A/p 2 Test 3

Front 1

How does the body respond to hyperglycemia?
a. by increasing glucagon secretion
b. by increasing cortisol secretion
c. by increasing insulin secretion
d. by increasing ACTH secretion

Back 1

c. by increasing insulin secretion

Front 2

Insulin has all of the following actions except:
a. stimulates glucose transport into fat and muscle cells
b. stimulates glucose release by the liver
c. stimulates triglyceride synthesis in adipose tissue
d. lowers the blood glucose concentration

Back 2

b. stimulates glucose release by the liver

Front 3

Glucagon stimulates all of the following processes except:
a. the breakdown of glycogen in the liver
b. triglyceride synthesis in adipose tissue
c. lipolysis in adipose tissue
d. gluconeogenesis in the liver

Back 3

b. triglyceride synthesis in adipose tissue

Front 4

The form of diabetes in which insulin production by the beta cells of the
pancreas is impaired
a. diabetes insipidus
b. Type I diabetes mellitus
c. Type II diabetes mellitus
d. non-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus

Back 4

b. Type I diabetes mellitus

Front 5

The form of diabetes characterized by diminished tissue sensitivity to insulin
(insulin resistance)
a. diabetes insipidus
b. Type I diabetes mellitus
c. Type II diabetes mellitus
d. insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus

Back 5

c. Type II diabetes mellitus

Front 6

The fight-or-flight reaction occurs at which stage of the general adaptation
syndrome?
a. alarm
b. resistance
c. recovery
d. exhaustion

Back 6

a. alarm

Front 7

Which of the following hormones dominates during the alarm phase of the
general adaptation syndrome?
a. thyroid hormone
b. testosterone
c. cortisol
d. epinephrine/norepinephrine

Back 7

d. epinephrine/norepinephrine

Front 8

If stress lasts longer than a few hours, an individual will enter the ________
phase of the general adaptation syndrome.
a. alarm
b. resistance
c. recovery
d. exhaustion

Back 8

b. resistance

Front 9

Which of the following hormones dominate during the resistance phase of the
general adaptation syndrome?
a. androgens
b. catecholamines
c. glucocorticoids
d. mineralocorticoids

Back 9

c. glucocorticoids

Front 10

Which of the following occurs during the resistance phase of the general
adaptation syndrome?
a. The release of cortisol from the adrenal cortex decreases.
b. The liver increases its stores of glycogen.
c. Stored energy reserves are mobilized.
d. The kidneys produce more urine.

Back 10

c. Stored energy reserves are mobilized.

Front 11

Eicosanoids are made from
a. amino acids
b. cholesterol
c. a fatty acid
d. glycerol

Back 11

c. a fatty acid

Front 12

Which of the following is NOT a function of blood?
a. transports dissolved gases, nutrients, hormones, and metabolic wastes
b. distributes heat
c. provides protection from toxins and pathogens
d. promotes blood loss

Back 12

d. promotes blood loss

Front 13

Each of the following is a constituent of plasma EXCEPT:
a. formed elements
b. water
c. protein
d. nutrients

Back 13

a. formed elements

Front 14

What is the average normal pH of blood?
a. 4.7
b. 6.8
c. 7.4
d. 8.4

Back 14

c. 7.4

Front 15

Which of the following plasma proteins are NOT produced by the liver?
a. albumins
b. globulins
c. fibrinogen
d. immunoglobulins

Back 15

d. immunoglobulins

Front 16

The most abundant of the plasma proteins:
a. is fibrinogen.
b. are the albumins.
c. are the globulins.
d. are the immunoglobulins.

Back 16

b. are the albumins.

Front 17

Which of the following is the most abundant of the formed elements of blood?
a. platelets
b. erythrocytes
c. lymphocytes
d. monocytes

Back 17

b. erythrocytes

Front 18

Together, leukocytes and platelets account for ________ of the total formed
elements in blood.
a. 37-47%
b. 40-54%
c. 5-10%
d. about 0.1%

Back 18

d. about 0.1%

Front 19

The buffy coat, a layer that appears when blood is centrifuged for determining
the hematocrit, consists of
a. plasma only
b. plasma proteins only
c. plasma proteins and red blood cells
d. white blood cells and platelets

Back 19

d. white blood cells and platelets

Front 20

The benefit of the biconcave shape of red blood cells is that it
a. decreases the distance between the cell membrane and hemoglobin
molecules, facilitating oxygen uptake
b. allows the cells to hold more hemoglobin
c. gives more room for the nucleus and organelles
d. keeps them from leaking out through the walls of capillaries

Back 20

a. decreases the distance between the cell membrane and hemoglobin
molecules, facilitating oxygen uptake

Front 21

The term "hematopoiesis" refers to
a. the mechanisms that prevent blood loss
b. a disease in which there is insufficient blood cell production
c. the rupture of red blood cells
d. the process of blood cell formation

Back 21

d. the process of blood cell formation

Front 22

Once released from the bone marrow into the circulation, the average life span
of a red blood cell is about
a. 72 hours
b. one week
c. 4 months
d. 2 years

Back 22

c. 4 months

Front 23

Each molecule of hemoglobin
a. contains two alpha globin proteins and two beta globin proteins.
b. contains one heme group.
c. contains 2 atoms of iron.
d. can carry 12 molecules of oxygen.

Back 23

a. contains two alpha globin proteins and two beta globin proteins.

Front 24

Which of the following statements regarding red blood cells (RBCs) is FALSE?
a. RBCs lack organelles.
b. Like most other cells of the body, RBCs oxidize fatty acids for energy.
c. The average lifespan of a RBC is 120 days.
d. The shape of a RBC may be described as a biconcave disc.

Back 24

b. Like most other cells of the body, RBCs oxidize fatty acids for energy.

Front 25

Which of the following statements regarding red blood cells (RBCs) is FALSE?
a. As a red blood cell ages its membrane accumulates oxidative damage,
decreasing membrane fluidity.
b. Because they contain no DNA and have no organelles, RBCs have a limited
ability to repair themselves.
c. Old RBCs are filtered and removed from the blood by the kidneys.
d. About 10% of effete red blood cells rupture before being removed from the
circulation.

Back 25

c. Old RBCs are filtered and removed from the blood by the kidneys.

Front 26

When hemoglobin is broken down, what happens to the heme group?
a. It is digested into amino acids, which are used by cells to build new
proteins.
b. It is recycled to make new hemoglobin.
c. It is transported back to the bone marrow by transferrin.
d. It is converted to biliverdin and then to bilirubin within macrophages.

Back 26

d. It is converted to biliverdin and then to bilirubin within macrophages.

Front 27

Anemia:
a. is a condition characterized by a low hematocrit or hemoglobin deficiency.
b. is a condition in which the ability of the blood to carry oxygen decreases.
c. is associated with excessive numbers of erythrocytes.
d. Both A and B are correct.

Back 27

d. Both A and B are correct.

Front 28

Polycythemia is a condition characterized by a significantly:
a. lower than normal hematocrit.
b. higher than normal hematocrit.
c. lower than normal white blood cell count.
d. higher than normal platelet count.

Back 28

b. higher than normal hematocrit.

Front 29

All of the following are associated with polycythemia except:
a. low blood viscosity
b. high blood pressure
c. increased risk of stroke
d. high hematocrit

Back 29

a. low blood viscosity

Front 30

Which of the following might trigger erythropoiesis?
a. an increased number of RBCs
b. increased tissue demand for oxygen
c. decreased tissue demand for oxygen
d. high blood pressure

Back 30

b. increased tissue demand for oxygen

Front 31

Erythropoietin (EPO):
a. is secreted by cells in the kidneys
b. stimulates erythrocyte production
c. is a component of hemoglobin
d. Both A and B are correct.

Back 31

d. Both A and B are correct.

Front 32

Thrombopoietin (TPO):
a. is secreted by cells in the kidneys
b. is secreted by activated platelets
c. stimulates platelet production
d. All of the above.

Back 32

d. All of the above.

Front 33

Cells in the red bone marrow that give rise to all the formed elements of the
blood are called
a. chondroblasts
b. hemocytoblasts
c. megakaryoblasts
d. proerythroblasts

Back 33

b. hemocytoblasts

Front 34

Platelets:
a. are specialized cell fragments rather than intact cells
b. are also referred to as thrombocytes
c. function in blood clotting
d. All of the above.

Back 34

d. All of the above.

Front 35

Thrombocytopenia:
a. is a condition characterized by a significantly lower than normal hematocrit.
b. is a condition characterized by a significantly lower than normal platelet
count.
c. presents with symptoms including easy bruising, bleeding of the gums, and
blood in the stools
d. Both B and C are correct

Back 35

d. Both B and C are correct

Front 36

Which of the following is NOT true of vascular spasm associated with
hemostasis?
a. Vascular spasm reduces blood loss for minutes to hours.
b. Vascular spasm is linked to reflexes initiated by pain receptors.
c. Vascular spasm is promoted by substances released from activated
platelets.
d. Vascular spasm is a local vasodilation, increasing blood flow in order to
bring white blood cells to the damaged area.

Back 36

d. Vascular spasm is a local vasodilation, increasing blood flow in order to
bring white blood cells to the damaged area.

Front 37

By volume, plasma typically comprises about _________percent and formed
elements comprise about ____________percent of whole blood.
a. 25, 75
b. 55, 45
c. 75, 25
d. 85, 15

Back 37

b. 55, 45

Front 38

The phases of hemostasis include all of the following EXCEPT
a. erythropoiesis
b. vascular spasm
c. platelet plug formation
d. blood coagulation

Back 38

a. erythropoiesis

Front 39

A constituent of blood plasma that forms the network of fibers in a clot is
a. fibrinogen
b. tissue factor
c. platelets
d. thrombin

Back 39

a. fibrinogen

Front 40

_____________involves a cascade of reactions leading to the conversion of
fribinogen to fibrin.
a. vascular spasm
b. clot retraction
c. coagulation
d. fibrinolysis

Back 40

c. coagulation

Front 41

The process of fibrinolysis
a. activates fibrinogen.
b. draws torn edges of damaged tissue closer together.
c. dissolves clots.
d. results in a vascular spasm.

Back 41

c. dissolves clots.

Front 42

After preliminary testing, a man who had had a stroke was given tissue
plasminogen activator (tPA) at the hospital. The reason for this treatment is
that tPA
a. activates an enzyme that dissolves clots
b. prevents the formation of clots by removing calcium from the blood
c. prevents the formation of thrombin
d. initiates repair in damaged blood vessels

Back 42

a. activates an enzyme that dissolves clots

Front 43

The outer (most superficial) layer of the pericardium is the:
a. fibrous pericardium
b. serous pericardium
c. visceral serous pericardium
d. parietal serous pericardium

Back 43

a. fibrous pericardium

Front 44

The membrane closest to the myocardium is the:
a. fibrous pericardium
b. visceral serous pericardium
c. parietal serous pericardium
d. peritoneum

Back 44

b. visceral serous pericardium

Front 45

Which of the following is the correct sequence of blood flow in the
cardiovascular system?
a. pulmonary artery → right atrium → right ventricle → aorta
b. vena cava → right atrium → right ventricle → pulmonary artery
c. vena cava → left atrium → left ventricle → pulmonary artery
d. pulmonary vein → left ventricle → left atrium → aorta

Back 45

b. vena cava → right atrium → right ventricle → pulmonary artery

Front 46

The valve between the left atrium and the left ventricle is called the:
a. semilunar valve
b. sinoatrial valve
c. mitral valve
d. tricuspid valve

Back 46

c. mitral valve

Front 47

Blood passing through the bicuspid valve will enter the
a. left atrium
b. left ventricle
c. right atrium
d. right ventricle

Back 47

b. left ventricle

Front 48

The wall of the left ventricle is thicker than the wall of the right ventricle
because the left ventricle:
a. pumps a greater volume of blood per minute.
b. pumps blood against a higher resistance.
c. pumps oxygenated blood.
d. pumps blood through a smaller valve.

Back 48

b. pumps blood against a higher resistance.

Front 49

The function of the aortic valve is to prevent backflow of blood into the:
a. right atrium during ventricular diastole
b. left ventricle during ventricular diastole
c. right ventricle during ventricular systole
d. left atrium during ventricular systole

Back 49

b. left ventricle during ventricular diastole

Front 50

Contractions of the papillary muscles:
a. prevent the atrioventricular valves from prolapsing as ventricular pressure
rises.
b. eject blood from the atria into the ventricles.
c. close the atrioventricular valves.
d. close the semilunar valves.

Back 50

a. prevent the atrioventricular valves from prolapsing as ventricular pressure
rises.

Front 51

Blood in the coronary sinus will drain into the
a. left atrium
b. left ventricle
c. right atrium
d. right ventricle

Back 51

c. right atrium

Front 52

Which of the following statements concerning the circulation of blood is FALSE?
a. The systemic circulation circuit receives blood from the left ventricle.
b. The pulmonary circulation transports blood from the heart to the lungs and
back to the heart.
c. The coronary circulation is part of the pulmonary circuit.
d. The right side of the heart is the pump for the pulmonary circuit.

Back 52

c. The coronary circulation is part of the pulmonary circuit.

Front 53

The structure that permits blood flow from the right atrium to the left atrium in
the fetal circulation is the
a. ligamentum arteriosus
b. coronary sinus
c. fossa ovalis
d. foramen ovale

Back 53

d. foramen ovale

Front 54

Which structure is present in the cardiac muscle tissue but not skeletal muscle
tissue?
a. striations
b. nuclei
c. intercalated disks
d. t-tubules

Back 54

c. intercalated disks

Front 55

Which component of a myocardial cell allows it to electrically stimulate
adjoining cells?
a. gap junctions
b. t-tubules
c. desmosomes
d. sarcoplasmic reticulum

Back 55

a. gap junctions

Front 56

The plateau phase of the cardiac contractile cell action potential is caused by
a. Ca2+ inflow
b. Cl- inflow
c. K+ outflow
d. Na+ outflow

Back 56

a. Ca2+ inflow

Front 57

For the heart to work, cardiac muscle must relax between beats. Summation of
contractions can occur in skeletal muscle but not in heart muscle because:
a. Heart muscle cells are connected by gap junctions.
b. Heart muscle contraction lasts longer than a skeletal muscle twitch.
c. The cardiac action potential overlaps with the muscle contraction, and the
absolute refractory period lasts almost as long as the contraction itself.
d. The heart muscle action potential is much shorter than a skeletal muscle
action potential.

Back 57

c. The cardiac action potential overlaps with the muscle contraction, and the
absolute refractory period lasts almost as long as the contraction itself.

Front 58

Conduction of the wave of depolarization through the heart proceeds by which
of the following routes?
a. atrioventricular node → sinoatrial node → bundle of His → Purkinje fibers
b. sinoatrial node → atrial muscle fibers → atrioventricular node → bundle of
His
c. sinoatrial node → right or left bundle branches → bundle of His →
atrioventricular node
d. sinoatrial node → Purkinje fibers → atrioventricular node → bundle of His

Back 58

b. sinoatrial node → atrial muscle fibers → atrioventricular node → bundle of
His

Front 59

The sinoatrial node is the natural pacemaker for the heart because it:
a. is located close to where the blood enters the heart
b. has the fastest rate of spontaneous depolarization of any heart tissue
c. is innervated by sympathetic nerves
d. is the only pacemaker in the heart

Back 59

b. has the fastest rate of spontaneous depolarization of any heart tissue

Front 60

The right and left bundle branches in the interventricular septum consist of:
a. sympathetic nervous tissue
b. parasympathetic nervous tissue
c. somatic nervous tissue
d. modified cardiac muscle cells referred to as conducting cells

Back 60

d. modified cardiac muscle cells referred to as conducting cells

Front 61

The conduction delay caused by the atrioventricular node (the AV delay):
a. ensures that the atria contract prior to contraction of the ventricles
b. ensures that the ventricles contract prior to contraction of the atria
c. ensures that tetanic contraction of cardiac muscle is impossible
d. is due to the relatively large size of the conducting cells of the AV node.

Back 61

a. ensures that the atria contract prior to contraction of the ventricles

Front 62

Which event occurs during ventricular systole?
a. depolarization of the SA node
b. filling of the atria
c. opening of the AV valves
d. isovolumetric contraction

Back 62

d. isovolumetric contraction

Front 63

The amount of blood contained in a ventricle at the end of atrial systole is the
a. stroke volume (SV)
b. end-diastolic volume (EDV)
c. end-systolic volume (ESV)
d. cardiac output (CO)

Back 63

b. end-diastolic volume (EDV)

Front 64

Cardiac output (CO)…
a. is the volume of blood ejected per minute from the left ventricle into the
aorta.
b. is the volume of blood ejected per minute from the right ventricle into the
pulmonary trunk.
c. is the product of the stroke volume and the heart rate.
d. All of the above.

Back 64

d. All of the above.

Front 65

A patient’s maximum cardiac output is 20 L/min. Her resting cardiac output is 5
L/min. What is the patient’s cardiac reserve?
a. 15 L/min
b. 25 L/min
c. 100 L/min
d. 50 L/min

Back 65

a. 15 L/min

Front 66

Based on the information given below, which individual has the greatest
tolerance for strenuous exercise? Assume they are similar in terms of size and
muscular fitness.
a. Ann, cardiac reserve = 8 L/min
b. Betsy, cardiac reserve = 15 L/min
c. Carla, cardiac reserve = 18 L/min
d. Donna, cardiac reserve = 25 L/min

Back 66

d. Donna, cardiac reserve = 25 L/min

Front 67

According to the Frank-Starling Principle (Starling’s Law of the Heart)…
a. the right and left ventricles must pump equal amounts of blood with each
heart beat.
b. increasing the preload, increases the contractility.
c. increasing the EDV results in a corresponding increase in stroke volume.
d. Both B and C are correct.

Back 67

d. Both B and C are correct.

Front 68

During which phase of the cardiac cycle are the atrioventricular, aortic semilunar
and pulmonary semilunar valves all open?
a. ventricular filling phase
b. isovolumetric ventricular relaxation phase
c. ventricular ejection phase
d. These valves are never all open at the same time.

Back 68

d. These valves are never all open at the same time.

Front 69

Consider the following phases of the cardiac cycle:
M. ventricular filling
N. isovolumetric ventricular contraction
O. ventricular ejection
P. isovolumetric ventricular relaxation
The aortic and pulmonary semilunar valves are open during which of the following
phases?
a. M & N
b. N & O
c. O only
d. N, O, & P

Back 69

c. O only

Front 70

The first heart sound is caused by which of the following events?
a. closing of the atrioventricular valves
b. opening of the aortic and pulmonary valves
c. closing of the aortic and pulmonary valves
d. ejection of blood from the ventricles

Back 70

a. closing of the atrioventricular valves

Front 71

In which phase of the cardiac cycle is the blood pressure of the atrium greater than
the blood pressure of its corresponding ventricle?
a. ventricular filling phase
b. ventricular ejection phase
c. isovolumetric ventricular relaxation phase
d. ventricular pressures are always greater than atrial pressures

Back 71

a. ventricular filling phase

Front 72

During the isovolumetric ventricular contraction phase of the cardiac cycle:
a. the atrioventricular valves are closed and the aortic and pulmonary valves are
open
b. the atrioventricular valves are open and the aortic and pulmonary valves are
closed
c. ventricular pressure is greater than atrial pressure
d. ventricular pressure is greater than aortic pressure

Back 72

c. ventricular pressure is greater than atrial pressure

Front 73

Consider the following events:
L. closing of the atrioventricular valves
M. atrial contraction
N. ejection of blood from the ventricles
O. isovolumetric ventricular relaxation
P. opening of the aortic and pulmonary semilunar valves
The sequence in which they occur during the cardiac cycle is:
a. L, M, P, O, N
b. M, L, P, N, O
c. M, L, O, N, P
d. L, M, N, P, O

Back 73

b. M, L, P, N, O

Front 74

During the ventricular filling phase of the cardiac cycle:
a. the aortic and pulmonary semilunar valves are open
b. pressure in the left ventricle is greater than pressure in the left atrium
c. arterial blood pressure is rising
d. the ventricles fill about 70% of the way before atrial systole begins

Back 74

d. the ventricles fill about 70% of the way before atrial systole begins

Front 75

If the end diastolic volume is 140 ml, the end systolic volume is 40 ml, and the
heart rate is 80 beats per minute, calculate the stroke volume.
a. 8000 ml/min
b. 180 ml
c. 100 ml
d. cannot be calculated from the available data

Back 75

c. 100 ml

Front 76

If the end diastolic volume is 140 ml, the end systolic volume is 40 ml, and the
heart rate is 80 beats per minute, calculate the cardiac output.
a. 8000 ml/min
b. 3200 ml/min
c. 100 ml
d. cannot be calculated from the available data

Back 76

a. 8000 ml/min

Front 77

If the rate of venous return to the heart is increased, each of the following
events will occur except:
a. end diastolic volume is increased
b. end systolic volume is increased
c. heart rate is increased
d. cardiac output is increased

Back 77

b. end systolic volume is increased

Front 78

The sympathetic nervous system has all of the following effects on the
cardiovascular system except:
a. increasing heart muscle contractility
b. slowing the rate of spontaneous depolarization of the sinoatrial node
c. reducing the volume of blood within the veins
d. increasing peripheral resistance

Back 78

b. slowing the rate of spontaneous depolarization of the sinoatrial node

Front 79

Select the correct statement about cardiac output.
a. A decrease in venous return will result in an increase in the end diastolic
volume.
b. Stroke volume increases if end diastolic volume decreases.
c. The end systolic volume is not affected by the mean arterial pressure.
d. An increase in venous return will increase the end diastolic volume, stroke
volume, and force of contraction.

Back 79

d. An increase in venous return will increase the end diastolic volume, stroke
volume, and force of contraction.

Front 80

Negative chronotropic factors are:
a. factors that increase heart rate.
b. factors that decrease heart muscle contractility.
c. factors that increase heart muscle contractility.
d. factors that decrease heart rate.

Back 80

d. factors that decrease heart rate.

Front 81

Positive inotropic factors are:
a. factors that increase heart rate.
b. factors that decrease heart muscle contractility.
c. factors that increase heart muscle contractility.
d. factors that decrease heart rate.

Back 81

c. factors that increase heart muscle contractility.

Front 82

An increase in heart muscle contractility:
a. would increase the end systolic volume.
b. would decrease the cardiac output.
c. would decrease the time the ventricles spend in isovolumetric contraction.
d. would increase the heart rate.

Back 82

c. would decrease the time the ventricles spend in isovolumetric contraction.

Front 83

What is the effect of norepinephrine on the heart?
a. It decreases the rate and strength of contraction.
b. It increases the rate and strength of contraction.
c. It decreases the amount of blood pumped per minute.
d. It has no effect on the heart.

Back 83

b. It increases the rate and strength of contraction.

Front 84

The amount of blood in the ventricles just before they contract is called the
a. end diastolic volume
b. end systolic volume
c. stroke volume
d. cardiac output

Back 84

a. end diastolic volume

Front 85

Blood is moved through the vascular system by
a. valves in the walls of the blood vessels
b. peristalsis caused by the smooth muscle in the blood vessel walls
c. pressure differences created by the heart
d. osmotic pressure.

Back 85

c. pressure differences created by the heart

Front 86

Which vessel type is not correctly matched with one of its functions?
a. arteries - conduct blood away from the heart
b. arterioles - return blood from the tissues to the atria
c. capillaries - site of exchange of substances between the blood and tissue
fluid
d. veins - serve as a blood reservoir

Back 86

b. arterioles - return blood from the tissues to the atria

Front 87

Smooth muscle cells that regulate blood flow from the thoroughfare channel
into capillaries are called
a. arterial capillaries
b. metarterioles
c. precapillary sphincters
d. venous capillaries

Back 87

c. precapillary sphincters

Front 88

Small blood vessels in the tunica externa (adventitia) of a blood vessel that
supply blood to the outer parts of the vessel wall are called
a. veins
b. portal vessels
c. metarterioles
d. vasa vasorum

Back 88

d. vasa vasorum

Front 89

When someone is not exercising, greatest percentage of his total blood volume
is in the
a. heart
b. arteries
c. capillaries
d. veins

Back 89

d. veins

Front 90

Poiseuille's Law explains the effect of three factors on peripheral resistance.
According to this law,
a. the smaller the radius of a vessel, the higher the resistance to blood flow
b. increased resistance causes increased blood flow
c. the higher the blood viscosity, the lower the peripheral resistance
d. a longer blood vessel offers less resistance than a shorter vessel of the
same radius

Back 90

a. the smaller the radius of a vessel, the higher the resistance to blood flow

Front 91

Vasoconstriction
a. occurs when smooth muscle in the vessel wall relaxes
b. can be caused by signals from the sympathetic nervous system
c. increases blood flow in the constricted vessel
d. decreases blood pressure in the constricted vessel.

Back 91

b. can be caused by signals from the sympathetic nervous system

Front 92

The maximum pressure developed in a systemic artery
a. is called the systolic pressure
b. occurs during ventricular diastole
c. is called pulse pressure
d. occurs during atrial systole

Back 92

a. is called the systolic pressure

Front 93

If a person's blood pressure is 110/70, then the
a. pulse pressure is 40 mm/Hg
b. diastolic pressure is 40 mm/Hg
c. systolic pressure is 70 mm/Hg
d. mean arterial pressure is 120 mm/Hg

Back 93

a. pulse pressure is 40 mm/Hg

Front 94

Pulse pressure is calculated by
a. adding diastolic pressure to systolic pressure
b. subtracting diastolic pressure from systolic pressure
c. adding the diastolic and systolic pressure, then dividing by 2
d. adding one-third of the difference between the diastolic and the systolic
pressure to the diastolic pressure.

Back 94

b. subtracting diastolic pressure from systolic pressure

Front 95

Friction between the blood and vessel walls
a. decreases the mean arterial blood pressure
b. is one cause of peripheral resistance
c. increases blood flow
d. increases as blood viscosity decreases

Back 95

b. is one cause of peripheral resistance

Front 96

The major factors determining mean arterial blood pressure are
a. cardiac output and peripheral resistance
b. end systolic volume and end diastolic volume
c. the length of the blood vessels and the thickness of their walls
d. the level of carbon dioxide and the level of oxygen in the blood

Back 96

a. cardiac output and peripheral resistance

Front 97

Which of the following would decrease mean arterial blood pressure?
a. constriction of the arterioles
b. dilation of the arterioles
c. increased blood volume
d. increased resistance

Back 97

b. dilation of the arterioles

Front 98

If the blood pressure is elevated, the cardiovascular centers would compensate
by
a. increasing the heart rate
b. sending sympathetic signals to the myocardial cells
c. increasing cardiac output
d. causing vasodilation

Back 98

d. causing vasodilation

Front 99

If blood pressure is too low, the cardiovascular control centers will attempt to
compensate by causing
a. systemic arteriole dilation
b. decreased heart rate
c. increased contractility of the myocardial cells
d. decreased cardiac output

Back 99

c. increased contractility of the myocardial cells

Front 100

Information about blood pressure is collected and sent to the brain by
a. baroreceptors
b. osmoreceptors
c. endothelial cells
d. chemoreceptors

Back 100

a. baroreceptors

Front 101

To determine mean arterial pressure (MAP), cardiac output (CO) is multiplied
by
a. diastolic pressure.
b. systolic pressure.
c. pulse pressure.
d. peripheral resistance.

Back 101

d. peripheral resistance.

Front 102

Exchange of nutrients and gases between the blood and tissue cells occurs in the:
a. veins
b. arterioles
c. venules
d. capillaries

Back 102

d. capillaries

Front 103

Systemic arterioles have which of the following functions?
a. act as a volume reservoir for blood
b. act as a pressure reservoir for blood
c. control the amount of blood flow to tissues
d. exchange nutrients and wastes with tissues

Back 103

c. control the amount of blood flow to tissues

Front 104

Which of the following changes would promote the increase in blood flow seen
in a muscle when it becomes active?
a. a local increase in the plasma histamine concentration
b. a local decrease in the pH (more acidic) of the interstitial fluid (ISF)
c. a local decrease in CO2 in the ISF
d. a local accumulation of O2 in the ISF

Back 104

b. a local decrease in the pH (more acidic) of the interstitial fluid (ISF)

Front 105

Peripheral resistance is determined primarily by:
a. stroke volume
b. venous capacity
c. capillary diameter
d. arteriolar tone

Back 105

d. arteriolar tone

Front 106

In which of these blood vessels is the velocity of blood flow the lowest?
a. arteries
b. arterioles
c. capillaries
d. veins

Back 106

c. capillaries

Front 107

All of the following events would increase the rate of venous return to the heart
except:
a. loss of 500 ml of blood
b. increased depth and rate of breathing
c. increased activity of the sympathetic nervous system
d. increased skeletal muscle activity, especially in the legs

Back 107

a. loss of 500 ml of blood

Front 108

In response to an increase in arterial blood pressure, all of the following events will
occur except:
a. the frequency of action potentials in afferent fibers from the carotid sinus
baroreceptors increases
b. parasympathetic stimulation of the heart increases
c. sympathetic stimulation of the heart and vasculature decreases
d. cardiac output increases

Back 108

d. cardiac output increases

Front 109

The cardiovascular center in the medulla of the brain stem is involved in the
regulation of systemic blood pressure by performing which of the following
functions?
a. receiving afferent impulses from the carotid sinus
b. sending impulses via sympathetic nerves to the heart
c. sending impulses via parasympathetic nerves to the heart
d. All of the above.

Back 109

d. All of the above.

Front 110

Resistance to blood flow in a vessel:
a. decreases with increasing length of the blood vessel.
b. increases as blood viscosity increases.
c. increases as blood vessel diameter increases.
d. All of the above.

Back 110

b. increases as blood viscosity increases.

Front 111

The arteries that directly feed into the capillary beds are called:
a. elastic arteries
b. arterioles
c. conducting arteries
d. muscular arteries

Back 111

b. arterioles

Front 112

The blood vessels that drain blood directly from the capillary beds are the
a. elastic arteries
b. muscular arteries
c. veins
d. venules

Back 112

d. venules

Front 113

Which part of the arterial wall contains smooth muscle?
a. tunica intima
b. tunica media
c. tunica externa
d. the adventitia

Back 113

b. tunica media

Front 114

Veins…
a. carry blood toward the heart.
b. have thick layers of smooth muscle in their tunica media.
c. are never found to have valves.
d. carry blood under high pressure.

Back 114

a. carry blood toward the heart.

Front 115

Neural control of blood pressure depends upon…
a. sensory input from baroreceptors in the carotid and aortic sinuses.
b. sensory input from the chemoreceptors in the carotid and aortic bodies.
c. the balance of sympathetic and parasympathetic impulses from the
cardiovascular centers of the medulla oblongata.
d. All of the above.

Back 115

d. All of the above.

Front 116

Increased secretion of which of the following hormones would decrease blood
pressure?
a. aldosterone
b. atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
c. antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
d. renin

Back 116

b. atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)

Front 117

In response to a decrease in blood pressure,
a. ADH secretion increases.
b. the kidneys decrease urine production.
c. blood volume increases.
d. All of the above are true.

Back 117

d. All of the above are true.

Front 118

In capillaries all of the following substances are freely filtered except:
a. water
b. electrolytes (e.g. ions)
c. proteins
d. glucose

Back 118

c. proteins

Front 119

In capillaries all of the following substances are freely filtered except:
a. water
b. electrolytes (e.g. ions)
c. large proteins
d. glucose

Back 119

c. large proteins

Front 120

Which of the following statements is correct?
a. At the arteriole end of a capillary, a positive net filtration pressure (NFP)
favors movement of water from the lumen of the capillary into the interstitial
space.
b. At the venule end of a capillary, a negative NFP favors movement of water
into the lumen of the capillary from the interstitial space.
c. As blood flows down the length of a capillary slightly more water is filtered
out than is reabsorbed.
d. All of the above.

Back 120

d. All of the above.

Front 121

Although the capillary wall is freely permeable to water, large volumes of fluid
are not normally lost from the capillary into interstitial fluid during the passage
of blood along the capillary. The primary reason for this is:
a. the precapillary sphincters are rarely open
b. interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure is usually higher than capillary blood
pressure
c. the capillary wall is permeable to large proteins
d. plasma protein osmotic pressure approximately balances capillary blood
pressure

Back 121

d. plasma protein osmotic pressure approximately balances capillary blood
pressure

Front 122

In a capillary, which of the following changes would cause an increase in water
reabsorption?
a. increased plasma oncotic pressure
b. increased protein concentration in interstitial fluid
c. an increase in blood pressure
d. decreased plasma protein concentration

Back 122

a. increased plasma oncotic pressure

Front 123

In a capillary, which of the following changes would increase filtration into the
surrounding interstitial fluid?
a. increased capillary protein osmotic pressure
b. increased interstitial hydrostatic pressure
c. increased capillary blood pressure
d. decreased capillary blood pressure

Back 123

c. increased capillary blood pressure

Front 124

Both lymph and venous blood flow are heavily dependent on:
a. contraction of the vessels themselves.
b. skeletal muscle contractions and differences in thoracic pressures due to
respiratory movement.
c. two-way valves.
d. the pumping action of the heart.

Back 124

b. skeletal muscle contractions and differences in thoracic pressures due to
respiratory movement.

Front 125

Which lymphatic structure drains lymph back to the circulatory system from the
right upper limb and the right side of the head and thorax?
a. right lymphatic duct
b. cisterna chyli
c. thoracic duct
d. lumbar trunk

Back 125

a. right lymphatic duct

Front 126

Edema (swelling) represents an increase in the volume of which of the following
body water spaces?
a. intracellular fluid
b. interstitial fluid
c. plasma volume
d. all of the above volumes increase

Back 126

b. interstitial fluid

Front 127

Which of the following would not be a normal component of lymph?
a. water
b. protein
c. red blood cells
d. electrolytes (ions)

Back 127

c. red blood cells

Front 128

Functions of the conducting airways of the upper respiratory system include all
of the following except:
a. trapping inspired dust particles
b. warming inspired air
c. producing sounds involved in communication
d. O2 and CO2 exchange with the blood

Back 128

d. O2 and CO2 exchange with the blood

Front 129

The larynx…
a. is the primary site of voice production.
b. connects the pharynx to the trachea.
c. normally receives air only.
d. All of the above.

Back 129

d. All of the above.

Front 130

The airways that directly carry air to each lobe of a lung are the…
a. terminal bronchioles
b. bronchioles
c. primary bronchi
d. secondary bronchi

Back 130

d. secondary bronchi

Front 131

When the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles contract, which of the
following actions does NOT occur?
a. the diaphragm moves inferiorly.
b. the volume of the thoracic cavity increases.
c. the pressure within the alveoli increases.
d. air moves into the lungs.

Back 131

c. the pressure within the alveoli increases.

Front 132

During quiet ventilation, expiration is achieved by:
a. elastic recoil of the lungs and thoracic cage
b. contraction of the abdominal muscles
c. contraction of the internal intercostals
d. contraction of the external intercostals

Back 132

a. elastic recoil of the lungs and thoracic cage

Front 133

The inspiratory muscles include the:
a. diaphragm and external intercostals
b. diaphragm and internal intercostals
c. diaphragm and abdominal muscles
d. internal and external intercostals

Back 133

a. diaphragm and external intercostals

Front 134

Emphysema resulting in chronic hypoventilation could cause
_______________________.
a. respiratory acidosis
b. respiratory alkalosis
c. metabolic acidosis
d. metabolic alkalosis

Back 134

a. respiratory acidosis

Front 135

Respiratory alkalosis would be indicated if blood pH is _____ and blood CO2
levels are ______.
a. high; low
b. high; high
c. low; low
d. low; high

Back 135

a. high; low

Front 136

Where in the body would you expect the PO2 to be lowest?
a. pulmonary venous blood
b. pulmonary arterial blood
c. coronary venous blood
d. in the cytoplasm of a cardiac muscle cell

Back 136

d. in the cytoplasm of a cardiac muscle cell

Front 137

Where in the body would you expect the PCO2 to be highest?
a. inside the alveoli
b. in systemic arterial blood
c. in systemic venous blood
d. in the cytoplasm of a working muscle

Back 137

d. in the cytoplasm of a working muscle

Front 138

Alveolar PCO2 is ______ atmospheric PCO2 and alveolar PO2 is _______
atmospheric PO2.
a. equal to; equal to
b. less than; greater than
c. greater than; less than
d. less then; equal to

Back 138

c. greater than; less than

Front 139

As a red blood cell passes through the capillary of an active muscle, all of the
following occur except:
a. Chloride ions enter the red blood cell from the plasma
b. HCO3- enters the red blood cell from the plasma
c. the amount of H+ bound to hemoglobin increases
d. the PCO2 of the blood increases

Back 139

b. HCO3- enters the red blood cell from the plasma

Front 140

CO2 is carried from the tissues to the lungs in all of the following ways except:
a. as plasma HCO3-
b. dissolved directly in the plasma
c. bound to hemoglobin
d. bound to carbonic anhydrase

Back 140

d. bound to carbonic anhydrase

Front 141

Carbonic anhydrase:
a. is an enzyme found inside red blood cells
b. catalyzes the formation of carbonic acid from H2O and CO2
c. helps to maintain the CO2 partial pressure gradient between tissues and
their blood supply
d. all of the above

Back 141

d. all of the above

Front 142

Which of the following statements concerning gas exchange across the
respiratory membrane is false?
a. The thickness of the respiratory membrane is not important in determining
the rate of gas exchange.
b. The larger the surface area for gas exchange, the greater the rate of
exchange.
c. Gas exchange across the respiratory membrane occurs by diffusion.
d. Gas exchange is driven by differences in the partial pressures of a gas
across the respiratory membrane.

Back 142

a. The thickness of the respiratory membrane is not important in determining
the rate of gas exchange.

Front 143

Pneumonia (a disease characterized by inflammation of the lungs) can result in
decreased blood pH and increased plasma PCO2, indications of:
a. respiratory acidosis
b. respiratory alkalosis
c. metabolic acidosis
d. metabolic alkalosis

Back 143

a. respiratory acidosis

Front 144

Which of the following is NOT a function of the kidneys?
a. regulation of blood pH
b. storage of urine
c. regulation of blood volume and pressure
d. removal of metabolic waste products from the blood and their excretion in
the urine

Back 144

b. storage of urine

Front 145

Blood flowing through the kidney could take which of the following routes?
a. glomerular capillaries to efferent arteriole to afferent arteriole
b. afferent arteriole to glomerular capillaries to efferent arteriole
c. afferent arteriole to peritubular capillaries to efferent arteriole
d. glomerular capillaries to afferent arteriole to peritubular capillaries

Back 145

b. afferent arteriole to glomerular capillaries to efferent arteriole

Front 146

Which of the following changes would increase the glomerular filtration rate?
a. decreased glomerular capillary blood pressure
b. constriction of the afferent arteriole
c. increased hydrostatic pressure within Bowman’s capsule (i.e. increased
capsular hydrostatic pressure)
d. decreased plasma protein concentration

Back 146

d. decreased plasma protein concentration

Front 147

All of the following substances are freely filtered in the renal corpuscle except:
a. glucose
b. serum albumin
c. water
d. urea

Back 147

b. serum albumin

Front 148

The fluid filtered from the plasma into Bowman’s capsule (i.e. the glomerular
filtrate):
a. has the composition of urine
b. contains only waste substances
c. contains no large proteins
d. is formed by osmosis

Back 148

c. contains no large proteins

Front 149

All other things being equal, which of the following changes will increase the rate
of excretion of a substance into the urine?
a. a decreased rate of filtration of that substance
b. a decreased rate of reabsorption of that substance
c. a decreased rate of secretion of that substance
d. None of the above will increase the rate of excretion of a substance.

Back 149

b. a decreased rate of reabsorption of that substance

Front 150

Reabsorption of glucose and amino acids from the filtrate in the proximal
convoluted tubule is accomplished by:
a. facilitated diffusion.
b. passive transport.
c. primary active transport
d. secondary active transport.

Back 150

d. secondary active transport.

Front 151

The descending limb of the loop of Henle:
a. contains fluid that becomes more concentrated as it moves down into the
medulla.
b. is freely permeable to sodium and urea.
c. pulls water by osmosis into the lumen of the tubule.
d. is not permeable to water.

Back 151

a. contains fluid that becomes more concentrated as it moves down into the
medulla.

Front 152

As tubular fluid flows up the ascending loop of Henle:
a. its osmolarity remains unchanged
b. its osmolarity increases
c. its osmolarity decreases
d. its osmolarity decreases only if ADH is present

Back 152

c. its osmolarity decreases

Front 153

Which of the following statements concerning the function of the kidneys is
correct?
a. The excretion of sodium ions is one of the mechanisms that maintain the
pH balance of the blood.
b. Most of the water passing through the kidney is eliminated as urine.
c. Reabsorption of water in the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct is
hormonally controlled.
d. Sympathetic stimulation of the kidneys increases the glomerular filtration
rate.

Back 153

c. Reabsorption of water in the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct is
hormonally controlled.

Front 154

Which of the following changes will stimulate the release of antidiuretic hormone
(ADH) into the blood?
a. a 5% decrease in plasma osmolarity
b. an increase in blood angiotensin concentration
c. a 15% decrease in plasma volume
d. a 15% increase in plasma volume

Back 154

c. a 15% decrease in plasma volume

Front 155

The direct action of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) on the kidneys is to:
a. increase the permeability of the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct to
water
b. increase the reabsorption of Na+ by the collecting duct
c. decrease the rate of glomerular filtration
d. stimulate the release of aldosterone from the adrenal cortex

Back 155

a. increase the permeability of the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct to
water