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138 Cards in this Set

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EZ93 What is the chemical used in sodalime to indicate exhaustion?

A. ethyl violet

B. potassium permanganate
C. ?

ANSWER A

Components of Sodalime
NaOH 5%
Ca(OH)2 94%
Water
Ethyl violet as indicator
Binders

2. Repeat- Main heat loss in anaesthetic for neonate

A. vasodilatation

B. radiation

C. convection

D. conduction

E. evaporative

ANSWER B - radiation


http://www.nature.com/jp/journal/v28/n1s/full/jp200851a.html





However, consideration for the premature (28/40) + ELBW neonate sees increased loss of heat through evapouration



http://journals.lww.com/advancesinneonatalcare/Fulltext/2010/10001/Thermoregulation_and_Heat_Loss_Prevention_After.3.aspx


AT08c [Apr97] [Jul98] [2001-Apr] Q50, [2001-Aug] Q31, [2003-Apr] Q3, [2003-Aug] Q54, [2005-Apr] Q38, [Jul05] [Mar06]

The most appropriate method for improving oxygenation during one lung anaesthesia, after institution of an FiO2 of 1.0, is application of

A. 5cm H2O CPAP to the non-dependent lung

B. 10cm H2O CPAP to the non-dependent lung

C. 5cm H2O PEEP to the dependent lung

D. 5cm H2O CPAP to the non-dependent and 5cm H2O PEEP to the dependent lung

E. intermittent re-inflation to the non-dependent lung

ANSWER A

Management

1. increase FiO2 100%
2. Check position and function of DLT
3. Ensure muscle relaxation
4. Suction
5. Adequate cardiac ouput
6. CPAP to non dependent, surgical
7. PEEP to dependent, ventilated lung 5cmH2O (may increase shunt through non dependent lung, therefore CPAP first)
8. Intermittent inflation of surgical side
9. PA clamp

4. Child with murmur- what would make it more likely for you to investigate if you heard the murmur

A. persist in supine position

B. louder or softer with various manouveres

B. Persistent mumur of manouveres



Danger Signs of Murmurs

* Loud
* Late
* Long
* Locked (no change on position)
* fiLing (diastolic)
* Little kids (<1yr)
* thrilL




EXCLUDE ON HISTORY
• Good exercise tol/playing
• No sig fam hx: HOCM, CCD, sudden unexplained death
• No sig perinatal hx: prematurity, maternal diabetes, foetal distress, birth asphyxia
• No syndromes or congenital defects
• Child >1 yr



EXCLUDE ON EXAM
• No dysmorphic features, VACTERAL
• No thrill
• Apex not displaces
• Soft, grade <3
• Short duration
• No radio-fem delay or rad-rad delay
• Femoral pulse not bounding (L-R shunt) or decrease LVOTO
• No cyanosis
• Diastolic, pansystolic, continuous or very load need investigation

5. Repeat- Single lumen intubation after multiple attempts of difficult intubation, you put in a bronchoscope after and the tip is in the trachea. The structure B you seen corresponding to?

Trachealis is posterior, use this to orientate



Right upper lobe is only true trifurcation

7. Repeat- Neonate to drug addicts found by grandmother in the house, brought into ed, mildly jaundice, slight tachycapnic. ABG PH 7.54, PaCO2 46, pO2 74, HCO 13

A. Septicaemic

B. Pyloric stenosis

C. Opiod overdose

D. Meningitis

E. Hepatitis

ANSWER B

ET03 [Repeat] Jehovah's witness refused blood- you have told him you refuse to do the surgery/anaesthesia for his own good. Ethical principle:

A. Paternalism

B. Maleficience

C. Autonomy

D. Beneficience

ANSWER A; Paternalism. Consideration that as medical specialists the risks of proceeding to surgery without the option of provision of transfusion support is too great a risk.

Non maleficence would be first to do no harm. In this case not proceeding with surgery.

Autonomy would be to proceed and not give him blood even if he exsanguinates.

Beneficience ?? action that is done for the benefit of others.

Examples of beneficent actions: Resuscitating a drowning victim, providing vaccinations for the general population, encouraging a patient to quit smoking and start an exercise program, talking to the community about STD prevention.

9. Patient with aortic stenosis, the signs indicate poor prognosis

A. Palpitation

B. Radiation to carotid arteries

C. Something about characteristic of murmur

LR of signs for aortic stenosis poor prognosis.

1. Late Peak Murmur 4.4
2. Sustained apical impulse 4.1
3. long murmur 3.9
4. delayed carotid upstroke 3.7
5. diminished carotid pulse 2.3
6. radiation of murmur to neck 1.4



??
Signs of severity
1. Weak plateau pulse
2. Small pulse pressure
3. Late peak systolic murmur
4. Reverse splitting S2
5. S4
6. Signs of LVH



Which is the best predictor of poor prognosis with aortic stenosis?

A. chest pain

B. paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea

C. syncope

D.

E.

ANSWER B: paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea

Mean survival
Onset of angina 2-4.7 yrs
Onset of syncope 0.8-3.7 yrs
Onset of heart failure 0.5-2.8 yrs

(uptodate)

10. New- Patient indicated for prophylaxis of infective endocardititis

A. amoxicillin orally 2 hours prior

B. amoxicillin IV 1 hourly prior

C. amoxicillin IV just before incision

D. cefazolin IV 1 hour prior

ANSWER D; Cefazolin 1 hour prior


(best answer available, however needs to be 30mins prior to procedure/incision)





ORAL
Amoxillin 2g orally or 50mg/kg

Allergic to penicillin:
Clindamycin 600mg orally or 20mg/kg
OR Cephazolin 2g orally or 50mg/kg
OR Azithromycin or Clarithromycin 500mg orally or 15mg/kg

INTRAVENOUS
Ampicillin 2g IV or 50mg/kg
Allergic to penicillin:
Clindamycin 600mg IV or 20mg/kg IV
OR Cefazolin or Ceftriaxone 1g IV/IM or 50mg/kg IV/IM

11. Circuit disconnection during spontaneous breathing anaesthesia

A. will be reliably detected by a fall in end-tidal carbon dioxide concentration

B. will be detected early by the low inspired oxygen alarm

C. will be most reliably detected by spirometry with minute volume alarms

D. may be detected by an unexpected drop in end-tidal volatile anaesthetic agent concentration

E. can be prevented by using new, single-use tubing

I disagree with the below chosen answer as, if it was a dropping anaesthetic concentration, then there would be this alarm alerting us every time we attempted to wake a patient up by turning the anaesthetic agent off.



I would think that it is more likely; C



that and it also depends on which point disconnects.



ANSWER D

A. FALSE: Gas analyzer is still connected to patient despite disconnection of circuit, therefore ETCO2 will be normal

B. FALSE: Disconnection allows entrainment of room air which will not be detected by low inspired O2 alarm

C. FALSE : Depends where the spirometry is taken from, but some spirometry taken near the filter and so a disconnect at the machine will not be detected

D. TRUE : Any disconnect will allow entrainment of room air into the circuit and allow escape of the volatiles, thus a drop in the ET-agent.

E. FALSE: Single use tubing will not prevent a disconnection.



Apnea/disconnect alarms may be based on

1. Chemical monitoring (lack of end tidal carbon dioxide)
2. Mechanical monitoring
* Failure to reach normal inspiratory peak pressure, or
* Failure to sense return of tidal volume on a spirometer
3. Visual monitoring
* Failure of standing bellows to fill during mechanical ventilator exhalation
* Failure of manual breathing bag to fill during mechanical ventilation (machines with fresh gas decoupling- the Apollo, Fabius GS, Narkomed 6000)
4. Auditory monitoring - lack of breath sounds in precordial, lack of sound from ventilator cycling, etc.
5. Optic monitoring - Failure of the hanging bellows to fill completely (the "garage door" electronic eye sensor on the Julian)

12. TMP-Jul10-036

Which is NOT a disadvantage of drawover vaporiser versus plenum vaporiser?
A. Temperature compensation

B. Cannot use sevoflurane

C. Small volume reservoir

D. Flow compensation

E.



Diadvantages
1. Poor temperature compensation (OMV suffer from a reduction in vapour ouput at lower temperatures)
2. Difficult to use sevoflurane (sevo requires high concentrations, therefore require extra wicks to maximise output, however loss of latent heat of vaporisation rapidly lowers its performance. Two OMVs are required to provide adequate sevo conc for induction)
3. Small volume reservior (OMV contains 50ml, which empties rapidly)
4. Basic temperature compensation
5. Less easy to observe spont vent with self inflating bag
6. cumbersome in paedatric use

Advantages of draw over
1. easy to set up
2. in circuit
3. low resistance
4. mobile
5. non agent specific
6. no need for pressurized gas supply
7. robust, reliable
8. easily serviced

PZ130 Which drugs below does not need dose adjustment in renal failure patient

A. Buprenorphine

B. Morphine

C. Tramadol

D. ?

E. ?

ANSWER A



Morphine and Tramadol have active metabolites

14. Repeat- Child after gas induction, LMA insertion without IV cannula- desaturate to 90%. Next step of action?

A. Bag with LMA insitu

B. Bag without LMA insitu

B. LMA out and Positive Pressure Mask Ventilate.



Remove offending stimulus
100% O2 with CPAP, deep anaesthetic
Optimize airway with gentle jaw thrust
Morgani maneuver
Drugs Propfol 0.5mg/kg Sux 0.5mg/kg atrop 0.2mic/kg
IM sux if no IV
Refractory latngospasm: SLN block, Transtracheal lig through cric mem

PZ128 Patient on cisapride. What drug NOT to give in recovery?

A. Tramadol

B. ?

C. ?

I would suggest Droperidol was part of MCQ possible answers and therefore would be the correct answer d/t to the risk of long QT.




ANSWER A (from other groups)

Cisapride is a prokinetic
*agonist at muscarinic (M2) and some serotonergic (5HT4) receptors, and as an antagonist at other serotonergic (5HT3) receptors.
*increases SM tone, strength and co-ordination

Risk of Prolong QTc
*inhibit K+ channels
*higher doses
* reduced metabolism via Cytochrome P450 (e.g. macrolides, azole antifungals, grapefruit juice)
* other QTc drugs (e.g. quinidine, sotalol).

16. Repeat- Which herbal supplement reacts with tramadol?

A. Ephedra
B. St John's wort

ANSWER B



Alternative Medications;



G's bleed



Ephedra is sympathomimetic + causes hEpatitis



St John's = serotonin



Ephedra: cardiovascular instability: hypertension, angina acutely and catechol depletion chronically.

St J Wort: P450 induction. Interaction with tramadol. Increased sensitivity to anaesthesia. Very important is the induction of metabolism of immunosuppressants, antiretrovirals and anticonvulsants.

17. Repeat- Fat: blood coefficient- N2O, D, S, I

N2O 2.3
D 27


E 36


S 47
I 45


H 51

18. Repeat- Immunology mediated heparin induced thrombocytopenia- intravascular thrombosis

HITTS
Type 1 and Type 2



Type 1

* non-immune
* platelet aggregation unduced by heparin
* less severe
* early presentation (1st injection)
* spontaneous recovery
* immune
* PF4:Heparin antibodies (IgG)
* delayed presentation 1-2 weeks from injection
* low platelets and thrombin/fibrin activation = clots
* life threatening

19. Repeat- Half life or tirofiban?

A. 2 hours

A

TMP-131 Repeat- Troponin can be detected for how long:

A. 5-14 days
B. ?

A




inhibits fibrinogen cross-linking


50% platelet activity returns at 4hrs

21. Repeat- Neonate intubation- at lips

DEPTH Mouth (Nose)
Term 9 (11)
6 mo 11 (13)
1yo 12 (14)
Age/2 +12 (+15)

22. New - 72 year old has had hip replacement surgery and 3 days postop has a pulmonary embolus. He is fully heparinised, but still dyspnoeic, clammy, BP 80/40, pulse 120 and CVP 18. The most appropriate next step is

A. IVC filter
B. Refer him for a pulmonary embolectomy
C. Supportive (fluids and inotropes)
D. Thrombolysis
E. Warfarin

ANSWER B

Absolute Contradindications

* Previous intracranial bleeding at any time
* stroke in less than 3months,
* closed head or facial trauma within 3 months,
* suspected aortic dissection ,
* ischemic stroke within 3 months(except in ischemic stroke within 3hours time),
* active bleeding diathesis,
* uncontrolled high blood pressure (>180 systolic or >100 diastolic),
* known structural cerebral vascular lesion viz av malformations.
* Current anticoagulant use,
* invasive or surgical procedure in the last 2 weeks,
* prolonged cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) defined as more than 10 minutes,
* known bleeding diathesis,
* pregnancy,
* hemorrhagic or diabetic retinopathies,
* active peptic ulcer,
* controlled severe hypertension.

23. Repeat- The test to diagnose pulmonary embolism

A. CT pulmonary angiogram
B. Echocardiogram
C. Electrocardiogram
D. Ventilation-perfusion scan

ANSWER A

24. Repeat- Finding on haemophilia A patient

A. Female haemarthrosis
B. Male haemarthrosis
C. Normal PT, abnormal APTT
D. Abnormal PT, normal APTT

ANSWER C

25.tmp11b25 New- LSCS for foetal distress, meconium stained liquor. Management of baby

A. Intrapartum suctioning
B. Intrapartum suctioning and post partum tracheal suction
C. Post partum tracheal suctioning
D. Routine neonatal care
E. Intubate

ANSWER ?C (Depends on effort of baby)

Rapid assessment:
-pink and breathing-> routine care
-apnoea/flat -> tracheal suction then CPAP 5 PIP 30 with air with neopuff mask
-continue neopuff is adequate ventilation, HR>100, pink,Preductle Sat>90%
-HR<60: commence CPR, atropine
-Consider intubation if prem, difficulty with neopuff mask, expected prolonged respiratory support, HR<60

26. Repeat- 36yo male with sickle cell anaemia Hct 0.3 with close foot fracture, what is true

A. Transfusion 2 pint packed cell preop
B. Spinal can be done

ANSWER B

27. New- An elderly lady has a closed neck of femur fracture and presents to ED. She is in chronic AF and on warfarin. INR is 2.6 and she is not bleeding. It is 9am and she is scheduled for repair the following day. According to current guidelines, how should her warfarin be reversed?

A. Prothrombinex 25IU/kg immediately and then 2 units FFP immediately prior to surgery
B. No immediate treatment then 2 units FFP immediately prior to surgery
C. Vitamin K 1mg IV immediately
D. Vitamin K 10mg IV immediately
E. Withhold warfarin

ANSWER C

INR <1.5 = proceed with surgery

URGENT SURGERY
INR <1.9 FFP
INR <5.0 FFP + Vit K 1-3mg slow IV
INR < 9 FFP Vit K 2-5mg slow IV

SEMI URGENT
INR <1.9 Vikt K 1mg oral
INR< 5.0 Vit K 1.25mg oral, repeat INR
INR <9.0, Vit K 2.5-5.0mg, repeat INR

ELECTIVE SURGERY
Bridging therapy if high risk of VTE
Risk factors
1. Acute thrombosis, on treatment > 1month
2. Mechanical heart valve
3. Severe myocardial dysfunction
4. Atrial fibrillation

Acute thrombosis <1month IVC filter

28. Repeat- Marfan syndrome. All EXCEPT-

A. Aortic stenosis

Cardiac Manifestations of Marfan Syndrome

* MVP
* AR
* Aortic dissection
* Conduction abnormalities

29. New- Subarachnoid haemorrhage patient. What percentage rebleed in the first 24hours

A. <5%
B. 5-10%
C. 10-15%
D. 15-20%
E. >20%

ANSWER A



30.TMP11B30 New- Post delivery neonate did not breath post stimulation by midwife, not vigorous, heart rate drop from 140 to 90bpm. Next step of action

A. 100% oxygen
B. Positive pressure ventilation
C. Intubation
D. CPR
E. Adrenaline

ANSWER B

31. New- The safe maximal pressure for endotracheal cuff at the lateral side of the trachea

A. 0-10 cm water
B. 10-20 cm water
C. 20-30 cm water
D. 30-40 cm water
E. 40-50 cm water

ANSWER C



BMJ 1984


32. Repeat- Allergy to penicillin- cross reaction to neuromuscular blocker

?

33. New- Patient with mastocytosis. Intraop would probably be:

A. Severe hypotension

A



management


Premeds; steroid, anti-histamines


low histaminergic stimuli

34. Repeat- Complication of celiac plexus block

A. Hypertension
B. Failure of erection
C. Constipation
D. Paraplegia
E. L3,4 lumbar pain

ANSWER D

Complications
• Severe hypotension may result, even after unilateral block.
• Local pain during procedure
• Diarrhoea
• Intramuscular injection into the psoas muscle.
• Bleeding due to aorta or inferior vena cava injury by the needle.
• Intravascular injection (should be prevented by checking the needle position with radio-opaque dye).
• Upper abdominal organ puncture with abscess/cyst formation.
• Paraplegia from injecting phenol into the arteries that supply the spinal cord (prevented by checking the needle position with radio-opaque dye).
• Lumbar nerve root irritation (injected solution tracks backwards towards the lumbar plexus).
• Sexual dysfunction (injected solution spreads to the sympathetic chain bilaterally) = inability to ejaculate
• Pneumothorax
• Shoulder/chest/pleuritic pain/hiccupping – diaphragmatic irritation
• Haematuria from renal pouncture

35. New- Post epidural and LSCS, the next day patient have persistent paraesthesia anterior thigh. What other injuries would indicate more of nerve roots instead of peripheral nerve injuries

A. Weakness on hip flexion and thigh adduction
B. Weakness on knee flexion and plantar flexion
C. Urinary incontinence
D. Foot drop

ANSWER A



L2/3 nerve roots



sensation to thigh


hip flexion

36. Repeat- Nerve supply to the upper eyelid-

A. ophthalmic branch of trigeminal and sympathetic from superior collicus ganglion

A

37

TMP-Jul10-059 [Aug10]

LUSCS for failure to progress. Spinal is inserted uneventfully. Next day the patient has foot drop. The most likely cause is?

A. epidural haematoma

B. lumbosacral palsy

C. sciatic nerve palsy

D. common peroneal palsy

E. ?

ANSWER D

"Peripheral nerve lesions are usually associated with a long labour and the use of forceps"

"Postpartum foot drop is caused by damage to the lumbosacral trunk or, less frequently, the common peroneal nerve. The lumbosacral trunk (L4, L5) is compressed between the ala of the sacrum and the descending fetal head. It may also occur during a forceps delivery. The result is a unilateral foot drop with loss of sensation and/or paraesthesia along the lateral calf and foot."

"Common peroneal nerve damage may occur due to improper or prolonged positioning during lithotomy and the sensory deficit may be limited to the dorsum of the foot."

Epidural haematomas extremely rare (1:168,000 from review in Anaesthesiology 2006; 105: 394)and obstetric palsies are much more common than complications related to neuraxial blocks.

Sciatic nerve injury would cause a foot drop but would also affect knee flexion (hamstrings) and all muscles in lower leg and foot.

Common peroneal nerve palsy less likely in this case as there is no mention of stirrups or 'excessive knee holding'

38 ANZCA Version [Jul07]Q.150

You are asked to see a 60 y.o. male 2 days following a cervical laminectomy because he has new new neurological symptoms in his right arm. The surgical team think these may be due to poor patient positioning. The sign that would
most help differentiate c C8-T1 nerve root injury from an ulnar nerve injury is

A. loss of sensation in the index finger

B. loss of sensation in the little finger

C. weakness of the abductor digiti minimi muscle

D. weakness of the abductor pollicis brevis m

E. weakness of the first dorsal interosseous m.

ANSWER D

A. FALSE: neither ulnar nerve or C8T1 supply, therefore non differentiating

B. FALSE. both ulnar and C8T1 supply therefore non differentiating

C. FALSE: both affected by C8T1 and ulnar therefore non differentiating

D. TRUE: T1 and median nerve supply, but ulnar does not

E. FALSE. both supplied by c8T1 and ulnar nerve therefore non differentiating

39
ECG- which does NOT have abnormal Q waves:

A: Digoxin toxicity

B: Anterior myocardial infartion

C: Previous AMI

D: LBBB

E: Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome

ANSWER A

Digoxin does not cause Q waves

40 The QT interval may be prolonged by each of the following EXCEPT

A. high intra-thoracic pressure

B. hypothermia

C. magnesium sulphate

D. suxamethonium

E. volatile anaesthetic agents

ANSWER C

41. Post CEA on ward, patient seizes. BP has been hard to control. What to do to prevent further seizures?

A: Add another antihypertensive

B: Start antiplatelet drugs

C: Start anticonvulsants

D: Do angio and stent

E: Nimodipine

ANSWER A

42. Repeat- Post local anaesthetic block in difficult intubate patient- patient seizure. What would you give?

A. Midazolam 5mg

B. thiopentone

C. propofol

D. Suxamethonium

ANSWER A

43

SG62 [Jul07]

Patient presents with carcinoid syndrome and developes hypotension intraoperatively. Best drug to treat it is:

A. Noradrenaline

B. Adrenaline

C. Metaraminol

D. Octreotide

E. Ephedrine

ANSWER D

the occurrence of intraoperative carcinoid crisis manifesting as bronchospasm or hypotension is treated with IV octreotide 100-200 mcg...Stoelting...drstitch

44. Repeat- Allergic question, which is true

A. Collect tryptase 8hours

B. RAST test most sensitive/ specific

C. Absent of trytase exclude anaphylactic

D. Skin and intradermal test- sensitivity, specificity

ANSWER ???

Skin prick is easy to perform, safe and provides the best sensitivity/specificy combo. However it requires a skilled proceduralist

Interdermal has higher sensitivity but higher anaphylaxis rate.

RAST is 100% specific but only 75% senstive. Used to determine if pt has IgE antibodies to particular agents. It does not diagnoses anaphylaxis (as this requires 2 IgE to crosslink)

45

AB50 ANZCA version [2005-Sep] Q120

Transfusion related acute lung injury (TRALI)

A. can be caused by all homologous blood components, but particularly FFP (fresh frozen plasma)

B. is associated with significantly elevated pulmonary artery pressure

C. is the commonest cause of morbidity associated with blood transfusion

D. should be treated with high dose steroids

E. typically presents 24 hours following transfusion

ANSWER A

–SHOT report describes 13 reactions as follows: 6 to FFP, 4 to platelets, 2 to packed cells and 1 to whole blood. The preponderance of reactions with FFP and platelets is thought to result from their ‘high plasma component’

TRALI is most commonly caused by a reaction to leukocyte antibodies present in the plasma component of blood products. These antibodies can activate granulocytes that cause plasma leakage into the lungs, resulting in acute pulmonary edema.

46. New- After transfusion of 5 unit of FFP what is least likely to occur

A. Haemolytic reaction

B. Hypocalcaemia

C. Infection

D. Hyperkalaemia

ANSWER D

A. FALSE: can occur if not matched

B. FALSE: likely to occur if tranfused >1ml/kg/min

C. FALSE: viral transmission possible

D. TRUE: FFP does not contain potassium, or very small amounts. however there is thought that as it is created from older whole blood that it may have blood storage lesion (K+), i dont believe this however.

47. Severe asthmatic- tachycapnia, HR120, speaking in words, pH 7.45, pCO2 46, pO2 96, HCO3 24. Then given nebulised salbutamol continuously, nebulised ipratropium bromide, and hydrocortisone- The next step:

A. ?
B. ?

ANSWER Magnesium

48. AC62b ANZCA version [2003-Apr] Q144, [2004-Apr] Q98, [2004-Aug] Q44, [Jul06] Q23

The most commonly reported cause of awareness during general anaesthesia for a
non-obstetric procedure is

A. equipment failure

B. human error

C. lack of premedication

D. recreational drug use

E. the use of total intravenous anaesthesia

ANSWER B



it really is our fault

49. New- There is evidence to avoid BIS <40 for more than 5minutes because

A. Safe cost

B. Increase incident of hypotension

C. Increase post op mortality

D. Decrease volatile (?) for poor cardiac output patient

E. Decrease the incidence of awareness

ANSWER C

The effect of bispectral index monitoring on long-term survival in the B-Aware Trial. Anesth Analg 2010

BACKGROUND:

When anesthesia is titrated using bispectral index (BIS) monitoring, patients generally receive lower doses of hypnotic drugs. Intraoperative hypotension and organ toxicity might be avoided if lower doses of anesthetics are administered, but whether this translates into a reduction in serious morbidity or mortality remains controversial. The B-Aware Trial randomly allocated 2463 patients at high risk of awareness to BIS-guided anesthesia or routine care. We tested the hypothesis that the risks of death, myocardial infarction (MI), and stroke would be lower in patients allocated to BIS-guided management than in those allocated to routine care.
METHODS:

The medical records of all patients who had not died within 30 days of surgery were reviewed. The date and cause of death and occurrence of MI or stroke were recorded. A telephone interview was then conducted with all surviving patients. The primary end point of the study was survival.
RESULTS:

The median follow-up time was 4.1 (range: 0-6.5) years. Five hundred forty-eight patients (22.2%) had died since the index surgery, 220 patients (8.9%) had an MI, and 115 patients (4.7%) had a stroke. The risk of death in BIS patients was not significantly different than in routine care patients (hazard ratio = 0.86 [95% confidence interval {CI}: 0.72-1.01]; P = 0.07). However, propensity score analysis indicated that the hazard ratio for death in patients who recorded BIS values <40 for >5 min compared with other BIS-monitored patients was 1.41 (95% CI: 1.02-1.95; P = 0.039). In addition, the odds ratios for MI in patients who recorded BIS values <40 for >5 min compared with other BIS-monitored patients was 1.94 (95% CI: 1.12-3.35; P = 0.02) and the odds ratio for stroke was 3.23 (95% CI: 1.29-8.07; P = 0.01).
CONCLUSIONS:

Monitoring with BIS and absence of BIS values <40 for >5 min were associated with improved survival and reduced morbidity in patients enrolled in the B-Aware Trial.

50. New- Most common cause of paediatric post anaesthesia cardiac arrest

A. Drug error

B. Respiratory cause

C. Multifactorial

D. Cardiac problem (?)

ANSWER B



I have a table which says it is cardiac cause in nature, so still not sure.



traditional teaching is that kids arrest because of breathing issues

51. New- Post cervical spine op, there is bulging noted under the incision sit:E. Patient desaturated, combative, keep pulling off the oxygen facemask. Next course of action

A. Rapid sequence induction

B. Gas induction

C. Needle aspiration of the bulge at the neck

ANSWER A

52. New- What drug known to cause prolong QT and risk of Torsades de Pointes

A. Metoclopramide

B. Droperidol

C. Tranexamic acid

ANSWER B

53. New- During cardiac catheterisation (?) patient become BP 80/60, HR 110, CVP 16. What is the next most important investigation

A. Echocardiogram

B. CXR

C. Electrocardiogram

ANSWER A

54. Intraop hyperfibrinolysis- how to diagnose (euglobulin lysis time NOT an option in the answer)

A. TEG

B. PT

C. APTT

ANSWER A

55. New- 75yo patient seen for femoral bypass surgery, no significant cardiac risk factor. He will be admitted 3 days prior to operation. You decided NOT to start on beta blocker and you are justified because:

A. There is increase mortality and morbidity

B. There is not enough time to safely start beta blocker

C. The beta blocker may make the patient claudication worst

D. ?

ANSWER A

POISE TRIAL

56. New- You see a man in his 60s in clinic 1 week prior to laparoscopic cholecystectomy. He has dilated cardiomyopathy with an ejection fraction of 30%, but does not get dyspnoeic with normal activities of daily living. What is the most appropriate management of his heart failure?

A. amiodarone 100mg bd

B. digoxin 250mcg daily

C. enalapril 2.5mg bd

D. metoprolol 100mg bd

E. diltiazem slow release 240mg daily

ANSWER C

57.EZ80 Repeat- A line isolation monitor protects against microshock

A. only if the warning current is set at 10mA

B. only if the warning current is set at 30mA

C. under no circumstances

D. only if the equipment used is grounded

E. only if it monitors all the equipment in the region

ANSWER C

I think that the answer may in fact be E

58. AT27 [Apr07] Q108

Following a left sided pneumonectomy, a left intercostal drain is placed and connected to an underwater drainage system. In the postoperative period

A. A leakage of air is expected from the drain

B. The patient should be nursed in the right lateral decubitus position

C. The underwater seal drain should be left on continuous free drainage
D. The underwater seal drain should be left on continuous free drainage, and connected to wall suction for 5 minutes every hour

E. The underwater seal drain should remain clamped and be released for a short period every hour

ANSWER E

59.RB53 Repeat- Post dural punture headache

A. 24hour bed rest

B. Prone position worst

C. Increase incidence with insertion of spinal catheter

D. Hearing loss

ANSWER D

60. New- Patient ingested 500mg/kg aspirin. In ICU, the most effective method to remove aspirin

A. IV fluid

B. Haemodialysis

C. Sodium bicarbonate infusion

D. Frusemide

ANSWER B

61. Repeat- The most effective method of decrease renal impairment in AAA surgery


AZ69a ANZCA version [2003-Apr] Q137

During elective major vascular surgery the best way to reduce the risk of acute renal failure is
to maintain a normal

A. cardiac output
B. central venous pressure
C. mean arterial blood pressure
D. pulmonary capillary wedge pressure
E. renal blood flow

AZ69b ANZCA version [2003-Aug] Q129, [2004-Apr] Q77, [Mar06] Q71, [Apr07] Q129, [Jul07]

During elective major vascular surgery the best way to reduce the risk of acute renal failure is
to maintain a normal

A. central venous pressure
B. mean arterial blood pressure
C. renal blood flow
D. systemic vascular resistance
E. urine output

Maintain renal flow
Limit AoX time
Avoid supra renal AoX

62.
SZ18b ANZCA version [2006-Mar] Q148, [Jul06] Q35

Infra-renal aortic cross-clamping usually results in

A. decreased cardiac contractility

B. decreased coronary blood flow

C. decreased renal blood flow

D. minimal change in cardiac output

E. increased heart rate

ANSWER C

63. Repeat- The most effective method for cerebral protection in aortic arch aneurysm repair

A. Systemic hypothermia 20degrees

B. Antegrade perfusion to carotid arteries

C. Retrograde perfusion to jugular veins

D. Thiopentone

E. Steroid (?)

ANSWER A

SF53 ANZCA version [2001-Apr] Q6, [2001-Aug] Q4, [2003-Aug] Q66, [2004-Apr] Q55, [Mar 10],[Aug10]

Carbon dioxide is the most common gas used for insufflation
for laparoscopy because it

A. is cheap and readily available

B. is slow to be absorbed from the peritoneum and thus safer

C. is not as dangerous as some other gases if inadvertently given intravenously

D. provides the best surgical conditions for vision and diathermy

E. will not produce any problems with gas emboli as it dissolves rapidly in blood

ANSWER C

65. Repeat- Most common signs of malignant hyperthermia-

A. tachycardia

ANSWER A

The signs and symptoms of the acute episode are:

* Increased CO2 production (the most sensitive indicator)
* Tachycardia
* Muscular rigidity
* Increased body temperature (relatively late)
* Metabolic and respiratory acidosis
* Masseter spasm
* Tachypnoea (if spontaneous respiration)

Late signs are:

* Complex arrhythmias
* Cyanosis
* Hypotension
* Electrolyte abnormalities
* Rhabdomyolysis

Differential diagnosis (Ali et al, 2003 (http://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/B6WBC-49WH6NS-4/2/e600ed74c16e6edf8d10dd86be60e0fb)):

* Thyroid storm
* Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
* Iatrogenic overheating
* Heat illness
* Pheochromocytoma
* Sepsis
* Cocaine, ecstasy overdose
* Hypoxic encephalopathy
* Faulty equipment for measuring temperature, carbon dioxide
* Intrathecal injection of inappropriate radiological contrast agent
* Sudden cardiac arrest in a patient with occult myopathy

66. New- The below would increase A-a oxygen gradient Except

A. Increase FIO2

B. Decrease FIO2

C. Decrease cardiac output

D. Increase shunt

ANSWER B

A-a gradient
* increases 5-7mmHg for every 10% increase in FiO2
* increases with age
* increases with increased shunt
* V/Q mismatch
* defect in diffusion

TMP-104 [Mar10] [Aug10]

Stellate ganglion
A. Anterior to scalenius anterior
B. ?
C. ?
D. ?
E. ?

ANSWER A

68. Repeat- Patient cough during interscalene block- insertion needle should be directed-

ANSWER posterior

Stimulation of diaphragm : phrenic nerve : needle tip is anterior to plexus

Stimulation of trapezoid : needle tip is posterior to plexus

69. New- Interscalene block after injection of 2ml bupivacaine- patient seizure. Most likely injected to

A. Dural cuff

B. Vertebral arteries

C. Internal carotid arteries

D. Jugular veins

E. Subarachnoid (?)

ANSWER B

70. New- Post intubation, you manual ventilate and noted patient high airway pressure. What would you do next

A. Open the APL valve

B. Auscultate the lung

C. Switch to ventilator

ANSWER B

71
E46 Mar2011

Acromegaly due to excess of growth hormone. Why hard to do direct laryngoscopy?

A. Distorted facial anatomy

B. Macroglossia

C. Glottic stenosis

D. Prognathe mandible

E. Arthritis of the neck

ANSWER B

72. New- Modified Cormack and Lehane grade - You cannot see beyond the epiglottis and there is a little space between the epiglottis and the posterior pharyngeal wall (? remembered as epiglottis touching posterior pharyngeal wall)

A. 2a

B. 2b

C. 3a

D. 3b

E. 4

Grade I: Complete glottis visible.

Grade IIa: Partial view of the glottis is visible

Grade IIb: Only arytenoids or very posterior portion of vocal cords are visible.

Grade III: Only epiglottis is visible, not the glottis

Grade IV:Neither epiglottis nor glottis seen.

73
Stellate ganglion block associated with all except:

A. Ptosis

B. Miosis

C. Sweating

D. Facial flushing

E. Nasal stuffiness

ANSWER C

Stellate Ganglion produces Horners syndrome

* Ptosis
* Miosis
* Anhidrosis

In addition, several other eye signs are present:

* Conjunctival injection
* Lacrimation

74. Repeat- Most safe side to insert subtenon block

A. Inferonasal
B. Inferotemporal
C. Medial
D. Superonasal
E. Superotemporal

ANSWER A

75. Compared to retrobulbar block, peribulbar block is associated with

A. More bleeding
B. More risk to optic nerve
C. More akinetic eye
D. Less block to orbicularis oculi

ANSWER D



I would argue that this is not correct.



Retrobulbar does not block CN7 so is able to close eye w/ orbicularis oculi, unable to open due to CN3 blockade

76. Repeat- Diastolic dysfunction Not caused by

A. Adrenaline

B. Myocardial fibrosis

C. Aortic stenosis

D. Hypertension

ANSWER A

Adrenaline increases the efflux of Ca, therefore aiding relaxation (lusitropy)

ANZCA Version [Apr07]

Reverse splitting of the 2nd heart sound is caused by

A. acute pulmonary embolism

B. ASD

C. complete LBBB

D. severe MR

E. pulmonary HT

ANSWER C

Split during inspiration : Normal

Split during expiration = Reverse splitting
*Aortic stenosis
*hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
*left bundle branch block (LBBB)
* ventricular pacemaker

Split during both inspiration and expiration = fixed split S2
* atrial septal defect (ASD)
* ventricular septal defect (VSD).

78. Lumbarsacral nerve does not supply:

A. Subcostal nerve

B. Ilioinguinal n

C. Iliohypogastric n

D. Femoral n

E. Genitofemoral n (?)

ANSWER A

79. Repeat- Relative humidity of fully saturated air at 20degree and 37 degrees-

A. 40%

Absolute humidity
@20deg 17g
@37deg 44g

17/44 = 40%

80.IC90 Repeat- Trauma patient best indicator of good resuscitation (?)-

A. Lactate level

B. Heart rate

C. Blood pressure

D Acidosis (?)

ANSWER A



urine output in burns


patient is not completely resuscited until pH has normalised.

81. New- Pregnant patient seatbelt, driver- involved in car accident. Suddenly developed severe central chest pain, HR 110, BP 154/80, RR 26, Sat 100%. The most likely cause?

A. Sternal fracture

B. Aortic dissection

C. Pneumothorax

D. Rib fracture

E. Myocardial infarction

ANSWER A



i think this is wrong. I believe it is Answer B



increased risk for traumatic deceleration aortic dissection in pregnancy.

82. New- ASD murmur heard at

A. ASD

B. Tricuspid valve

C. Pulmonary valve

D. Mitral valve

E. Aortic valve

ANSWER C

84
TMP-Jul10-038

Chronic alcohol use. Which is not an associated complication ?

A. Pancreatitis

B. Atrial fibrillation

C. Macrocytosis

D. Nephrotic syndrome

E. Hypertriglyceridaemia

ANSWER D

CNS
Wernicke–Korsakoff syndrome

Metabolic
Hyperlipidaemia
Peripheral neuropathy
Obesity.
Hypoglycaemia
Autonomic dysfunction
Hypokalaemia
Hypomagnesaemia
Hyperuricaemia

CVS
Cardiomyopathy

Haematological
Macrocytosis
Heart failure
Thrombocytopenia
Hypertension
Leucopoenia
Arrhythmias (e.g. AF, SVT, VT) GI
Alcoholic liver disease
Musculoskeletal Myopathy
Pancreatitis
Osteoporosis
Gastritis
Osteomalacia
Oesophageal and bowel carcinoma

83.

AB58 ANZCA version [Jul07] Q141

A young woman with type 1 von Willebrand disease presents for a dilatation and curettage. She is a
Jehovah's Witness. You consider administering intravenous desmopressin in an attempt to reduce
haemorrhage. Which of the following statements regarding desmopressin is FALSE?

A. it is a synthetic substance and is acceptable to Jehovah's Witnesses
B. it is likely to reduce haemorrhage in this patient
C. it should be given 30 minutes prior to surgery as an infusion
D. its duration of effect is approximately 5 days
E. the intravenous dose is 0.3 mcg.kg-1

ANSWER D

Elimination half life 2.4-4-4 hrs

85 TMP-Jul10-044

Called to emergency department to review a 20 year old male punched in throat at a party. Some haemoptysis / hoarse / soft voice.
Next step in management:

A. CT to rule out thyroid cartilage fracture

B. XR to rule out fractured hyoid

C. Rapid sequence induction / laryngoscopy / intubation

D. Awake fibreoptic intubation

E. Nasendoscopy by ENT in emergency department

ANSWER E

86

TMP-Jul10-045 How quickly does the CO2 rise in the apnoeic patient ?

A. 1 mmHg per min

B. 2 mmHg per min

C. 3 mmHg per min

D. 4 mmHg per min

E. 5 or ?8 mmHg per min

ANSWER C

From Miller, 1st minute Co2 increases by 6 mm Hg all subsequent minutes 3 -4 mm Hg

87. New- Apnoeic oxygenation in obese patient can be increased by

A. Sniffing position

B. Prone

C. Supine

D. Lateral

E. Head up

ANSWER E



prolongs the time to desaturation

Apnoeic oxygenation requires a patent airway to allow diffusion of O2 down a concentration gradient to the alveoli.

88
MN21 [1985] [1986] [1987] [1988] [Mar93] [Apr98] (type A)

Which of the following is NOT a feature of long-standing
paraplegia above T6?
A. Flaccidity of the leg muscles

B. Poikilothermia

C. Mass autonomic reflex

D. Hyperkalaemia after Suxamethonium administration

E. Labile blood pressure

ANSWER A

89 TMP-Jul10-048

Amniotic fluid embolism. Cause of death in first half hour ?

A. Pulmonary hypertension

B. Malignant arrhythmia

C. Pulmonary oedema

D.

E.

ANSWER A

first severe pulmonary vasoconstriction ,Rt ventricular failure ,then Lt ventricular failure and pulmonary oedema ,embolism is probably a misleading name,its actual pathology is anaphylaxis to foetal tissues

90. New- Post partum sudden collapse, suspected amniotic fluid embolism. The consistent finding is:

A. Low C3, C4

B. Increase complement

C. Increase tryptase

D. Increase histamine?

E. petechial rash

ANSWER E



I disagree, AFE results in complement consumption, some tryptase/histamine release,



as there is the development of coagulopathy, there may be development of rash but not initially



91 TMP-Jul10-049

The EARLIEST sign of hypocalcaemia is:

A. Tingling of face and hands

B. Chvostek’s sign

C. Carpopedal spasm

D. ?

E. ?

ANSWER A

92

RH12b [Mar92]

To operate on the anterior 2/3rds of the ear you would need to block:
A. Mandibular n
B. Maxillary n
C. Vagus n
D. Greater auricular n

ANSWER A



93
TMP-Jul10-054

Malignant hyperthermia. The number of people in the community at any given time
with a predisposition is called the:
A. Prevalence
B. Incidence
C. ?
D.
E.

ANSWER A

Incidence measures the rate of occurrence of new cases of a disease or condition.

Prevalence measures how much of some disease or condition there is in a population at a particular point in time.

ST19 ANZCA version [2002-Mar] Q62, [2002-Aug] Q59, [2005-Apr] Q58, [2005-Sep] Q50

A diagnostic test has a sensitivity of 90% and a specificity of 99% in detecting a certain disease.
From this we can conclude that

A. the false positive rate of this test is 1%
B. the false negative rate of this test is 1%
C. the positive predictive value of this test is 90%
D. the negative predictive value of this test is 90%
E. this test would be a useful screening test for this disease

ANSWER A

Sensitivity = TP / (TP + FN)

Specificity = TN / (TN + FP)

Positive Predictive Value = TP / (TP + FP)

Negative Predictive Value = TN / (TN + FN)

False Positive Rate = 1 - spec

False Negative Rate = 1 - sens

False positive rate = FP / (TN + FP) = 1 – spec

False negative rate = FN / (TP + FN) = 1 - sens

95 TMP-121 [Apr08] [Aug08]

Levosimendan:
A. Increases contractility and myocardial oxygen consumption
B. Increases SVR
C. Binds to troponin C and induces a conformational change
D. Increases contractility by increasing calcium influx
E. Causes coronary vasodilation but NOT peripheral vasodilation

ANSWER C

Levosimendan causes conformational changes in cardiac troponin C during systole,
leading to sensitisation of the contractile apparatus to calcium ions

It increases contractility without increasing oxygen requirements

Causes coronary and systemic vasodilation

96 TMP-Jul10-062 [Aug10]

In pregnancy the dural sac ends at:
A. T12
B. L2
C. L4
D. S2
E. S4

ANSWER D

97

TMP-Jul10-064 [Aug10]

Pregnant woman presents with narrow complex tachycardia HR 190, stable BP 100/60.
No response to vagal manoevures.
Management?

A. Adenosine 6mg
B. DCR
C. Amiodarone
D. Atenolol
E. ?

ANSWER A

98

Which patients do not get pulmonary hypertension
a. ASD
b. Chronic thromboembolism
c. Tetralogy
d. MR
e. MS

ANSWER C

99 MC157 [Mar10] [Aug10]

An 18 yo with Fontan circulation undergoing exploratory laparotomy. On ICU ventilation, saturation is 70%. Which ventilator parameter would you INCREASE to improve his saturation?

A. Bilevel pressure

B. Expiratory time

C. Inspiratory time

D. Peak inspiratory pressure

E. PEEP

ANSWER B



goal to keep the intrathoracic pressure and hence transpulmonary pressure low. thereby minimising the restriction to flow.



so reducing the inspiratory time does this.

100
EM37 ANZCA version [2001-Aug] Q57, [2002-Mar] Q52, [Jul06] Q81, [Apr07] (Similar reported question in [Apr96] [Aug96] [Apr97])

Systemic vascular resistance index (SVRI) is calculated from

A. systemic vascular resistance multiplied by body surface area

B. systemic vascular resistance divided by body surface area

C. mean aortic and central venous pressure difference divided by cardiac output

D. cardiac index divided by the mean aortic and central venous pressure difference

E. none of the above

ANSWER A

SVRI = SVR x BSA

101. New- Young pregnant patient with moderate mitral stenosis, normal LV function. The best delivery method

A. Epidural anaesthesia LSCS
B. Spinal with LSCS
C. Epidural analgesia and normal vaginal delivery
D. GA LSCS
E. Normal vaginal delivery with remifentanil PCA

ANSWER C



however commonly it would be an assisted delivery to avoid active pushing.


consideration of minimising uterotonic agents (ergotamine, PGE2)

MS is a fixed output valvular disease
-transmitral gradient is proportional to CO squared, therefore increasing CO by 50%, will increase the gradient 2.3 fold
-generally pregnancy will increase NYHA class by One

Aims are to keep the patient at they are
-maintain preload
-normal HR
-maintain afterload

MS should be evaluated before pregnancy
-prophylactic percutaneous mitral balloon valvotomy
-NHYA 2-4 or high PTH high risk of complications and death

Treat antenatal with diuretic and beta blockers
-care should be taken to avoid hypovolaemia
-ACEI are contraindicated in pregnancy

Labour and post partum are the most dangerous times
-Epidural to blunt sympathetic response (attenuate HR, CO, therefore minimised increasing transmitral gradient)
-Most delivery, sudden increase in preload with autotransfusion can lead to APO
-Cautious use of Syntocinon during 3rd stage. Vasodilation can cause hypotension with compensatory tachycardia leading to overdistention of LA (due to MS) and AF => APO
-AF should be electrically cardioverted.

102
PP84b ANZCA version [2005-Sep] Q141 Tracheo-oesophageal Fistula (TOF)
A. is associated with cardiac anomalies in approximately 60% of cases
B. is associated with oesophageal atresia in approximately 20% of cases
C. is more common in males than females
D. is usually left sided
E. does not usually require contrast studies for diagnosis

ANSWER E

A. Cardiac in 20%

B. Atresia in 80-90%

C. 1:1

D. right

103
MC30b ANZCA version [2004-Aug] Q128, [2005-Apr] Q55

A patient with pulmonary hypertension secondary to lung disease presents for a laparotomy.
Regarding this patient's anaesthetic management

A. an alpha-agonist is the inotrope of choice

B. hypothermia is protective against rises in pulmonary artery pressure

C. isoflurane will tend to decrease pulmonary artery pressure

D. ketamine is an appropriate anaesthetic agent

E. right heart failure is not a concern

A patient with pulmonary hypertension secondary to lung disease presents for a laparotomy. Regarding this patient's anaesthetic management

* A. an alpha-agonist is the inotrope of choice - probably true and best answer:
o there are No α-1 adrenergic receptors are present in the pulmonary circulation (Blaise, Anaesthesiology, 2003, 99(6):1421) so α-1 agonists are fine and may assist RV function by increasing coronary perfusion pressure (although some prefer dobutamine initially becuase it increases contractility and may pulmonary vasodilate)
o the wording is confusing and might subequently change now. Both the Blaise article and Stoelting 5th ed. suggest that causes of hypotension are multifactorial and should be treated accordingly. Specifically pulm HTN crisis requiring inotropy, the 'inotrope' of choice might be milrione (or possibly dobutamine), however R heart ischaemia and low SVR (with fixed PVR) are important causes of hypotension specifically treated with noradrenaline
* B. hypothermia is protective against rises in pulmonary artery pressure - false
o Hypothermia increases PVR (A & A ,Volume 96(6), June 2003, pp 1603-1616)
* C. isoflurane will tend to decrease pulmonary artery pressure - false
o PVR does not change with volatiles except N2O which does increase PVR (Stoelting Pharmacology p47)
o Isoflurane has no effect on baseline pulmonary vessel tone. (Blaise, Anaesthesiology, 2003, 99(6):1421)
* D. ketamine is an appropriate anaesthetic agent - false
o 'In patients who have pulmonary artery pressure, ketamine seems to cause a more pronounced increase in pulmonary than systemic vascular resistance' (Miller, p348)
o 'The sympathomimetic properties of ketamine may preclude use in the setting of pulmonary hypertension (Yao, p96)
o In-vitro ketamine increases PVR in rat lung...(and)...ketamine attenuates endothelium-dependent pulmonary vasorelaxation in response to acetylcholine and bradykinin ...(and)...sympathetic innervation of the pulmonary circulation does exist (Blaise, Anaesthesiology, 2003, 99(6):1421)
* E. right heart failure is not a concern - false

104. New- Neonate desaturate faster than adult at induction because

A. FRC decrease more

B. Faster onset of induction agents

C. More difficult to pre-oxygenation

Answer A




Reasons for neonatal desat
1. High metabolic rate 2-3 x adult (required mainly for temperature control, high BSA to mass)
2. Small absolute FRC (same as adult 30ml/kg) therefore less oxygen
3. CC >FRC, neonate generates autoPEEP by partial closure of glottis, this is lost at induction, causing airway closure and V/Q mismatch

105. New- The cause of hypoxia in one lung ventilation

A. Blood flow through non ventilated lung

B. Impairment of hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction

C. Ventilation perfusion mismatched (?)

ANSWER A

106. New- Suxamethonium dosage higher in neonates compare to adult because

A. Increased volume of distribution

B. Increased pseudocholinesterase activity

C. More receptors

D. Higher cardiac output (?)

E. Decreased sensitivity of nicotinic ACH receptors to suxamethonium

F. Faster diffusion away from neuromuscular junction

ANSWER A

107 TMP-107 [Mar10] [Aug10]

Baby with Tracheo-oesophageal fistula found by bubbling saliva and nasogastric tube coiling on Xray.
BEST immediate management?

A. Bag and mask ventilate

B. Intubate and ventilate

C. position head up, insert suction catheter in oesophagus (or to stomach?)

D. Place prone, head down to allow contents to drain

E. Insert gastrostomy

ANSWER C

108 NV42 [Apr07] [Jul07]

What do C6/7 motor function do
A. flex/extension of fingers
B. flex /extend wrist
C. shoulder ext rotation / abduction
D. elbow pronation/supination
E. flexion at elbow

ANSWER B

109
SF89 [Mar10] Most likely change on CTG with anaesthesia for non-obstetric surgery at 32 wks:

A. Loss of beat to beat variability
B. No change
C. Late decelerations
D. Variable decelerationss
E. Uterine contractions

ANSWER A

# Normal CTG under GA = Loss of beat to beat variability, no decelerations.

# Normal CTG under neuraxial block without sedation = No change

110. New- Indicates autonomic neuropathy except

A. Sinus arrthymias
B. Gastric reflux
C. Postural hypotension

ANSWER A

111. Repeat- Best indicator of return function of laryngeal muscle

A. Sustained head lift 5 sec
B. Sustained leg lift 5 sec
C. TOF 0.9
D. DBS no fade
E. Tetanus 50Hz

ANSWER D



i went with C TOF 0.9

112 MC59b ANZCA version [2003-Apr] Q125, [2003-Aug] Q85, [2005-Sep] Q69, [Mar06] Q48 [Mar10] [Aug10]

In the management of torsades de pointes (polymorphic ventricular tachycardia), all the
following drugs may be useful EXCEPT

A. amiodarone
B. isoprenaline
C. [[lignocaine]
D. magnesium
E. phenytoin

ANSWER A

113. New- A nulliparous woman in labour for 8 hours with epidural analgesia has a fever 37.6 degrees. The most likely reason for this is

A. altered thermoregulation
B. chorioamnionitis
C. urinary tract infection
D. inflammatory response
E. neuraxial infection

ANSWER D

Epidural associated fever is common, ranging from mild hyperthermia to overt fever.

Risk Factors
1. Nullparious
2. Prolonged labor
3. PROM

Mechanisms postulated
1. Inflammation: most accepted explanation, unknown if it is infectious or non infectious (women with fever and epidural do not have evidence of chorioamonitis on histology)

2. Altered thermoregulation: hyperventilation during labor is diminished, resulting in reduced heat loss.

3. Effect of opioids: opioids suppress IL-2 formation

www.anesthesia-analgesia.org/content/111/6/1467.full.pdf

114 Can01-113 What nerve supplies sensation to the larynx above the vocal cords:

A. internal branch of superior laryngeal nerve

B. external branch of superior laryngeal nerve

C. recurrent laryngeal nerve

D. glossopharyngeal nerve

E. palatotonsillar nerve

ANSWER B

115
NN05 ANZCA version [2004-Aug] Q17, [2005-Apr] Q63, [Apr07] (Similar question reported in [1985] [Aug96] [Jul97] [Jul98])

The carotid sinus derives its nerve supply from the

A. vagus nerve
B. glossopharyngeal nerve
C. ansa cervicalis (hypoglossi)
D. middle cervical ganglion
E. stellate ganglion

ANSWER B

116. ? Post op pneumonectomy short of breath- investigation

??



AF is common so ECG advised


CXR for possible tension/effusion


Echo for RV failure

AC155 [Apr07]

A patient with severe COPD on home oxygen is having an excision of a submandibular
tumour under local anaesthesia. The best way to prevent fire in the operating room is:
A. seal the surgical site from the patients airway with adhesive drapes
B. use bipolar instead of monopolar diathermy
C. decr FIO2 to maintain sats 97%
D. use alcoholic chlorhex instead of iodine
E. add nitrous oxide to the inhaled gases to reduce the FiO2 and provide sedation

ANSWER B

* A. seal the surgical site from the patients airway with adhesive drapes - potentially correct: "Oxygen is heavier than air, and can therefore accumulate under surgical drapes. This accumulation may be reduced by the use of ‘incise drapes’ that protect the wound from high oxygen concentrations and by tenting surgical drapes to dilute oxygen with room air." (Muchatuta and Sale, Fires and explosions, Anaesth&IC, 2007, 8:11) The answer will depend on what the examiners mean by adhesive drapes
* B. use bipolar instead of monopolar diathermy - definitely correct: "The cutting mode of diathermy is more likely to ignite fuels than the coagulation mode, and fires are more likely with monopolar diathermy than bipolar" (Muchatuta and Sale, Fires and explosions, Anaesth&IC, 2007, 8:11)
* C. decr FIO2 to maintain sats 97% - almost certainly incorrect: "Strategies to reduce the risks posed by high oxygen concentrations include (the) judicious use of oxygen (using the lowest oxygen concentration that provides acceptable haemoglobin oxygen saturations" (Muchatuta and Sale, Fires and explosions, Anaesth&IC, 2007, 8:11) The key here is acceptable haemoglobin oxygen saturations. "Long term continuous oxygen therapy should be considered for patients with stable chronic lung disease, particularly COPD, who have an arterial PO2 (PaO2) consistently less than or equal to 55 mm Hg when breathing air, at rest and awake. ...Flow rate should be set to maintain PaO2 > 60mmHg (8 kPa) (oxygen saturation level, measured by pulse oximetry [SpO2]> 90%) during waking rest." (McDonald et al, Adult domiciliary oxygen therapy. Position statement of the Thoracic Society of Australia and New Zealand, MJA 2005; 182: 621–626) Note that PO2=55mmHg is equivalent to SaO2 88%
* D. use alcoholic chlorhex instead of iodine - definitely incorrect: "Alcohol-based antibacterial skin preparations are one of the more common causes of surgical fires since the withdrawal of flammable anaesthetic agents. They can pool on the body surface (especially umbilicus and suprasternal notch), be wicked into surgical drapes and produce flammable vapours that can accumulate beneath the drapes." (Muchatuta and Sale, Fires and explosions, Anaesth&IC, 2007, 8:11)
* E. add nitrous oxide to the inhaled gases to reduce the FiO2 and provide sedation - definitely incorrect: "Nitrous oxide also supports combustion and is broken down to produce oxygen, nitrogen and heat." (Muchatuta and Sale, Fires and explosions, Anaesth&IC, 2007, 8:11)

118 MN38 ANZCA version [2004-Apr] Q124, [2005-Apr] Q100, [2005-Sep] Q94, [Jul07] [Apr08] [Aug08] [Aug09][Mar10] [Aug10]

Respiratory function in quadriplegics is improved by

A. abdominal distension
B. an increase in chest wall spasticity
C. interscalene nerve block
D. the upright position
E. unilateral compliance reduction

ANSWER B



consideration of the zone of apposition of the diaphragm. supine is better.

119.92.Pulsus paradoxus is: (the Q was something like - severe asthmatic - when take BP you would find)
A. Reduced BP on inspiration unlike normal (ie normally increased on insp)
B. Reduced BP on inspiration exaggerated from normal
C. Reduced BP on expiration unlike normal
D. Reduced BP on expiration exaggerated from normal
E. ?

ANSWER B



abnormally large decrease in systolic blood pressure and pulse wave amplitude during inspiration.

120. New- Pre eclamptic patient post LSCS continue on Mg infusion in ICU. Found to be in respiratory depressed. Next management

A. Calcium gluconate
B. IV fluid
C. Frusemide

ANSWER C

From RWH

Request magnesium level and review management if:

* respiratory rate < 12 breaths/minute
* urine output < 100mLs in 4 hours
* loss of patellar reflexes
* further seizures occur.


Response to magnesium toxicity
The following clinical signs of magnesium toxicity must be reviewed by a consultant obstetrician/anaesthetist:

* urine output <100mL in 4 hours
* absent patellar reflexes
* respiratory depression.


The antidote for magnesium toxicity is: calcium gluconate (10mL of 10% solution over 10 minutes) by slow intravenous injection. The patient requires ECG monitoring during and after administration because of the potential for cardiac arrhythmias.

Resuscitation and ventilator support should be available during and after dose administration of both magnesium sulphate and calcium gluconate.

121. New- Periop clinic reviewing a patient with chronic/ end stage renal failure. Her calcium found to be low. He most certainly have

A. Primary hyperparathyroidism
B. Secondary hyperparathyroidism
C. Tertiary hyperparathyroidism

ANSWER B

Primary hyperparathyroidism causes hypercalcemia (elevated blood calcium levels) through the excessive secretion of parathyroid hormone (PTH), usually by an adenoma (benign tumors) of the parathyroid glands.

Secondary hyperparathyroidism refers to the excessive secretion of parathyroid hormone (PTH) by the parathyroid glands in response to hypocalcemia (low blood calcium levels) and associated hypertrophy of the glands.

Tertiary hyperparathyroidism is a state of excessive secretion of parathyroid hormone (PTH) after a long period of secondary hyperparathyroidism and resulting hypercalcemia. It reflects development of autonomous (unregulated) parathyroid function following a period of persistent parathyroid stimulation.

122. Repeat- How to estimate weight in child-

(Age+4) x2
Age

123 SG59 [Apr07]
Blunt liver trauma can be treated non surgically if
A. No peritoneal signs
B. Low Grade injury on CT scan
C. Severe COPD
D. Haemodynamically stable
E. US confirms <500mls peritoneal fluid collection (i thought this was a paracentesis result)

ANSWER D

124 AZ (Q120 Aug 2008) Preoperative assessment shows a malampati (ML) score of III and thyromental distance (TMD) of < 6cm. A grade 3 to 4 on Cormark and Lehanes is predicted. Compared to the ML score, the TMD is:
A less sensitive, less specific
B less sensitive, more specific
C more sensitive, less specific
D more sensitive, more specific
E equal sensitivity an specificity

ANSWER B

125. New- Compare to Myasthenia gravis, which symptoms is more likely to be Eaton Lambert syndrome?

EATON LAMBERT SYNDROME
Myasthenic syndrome
Definition: autoimmune NM disorder characterized by IgG Ab to pre-synaptic Ca channels and decreased ACh release
• Associated with malignancy 50-60%
• Small cell lung Ca

CLINICAL
• Proximal muscles weakness, esp lower limbs
• Strength improves with activity
• Although 30% demonstrate fatigability
• Myalgia
• Tendon reflex is absent
• Ocular/bulbar dysfunction
• Autonomic dysfunction
ANAESTHETIC IMPLICATIONS
• Sensitive to both sux and NDMR

TREATMENT
• Not reverse by anticholinestases
• Immunosuppression with steroid
• Plasma exchange

126 AM41 ANZCA version [2004-Aug] Q15, [Mar06] Q11, [Jul07]

The most frequently reported clinical sign in malignant hyperpyrexia is
A. arrhythmia
B. cyanosis
C. sweating
D. tachycardia
E. rigidity

ANSWER D

127 RH26b ANZCA version [2004-Apr] Q126, [Jul07]

To achieve maximum anaesthesia with minimal risk of trauma to veins, the tip of a needle used for a
medial peribulbar injection should be advanced no further past the equator of the globe than
A. 5 mm
B. 10 mm
C. 15 mm
D. 20 mm
E. 25 mm

ANSWER B

10mm past equator as CEACCP says should not go past posterior border of globe.

128 PR04 ANZCA version [1985] [Mar95] [Apr97] [Jul97] [Apr98] [Jul98] [2002-Aug] Q11, [2003-Apr] Q39, [2005-Sep] Q46, [Mar06] Q25

The percentage of the population which is heterozygous as regards pseudocholinesterase,
thus having a dibucaine number between 30 and 80, is

A. 0.04%
B. 0.4%
C. 4.0%
D. 14.0%
E. 40.0%

ANSWER C 4% heterozygous for pseudocholinesterase

129 ST22 ANZCA version [2002-Aug] Q81, [2004-Apr] Q88, [2004-Aug] Q78

Recognised weaknesses of systematic reviews include all of the following EXCEPT
A. publication bias
B. duplicate publication
C. study heterogeneity
D. inclusion of outdated studies
E. systematic review author bias

ANSWER E

130 AA22 ANZCA version [2005-Apr] Q106

The commonest initial presenting feature in anaphylaxis is

A. coughing
B. desaturation
C. hypotension
D. rash
E. wheeze

ANSER C

131. New - When stimulating the ulnar nerve with a nerve stimulator, which muscle do you see twitch?

A. opponens abducens
B. abductor pollicis brevis
C. adductor pollicis brevis
D. extensor pollicis
E. flexor pollicis brevis

ANSWER C

Ulnar nerve supplies the intrinsic muscles of the hand, except LOAF

132. New - When intubating over a bougie / awake fibreoptic, which direction do you rotate the tube to stop it catching on structures in the glottis

A. no change from normal
B. 90 degrees clockwise
C. 90 degrees counterclockwise
D. 180 degrees
E. try either direction

ANSWER C

133. New - Advantages of off-pump CABG over on-pump CABG

A. decreased transfusion rate
B. decreased mortality
C. decreased cost
D. increased graft patency
E. less cognitive impairment
F. less stroke

ANSWER A

CEACCP Hett 2006

Benefits of OPCABG
-mortality reduced from 2.9% -> 2.3% and complication rate 12% -> 8% (conflicting results from other studies)
-Most studies have shown a reduction in the need for transfusion and other blood products (effect of extracorporeal circulation and hypothermia)
-Incidence of stroke is less (no manipulation of aorta resulting in macro and micro embolii)
-reduced rise in inflammatory markers

No difference
-mortality (coronary 2012 says increased) and morbidity is unchange
-incidence of AF is similar
-short term patency rate are comparable. There is no info on long term patency



increased rate of redo in off-pump!!!
-no difference in neurological dysfunction

134. New - After coronary artery bypass graft surgery, the FRC is

A. increased 40%
B. increased 20%
C. unchanged
D. decreased 20%
E. decreased 40%

ANSWER E

Compared to preop
-open sternotomy 55% increase
-closure decrease 10%
-day 1 decrease 20%

135. New - A 60 year old man 24 hours post CABG is confused, oliguric, with BP 80/40, pulse 120. The most appropriate and useful investigation is

A. electrocardiogram
B. echocardiogram
C. chest x-ray
D. arterial blood gas
E. coronary angiogram

ANSWER B

136. Iron deficiency

A. decreased serum ferritin, increased serum iron
B. decreased serum ferritin, absence of bone marrow iron
C. decreased serum ferritin, normal serum iron
D. increased serum ferritin, decreased serum iron
E. increased serum ferritin, decreased total iron binding capacity

ANSWER B

137. New - Why should NSAIDs be avoided in pregnant women >30 weeks gestation?

A. cause neonatal acute renal failure
B. increased antepartum haemorrhage
C. increased rate of pre-eclampsia
D. cause closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus
E. increase preterm labour

ANSWER D

138. A 62 year old man has chronic renal failure. You notice his total serum calcium is 2.05 mmol/L. This is because he has

A. high serum vitamin D
B. hypoparathyroidism
C. primary hyperparathyroidism
D. secondary hyperparathyroidism
E. tertiary hyperparathyroidism

ANSWER D