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488 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What is involved in the skeletal system?
bones, cartilage, ligaments and other connective tissues that stabilize or connect bones.
Are bones organs?
Yes
What are the two types of bone connective tissue present in most bones of the body?
Compact bone ( dense or cortical bone)
Spongy bone(cancellous or trabecular bone)
Which bone type makes up approximately 80% of the total bone mass?
Compact bone
Which bone type appears porous?
Spongy bone
_____ is a semi-rigid connective tissue that is more flexible than bone
Cartilage
What are the three subtypes of cartilage?
Hyaline cartilage
Fibrocartilage
Elastic cartilage
What is hyaline cartilage?
the most common type of cartilage. It is named for its clear, glassy appearance under the microscope. Hyaline cartilage is surrounded by a perichondrium. Hyaline cartilage is found in many areas of the body, including the nose, trachea, larynx, costal cartilage and articular ends of long bones. It also forms most of the fetal skeleton.
What is fibrocartilage?
fibrocartilage is a weight-bearing cartilage. It has numerous coarse, readily visible protein fibers that are arranged as irregular bundles between large chondrocytes. There is only a sparse amount of ground substance. The densely interwoven collagen fibers contribute to the durability of this cartilage. There is no perichondrium. Fibrocartilage acts as a good shock absorber and resists compression. It is located in the intervertebral disks, pubic symphysis, and menisci of the knee joint.
What is elastic cartilage?
The flexible, springy cartilage. Contains numerous elastic fivers within its extra-cellular matrix. The elastic fibers are densely packed together and ensure that this tissue is both resilient and very flexible. Elastic cartilage is surrounded by a perichondrium. This cartilage is found on the external ear and the epiglottis.
Bone connective tissue is also known as _______ and makes up most of the structures referred to as "bones"
Osseous connective tissue
What is more solid? Bone or cartilage?
Bone
What are bone cells called?
osteocytes
the osteocytes are housed within spaces in the extracellular matrix called ________
lacunae
What is periosteum?
similar to perichondrium of cartilage
What are osteons?
Compact bone is formed from these cylindrical structures which display concentric rings of bone connective tissue called lamellae.
What is the classification of sesamoid bones?
Heterotopic
Name some heterotopic bones
vermian, sesamoid, sutural
What is the medullary cavity?
Bone marrow
What is periosteum?
Surrounds the bone
What provides a site for attachment on bones?
Periosteum
Tiny little holes in the bone allowing for blood flow
Nutrient foramen
How many kinds of bone marrow are there?
3
What are several of the basic functions bones perform?
Support and protection
movement
hemopoiesis
storage of mineral and energy reserves
In what three locations of the body do you find fibrocartilage?
Intervertebral discs, pubic symphysis, and cartilage pads of the knee joints (menisci)
What is another name for the cartilage pads of the knee joints?
Menisci
What is menisci?
Cartilage pads of the knee joints
Ligaments attach _______ to _____ and tendons attach ______ to ______.
ligaments: bone to bone
tendons: bone to muscle
Hemopoiesis is the process of _____
blood cell production
Hemopoiesis occurs in what kind of bone marrow?
Red bone marrow connective tissue that contains stem cells that form blood cells and platelets
Most of the body's reserves of the minerals _____ and _____ are stored within and then released from bone.
calcium and phosphate
_____ is an essential mineral for such body functions as muscle contraction, blood clotting, and nerve impulse transmission
Calcium
Calcium is an essential mineral for what three biological functions?
Muscle contraction
blood clotting
nerve impulse transmission
_____ (mineral) is required for ATP utilization and is an important component of the plasma membrane
Phosphate
Name two things phosphate is required for biologically.
ATP utilization and is an important component of the plasma membrane
Potential energy in the form of lipids is stored where?
yellow bone marrow in the shafts of some adult bones
What two minerals are stored in bone, and what are their functions in the body?
Calcium and phosphate
Calcium: muscle contraction, blood clotting, nerve impulse transmission
Phosphate: ATP utilization, important component of the plasma membrane
What are the five major functions of skeletal muscle?
Body movement
Maintenance of posture
Protection and support
Storage and movement of materials
Heat production
Describe the five characteristics of skeletal muscle tissue.
Excitability
Conductivity
Contractility
Elasticity
Extensibility
Identify the three connective tissue layers associated with muscle
epimysium
perimysium
endomysium
Within the muscle many muscle fibers are organized into bundles called _____
fasciles
The _____ is a layer of dense irregular connective tissue that surrounds the whole skeletal muscle
epimysium
The _____ surrounds the fascicles. The dense irregular connective tissue sheath contains extensive arrays of blood vessels and nerves that brach to supply muscle fibers within each individual fascicle
perimysium
The _____ is the innermost connective tissue layer of muscle.
endomysium
A _____ is a thick, cordlike structure composed of dense regular connective tissue
tendon
How many connective tissue layers is a tendon composed of?
3
A flattened sheet of dense irregular tissue is called:
aponeurosis
Deep fascia is also called _____ or _____
visceral fascia or muscular fascia
What is the purpose of deep fascia? list 4
separates individual muscles
binds together muscles with similar functions
contains nerves, blood vessels, and lymph vessels
serves to fill spaces between muscles
_____ is composed of areolar connective tissue and adipose connective tissue that separates muscle from skin
superficial fascia
Is skeletal muscle vascularized or avascular?
vascularized
Is skeletal muscle innervated?
yes
_____ neurons extend from the brain and spinal cord to skeletal muscle fibers
motor
Each motor neuron has a long extension called an _____ that branches extensively at its terminal end
axon
_____ is the cytoplam of muscle fibers
sarcoplasm
A skeletal muscle fiber is typically between ____ and ____ micrometers in diameter
10 and 500
Are muscles multinucleated cells?
yes
Groups of embryonic cells termed _____ fuse to form single skeletal muscle fibers during development.
myoblasts
Myoblasts are:
groups of embryonic cells fused to form single skeletal muscle fibers during development.
Is deep fascia connective tissue?
Yes
Fascicle
a bundle of individual muscle cells
a motor unit =
a motor unit = a single motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates
True or false:
a single motor neuron can innervate a lot of different muscle fibers
True
blast cells:
immature cells that differentiate into mature cells
_____ fuse together and form a single muscle cell
myoblasts
why are skeletal muscle cells multinucleated?
multiple myoblasts fuse together to create a single muscle cell and each of them has their own nucleus
satellite cells are:
unfused myoblasts associated with repair and regeneration of muscle
the muscle cell membrane is deep to the _____
endomysium
where are the nucleii in a muscle cell located?
deep to the cell membrane
what is the name of a muscle cell membrane?
sarcolemma
T-tubules stands for
transverse tubules
How do we send electrical signals deep into the muscle?
through T-tubules
What kind of pumps are located along the length of both the sarcolemma and T-tubules?
Sodium-potassium
____ (#) Na+ are pumped out of a skeletal muscle fiber for every ____ (#) K+ pumped in
3;2
_____ has a higher concentration outside the muscle fiber and _____concentration is greater inside the muscle fiber
Na+ higher outside
K+ greater inside
_____ is an internal membrane complex that is similar to the smooth endoplasmic reticulum of other cells
sarcoplasmic reticulum
Terminal cisternae
blind sacs at either end of individual sections of the sarcoplasmic reticulum which serve as reservoirs for calcium ions (Ca2+)
blind sacs at either end of individual sections of the sarcoplasmic reticulum which serve as reservoirs for calcium ions (Ca2+)
Terminal cisternae
Approximately 80% of the volume of a muscle fiber is composed of long, cylindrical structures termed _____
myofibrils
What kind of cartilage makes up the epiphyseal plates?
Hyaline
What are the plates called between the diaphysis and the epiphysis?
Epiphysial plates
Name the four classifications of bones:
Long, short, flat, irregular
______ bones are greater in length than width
Long
the elongated, cylindrical shaft of long bones
diaphysis
the most common bone shape
long bones
where are long bones?
arm, forearm, palm, and fingers
thigh, leg, sole of the foot, toes
_____ bones have a length nearly equal to their width
short bones
Examples of short bones are:
carpals, tarsals, sesamoid bones
the largest sesamoid bone
patella
What kind of cartilage makes up the epiphyseal plates?
Hyaline
What are the plates called between the diaphysis and the epiphysis?
Epiphysial plates
Name the four classifications of bones:
Long, short, flat, irregular
______ bones are greater in length than width
Long
the elongated, cylindrical shaft of long bones
diaphysis
the most common bone shape
long bones
where are long bones?
arm, forearm, palm, and fingers
thigh, leg, sole of the foot, toes
_____ bones have a length nearly equal to their width
short bones
Examples of short bones are:
carpals, tarsals, sesamoid bones
the largest sesamoid bone
patella
This classification of bones form the roof of the skull, scapulae, sternum and ribs
flat bones
Name some irregular bones
vertebrae, os cossa, skull bones including the ethmoid, sphenoid, and sutural bones
The hollow, cylindrical space within the diaphysis is called the _____ cavity
medullary
The expanded, knobby region of a long bone is called the _____
epiphysis
Epiphysis is found where?
at each end of a long bone
This region of long bone is made up of a thin outer layer of compact bone and an inner, more extensive region of spongy bone
epiphysis
Covering the joint surface of an epiphysis is a thin layer of _____ cartilage called ______ cartilage
hyaline; articular
Articular cartilage is what kind of cartilage?
hyaline
The _____ is the region in a mature bone sandwiched between the diaphysis and the epiphysis
metaphysis
This region of the bone contains the epiphyseal plate in adults
metaphysis
A tough sheath called _____ covers the outer surface of the bone except for the areas covered by articular cartilage
periosteum
The lining of the bone
periosteum
How many layers does the periosteum consist of?
2: outer protects bone, anchors blood vessels and nerves, serves as an attachment site for ligaments and tendons
inner includes osteoprogenitor cells, osteoblasts, and osteoclasts
How is the periosteum anchored to the bone?
numerous collagen fibers called perforating fibers or Sharpey's fibers which run perpendicular to the diaphysis
This is an incomplete layer of cells that covers all internal surfaces of the bone within the medullary cavity
endosteum
Do both the endosteum and the periosteum contain osteoprogenitor cells, osteoblasts, and osteoclasts?
yes
These bones have no medullary cavity
Short, flat and irregular
In a flat bone of the skull, the spongy bone is called:
diploe
Myeloid tissue is also called
red bone marrow
Red bone marrow locations in adults
selected portions of the axial skeleton, such as the flat bones of the skull, the vertebrae, the ribs, the sternum and the ossa coxae. Also in the proximal epiphyses of each humerus and femur
bone connective tissue
osseus connective tissue
List the four types of cells found in bone connective tissue:
osteoprogenitor cells, osteoblasts, osteocytes, and osteoclasts
Stem cells in bone derived from mesenchyme.
Osteoprogenitor
_____ are formed from osteoprogenitor cells
osteoblasts
_____ perform the important function of synthesizing and secreting the initial semisolid organic form of bone matrix called osteoid
osteoblasts
semisolid organic form of bone matrix created by osteoblasts
osteoid
____ are mature bone cells derived from osteoblasts
osteoclasts
The ___ is the skin that covers your body.
integument
Skin is also known as the _____ membrane
cutaneous
The integumentary system consists of the skin and its derivatives, which are:
nails, hair, sweat glands, and sebaceous (oil) glands
The scientific study and treatment of the integumentary system is called _____
dermatology
The ____ is the body's largest organ
integument
_____ are groups of similar cells and extracellualar material that perform a common function
Tissues
The study of tissues is called
histology
Histology is the study of _____
tissues
What are the four types of tissue in the body?
epithelial, connective, muscle, and nervous
All epithelia exhibit the following common characteristics:
Cellularity
Polarity
Attachment to a basement membrane
Avascularity
Extensive innervation
High regeneration capacity
_____ tissue covers the body surfaces, lines the body cavities, and forms the majority of glands.
Epithelial
An _____ is composed of one or more layers of closely packed cells, and contains little to no extracellular matrix between these cells.
epithelium
What is an apical surface?
the free or exposed surface of an epithelium
Each epithelium has a _____ surface where the epithelium is attached to the underlying connective tissue
basal
What are the three layers of a basement membrane?
lamina lucida, lamina densa, reticular lamina
True or False: all epithelial tissues lack blood vessels
true
How are nutrients for epithelial cells obtained
across the apical surface or by diffusion across the basal surface from the underlying connective tissue
Are epithelia innervated
yes
epithelial cells have a high/low regeneration capacity
High
Why does an epithelium need to be highly regenerative?
Because they have an apical surface that is exposed to the environment and are frequently damaged or lost by abrasion
What are some of the functions of epithelia?
Physical protection
selective permeability
secretions
sensations
_____ tissues protect both external and internal surfaces from dehydration, abrasion, and destruction by physical, chemical, or biological agents
epithelial
All substances that enter or leave the body must pass through an _____
epithelium
What are the two classifications of epithelium?
simple or stratified
A _____ epithelium is one cell layer thick
simple
A _____ epithelium contains two or more laywers of epithelial cells
stratified
Give three examples of where simple epithelium are found
the lining of the air sacs of the lung, intestines, blood vessels
With stratified epithelium, which layer is in direct contact with the basement membrane?
the deepest, basal layer
_____ epithelial cells are flat, wide and somewhat irregular in shape
squamous
What are the 4 epithelial cell shapes?
squamous, cuboidal, columnar, and transitional
This is the thinnest possible epithelial layer
simple squamous
This kind of epithelial cell ines the alveoli
simple squamous
the simple squamous epithelium that lines the blood vessels and lymph vessel walls is called
endothelium
_____ is the simple squamous epithelium that forms the serous membranes of body cavities
mesothelium
What does mesothelium line?
serous membranes of body cavities
4 types of simple epithelium
simple squamous
simple cuboidal
simple columnar
pseudostratified columnar
One layer of flattened epithelial cells
simple squamous
one layer of epithelial cells about as tall as they are wide
simple cuboidal
one layer of epithelial cells that are taller than they are wide; nonciliated form may contain microvilli while ciliated form contains cilia
simple columnar
One layer of epithelial cells varying heights; all cells attach to basement membrane; ciliated form contains cilia na dgoblet cells; nonciliated form lacks cilia and goblet cells
Pseudostratified columnar
Epithelium:
many layers thick; cells in surface layers are dead, flat, and filled with the protein keratin
Stratified squamous, keratinized
Epithelium:
many layers thick; no keratin in cells; surface layers are flat and kept moist, alive
stratified squamous, nonkeratinized
Epithelium:
two or more layers of cells; apical layer of cells is cuboidal-shaped
stratified cuboidal
Epithelium:
two or more layers of cells; apical layer of cells is columnar-shaped
stratified columnar
Epithelium:
multiple layers of polyhedral cells (when tissue is relaxed), or flattened cells (when tissue is distended); some cells may be binucleated
transitional
All connective tissue is ultimately derived from ___
mesenchyme
_____ are involved in breaking down bone in an important process called bone resorption
osteoclasts
The process whereby bone matrix is destroyed by stubstances released from osteoclasts into the extracellular space adjacent to the bone
bone resorption
The _____ is a cylindrical channel that lies in the center of the osteon and runs parallel to it
central canal
the small spaces that house an osteocyte
lacunae
tiny, interconnecting channels within bone connective tissue that extend from each lacuna, extend through the lamellae, and connect to other lacunaie and the central canal
canaliculi
These run perpendicular to the central canal of bone and contain blood vessels and nerves
perforating canals
the rings of bone immediately internal to the periosteum of the bone
external circumferential lamellae
the rings of bone internal to the endosteum
internal circumferential lamellae
Does spongy bone contain osteons?
No
The open lattice of narrow rods and plates of bone in spongy bone
trabeculae
The formation and development of bone connective tissue
ossification or osteogenesis
Intramembranous ossification is sometimes also called
dermal ossification
Osteoid is composed of _____ protein and a semisolid ground substance of _____ including _____ and _____
collagen
proteoglycans
chondroitin sulfate
glycoproteins
The organic portion of the matrix of bone connective tissue is _____
osteoid
The inorganic portion of bone matrix is composed of ____ and ____ to form ____
Calcium phosphate Ca3(PO4)2;
calcium hydroxide
hydroxyapatite
What is hydroxyapatite made of?
Calcium phosphate and calcium hydroxide
Calcium phosphate and calcium hydroxide make ____
hydroxyapatite
Insufficient _____ results in soft bones
calcium
A loss of protein or abnormal proteins results in _____
brittle bones
_____ or _____ occurs to osteoid formation when hydroxyapatite crystals deposit in the bone matrix
Calcification or mineralization
How does vitamin D aid in bone formation?
enhances calcium absorption from the gastrointestinal tract.
Which vitamin is required for collagen formation?
Vitamin C
_____ is a process whereby bone matrix is destroyed by substances released from osteoclasts into the extracellular space adjacent to the bone.
Bone resorption
_____ enzymes released from lysosomes within the osteoclasts chemically digest the organic components of bone matrix
Proteolytic
Bone resorption may occur when ____ levels are low
blood calcium
List the four steps of interstitial growth of cartilage
1 - chondrocytes housed within the internal lacunae are stinmulated to undergo mitotic cell division.
2 - Following cell division, two cells occupy a single lacuna; they are now called chondroblasts
3 - As chondroblasts begin to synthesize and secrete new cartilage matrix, they are pushed apart. These cells now reside in their own lacuna and are called chondrocytes
4 - The cartilage continues to grow in the internal regions as chondrocytes continue to produce more matrix
_____ cartilage growth occurs within the internal regions of cartilage; _____ is an increase in width along the cartilage's outside edge
interstitial; appositional
List the three steps of appositional cartilage growth
1 - Undifferentiated stem cells at the internal edge of the perichondrium begin to divide
2 - New undifferentiated stem cells and committed cells that differentiate into chondroblasts are formed. These chondroblasts are located at the periphery of the old cartilage, where they begin to produce and secrete new cartilage matrix.
3 - The chondroblasts, as a result of matrix formation, push apart and become chondrocytes, with each occupying its own lacuna. The cartilage continues to grow at the periphery as chondrocytes continue to produce more matrix.
The type of ossification which produces flat bones of the skull, the zygomatic bone, maxilla, mandible, and central part of the clavicle.
Intramembranous ossification
Intramembranous ossification produces which bones?
flat bones of the skull, the zygomatic bone, maxilla, mandible, and central part of the clavicle.
This begins when mesenchyme becomes thickened and condensed with a dense supply of blood capillaries
intramembranous ossification
Why is intramembranous ossification also called dermal ossification?
Because the mesenchyme that is the source of these bones is in the area of the future dermis.
In what week of development do ossification centers form within thickened regions of mesenchyme for intramembranous ossification?
week 8
List the steps of intramembranous ossification
1 - Ossification centers form within thickened regions of mesenchyme beginning at the eigth week of development
2 - Osteoid undergoes calcification
3 - Woven bone and its surrounding periostem form
4 - Lamellar bone replaces woven bone, as compact bone and spongy bone form
Initial, newly-formed bone connective tissue that is immature and not well organized
woven bone (primary bone)
What is the other name for woven bone?
primary bone
What is the other name for primary bone?
Woven bone
What are the parts of a triad?
2 terminal cisternae and one t-tubule
How many myofibrils are there per muscle cell?
several hundred to several thousand
What gives the myofibril its banded appearance?
Myofilaments
Why is skeletal muscle striped?
Because of the regular pattern of actin and myocin
A repeating unit in a myofibril from Z to Z is called
sarcomere
The Z line is made up of a protein called ____
alpha-actinin
The ____ anchors the actin filaments
Z line
Which band is lighter? I or A?
I
Which band is darker? I or A?
A
The H band or H line is within which other band?
A band
List the bands of a sarcomere.
I, Z, I,A, H, M, A, I, Z, I
What alternates in an I band
Thin filament, Connectin, thin filament, connectin
What alternates in the A band?
Thin filament, thick filament, thin filament, thick filament
What alternates in the H zone?
Noting. It is just myosin
What is the M line in the middle of?
The H zone
Thick filament of a sarcomere refers to _____
Myocin
Thin filament of a sarcomere refers to _____
Actin
The actin binding site is on the _____ of the myocin
Head
_____ forms a cross bridge with actin
Myosin head
Approximately how many myocin molecules make up a thick filament?
~200
What makes up the thin filament?
Actin and regulatory proteins
What is G-Actin?
Globular actin
singular actin molecules
What is F-actin
Filamentous actin
single chain of g-actin
How many G-actins are in a single twist of the helix?
13
What are the regulatory proteins in a thin filament?
Troponin and tropomyosin
Of the two regulatory proteins on a thin filament, which one is a quaternary structure?
troponin
troponin T binds to tropomyosin
troponin I is the inhibitory subunit
troponin C is the Ca2+ binding site
What is twisted around filamentous actin?
tropomyosin
~1 tropomyosin per ____ globular actin
7
The inhibitory ______ will keep actin and myosin apart
troponin
Where is calcium stored in a muscle fiber?
Sarcoplasmic reticulum
List 5 properties of connectin
elastic filament
allows stretch
allows recoil
helps in the recovery phase of muscle contraction
helps reset the length of a sarcomere
_____ helps in the recovery phase of muscle contraction
connectin/titin
the other name for titin
connectin
the other name for connectin
titin
_____ helps reset the length of a sarcomere
connectin
_____ is a structural protein that links the sarcomere to the sarcolemma
dystrophin
List 5 properties of connectin
elastic filament
allows stretch
allows recoil
helps in the recovery phase of muscle contraction
helps reset the length of a sarcomere
_____ helps in the recovery phase of muscle contraction
connectin/titin
the other name for titin
connectin
the other name for connectin
titin
_____ helps reset the length of a sarcomere
connectin
_____ is a structural protein that links the sarcomere to the sarcolemma
dystrophin
Two types of transport proteins are embedded within the membrane of the sarcoplasmic reticulum. They are:
Ca2+ pumps and voltage-gated Ca2+ channels
_____ move Ca2+ into the sarcoplasmic reticulum where it is stored
Calcium pumps
____ open to release Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the sarcoplasm.
voltage-gated channels
Calcium is bound to specialized proteins within the terminal cisternae called.
Calmodulin and calsequestrin
What is calmodulin?
A specialized protein within the terminal cisternae which binds to calcium during storage
What is calsequestrin?
A specialized protein within the terminal cisternae which binds to calcium during storage
Release of _____ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum causes muscle contraction.
Ca2+
Approximately 80% of the volume of a muscle fiber is composed of _____
myofibrils
Approximately __ % of the volume of a muscle fiber is composed of myofibrils
80%
Each myofibril contains bundles of muscle protein filaments called _____
myofilaments
Each myosin protein consists of two strand; each has a _____ and an _____.
globular head; elongated tail
The head of a myosin protein contains a binding site for ____ of the thin filament
actin
The myosin head is the site where ___ attaches to split into ____ and ___
ATP; ADP; P
What enzyme splits ATP?
ATPase
Thin filaments are primarily composed of ___ strands of actin protein that are twisted around each other
two
G-actin is what
globular actin, or single pearls of actin that join together to form filamentous actin strands
F-actin is what
filamentous actin which is comprised of individual g-actin. It is a single strand of the double-stranded helix of the thin filament
Each globular actin has a significant feature called the _____
myosin binding site
The myosin head attaches to the _____ during muscle contraction
myosin binding site of the g-actin
What is the troponin-tropomyosin complex
troponin and tropomyocin are regulatory proteins on the thin filament that regulate the myocin and actin relationship
Myofilaments within myofibrils are arranged in repeating microscopic cylindrical units called _____
sarcomeres
Each sarcomere is delineated at both ends by ____
Z discs or Z lines
Z disks are made up of _____
alpha-actinin
____ serve as anchors for the thin filaments
Z discs
This serves as an attachment site for the thick filaments and keeps the thick filaments aligned during contraction and relaxation events.
M line
This protein extends from the Z discs to the M line through the core of each thick filament.
Connectin
What is a motor unit?
A single motor neuron and all the skeletal fibers it innervates
Skeletal muscle fibers have abundant _____ for aerobic cellular respiration
mitochondria
The typical skeletal muscle contains ~ ____ mitochondria
300
Skeletal muscle fibers contain _____ for use as an immediate fuel molecule
glycogen stores
(granules called glycosomes)
_____ is a molecule unique to muscle tissue (1 of 2)
myoglobin
A reddish, globular protein that is somewhat similar to hemoglobin in that it binds oxygen when muscle is at rest and releases it for use during muscular contraction.
Myoglobin
____ is a molecule unique to muscle tissue (2 of 2)
creatine phosphate
_____ provides muscle fibers with a means of supplying ATP anaerobically.
creatine phosphate
_____ are nerve cells that transmit nerve signals from the brain or spinal cord to control skeletal muscle activity
motor neurons
There is a(n) ______ relationship between the size of a motor unit and the degree of control.
inverse
_____ is the specific location, usually in the mid-region of the muscle fiber where it is innervated by a motor neuron
neuromuscular junction
What are the three parts to a neuromuscular junction?
synaptic knob
motor end plate
synaptic cleft
_____ is an expanded tip of an axon
synaptic knob
The synaptic knob houses numerous vesicles containing
acetylcholine (ACh)
What is ACh?
acetylcholine
ACh is stored where within the synaptic knob?
vesicles
A specialized region of the sarcolemma of a muscle fiber with numerous folds and indentations (junction folds)
motor end plate
The ____ has vast numbers of ACh receptors in muscle cells
motor end plate
Binding of ___ opens the plasma membrane protein channels that are chemically gated on the motor end plate
ACh
Binding of ACh allows ___ to enter into the muscle fiber and ___ to exit
Na+
K+
The extremely narrow, fluid-filled space separating the synaptic knob and the motor end plate
synaptic cleft
The enzyme _____ resides within the synaptic cleft and quickly breaks down ACh molecules following their release into the synaptic cleft.
acetylcholinesterase
Acetylcholinesterase resides within the synaptic cleft and quickly breaks down ____ molecules following their release into the synaptic cleft
ACh
How do sarcomeres shorten?
skeletal muscle fiber decreases in length as thick and thin protein filaments within sarcomeres interact
The anatomic structures and associated physiologic processes of skeletal muscle contraction include the events that occur in three locations:
1 - neuromuscular junction
2 - sarcolemma, T-tubules, and sarcoplasmic reticulum
3 - sarcomeres
For calcium to enter the synaptic knob from the interstitial fluid, is it by concentration gradient or voltage-gated channels?
Voltage-Gated channels
What does calcium do once it is inside the synaptic knob?
attaches to membrane proteins called synaptotagmin that are on the external surface of synaptic vesicles that house ACh
What is synaptotagmin?
membrane proteins on the surface of synaptic vesicles. Once calcium binds with them, the vesicle releases ACh via exocytosis into the synaptic cleft.
What does calcium bind in order to release ACh from the synaptic knob?
synaptotagmin
Approximately ___ vesicles are released from the synaptic knob per nerve signal
300
How does ACh get across the fluid-filled synaptic cleft?
diffusion
What are the contractile proteins in a muscle fiber?
actin, connectin, myosin
An adult skeleton typically has ____ named bones
206
Distinctive ______ are the surface features that characterize each bone in the body.
bone markings
Large, smooth, rounded articulating oval structure. Also give the name of the general structure.
Condyle
Articulating surface
Small, flat, shallow articulating surface
facet
Articulating surface
Prominent, rounded epiphysys. Also give the name of the general structure.
Head
Articulating surface
Smooth, grooved, pulley-like articular process. Also give the name of the general structure.
Trochlea
Articulating surface
Deep pit or socket in the maxillae or mandible. Also give the name of the general structure.
Alveolus (pl. alveoli)
Depressions
Flattened or shallow depression.
Also give the name of the general structure.
Fossa (pl. fossae)
Depressions
Narrow groove.
Also give the name of the general structure.
Sulcus
Depressions
Narrow, prominent, ridgelike projection. Also give the name of the general structure.
Crest
Projections for tendon and ligament attachment
Projection adjacent to a condyle. Also give the name of the general structure.
Ipicondyle
Projections for tendon and ligament attachment
Low ridge. Also give the name of the general structure.
Line
Porjections for tendon and ligament attachment
Any marked bony prominence. Also give the name of the general structure.
Process
Projections for tendon and ligament attachment
Angular extension of a bone relative to the rest of the structure. Also give the name of the general structure.
Ramus (pl. rami)
Projections for tendon and ligament attachment
Pointed, slender process. Also give the name of the general structure.
Spine
Projections for tendon and ligament attachment
Massive, rough projection found only on the femur. Also give the name of the general structure.
Trochanter. Projections for tendon and ligament attachment
Small, round projection, Also give the name of the general structure.
Tubercle
Projections for tendon and ligament attachment.
Large, rough projection. Also give the name of the general structure.
Tuberosity.
Projections for tendon and ligament attachment.
Passageway through a bone. Also give the name of the general structure.
Canal.
Openings and spaces.
Narrow, slitlike opening through a bone. Also give the name of the general structure.
Fissure
Openings and spaces
Rounded passageway through a bone. Also give the name of the general structure.
Foramen (pl. foramina)
Openings and spaces
Passageway through a bone. Also give the name of the general structure.
Meatus.
Openings and spaces
Cavity or hollow space in a bone. Also give the name of the general structure.
Sinus.
Openings and spaces
A _____ or _____ is the place of contact between bones, between bone and cartilage, or between bones and teeth.
Joint; articulation
Bones are said to _____ with each other at a joint
articulate
The scientific study of joints is called _____
arthrology
Joints are classified by both their _____ and _____
structural characteristics; movement they allow
A _____ joint has no joint cavity and occurs where bones are held together by dense regular connective tissue
fibrous
Does a fibrous joint have a joint cavity?
No
A _____ joint has no joint cavity and occurs where bones are joined by cartilage.
Cartilaginous
Do cartilaginous joints have a cavity?
No
A _____ joint has a fluid-filled joint cavity that separates the articulating surfaces of the bones. The articulating surfaces are enclosed within a connective tissue capsule, and the bones are attached to each other by various ligaments.
Synovial
Do synovial joints have a joint cavity?
Yes
Name the three structural categories of joints:
fibrous (no cavity)
cartilanginous (no cavity)
synovial (cavity)
Name the three functional categories of joints:
Synarthrosis
amphiarthrosis
diarthrosis
_____ is an immobile joint
synarthrosis
______ is a slightly mobile joint
ampharthrosis
______ is a freely mobile joint
diarthrosis
All _____ joints are diarthroses
synovial
There is a(n) _____ relationship between mobility and stability in joint articulations.
inverse
Periodontal membranes hold tooth to bony jaw.
Gomphosis
Dense regular connective tissue connects skull bones
suture
dense rebular connective tissue fibers (interosseous membrane) between bones
Syndesmosis
hyaline cartilage between bones
Synchondrosis
fibrocartilage pad between bones
symphysis
flattened or slightly curved faces slide across one another
plane joint
convex feature of one bone fits into concave depression of another bone
hinge joint
bone with a rounded surface fits into a ring formed by a ligament and another bone
pivot joint
oval articular surface on one bone closely inerfaces with a depressed oval surface on another bone
condylar joint
Saddle-shaped articular surface on one bone closely interfaces with a saddle-shaped surface on another bone
saddle joint
round head of one bone rests within cup-shaped depression in another bone
ball-and-socket joint
Describe the structural characteristics of a fibrous joint
Dense regular connective tissue holds together the ends of bones and bone parts; no joint cavity
Describe the structural characteristics of a cartilaginous joint
Pad of cartilage is wedged between the ends of bones; no joint cavity
Describe the structural characteristics of a synovial joint
Ends of bones covered with articular cartilage; joint cavity separates the articulating bones; joint enclosed by an articular capsule, lined by a synovial membrane; contains synovial fluid
What is the functional classification of gomphosis?
synarthrosis (immobile)
What is the functional classification of a suture?
Synarthrosis (immobile)
What is the functional classification of syndemosis?
Amphiarthrosis (slightly mobile)
What is the functional classification of synchondrosis?
Synarthrosis (immobile)
What is the functional classification of symphysis?
Amphiarthrosis (slightly mobile)
What is the functional classification of plane joint
diarthrosis (freely mobile)
What is the functional classification of hinge joint?
diarthrosis (freely mobile)
What is the functional classification of pivot joint?
Diarthrosis (freely mobile)
What is the functional classification of condylar joint?
Diarthrosis (freely mobile)
What is the functional classification of saddle joint?
Diarthrosis (freely mobile)
What is the classification of ball-and-socket-joint?
Diarthrosis (freely mobile)
Articulating bones in fibrous joinss are connected by ____ connective tissue.
dense regular
Do fibrous joints have a joint cavity?
No
This joint's primary function is to hold two bones together
fibrous
Give some examples of fibrous joints
teeth in their sockets, sutures between skull bones, and the articulations between either the radius and ulna or the tivia and fibula.
Name the three most common types of fibrous joints.
gomphoses, sutures, syndesmoses
The only gomphoses in the human body are the:
teeth in the sockets of the mandible and maxillae.
A tooth is held firmly in place by fibrous ______
periodontal membranes.
What is the functional classification of gomphoses?
synarthrosis
_____ are immobile fibrous joints that are found only between certain bones of the skull
sutures
When the bones have completely fused across the suture line, the sutures become
synosteses
___ are fibrous joints in which articulating bones are joined by long strands of dense regular connective tissue only.
syndesmoses
What is the functional classification of syndesmoses?
amphiarthroses
Where are syndesmoses found?
between the radius and ulna and between the tibia and fibula
What is an interosseous membrane?
broad ligamentous sheet that binds two bones together ie tibia and fibula or radius and ulna
What are the three types of fibrous joints?
gomphoses, syndemoses, and sutures
Do cartilaginous joints have a joint cavity?
No
The two types of cartilaginous joints are _____ and _____
synchondroses and symphyses
An articulation in which bones are joined by hyaline cartilage is called a _____
synchondrosis
A synchondrosis is an articulation in which bones are jointed by _____ cartilage
hyaline
The _____ joint is the joint between each bony rib and its respective costal cartilage
costochondral
The first sternocostal joint is what kind of joint?
synchondrosis
A _____ has a pad of fibrocartilage between the articulating bones, and resists compression and tension stresses
symphysis
All symphyses are classified functionally as_____
amphiarthroses
Do synovial joints have a joint cavity?
yes
How are synovial joints classified functionally?
diarthroses
Are all synovial joints diarthroses?
yes
What are the basic features of all synovial joints?
articular capsule
joint cavity
synovial fluid
articular cartilage
ligaments
nerves
blood vessels
Each synovial joint is composed of a double-layered capsule called the _____
articular capsule or joint capsule
The outer layer of the articular capsule of synovial joints is called the _____ and the inner layer is the ______
fibrous layer;
synovial membrane (or synovium)
The fibrous layer of the articular capsule is formed from ____ connective tissue
dense
The synovial membrane of an articular capsule is composed primarily of ______ connective tissue
areolar
This covers all the internal joint surfaces of an articular capsule not covered by cartilage and lines the articular capsule
synovial membrane
This help produce synovial fluid in an articular capsule of a synovial joint
synovial membrane
all articulating bone surfaces in a synovial joint are covered by a thin layer of hyaline cartilage called _____
articular cartilage
Articular cartilage has many functions: (3)
1 - reduces friction in the joint during movement
2 - acts as a spongy cushion to absorb compression
3 - prevents damage to the articulating ends of the bones
Does hyaline articular cartilage have a prichondrium?
No
Only ____ joints house a joint cavity (or articular cavity)
synovial
Synovial fluid has three functions:
1 - lubricates the articular cartilage on the surface of articulating bones
2 - nourishes the articular cartilage's chondrocytes
3 - acts as a shock absorber, distributing stresses and force evenly across the articular surfaces
Ligaments are composed of _____ connective tissue
dense regular
_____ connect one bone to another
ligaments
_____ function to stabilize, strengthen , and reinforce most synovial joints
ligaments
_____ ligaments are outside of, and physically separate from, the joint capsule
extrinsic ligaments
_____ ligaments represent thickenings of the articular capsule itself
intrinsic ligaments
Intrinsic ligaments include _____ ligaments outside the joint capsule and _____ ligaments inside the joint capsule
extracapsular ligameents
intracapsular ligaments
Tendons are composed of ____ connective tissue
dense regular
Tendons and ligaments are both composed of dense regular connective tissue. True or False?
True
Tendons attach ___ to ____
muscle to bone
How do tendons help stabilize joints?
They pass across or around a joint to provide mechanical support.
These pass across or around a joint to provide mechanical support
Tendons
Name two accessory structures in addition to the main components of synovial joints
bursae and fat pads
___ is a fibrous, saclike structure that contains synovial fluid and is lined internally by a synovial membrane.
bursa
_____ are associated with most synovial joints and also where bones, ligaments, muscles, skin, or tendons overlie each other and rub together
bursae
An elongated bursa is called a _____
tendon sheath
What is a tendon sheath?
an elongated bursa
These act as packing material for synovial joints and provide some protection for the joint
fat pads
a joint is said to be _____ if the bone moves in just one plane or axis.
uniaxial
A joint is _____ if the bone moves in two planes or axes
biaxial
A joint is _____ if the bone moves in multiple planes or axes.
multiaxial (or triaxial)
Name the six specific types of synovial joints:
1 - plane
2 - hinge
3 - pivot
4 - condylar
5 - saddle
6 - ball-and-socket
Pepsi Has Pretty Cool Soda Bubbles
Plane
Hinge
Pivot
Condylar
Saddle
Ball-And-Joint
List the 6 types of synovial joints
Plane
Hinge
Pivot
Condylar
Saddle
Ball-And-Socket
The least mobile synovial joint:
Plane
Is a plane joint 1)uniaxial 2)biaxial or 3)multiaxial?
uniaxial
What kind of joints are intercarpal and intertarsal joints?
planar
Name two plane joints
intercarpal; intertarsal
A _____ is formed by the convex surface of one articulating bone fitting into the concave depression on another bone in the joint.
hinge
Is a hinge joint uniaxial, biaxial, or multiaxial?
uniaxial
A _____ joint has one articulating bone with a rounded surface fitting into a ring formed by a ligament and another bone.
pivot
Is a pivot joint uniaxial, biaxial, or multiaxial?
uniaxial
Name two pivot joints
proximal radio-ulnar joint;
atlantoaxial joint
Give two other names for condylar joints
condyloid or ellipsoid
_____ are biaxial joints with an oval, convex surface on one bone that articulates with a concave articular surface on the second bone of the joint.
condylar
Is a condylar joint uniaxial, biaxial, or multiaxial?
biaxial
What kind of joint are the metacarpophalangeal joints?
Condylar
Are the metacarpophalangeal joints uniaxial, biaxial, or multiaxial?
biaxial
A _____ has articular surfaces of bones with convex and concave regions.
saddle
Is a saddle joint uniaxial, biaxial, or multiaxial?
biaxial
What kind of joint is the carpometacarpal joint?
saddle
What kind of joint allows us to have an opposing thumb?
saddle
____ joints are multiaxial
ball-and-socket
The _____ joint is considered the most freely mobile type of synovial joint
ball-and-socket
List all of the multiaxial joints
ball-and-socket
List all of the uniaxial joints
planar
hinge
pivot
List all of the biaxial joints
condylar
saddle
What kind of motion:
Two opposing articular surfaces slide past each other in almost any direction; the amount of movement is slight
Gliding motion
What kind of motion:
The angle between articulating bones increases or decreases
angular
The angle between articulating bones decreases
flexion
the angle between articulating bones increases
extension
Extension movement continues past the anatomic position
hyperextension
the vertebral column moves (bends) in a lateral direction along a coronal plane
Lateral flexion
movement of a bone away from the midline
abduction
movement of a bone toward the midline
adduction
A continuous movement that combines flexion, abduction, extension, and adduction in successions; the distal end of the limb or digit moves in a circle
circumduction
rotation of the forearm where the palm is turned posteriorly
pronation
rotation of the forearm in which the palm is turned anteriorly
supination
Movement of a body part inferiorly
depression
movement of a body part superiorly
elevation
Ankle joint movement where the dorsum (superior surface) of the foot is brought toward the anterior surface of the leg
dorsiflexion
Ankle joint movement where the sole of the foot is brought toward the posterior surface of the leg
Plantar flexion
Twisting motion of the foot that turns the sole medially or inward
Inversion
Twisting motion of the foot that turns the sole laterally or outward
Eversion
Anterior movement of a body part from anatomic position
Protraction
Posterior movement of a body part from anatomic position
Retraction
Special movement of the thumb across the palm toward the fingers to permit grasping and holding of an object
Opposition
What kind of synovial joint movement allows us to grasp objects?
Opposition
List the four types of motion at synovial joints.
Gliding, angular, rotational, and special movements
Acronym for the four types of motion at synovial joints:
GARS
GARS
(joint movements)
gliding, angular, rotational, and special movements (joint movements)
What are the four steps of crossbridge cycling?
1 - crossbridge formation (attaching of myosin head to actin)
2 - power stroke (pulling thin filament by movement of myosin head)
3 - release of myosin head from actin
4 - resetting of myosin head
What is a power stroke?
when the myosin head swivels or ratchets
What binds to cause the release of the myosin from the actin
ATP binds to the ATP binding site of the myosin head
How is myosin head reset?
ATPas splits ATP into ADP and Pi, providing the energy to reset the myosin head in the cocked position.
the repetitive movement of thin filaments sliding past thick filaments is called
sliding filament theory
What is the sliding filament theory?
the repetitive movement of thin filaments sliding past thick filaments