 cytolysis
2 chemotaxis
3 opsonization
what is cytolysis?
when complement proteins create holes in the plasma membrane of a microbe
what is chemotaxis?
the chemical attraction of phagocytes to a site by complement system.
what is opsonization?
when complement proteins bind to the surface of a microbe and promote phagocytosis
What percentage of lymphocytes are Natural Killer Cells?
Where in the body do Natural Killer Cells reside?
Spleen, lymph nodes and red bone marrow.
Are natural killer cells a part of specific resistance or non-specifc resistance?
What is the function of Natural killer cells?
They have the ability to destoy a wide variety of microbes and certain tumor cells by releasing proteins that destroy the target cell's cellular membrane.
What is Phagocytosis?
the ingestion of microbes and other particles such as cellular debris.
What are the 2 main types of phagocytes?
neutrophils and macrophages
Macrophages begin as, what?
What role does inflammation serve in the body?
To dispose of microbes, toxins, and foreign materialat the site of injury, to prevent their spread, and to prepare the site for tissue repair.
What are the 4 signs of inflammation?
Redness, pain, heat, swelling.
Inflammation cause what 2 things to happen in the damaged tissue?
Vasodilation (more blood flow to the site allows for the removal of microbes and dead cells) and Increased Permeability (allows defensive cells and clotting chemicals to get to the injured site more quickly.)
Describe the lifecycle of T-Lymphocytes?
Develop from pluripotent stem cells of red bone marrow, migrate into thymus to mature, then migrate to other lymphatic tissues.
What is the range of Normal Blood Pressure?
What 2 ducts does all lymphatic fluid drain into?
Right Lymphatic Duct and Thoracic Duct.
What controls the flow of lymph?
Respiration and muscle contraction.
Where is Thymosin produced and what is it's role?
Thymosin is a hormone produced in the Thymus and it causes the maturation of T-cells, and promotes the growth and activity of lymphocytes throughout the body.
White pulp tissue of the spleen consists primarily of what?
lymphocytes and macrophages
Red pulp tissue of the spleen consists primarily of what?
Red blood cells, macrophages, lymphocytes, plasma cells, and granular leukocytes.
What are the functions of the spleen?
In the white pulp, T and B cells carry out immune function while macrophages destroy pathogens.
In the red pulp, Macrophages remove worn out or defective blood cells & platelets; stores blood; production of blood cells during fetal life.
What are T cells main functions?
1 Activate T-cell mediated immunity
2 Regulate the immune effects in both T cell and B cells.
The majority of peripheral lymphocytes are...
T Cells, 60-70%
What is the function of B-cells?
On antigenic stimulation, B cells form plasma cells that secrete immunoglobulin and mediate antibody-mediated immunity.
What is the clinical significance of elevation in a single class of Ig's?
IgE increase indicates allergic or parasitic disease.
IgG, IgA, or IgD increase indicates multiple myeloma.
What is the clinical significance of a mulitiple class Ig increase?
Chronic infection, liver disease, lupus, rheumatoid arthritis.
What is the clinical significance of a decrease in Ig's?
congenital or acquired immune deficiency
What is Immune Surveillance?
The body's system of detecting abnormal and mutated cells and killing them thru cell-mediated and antibody-mediated immunity.
Give several examples of Antigen/antibody reaction.
Allergic reaction
Immune surveillance (sometimes)
transplant rejection
Autoimmune disease
What is the difference between allergic disease and autoimmune disease?
In allergic disease, the body responds to harmless substances via the antigen/antibody complex as if they were pathogenic.
In autoimmune disease, the body fails to recognize self and develops antibodies against its own tissues.
What is Active Naturally acquired immunity?
Immunity developed thru contact with a specific organ, either subclinical infection or disease.
What is Passive Naturally acquired immunity?
Passage of antibodies from mother to fetus via the placenta.
What is Active Artificially acquired immunity?
Vaccination--injection of a harmful agent to stimulate the body to produce antibodies
What is Passive Artificially acquired immunity?
Injection of the antibodies against infection, ex tetanus immune globulin
Give examples of autoimmune disease.
Rheumatoid arthritis, lupus, Graves' disease. Type 1 Diabetes mellitus, glomerulonephritis
Where is the respiratory center located?
medulla oblongata and partly in the pons of the brain stem
Where are the chemicoreceptors located?
near the bifurcation of the common carotid arteries in the neck and the aortic bodies located in the aortic arch
What is the pathogen, area of spread, and clinical manifestations of Common Cold?
Over 300 viruses
small area of spread
upper respiratory
What is the pathogen, area of spread, and clinical manifestations of Influenza?
Influenza virus Type A, B, C
epidemic or pandemic
systemic attack
What are the typical symptoms of Lobar pnuemonia?
baterial infection, effects young or middle age population, high fever, spreads thru alveoli, effects only 1 lung
What is emphysema?
abnormal enlargement of airspace resulting from decreased elastic recoil and dilation in bronchioles and alveoli
What are the typical symptoms of emphysema?
barrel chest, shortness of breath on exertion, often wheezing, worse with exposure to cold, smoke or infection