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80 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What is the average normal pH of blood?
A) 8.4
B) 7.8
C) 7.4
D) 4.7
C) 7.4
Which of the following is a protective function of blood?
A) prevention of blood loss
B) maintenance of adequate fluid volume
C) maintenance of normal pH in body tissue
D) maintenance of body temperature
A) prevention of blood loss
The most abundant plasma protein is ________.
A) globulin
B) clotting protein
C) albumin (also major contributor to osmotic pressure)
D) bile
C) albumin (also major contributor to osmotic pressure)
Blood volume restorers include all of the following except ________.
A) dextran
B) albumin
C) packed cells
D) saline solutions
C) packed cells
Normal heart sounds are caused by which of the following events?
A) excitation of the SA node
B) closure of the heart valves
C) friction of blood against the chamber walls
D) opening and closing of the heart valves
B) closure of the heart valves
The left ventricular wall of the heart is thicker than the right wall in order to ________.
A) accommodate a greater volume of blood
B) expand the thoracic cage during diastole
C) pump blood with greater pressure
D) pump blood through a smaller valve
C) pump blood with greater pressure
Damage to the ________ is referred to as heart block.
A) SA node
B) AV valves
C) AV bundle
D) AV node
D) AV node
When viewing a dissected heart, it is easy to visually discern the right and left ventricles by ________.
A) tracing out where the auricles connect
B) noticing the thickness of the ventricle walls
C) locating the apex
D) finding the papillary muscles
B) noticing the thickness of the ventricle walls
Foramen ovale ________.
A) connects the two atria in the fetal heart
B) is a condition in which the heart valves do not completely close
C) is a shallow depression in the interventricular septum
D) is a connection between the pulmonary trunk and the aorta in the fetus
A) connects the two atria in the fetal heart
The thymus is most active during ________.
A) fetal development
B) childhood
C) middle age
D) old age
B) childhood
Peyer's patches are found in the ________.
A) duodenum of the small intestine
B) ileum of the small intestine
C) large intestine
D) jejunum of the small intestine
B) ileum of the small intestine
What is a bubo?
A) a wall in a lymph node
B) a lobe of the spleen
C) an infected Peyer's patch
D) an infected lymph node
D) an infected lymph node
The tonsils located at the base of the tongue are the ________.
A) lingual tonsils
B) palatine tonsils
C) pharyngeal tonsils
D) Peyer's tonsils
A) lingual tonsils
Which capillaries are the most common in the body
A) sinusoids
B) anastomoses
C) fenestrated capillaries
D) continuous capillaries
D) continuous capillaries
After entering the arm, the axillary artery becomes the ________ artery.
A) radial
B) ulnar
C) brachial
D) subclavian
E) digital
C) brachial
The ________ divides the aorta into the thoracic aorta and the abdominal aorta.
A) pericardium
B) mediastinum
C) diaphragm
D) peritoneum
E) pleura
C) diaphragm
The external iliac artery branches to form the ________ arteries.
A) radial and ulnar
B) femoral and popliteal
C) femoral and tibial
D) tibial and popliteal
E) femoral and deep femoral
E) femoral and deep femoral
The vein that is formed from the fusion of the subclavian with the internal and external jugulars is the ________ vein.
A) azygos
B) hemiazygos
C) axillary
D) iliac
E) brachiocephalic
E) brachiocephalic
The two common iliac veins form the
A) femoral vein.
B) greater saphenous vein.
C) inferior vena cava.
D) hepatic portal vein.
E) innominate vein.
C) inferior vena cava.
The chemical and mechanical processes of food breakdown are called ________.
A) digestion
B) absorption
C) ingestion
D) secretion
A) digestion
Chyme is created in the ________.
A) mouth
B) stomach
C) esophagus
D) small intestine
B) stomach
Peristaltic waves are ________.
A) segmental regions of the gastrointestinal tract
B) churning movements of the gastrointestinal tract
C) pendular movements of the gastrointestinal tract
D) waves of muscular contractions that propel contents from one point to another
D) waves of muscular contractions that propel contents from one point to another
Pepsinogen, a digestive enzyme, is secreted by the ________.
A) chief cells of the stomach
B) parietal cells of the duodenum
C) Brunner's glands
D) goblet cells of the small intestine
A) chief cells of the stomach
Parietal cells of the stomach produce ________.
A) mucin
B) pepsinogen
C) hydrochloric acid
D) rennin
C) hydrochloric acid
The term metabolism is best defined as ________.
A) the length of time it takes to digest and absorb fats
B) a measure of carbohydrate utilization, typically involving measurement of calories
C) the number of calories it takes to keep from shivering on a cold day
D) biochemical reactions involved in building cell molecules or breaking down molecules for energy
D) biochemical reactions involved in building cell molecules or breaking down molecules for energy
The term metabolic rate reflects the ________.
A) energy the body needs to perform only its most essential activities
B) loss of organic molecules in urine
C) energy needed to make all organic molecules
D) loss of energy to perspiration
A) energy the body needs to perform only its most essential activities
The primary function of cellular respiration is to ________.
A) determine the amount of heat needed by the human body
B) provide the body with adequate amounts of vitamins and minerals
C) efficiently monitor the energy needs of the body
D) break down food molecules and generate ATP
D) break down food molecules and generate ATP
The process of breaking triglycerides down into glycerol and fatty acids is known as ________.
A) gluconeogenesis
B) fat utilization
C) lipogenesis
D) lipolysis
D) lipolysis
Oxidative deamination takes place in the ________.
A) liver
B) muscles
C) kidneys
D) blood
A) liver
The process whereby neutrophils and other white blood cells are attracted to an inflammatory site is called ________.
A) diapedesis
B) chemotaxis
C) margination
D) phagocytosis
B) chemotaxis
Interferons ________.
A) are virus-specific, so that an interferon produced against one virus could not protect cells against another virus
B) act by increasing the rate of cell division
C) interfere with viral replication within cells
D) are routinely used in nasal sprays for the common cold
C) interfere with viral replication within cells
Immunocompetence ________.
A) occurs in one specific organ of the adaptive immune system
B) is the ability of individual cells to recognize a specific antigen by binding to it
C) prevents intercellular communication so that only specific cell types respond to the invader
D) requires exposure to an antigen
B) is the ability of individual cells to recognize a specific antigen by binding to it
The only T cells that can directly attack and kill other cells are the ________.
A) regulatory cells
B) helper cells
C) cytotoxic cells
D) plasma cells
C) cytotoxic cells
Natural killer (NK) cells ________.
A) are also called cytotoxic T cells
B) are a type of phagocyte
C) are cells of the adaptive immune system
D) can kill cancer cells before the immune system is activated
D) can kill cancer cells before the immune system is activated
Which of the following provide the greatest surface area for gas exchange?
A) alveolar sacs
B) alveoli
C) respiratory bronchioles
D) alveolar ducts
B) alveoli
Tidal volume is air ________.
A) remaining in the lungs after forced expiration
B) exchanged during normal breathing
C) inhaled after normal inspiration
D) forcibly expelled after normal expiration
B) exchanged during normal breathing
Respiratory control centers are located in the ________.
A) midbrain and medulla
B) medulla and pons
C) pons and midbrain
D) upper spinal cord and medulla
B) medulla and pons
Inspiratory capacity is ________.
A) the total amount of air that can be inspired after a tidal expiration
B) the total amount of exchangeable air
C) functional residual capacity
D) air inspired after a tidal inhalation
A) the total amount of air that can be inspired after a tidal expiration
A premature baby usually has difficulty breathing. However, the respiratory system is developed enough for survival by ________.
A) 17 weeks
B) 24 weeks
C) 28 weeks
D) 36 weeks
C) 28 weeks
The renal corpuscle is made up of ________.
A) Bowman's capsule and glomerulus
B) the descending loop of Henle
C) the renal pyramid
D) the renal papilla
A) Bowman's capsule and glomerulus
The functional and structural unit of the kidneys is the ________.
A) nephron
B) loop of Henle
C) glomerular capsule
D) basement membrane of the capillaries
A) nephron
Alcohol acts as a diuretic because it ________.
A) is not reabsorbed by the tubule cells
B) increases the rate of glomerular filtration
C) increases secretion of ADH
D) inhibits the release of ADH
D) inhibits the release of ADH
Which of the choices below is the salt level-monitoring part of the nephron?
A) macula densa
B) principal cell
C) vasa recta
D) loop of Henle
A) macula densa
The macula densa cells respond to ________.
A) aldosterone
B) antidiuretic hormone
C) changes in pressure in the tubule
D) changes in solute content of the filtrate
D) changes in solute content of the filtrate
Respiratory acidosis can occur when ________.
A) a person consumes excessive amounts of antacids
B) a person's breathing is shallow due to obstruction
C) a runner has completed a very long marathon
D) the kidneys secrete hydrogen ions
B) a person's breathing is shallow due to obstruction
The fluid link between the external and internal environment is ________.
A) plasma
B) intracellular fluid
C) interstitial fluid
D) cerebrospinal fluid
A) plasma
The term alkaline reserve is used to describe the ________ buffer system.
A) phosphate
B) hemoglobin
C) bicarbonate
D) protein
C) bicarbonate
Which of the following hormones is important in stimulating water conservation in the kidneys?
A) aldosterone
B) thymosin
C) antidiuretic hormone
D) atrial natriuretic peptide
C) antidiuretic hormone
A patient is breathing slowly and blood pH analysis indicates an abnormally high value. What is the likely diagnosis?
A) respiratory acidosis
B) metabolic acidosis
C) metabolic alkalosis
D) respiratory alkalosis
C) metabolic alkalosis
The primary function of the uterus is to ________.
A) protect the ovaries
B) synthesize female hormones
C) regulate the ovarian and menstrual cycles
D) receive, retain, and nourish a fertilized ovum
D) receive, retain, and nourish a fertilized ovum
Fertilization generally occurs in the ________.
A) ovary
B) uterus
C) vagina
D) fallopian tubes
D) fallopian tubes
Which of the following female structures is homologous to the male scrotum?
Labia majora
The cells that produce testosterone in the testis are called ________.
A) spermatocytes
B) spermatogonia
C) sustentacular cells
D) interstitial cells
D) interstitial cells
Which of the choices below is not a function of the vagina?
A) serves as a passageway for the primary oocyte
B) serves as a passageway for menstrual flow
C) is the birth canal
D) receives semen from the penis during sexual intercourse
A) serves as a passageway for the primary oocyte
Which male hormone inhibits the secretion of FSH?
A) ACTH
B) inhibin
C) ICSH
D) testosterone
B) inhibin
Which of the following will occur after ovulation?
A) The corpus luteum secretes estrogen only.
B) The endometrium enters its secretory phase.
C) The secretion of anterior pituitary gonadotropins is enhanced.
D) The corpus luteum prepares to become a corpus albicans.
B) The endometrium enters its secretory phase.
Which hormone is absolutely necessary for ovulation to occur?
A) LH
B) FSH
C) progesterone
D) estrogen
A) LH
A low secretion of luteinizing hormone (LH) in the normal male adult would cause ________.
A) decreased testosterone secretion
B) excessive beard growth
C) increased spermatogenesis
D) shrinkage of the anterior pituitary gland
A) decreased testosterone secretion
Prostate cancer is _______.
A) the number-one cause of death in men
B) sometimes a slow-growing cancer that may never represent a threat to the patient
C) most common in Asians
D) often the result of a distortion of the urethra
B) sometimes a slow-growing cancer that may never represent a threat to the patient
Normally menstruation occurs when ________.
A) blood levels of FSH fall off
B) blood levels of estrogen and progesterone decrease
C) blood levels of estrogen and progesterone increase
D) the corpus luteum secretes estrogen
B) blood levels of estrogen and progesterone decrease
Secretion of progesterone stimulates ________.
A) contraction of uterine muscles
B) preparation of the mammary glands for lactation
C) secretory activity of the uterine myometrium
D) development of the female secondary sex characteristics
B) preparation of the mammary glands for lactation
Human egg and sperm are similar in that ________.
A) about the same number of each is produced per month
B) they have the same degree of motility
C) they have the same number of chromosomes
D) they are about the same size
C) they have the same number of chromosomes
The most important risk for testicular cancer in young males is ________.
A) smoking
B) a diet high in fat
C) nondescent of the testes
D) sexually transmitted infections
C) nondescent of the testes
What destroys the sperm receptors on the surface of the oocyte?
zonal inhibiting proteins
Relaxin is a hormone produced by the placenta and ovaries. The function of this hormone is to ________.
A) block the pain of childbirth
B) ensure the implantation of the blastula
C) relax the pubic symphysis
D) prevent morning sickness
C) relax the pubic symphysis
Which hormone maintains the viability of the corpus luteum?
A) estrogen
B) progesterone
C) human chorionic gonadotropin
D) human placental lactogen
C) human chorionic gonadotropin
Muscle tissue is formed by the ________.
A) mesoderm
B) ectoderm
C) endoderm
D) epiderm
A) mesoderm
At which stage of labor is the "afterbirth" expelled?
A) dystocia
B) expulsion
C) placental
D) full dilation
C) placental
During which stage of labor is the fetus delivered?
A) dilation stage
B) expulsion stage
C) placental stage
D) gastrula stage
B) expulsion stage
Cleavage as part of embryonic development is distinctive because it involves ________.
A) cell division by mitosis with little or no growth between successive divisions
B) the fusion of gametes
C) splitting the cell into two separate cells
D) meiosis
A) cell division by mitosis with little or no growth between successive divisions
Shortly after implantation ________.
A) maternal blood sinuses bathe the inner cell mass
B) myometrical cells cover and seal off the blastocyst
C) the trophoblast forms two distinct layers
D) the embryo gastrulates (within 3 days)
C) the trophoblast forms two distinct layers
The trophoblast is mostly responsible for forming the ________.
A) allantois
B) archenteron
C) placental tissue
D) lining of the endometrium
C) placental tissue
Neural tissue is formed by the ________.
A) epiderm
B) endoderm
C) mesoderm
D) ectoderm
D) ectoderm
Hormones concerned with events of lactation include ________.
A) estrogen
B) oxytocin
C) progesterone
D) hCG
B) oxytocin
Milk ejection or letdown reflex is stimulated by which of the following hormones associated with pregnancy?
A) inhibin
B) oxytocin
C) prolactin
D) gonadotropin
B) oxytocin
The correct sequence of preembryonic structures is ________.
A) zygote, blastocyst, morula
B) zygote, morula, blastocyst
C) blastocyst, morula, zygote
D) morula, zygote, blastocyst
B) zygote, morula, blastocyst
In __________ , the placenta separates from the uterine wall prematurely before the birth of the fetus.
abruptio Placentae
Which body system of a pregnant woman undergoes the most dramatic physiological changes during pregnancy?
cardiovascular system
How long is the egg viable and capable of being fertilized after it is ovulated?
12-24 hours
The placenta, a vitally important metabolic organ, is made up of a contribution from mother and fetus. Which portion is from the fetus?
A) chorion
B) umbilicus
C) yolk sac
D) amnion
A) chorion