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207 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Where are the adrenal glands located?
superior poles of each kidney
What are the two distinct anatomic and physiologic entities of the adrenal glands?
Adrenal Medulla
Adrenal Cortex
The largest (80%) of the adrenal gland is the _________.
The smaller part (20%) of the adrenal gland is the ________.
adrenal cortex
adrenal medulla
What are the 3 broad classifications of the hormones secreted by the adrenal cortex? What are these hormones referred to collectively?
mineralcorticoids
glucocorticoids
androgenic hormones

Corticosteroids
What are the 3 catecholamines secreted from the adrenal medulla and percentages of each?
Epinephrine (80%)
Norepinephrine (20%)
Dopamine (minute amts)
What are the 3 layers of the adrenal cortex? (Think...GFR from the outside in)
Zona Glomerulosa
Zona Fasciculata
Zona Reticularis
Which area is are mineralocorticoids secreted from and what is the primary one?
Zona Glomerulosa
Aldosterone
What is secreted from the Zona Fasciculata?
Glucocorticoids, primarily cortisol
What is secreted from the Zona Reticularis?
Androgenic hormones
Corticosteroids are secreted from the adrenal __________ and have a ___________ structure and share a common_________ ___________.
cortex
steroidal
cholesterol frame
ACTH, released from the _____________, controls the release and production of ___________ and _____________ hormones.
anterior pituitary gland
glucocorticoid
androgenic
________ stimulates glucocorticoid synthesis by activating the enzyme _________ which converts ________ to __________.
ACTH
desmolase
cholesterol
pregnenolone
This initial conversion of cholesterol to pregnenolone is stimulated by ________ and occurs where?
Angiotensin II
Zona Glomerulosa
Does ACTH have any real effect on mineralocorticoid secretion?
No
What do aldosterone and cortisol have in common in regard to their chemical make up?
a cholesterol frame
The Adrenal Cortex synthesizes more than _____ types of hormones.
30
What is the main glucocorticoid released from the adrenal cortex and what is it's percentage?
cortisol (hydrocortisone)
95%
Secretion of cortisol, as a glucocorticoid, is largely controlled by what? Where is cortisol secreted from?
ACTH
adrenal cortex, zona fasciculata
What is the most potent regulator of ACTH and why?
cortisol
negative feedback system
What type of feedback system is described by low blood levels causing increased secretion? High blood levels inhibiting further secretion?
Positive feedback system
Negative feedback system
How much cortisol is produced daily?
15-30mg
What is the peak time frame for cortisol production?
5am-9am
Any type of stress can increase the release of which hormone? How much can it increase?
Cortisol (cortex...zona fasiculata)
250mg
Is most of the cortisol bound or unbound? What is the bound portion attached to?
bound
attached to a-globulin transcortin
Which type of cortisol, bound or unbound exerts biological effects?
unbound
What are 2 roles of cortisol that are crucial?
conversion of norepi to epi
production of angiotensin
What are the 8 mechanisms that stimulate secretion of ACTH?
corticotropin-releasing hormone
sleep-to-waking period
stress
hypoglycemia
sepsis
trauma
decreased plasma cortisol
a-Adrenergic receptor stimulation
What is the #1 reason for endogenous anxiety?
hypoglycemia
What 2 mechanisms inhibit ACTH secretion?
elevated plasma cortisol
opioids
Which hormone is essential to maintain life? (glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, androgenic)
glucocorticoids
Which hormone is necessary for the proper use of proteins, carbohydrates, and fats by the body?
glucocorticoids (cortisol)
Which hormone mediates the catecholamine effects on the heart and vasculature and how does it do so?
cortisol
augments catecholamine-induced vasoconstriction
In the elderly, does cortisol production increase or decrease? What about plasma levels? Why?
production decreases
plasma levels remain normal
because hepatic and renal clearance also decreases
Inadequate secretion of this hormone during critical illness can lead to hypotension, shock, and death. What can you do about it?
cortisol
administer hydrocortisone
___________stimulates _____________ in the liver to enhance production of high energy fuel for metabolism.
Cortisol
gluconeogenesis
How much does gluconeogenesis increase in the presence of cortisol?
6 to 10 fold
Which hormone is "diabetogenic"?
Cortisol
How long can a single dose of glucocorticoid raise blood glucose?
12-24 hrs
What are the 4 effects of cortisol on carbohydrate metabolism? (think fight or flight-what do we need)
-Mobilizes amino acids from hepatic tissue for GLUCONEOGENESIS and glycogenolysis
-Moderately decreases the rate of cellular glucose uptake and use in extrahepatic tissue
-Promotes appetite
-Induces liver enzymes
What are the 2 primary affects of cortisol on protein metabolism?
-decreases protein synthesis
-increases protein catabolism in nearly all tissues (except the liver)--> partially blocked by insulin
What causes skeletal muscle to become weak and atrophy from marked protein catabolism?
excess cortisol
Name 11 common physical characteristics of excessive cortisol.
Red cheeks
Moon face
Fat pads/Buffalo hump
Thin skin
High BP
Thin arms & legs
Bruisability--ecchymoses
Red striations
Pendulous abdomen
Poor wound healing
Osteoporosis-compressed vertebrae
A patient with Cushing's presents with ankle edema, what are your first thoughts?
Better figure out why they have ankle edema because it's not from the excessive cortisol!
What are the 2 primary effects of cortisol on fat metabolism?
-mobilizes free fatty acids from adipose tissue
-enhances oxidation of fatty acids within the cells
What might cause metabolic systems to shift to using FFAs instead of glucose for energy?
starvation or stress
Name the 5 reasons that cortisol is useful in asthma, allergic reactions, and inflammatory disorders.
-diminishes inflammatory responses by suppressing cytokines
-decreases migration of leukocytes to the area of inflammation
-stabilizes lysosomal membranes
-decreases antibody production
-DECREASES NUMBER OF LYMPHOCYTES IN THE BLOOD (NOT FUNCTION)
How does cortisol cause immunosuppression?
decreases the number of lymphocytes in the blood (not function)
phagocytic activity does NOT decrease
What is the principal mineralocorticoid? Where is it secreted from?
Aldosterone
Zona Glomerulosa
What cytochrome enzyme is involved in the generation of aldosterone?
aldosterone synthase
What is the major regulator of ECF?
aldosterone
Aldosterone plays a major role in regulation of what 3 things?
ECF--MAJOR REGULATOR
Na and K concentrations
Promotes total body fluid balance
Following secretion, aldosterone circulates bound to plasma proteins to what 3 target sites?
sweat glands
alimentary tract
distal convoluted tube of the kidney
Aldosterone acts on the ____________ and ____________ to ________(increase/decrease) reabsorption of Na and _________(increase/decrease) secretion of K.
distal tubule
collecting duct
increase
increase
(Na comes back in and K goes out)
Where does an aldosterone inhibiting diuretic act?
distal tubule
collecting duct
What are the 4 main physiological stimulants of aldosterone release?
-hyperkalemia
-angiotensin II
-hyponatremia
-ACTH
What is the most potent vasopressor produced in the body?
Angiotensin II
What is the activator of the RAS?
Angiotensin II
What is regulated by the RAS (and K concentration)?
aldosterone
Where is renin released?
kidney
What 4 factors stimulate the release of renin?
Hypovolemia
Hypotension
Hyponatremia
SNS Stimulation
What is the role of renin after it's release from the kidney?
converts Angiotensin to Angiotensin II
What does Angiotensin II do?
causes the release of aldosterone from the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex
What is the sequence of events after aldosterone has been released?
-Aldosterone causes reabsorption of Na in exchange for secretion of K.
-Water follows Na
-ECF expands=increased BP
Your patient has lost blood volume and their pressure is dropping.....what's the body going to do to attempt to restore it?
-Decreased blood volume stimulates renin release from the kidneys.
-Renin converts Angiotensin to Angiotensin II.
-Angiotensin II stimulates release of aldosterone.
-Aldosterone causes reabsorption of Na in exchange for K. (Na in and K out)
-H2O follows Na--->increased ECF--->increased blood volume---->increased BP
If aldosterone increases what electrolyte decreases?
If aldosterone decreases what electrolyte increases?
What electrolyte has an inverse relationship with aldosterone?
What electrolyte has a direct relationship with aldosterone?
Potassium
Potassium
Potassium
Sodium
What 2 glands are under exclusive neuronal control?
Adrenal medulla
Posterior Pituitary
_______________ fibers bypass the ____________ ganglia and pass directly from the ___________ to the __________________.
Preganglionic
paravertebral
spinal cord
adrenal medulla
What does the adrenal medulla secrete? What's the 80/20 rule?
catecholamines
epinephrine (80%)
norepinephrine (20%)
dopamine (minute amts)
What controles the release of catecholamines from the adrenal medulla?
Ach
Catecholamines are synthesized, stored, and released from what type of cells?
chromaffin granules
End products of catecholamine metabolism include:
VANILLYMANDELIC ACID (80-90%)
METANEPHRINE
small amount unchanged (1%)
Catecholamine release can be stimulated by emotional reactions or physiologic stimuli such as: (2)
hypoglycemia
hypotension
The effects of Epi and NE are similar to sympathetic stimulation but last how much longer? Why?
5-10x longer
slow removal of hormones from the blood
What kind of receptors does NE stimulate and what is the overall result?
alpha and beta adrenergic receptors
causes vasoconstriction which increases PVR
Epinephrine acts on what receptors and what are the primary actions?
Greater affinity for beta adrenergic receptors
Actions seen primarily in the heart producing chronotropic and inotropic effects.
Epi and NE can increase the metabolism rate by as much as _____% above normal.
100
Cushing's Disease and Cushing's Syndrome are often used interchangeable. Which is generally associated with pathology?
Which is generally associated with exogenous glucocorticoid therapy?
Cushing's Disease
Cushing's Syndrome
Hypercortisolism can result from what 4 processes?
-exogenous steroid administration
- excess ACTH from the pituitary
-adrenal hyperplasia
-adrenal adenoma or carcinoma
What is the most common reason for excessive ACTH secretion that leads to excessive cortisol What physical characteristic may signify excessive ACTH.
ANTERIOR PITUITARY TUMOR
skin pigmentation
Adrenal adenoma and carcinoma is ______% of the cause of hypercortisolism.
20-25
Adrenal tumors are usually ___________ and ____% are malignant. Pituitary tumors are ___________.
unilateral
50
bilateral
What are some common symptoms of hypercortisolism?
HTN
Increased intravascular volume (hypernatremia, hypokalemia)
Hyperglycemia
Poor wound healing (immunosuppression)
Truncal obesity
Hypercoagulability
Fatigability
Abdominal Striae
Osteoporosis (impaired Ca absorption)
Muscle wasting/weakness
Psychological disturbances
What is the most common cause of secondary hypercortisolism?
Iatrogenic administration of exogenous glucocorticoids.
What are 3 common examples of exogenous glucocorticoids?
cortisone (hydrocortisone)
prednisone (solumedrol)
dexamethasone
What is unique about dexamethasone?
it has no mineralocorticoid (Na retaining) properties
Extended exogenous treatment with glucocorticoids results in __________ adrenal cortex.
atrophied
All patients that have undergone a week of steroid therapy in the past______ should receive_____________. What happens to these patients during surgery if they don't receive therapy?
year
steroid therapy
They are unable to respond to surgical stress.
A patient with Cushing's Disease must receive placement with hydrocortisone or Decadron? Why?
hydrocortisone
Hydrocortisone has the added benefit of mineralocorticoid effect without the need to administer exogenous mineralocorticoid. (Na reaborption)
What if your patient has received steroid therapy?
assess the length of the course and dose and replace with corresponding dose of decadron
Which drug has the greatest glucocorticoid effect: hydrocortisone or decadron? How much greater is the effect?
Decadron
25x greater effect
Can you give a patient with Cushings disease/syndrome decadron?
No, they need hydrocortisone. (they require the mineralocorticoid/extra sodium)
What 3 lab tests are used to identify Cushing's?
plasma cortisol levels
urinary cortisol levels
plasma ACTH
Simultaneous measurements of plasma/urinary cortisol and ACTH can identify if the is pituitary or adrenal. What would you see with each?
Pituitary= increased ACTH
Adrenal= increased cortisol
A high dose of decadron
depresses cortisol levels in pituitary tumors.
When performing a dexamethasone suppression test, which tumors will exhibit depression of cortisol? Why?(pituitary adenomas or adrenal tumors)
Pituitary tumors will show decreased cortisol because they retain some negative feedback.
Adrenal tumors do not.
What are the 2 primary characteristics of secondary hypocortisolism?
low cortisol
normal aldosterone
Patients with hypocortisolism have _______ (less/more) problems with severe hypovolemia or electrolyte derangements.
less
How would you "tune-up" a patient with hypocortisolism?
give a dose of hydrocortisone
Which drug can cause intense burning in the groin? What can be done to prevent this?
Decadron
Give diluted, slowly, over 5 minutes.
Patients with hypocortisolism are extremely _______to drug induced ____________.
sensitive
myocardial depression
In a patient with Cushing's, what are 3 important anesthetic implications related to muscle weakness?
-conservative administration of muscle relaxant (exaggerated effect)
-extubate awake
-good pre-op teaching about the possibility of waking with ETT and mechanical ventilation
Characteristic obesity of Cushing's will cause __________ (increased/decreased) airway pressures and __________(increased/decreased) FRC.
increased
decreased
So what's the deal with taping the eyes and ETT in a patient with Cushing's? What are Ann's 2 points?
BE VERY CAREFUL WITH EYE AND FACE TAPE
-thin skin can cause bruising, swelling, or skin removal
-endeavor to make tape less "sticky"
How does Ann describe the type of anesthesia she wants you to use for a patient with Cushing's?
CONSERVATIVE, "TIGHT" ANESTHESIA
-prudent titration!!
-anticipate and take no chances
What 2 hormones are insufficient or absent in Addison's disease?
cortisol
aldosterone
What are the 3 causes of Addison's Disease?
-destruction of adrenal cortex
-prolonged exogenous corticosteroid use
-deficiency of ACTH (secondary adrenal insufficiency)
Addison's disease does not appear until _____% of the adrenal cortex is destroyed.
90
Historically, Addison's was a product of __________; now the major cause is ________________ of the ______________.
tuberculosis
autoimmune destruction
adrenal gland
Name 5 possible disease processes that can attribute to Addison's.
bacterial and fungal infections
advanced HIV
metastatic CA
sepsis
hemorrhage
What are some signs/symptoms of Addison's?
Weight loss
Fatigue
Anorexia
N/V
Abd pain
Hyperpigmentation
hypotension
electrolyte disorders
thinning ax/pubic hair
What causes hyperpigmentation?
compensatory increase in ACTH stimulates increase in melanocyte production
What are 8 signs of symptoms of electrolyte dysfunction?
hyperchloremia
hyperkalemia
hyponatremia (inverse relationship Na/K)
hypoglycemia
metabolic acidosis
loss of ICF (hypovolemia)
increased BUN
hemoconcentration
What famous figure had Addison's Disease?
JFK
What lab tests would identify Addison's?
-plasma cortisol levels before and after ACTH administration at 30 and 60 minutes
-plasma cortisol would rise
-adrenal insufficiency would exhibit little or no effect`
Treatment of Addison's Disease includes what 2 points?
cortisol and aldosterone titrated to meet pt needs
monitor electrolytes
What situation is described by relative or absolute deficiency of adrenal corticosteroid hormones resulting in hemodynamic compromise?
Addisonian Crisis
What are 3 possible causes of Addisonian Crisis?
-abrupt termination of steroid therapy
-recent steroid therapy not supplemented preoperatively
-uncompensated stress
What 2 cardiovascular situations are typical presentations of Addisonian crisis?
-hypotension and tachycardia unresponsive to fluids
- arrhythmias secondary to hyperkalemia compounded with hypovolemia secondary to hyponatremia
Will a patient with Addisonian's crisis have high or low blood sugar? What GI symptoms will they present with
low
vomiting, diarrhea, cramps
What are the 4 major treatment modalities of Addisonian's crisis?
1. Fluids D5NS (tx hypoglycemia)
2. Steroid replacement (solu cortef/hydrocortisone)
3. Inotropes
4. Electrolyte correction (
What drug should be avoided in patients susceptible to adrenal insufficiency?
etomidate; a single dose can cause acute adrenocortical insufficiency
Typically, a patient with Addison's is an ASA ___.
3
What are the 3 important aspects of management of Addison's for an emergent procedure?
-treat symptoms; electrolyte/fluid imbalances
-employ steroid treatment ASAP
-more rigorous monitoring (A Line/CL)
Conn Syndrome is primary or secondary hypoaldosteronism?
primary
What are the 3 important points related to Conn Syndrome?
-excess secretion of aldosterone from a functional TUMOR
-secretion is independent of physiologic stimulus
-increased urinary excretion of K
What are the 3 important points related to secondary hyperaldosteronism?
-no tumor
-stimulus for aldosterone secretion resides outside of the adrenal gland
-increased circulating serum concentrations of renin
What are the 6 s/sx of hyperaldosteronism?
-Hypernatremia (increased ECF volume)
-Hyperkalemia
-Hypertension (HA)
-Polyuria, Nocturia
-Skeletal cramps/weakness
-Metabolic Acidosis
What are the 4 aspects of treatment for hyperaldosteronism?
-Supplemental K slowly
-Spironolactone (aldosterone antagonist)
-Tx HTN
-Surgical removal of aldosterone secreting tumor (Conn Syndrome)
What are the 2 most important points related to management of anesthesia with hyperaldosteronism?
-Monitor fluid status (shifts quickly, CVP, or PAC)
-Monitor electrolytes/acid-base (expect hypkalemic metabolic acidosis)
Who was the first anatomist to give a detailed description of adrenal glands? What did he do and where was he from?
Bartholomeus Eustachius (1520-1574)
Professor at Colegio della Sapienza at Rome
When did the discovery of adrenal glands receive attention?
time of Thomas Addison (1793-1860)
When and who reported the first case of pheochromocytoma?
Felix Frankel 1886
What does pheochromocytoma mean?
dark color tumor
Who may or may not have been the first person to remove a pheochromocytoma?
Charles Mayo
Which 2 glands are under exclusive neuronal control?
Adrenal medulla, Posterior pituitary
What is secreted from the adrenal medulla and in what percentages?
Epi 80%
NE 20%
Dopamine-small amts
What cells are synthesize, store, and release catecholamines?
chromaffin granule cells
What are the major end products of catecholamine metabolism?
Vanillymandelic acid 80-90%
Metanephrine
Small amount of unchanged catecholamine 1%
What is the significance of the 1% of unchanged catecholamine?
it is used as a diagnostic tool in identifying a pheo
What is a pheochromocytoma and where can they be found?
Pheo's are catecholamine secreting tumors that can be either on the inside or outside of the adrenal medulla.
Pheo's inside are derived from the adrenomedullary chromaffin cells.
Pheo's outside arise form the extra-adrenal chromaffin cells.
Are pheo's dependent or independent of neurogenic control?
independent
Although the effects of Epi and NE are similar to the effects of direct sympathetic stimulation, how much longer do they last and what causes the increase in duration?
5-10x longer
secondary to slow removal of hormones from the blood
NE stimulates what type of receptors and what is its overall effect?
stimulates alpha and beta adrenergic receptors
vasoconstriction and increased PVR
What receptors does Epi stimulate and what is the overall effect?
greater affinity for beta adrenergic receptors
actions primarily in the heart=chronotropic and inotropic effects
Epi and NE can increase metabolism by as much as _____ % above normal.
100
What is the only catecholamine that acts on alpha receptors?
NE
What are 4 actions that occur with alpha 1 receptor stimulation?
VASOCONSTRICTION
intestinal relaxation
uterine contraction
pupillary dilation
What are 4 actions that occur with alpha 2 receptor stimulation?
decreased presynaptic transmission (auto receptors)
platelet aggregation
VASOCONSTRICTION
decreased insulin secretion
What are 3 actions that occur with beta 1 receptor stimulation?
increased HR and contractility
increased lipolysis
increased renin secretion
What are 3 actions that occur with beta 2 receptor stimulation?
vasodilation
bronchodilation
increased glycogenolysis
What are 2 actions that occur with beta 3 receptor stimulation?
increased lipolysis
increased brown fat thermogenesis
What may be a sign that brown fat thermogenesis is occurring?
ketones in the urine
What percentage of patients with HTN have a pheo?
.01-.1%
Is the rate of incidence preferential to males or females? When does it typically present?
Equally among males and females
Presents 3rd to 5th decade of life
What is an adrenal lesion found on imaging called?
incidentaloma
What are some signs that may cause you to investigate for a pheo? (5)
S/Sx
Severe HTN or HTN crisis
Refractory HTN
HTN that presents <20 or >50 yrs
>50 HTN=sudden, aggressive onset
What is the percentage of pheos that are extra adrenal? adrenomedullary?
10%
90%
What percentage of pheos are benign? malignant?
90%
10%
What percentage of pheos are bilateral/multiple? unilateral?
10%
90%
What percentage of pheos occur in children? Are familial? Discovered incidentally?
10%
What are GI signs and symptoms of pheochromocytoma?
N/V
Abd pain
Severe constipation (MEGACOLON) WHO? ELVIS
What are the cardiac signs and symptoms of pheo?
chest pain
angina with normal coronaries
CHF
cardiac dysrhythmias or conduction defects
What are 2 causes of angina with normal coronaries in pheo?
catecholamine induced increased myocardial consumption
coronary vasospasm
What are the 3 metabolic signs and symptoms of a pheo?
hypercalcemia
mild glucose intolerance
lipolysis
What should I be concerned with related to hypercalcemia?
kidney stones from high Ca -->kidney dysfunction --->compounded problem
What are 2 side effects of lipolysis? What receptor stimulation generates this?
weight loss
ketoacidosis
beta 3
What are the 5 P's of Pheo?
Pressure (HTN)
Pain (Headache)
Perspiration (circulating EPI/NE)
Palpitation
Pallor
What is the minimum number of signs that you MUST have to be diagnosed with a pheo?
3 out of 5
The lack of 3 out of 5 signs LITERALLY excludes diagnosis of a pheo to a statistically insignificant number. What's the number?
0.000347
What's the 6th P?
Paroxysms
What the heck is happening during a paroxysm? What is the patient at risk for? What s/sx might they present with?
With true paroxysm, BP may rise to alarmingly high levels.
Pt is at risk for cerebrovascular hemorrhage, heart failure, dysrhythmias, or MI. (?maybe hypotension...)
HA, palpitations, tremor, profuse sweating, and either pallor or flushing may accompany an attack.
How long might a paroxysm last and at what frequency do paroxysms occur?
They are spontaneous, last 10-60 minutes, and can occur daily to monthly.
Name 3 things that can precipitate paroxysm.
Intra-arterial contrast (not IV)
Drugs (opioids, BB, induction agents, histamine, ACTH, glucagon, metoclopramide)
Strenuous exercise
What is the most potent vasodilating peptide found in the body?
adrenomedullin
What are 3 factors that can attribute to paroxysmal episode presenting with hypotension?
ECF volume contraction
loss of postural reflexes secondary to prolonged catecholamine stimulation
tumor release of adrenomedullin
What is the most likely lab test for diagnosis of a pheo and what are we checking for?
24 hr urine
Check:
creatinine
catecholamines
vanillymandelic acid
dopamine
What would give positive results? What might give a false positive?
3x elevation is positive
False +: MAOi's, labetolol, street drugs, ethanol, and ephedrine cold remedies
What test might be useful, particularly after induction, if your lucky enough to be in a hospital that has it available?
blood draw for plasma catecholamines
CT and MRI are both useful in identification of a pheo. How sensitive is a CT for the 2 types of pheos? MRI is more sensitive than CT for which kind?
CT: adrenal pheo 93-100--extra-adrenal 90%

MRI: more sensitive than CT for extra-adrenal
What is the cause of a pheo? What is the cause of a carcinoid tumor? What are the leading s/sx for each?
pheo: catecholamine secreting tumor--PALLOR
Cardinoid: histamine and serotonin secreting tumor--CUTANEOUS FLUSHING
What is the treatment for pheo vs the treatment for carcinoid tumor?
Pheo-A blockade (phenoxybenzamine, phentolamine)
Carcinoid Tumor: octeotride (suppression of hormones)--resection if possible
What was the mortality of pheochromocytoma resection before 1951? Now?
Before 1951-24-50%
Now 0-2.7%
What is the first step in managing a patient for pheo resection?
alpha blockade
Name the 4 mechanisms that make an alpha blocker effective in managing a pheo.
stabilizes BP through vasodilation
expands intravascular volume
normalizes myocardial performance
decreases the incidence of hyperglycemia by facilitating the release of insulin
What are the 2 alpha blockers commonly used?
phenoxybenzamine
phentolamine
What do I need to know about phenoxybenzamine?
long acting a1 and a2 adrenergic blocker
may require 10-14 days pre-op
expensive and hard to come by, special order med
S/E=orthostatic HTN, reflex tachy (tx w/ BB-propranolol commonly)
What do I need to know about phentolamine?
use day of surgery (bolus/gtt)
non selective a blocker
short duration, long half life
LA reversal in dentistry
What other action should be done to prep the patient pre-operatively in addition to alpha blockade?
adequate volume expansion
-pre-op weight gain
-decreased Hct
What would you use to treat HTN, tachycardia, and dysrhythmias?
beta blocker-decreases myocardial contractility and conduction
Unopposed alpha stimulation=
HEART FAILURE
A heart that is beta blocked cannot respond to __________ in _______caused by the pheo. So what MUST you do prior to beta blocking?
increases
SVR
alpha block (a comes before b)
Name the 2 best options to treat arrhythmias during resection of a pheo.
esmolol (fast on/fast off)
lidocaine
In addition to alpha and beta blockade, what might be done to minimize SNS stimulation for resection of a pheo?
anxiolysis-versed

SNS block-GETTA combo: pre-op epidural w/GETTA, place cath awake and bolus, run infusion during surgery
Describe what it means to be "loaded for bear."
Full monitors and set up, multi-port central, CVP, A line PRIOR to induction, Nipride and Esmolol gtt infusions hung and ready to go
Insulin gtt if necessary
What histamine releasing drugs might you avoid?
Morphine
Droperidol
Why might one choose isoflurane as the agent of choice for induction of a pheo?
decreases sensitivity of the myocardium to catecholamines (miniscule difference from sevo)
Pheo resection can be done laparoscopically if the tumor is what size? What is the absolute contraindication for this approach?
<8
malignant behavior
Name 3 times of intra-op hazard and what are you expecting at these times.
1-tracheal intubation--expect HTN--make sure pt is deep
2-manipulation of the tumor--expect hypertension
3-after ligation of the tumor's venous drainage--expect hypotension--have phenylephrine mini gtt ready, decrease inhalational agent, increase fluids, vasopressin
What is the principal complication during emergence and post-op after resection of a pheo? What are the other 2 possibilities?

3 H's
hypotension (down regulation of adrenergic receptors)
hypertension
hypoglycemia (insulin release is no longer blocked)
It takes several days after pheo resection for catecholamines levels to return to normal. _____% of patients are normotensive in _____days.
75%
10 days
HTN is cured following pheo resection in ___% in 5 years and ____% at 10 years.
74
45
When a pheo crisis presents, what is your primary goal?
reduce BP before CVA or other hypertensive sequela
Is malignant unresectable pheo associate with long term survival? What is the survival rate at approximately 15 years?
generally yes
50%
What 2 treatment modalities seem to have no effect on survival of malignant unresectable pheo? How is it managed long term?
chemo and radiation
life long alpha blockers and monitoring
How is pheo differentiated from PIH or HELPP in pregnancy?
presence of catecholamines in the urine
How is a pheo treated in the 1st or 2nd trimester?
pre-op alpha blockade and resection
How is a pheo treated int eh 3rd trimester?
Hospital admission with lines insertion
ICU management and stabilization
deliver fetus at viability, the immediate resection