Animal Medicine Final

Front 1

"All of the following are cardinal signs of inflammation EXCEPT: A) pain, B) heat, C) cyanosis, D) swelling"

Back 1

Cyanosis

Front 2

"Interferon is a protein produced by the body and will have the effect of: A) reducing the ability of a pathogen to produce a disease in the host, B) reducing the production of lymphocytes, C) increasing the level of inflammation, D) increasing phagocytosis in the host"

Back 2

Reducing the ability of a pathogen to produce a disease in the host

Front 3

"The purpose of adding an adjuvant to a vaccine is to: A) reduce the pain on injection, B) to allow the vaccine to be administered subcutaneously, C) to increase the immune response of the vaccine, D) to reduce the possibility of inflammation following administration"

Back 3

To increase the immune response of the vaccine

Front 4

"The modified live viruses that are used in some vaccines are wakened by: A) immersing them in a weak disinfectant solution, B) inbreeding programs for propagation, C) cooling the viral particles to sub–optimal temperatures, D) growing the viral particles in a non–host species"

Back 4

Growing the viral particles in a non-host species

Front 5

"Recombinant technology used in the production of vaccines will involve: A) the combination of several viral species, B) splicing an antigenic gene into a non–pathogenic virus, C) administering several vaccines in the same injection site, D) mixing bacterial and viral antigens in the same vaccine"

Back 5

Splicing an antigenic gene into a non-pathogenic virus

Front 6

"The use of adjuvants in vaccines have been linked to: A) suppression of the immune system, B) a high level of eosinophils, C) tumor formation at the vaccination site, D) central nervous system disturbances"

Back 6

Tumor formation at the vaccination site

Front 7

"TermA killed bacterin would be used in the vaccine to protect against canine: A) Leptospirosis, B) Distemper, C) Parvo, D) Parainfluenza"

Back 7

Leptospirosis

Front 8

"Lyophilization in vaccine production refers to the process of: A) modification of viral particles, B) adding an adjuvant, C) combination of antigens, D) freeze drying"

Back 8

Freeze drying

Front 9

"The type of immunity acquired through the administration of vaccines is most accurately called: A) natural, B) passive, C) Acquired, D) Inherited"

Back 9

Acquired

Front 10

"An important medication in the treatment of anaphalactic shock related to severe vaccine reactions is: A)enrofloxacin, B)glycopyrolate, C)bupenorphine, D) epinephrine"

Back 10

Epinephrine

Front 11

The limb most often chosen for rabies vaccination is the:

Back 11

Right rear

Front 12

The most common cause of failure to produce a protective level of antibodies following vaccination is:

Back 12

Presence of colostrum

Front 13

A breed of dog that is considered high risk for canine Parvovirus is:

Back 13

Rottweiler

Front 14

Measles vaccine for puppies may be used to protect puppies at high risk of contracting:

Back 14

Distemper

Front 15

Bordetella bronchiseptica is an organism that is classified as a:

Back 15

Bacteria

Front 16

The many types of Leptospira organisms are called:

Back 16

Serovars

Front 17

Canine adenovirus type 2 vaccines are useful in protection against: (Hint: 2)

Back 17

Hepatitis and tracheobronchitis

Front 18

Panleukopenia or feline distemper is caused by a virus that is classified as a:

Back 18

Parvovirus

Front 19

A feline disease that is caused by a retrovirus is:

Back 19

Leukemia

Front 20

A vaccine that is considered to be part of the core vaccines for the feline is:

Back 20

Feline distemper

Front 21

The vaccine that contains a live attenuated bacteria will protect against:

Back 21

Bordetella bronchiseptica

Front 22

Canine distemper is a disease that is best described as:

Back 22

Multisystemic

Front 23

"Hard pad disease" is another name for canine:

Back 23

Distemper

Front 24

An antitussive is a medication that will reduce the symptoms of:

Back 24

Cough

Front 25

A canine disease that may be detected by performing a lab test for antigen in the stool is:

Back 25

Parvo

Front 26

The route of vaccination that is recommended for canine kennel cough vaccines is:

Back 26

Intranasal

Front 27

Parvovirus will have a tendency to target cells in the following areas EXCEPT:

Back 27

Kidney

Front 28

The length of time that the Parvovirus will remain infectious in the environment is measured in days, weeks, months or years?

Back 28

Months

Front 29

The finding on a complete blood count that may be seen with a severe Parvo infection is:

Back 29

Marked leukopenia

Front 30

The bacteria that is described as a spirochete is:

Back 30

Leptospira

Front 31

The canine infectious disease that has the most chance of being directly spread to humans is:

Back 31

Leptospirosis

Front 32

"Geriatric patients acting aggressively should be evaluated for: A) chronic pain, B) decreased hearing, C) decreased vision, D) all of the above"

Back 32

All of the above

Front 33

A metabolic condition of the dog that often results in a skin infection is:

Back 33

Hypothyroidism

Front 34

The type of ointment that is recommended for protecting the eye during bathing is:

Back 34

Boric acid

Front 35

The abnormal skin condition that coal tar shampoos would be recommended to treat is:

Back 35

Severe seborrhea

Front 36

The type of shampoo ingredient that is recommended for use in cases demodectic mange is:

Back 36

Benzoyl peroxide

Front 37

The abnormality seen on a complete blood cell count with cases of pyometra in the dog is:

Back 37

Leukocytosis with a left shift

Front 38

A yeast organism that may cause otitis externa in the dog or cat is:

Back 38

Malassezia

Front 39

The type of bladder stone that may be dissolved through the use of dietary therapy is:

Back 39

Struvite

Front 40

If the tympanic membrane cannot be visualized, clean and flush the ears only with:

Back 40

Sterile saline

Front 41

Ear canals infected with Otodectes cyanotis will often show signs of:

Back 41

Inflammation with black exudate

Front 42

A non-productive cough relating to an increase in fluid in the lungs will usually be related to a leaking of the:

Back 42

Mitral valve

Front 43

What is the medical term for an increase of fluid in the abdominal cavity?

Back 43

Ascites

Front 44

Hypothyroidism in the dog will commonly produce signs related to which system?

Back 44

Integumentary system

Front 45

The best description for the location of the thyroid gland is the:

Back 45

Ventrocervical area of the neck

Front 46

The elements of the diet that will have the most influence on urea levels in the blood stream include:

Back 46

Proteins

Front 47

Azotemia is a term relating to the veterinary patient experiencing an increase in:

Back 47

Urea

Front 48

Ketoacidosis is most likely to be seen in severe cases of:

Back 48

Diabetes mellitus

Front 49

What is the clinical term for the lowest blood glucose level detected during a blood glucose curve?

Back 49

Nadir

Front 50

A clinical symptom of diabetes mellitus of the dog that may be noticed by the owner is a:

Back 50

Rapid cataract development

Front 51

Erythropoietin is produced by the:

Back 51

Kidney

Front 52

The urinalysis of a patient with an increase in protein and a decrease in specific gravity indicates what?

Back 52

Renal failure

Front 53

The molecule found in the blood that is used as a measurement of renal function and is produced from muscle metabolism is:

Back 53

Creatinine

Front 54

A biomarker that can be measured in the blood to indicate cases of congestive heart failure is:

Back 54

BNP

Front 55

The organism causing feline distemper is classified as a(n):

Back 55

Parvovirus

Front 56

The organism causing feline pneumonitis is:

Back 56

Chlamydia psittici

Front 57

In the treatment of periodontal disease, a currette is used to remove calculus and dead cementum from the diseased tooth roots, using multiple overlapping strokes, until the root surface is smooth as glass. This procedure is is known as:

Back 57

Root planing

Front 58

"Proper technician attire when performing a dental cleaning includes: A) mask over the nose and mouth, B) gloves, C) eye protection, D) all of the above"

Back 58

All of the above

Front 59

A mechanical tooth scaler should never be used continuously on one tooth for more than:

Back 59

15 seconds

Front 60

A beneficial result of a fluoride application following a dental scaling is:

Back 60

An antibacterial effect

Front 61

The vibrations of the tip of an ultrasonic power scaling instrument used in cleaning teeth is measured in:

Back 61

Cycles per second

Front 62

The process of disrupting bacterial cell walls with the mist formed from the vibrating tip of the ultrasonic scaler acting on water released from the instrument is called:

Back 62

Cavitation

Front 63

When the ultrasonic scaler is used in cleaning teeth, the water coming form the tip will have the effect of:

Back 63

Cooling the tooth and lavaging the gum line

Front 64

When considering a multi–rooted tooth, the term for the area where the root divides is called the:

Back 64

Furcation

Front 65

When performing ultrasonic scaling, the areas of the tip to use for the majority of scaling are the:

Back 65

Back and sides

Front 66

The minimum pressure of the water supply line to the ultrasonic dental unit is:

Back 66

25 PSI

Front 67

Relating to Veterinary Dentistry, what method of brushing teeth concentrates on the gingival margin?

Back 67

Modified Bass

Front 68

The inherited condition in which the maxilla is longer than the mandible is called:

Back 68

Brachygnathism

Front 69

A substance that is related to the production of dental caries is:

Back 69

Organic acids

Front 70

An infectious disease that will predispose to enamel hypoplasia is:

Back 70

Canine distemper

Front 71

A tooth of the dog that is prone to a slab type fracture from the shearing action of chewing on hard objects is the:

Back 71

4th upper premolar

Front 72

The most common intraoral disease of small animals is:

Back 72

Periodontitis

Front 73

Periodontitis is a relatively common oral disease caused by the presence of:

Back 73

Plaque

Front 74

The ultimate result of untreated periodontal disease is:

Back 74

Loose teeth

Front 75

The areas of the body that are likely to be infected relating to bacterimias caused by periodontitis include all of the following EXCEPT:

Back 75

Periosteum

Front 76

As plaque on a tooth accumulates and becomes mineralized it is called:

Back 76

Calculus

Front 77

Clinical detection of the advancement of periodontal disease is best achieved by measuring:

Back 77

The depth of the periodontal pocket

Front 78

The crown of the tooth is covered by:

Back 78

Enamel

Front 79

The typical age that all of the permanent teeth should be erupted in a puppy is:

Back 79

6 months

Front 80

In the dog, the number of roots that the fourth upper pre–molar will have is:

Back 80

3

Front 81

The term that describes the tooth surface that is closest to the rostral midline of the dental arch is:

Back 81

Mesial

Front 82

In the modified Triadan system of teeth numbering, adult teeth in the maxillary right quadrant are assigned the:

Back 82

100 series

Front 83

The term for the normal bite of the dog is:

Back 83

Scissors bite

Front 84

The area of the tooth that will allow nerves and vessels to enter is the:

Back 84

Apical delta

Front 85

The condition that is considered normal in the brachycephalic dog is:

Back 85

Prognathism

Front 86

The normal depth of the periodontal pocket in the cat is:

Back 86

0.5 mm

Front 87

In the dog, the number of teeth that are present at birth is:

Back 87

0

Front 88

The hardest substance in the body is:

Back 88

Enamel

Front 89

The Triadan number for the left maxillary carnassial tooth is:

Back 89

208

Front 90

What will prevent radiographic image distortion, such as foreshortening, during dental radiographs?

Back 90

Bisecting angle

Front 91

The number of deciduous teeth present in the normal 8 week old puppy is:

Back 91

28

Front 92

A cold compress would likely be indicated for what duration of injury:

Back 92

Acute

Front 93

When the treatment direction sheet states to hot pack" an area twice daily, you would expect the length of duration of each therapy session to be:

Back 93

15 - 20 minutes

Front 94

Message therapy techniques should generally be directed in the same or opposite direction of venous flow?

Back 94

Same direction

Front 95

A contraindication for the use of heat therapy on muscle tissue is:

Back 95

Acute inflammation

Front 96

Prolonged and sustained contraction of muscle tissue that can be seen following disuse of the muscle is referred to as:

Back 96

Contracture

Front 97

The effects expected when introducing heat in the tissues as a physical therapy tool include all of the following EXCEPT:

Back 97

Muscle contraction

Front 98

In massage therapy for animals, a gliding stroke that follows the contour of the body is:

Back 98

Effuerage

Front 99

Cryotherapy or cold compress applications should be used on injured or post surgical tissues for up to:

Back 99

72 hours

Front 100

The main use for Neuromuscular Electrical Stimulation (NMES) as a physical therapy tool is to:

Back 100

Strengthen the muscle tissue

Front 101

Low-level laser is a physical therapy that, when applies to tissues, will result in:

Back 101

Dilation of vessels

Front 102

The parameter that is the best aid in assessing the hydration status (degree of hydration or dehydration) of a patient is:

Back 102

Body weight

Front 103

The changes in the PCV (packed cell volume) that would be expected in the dehydrated patient is a/an:

Back 103

Increase

Front 104

A constituent of a therapeutic fluid that would have the effect of raising the pH of the plasma of a patient is:

Back 104

Lactate

Front 105

Signs of fluid volume over load will include all of the following EXCEPT:

Back 105

Sunken eyes

Front 106

The osmotic pressure of 50% dextrose solution related to serum is:

Back 106

Hypertonic

Front 107

An indication for the use of Hetastarch as a fluid therapy agent is:

Back 107

Hypovolemic shock

Front 108

The units of heparin that would you add to a 1L bag of saline to prepare a standard solution of heparinized saline is:

Back 108

5000

Front 109

The agent that should never be given subcutaneously is:

Back 109

Dextrose solutions with a concentration greater than 2%

Front 110

The recommended rate of fluid administration for the IV route when providing fluid therapy for maintenance in ml/lb/hr is:

Back 110

2-Jan

Front 111

The weight of fluid that 30 pound patient that is 8% dehydrated would be missing is:

Back 111

2.4lbs

Front 112

If 500 ml of a solution is to be infused over 6 hours, what is the correct infusion rate (drops/min) if the infusion set delivers 10 drops/ml?

Back 112

13.9 drops/min

Front 113

The % of O2 in room air is:

Back 113

20%

Front 114

"The signs that may be seen in a patient that is hypoxic is/are: A) drowsiness, B) ataxia, C) excitability, D) cyanosis, E) all are correct"

Back 114

All are correct

Front 115

When delivering oxygen while using an oxygen cage, the inspired oxygen concentration should be set at:

Back 115

30 - 40%

Front 116

The proper level of humidity that is recommended for the interior of an oxygen cage during therapy is:

Back 116

50 - 60%

Front 117

When administering oxygen therapy with an oxygen mask, the recommended flow rate for most cases is:

Back 117

4L/min

Front 118

When administering oxygen therapy using a nasal catheter, a soft 5 - 8 French plastic or rubber catheter is placed in the nasal cavity to level of the:

Back 118

Caudal nasal pharynx

Front 119

A technique that involves striking the animal's chest to loosen bronchial secretions and thus facilitate drainage:

Back 119

Coupage

Front 120

Whenever possible, animals with lung problems should should be maintained in:

Back 120

Sternal recumbency

Front 121

The condition that may ocur if high levels of oxygen are used for long periods of time is:

Back 121

Pulmonary edema

Front 122

The size of water droplet that must be achieved to medicate the terminal bronchi (as measured in microns) is:

Back 122

2-5 microns

Front 123

An H tank of oxygen that has a capacity of 6900L and is 40% full. The pressure reading for the tank is 800 PSI. You are to flow 4L of oxygen per minute to a patient as part of your oxygen therapy technique. How long will your oxygen supply last?

Back 123

11.5 hours

Front 124

You are to administer oxygen therapy to a patient using an E tank. The tank is half full at 1000 PSI pressure and so contains 330 liters. The flow rate you wil luse is 2 liters per minute. How long will the oxygen in the tank last at your flow rate?

Back 124

2.75 hours

Front 125

All of the following are signs of hyperthyoidism in the cat EXCEPT:

Back 125

Anorexia

Front 126

The medical treatment for hyperthyroidism in the cat is:

Back 126

Methimazole

Front 127

The etiology of feline lower urinary tract disease is:

Back 127

Unknown

Front 128

When treating feline lower urinary tract disease, urinary catheters are placed and then removed:

Back 128

Within 24 hours

Front 129

To aid in the prevention of feline lower urinary tract disease, diets are fed that will contain low levels of:

Back 129

Magnesium

Front 130

A urinary acidifier that may be added to the diet of a feline patient as part of a prevention program for feline lower urinary tract disease is:

Back 130

Ammonium chloride

Front 131

What is the medical term for abnormally frequent passage of urine?

Back 131

Pollakiuria

Front 132

Severe cases of heaptic lipidosis in the cat may result in disease conditions of the:

Back 132

Central nervous system

Front 133

Hepatic lipidosis in the cat is directly related to:

Back 133

Lack of proper nutrition

Front 134

The course of treatment for feline hepatic lipidosis is generally:

Back 134

3 - 6 weeks

Front 135

Considering disease conditions in veterinary patients, the definition of etiology relates to:

Back 135

The actual cause of disease

Front 136

In the feline, transient arthritis, interdigital ulcers, and ulcers of the lip, tongue, hard palate are signs of disease associated with an infection of:

Back 136

Calicivirus

Front 137

In the developing fetus, the part of the nervous system that is susceptible to infection by the distemper virus that will cause clinical signs is the:

Back 137

Cerebellum

Front 138

Lymphoma in the feline is a cancer condition that is ofen associated with infection by:

Back 138

Feline leukemia virus

Front 139

All of the following statements apply to the Feline Immunosupperssive Virus EXCEPT:

Back 139

Has an effective vaccine

Front 140

All of the following apply to Feline Leukemia Virus infection EXCEPT:

Back 140

The virus is hardy

Front 141

The two infecting agents that are associated with 80% of feline respiratory disease are: (Hint: 2)

Back 141

Calicivirus and Feline Rhinotracheitis Virus

Front 142

The feline respiratory disease that will cause up to 30% mortality when affecting kittens is:

Back 142

Calicivirus

Front 143

The organism that causes feline Pneumonitis is classafied as a:

Back 143

Rickettsia

Front 144

The group of felines that would the most likely to show a false poitive test for the feline immunosuppressive virus is:

Back 144

Kittens

Front 145

What are common causes of hypoxia? (Hint: 9)

Back 145

"Lung diseases, alveolar hypoventilation, pneumonia, metastatic tumors, heart disease causing pulmonary edema, smoke inhalation, feline asthma, decreased cardiac output, and autoimmune hemolytic anemia"

Front 146

The recommended oxygen concentration delivered to the patient is:

Back 146

30-40%

Front 147

Humidification is needed to avoid drying of the _________.

Back 147

Respiratory passageways

Front 148

the oxygen is mixed with ________ to reduce the concentration

Back 148

room air

Front 149

Measure Delivery of Oxygen via O2 tube, mask or hood (E. collar)

Back 149

flow rate=4 liters per min

Front 150

The desired humidity in an oxygen cage is:

Back 150

50-60%

Front 151

The recommended temperature in an oxygen cage is:

Back 151

65-70 F

Front 152

A patient maintained in the upright or sternal position will decrease _____ of the down lungs.

Back 152

Hypostatic congestion

Front 153

The numbing agent used when placing a nasal catheter is: (Hint: Proparicaine HCl)

Back 153

Opthaine

Front 154

The recommended oxygen flow for nasal catheter is:

Back 154

5-100 ml/kg

Front 155

What ventilation technique utilizes 8-15cm H2O pressure at 6-10 breaths per minute?

Back 155

Intermittent positive pressure ventilation

Front 156

"Oxygen is available in various size tanks common sizes are:"

Back 156

E, M, G, and H

Front 157

What tank is used in clinics with built-in O2 lines, is full at 2200 PSI, has a capacity of 6900L and a calculated flow rate of 4 L/min?

Back 157

H tanks

Front 158

What tank fits most anesthesia machines, is full at 2000 PSI, has a capacity of 660L and a calculated flow rate of 4 L/min?

Back 158

E tanks

Front 159

What may occur when O2 levels above 50% are used for longer than 12 hrs?

Back 159

Oxygen toxicity

Front 160

"What condition may occur with continuous exposure of 80 - 100% O2?"

Back 160

Pulmonary edema

Front 161

What treatment is used when the respiratory passageways are blocked by edema fluid or exudate?

Back 161

Nebulizer

Front 162

"What nebulizing treatment will require the use of alcohol (reduces frothing by reducing the surface tension of the bubble)?"

Back 162

Pulmonary edema

Front 163

What will require the use medication with detergent properties during nebulization?

Back 163

Exudates

Front 164

What detergent is used with nebulization to help thin and dislodge exudate?

Back 164

Mucomyst

Front 165

"What fluid will thin secretions and is good for many conditions needing nebulization?"

Back 165

Saline

Front 166

What is a reduction in airway resistance?

Back 166

"Bronchodilation"

Front 167

What is the most commonly recommended bronchodilator?

Back 167

Albuterol

Front 168

What are traditional methods of physical therapy treatment? (Hint: 5)

Back 168

"Superficial heat, superficial cold, massage, exercise, assistive devices"

Front 169

What are alternate methods of physical therapy treatment? (Hint: 8)

Back 169

"Electrical stimulation, cold laser, therapeutic ultrasound, hyperbaric oxygen, acupuncture, nutraceuticals, herbal medicine, chiropractice"

Front 170

"What decreases tissue temperature, blood flow, reduces pain and spasticity, decreases tendency for edema and and the delivery of nutrients?"

Back 170

Cold therapy

Front 171

"What technique is applied to affected area with a folded towel over 15–20 min intervals and repeated several times daily?"

Back 171

Cold packs

Front 172

"What causes dilation of cutaneous vessels, an increase blood flow and blood pressure, an increase in metabolism, muscle relaxation and has a sedative and analgesic effect?"

Back 172

Heat therapy

Front 173

What is applied for 15-20 minutes several times a day and uses temperature ranges between 95-105 F?

Back 173

Superficial heat

Front 174

What uses an electrical current (deep heat) to cause a single muscle or a group of muscles to contract?

Back 174

Electrical stimulation

Front 175

What is light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation?

Back 175

Laser therapy

Front 176

When and who devised laser therapy?

Back 176

Albert Einstein in 1917

Front 177

"What is used to increase or decrease pressure on the front or rear limbs and promote limb function while sparing forces on healing joints?"

Back 177

Wheelbarrowing

Front 178

What is PROM (with assistance)?

Back 178

Passive Range of Motion

Front 179

Body fluid compartments (total body water) is generally estimated to be:

Back 179

60%

Front 180

Major body fluid compartments in order of retention are:

Back 180

Intracellular, Extracellular, Interstitial, Intravenous or plasma

Front 181

One pound of body weight will equal _____ of fluid.

Back 181

500ml

Front 182

What is the 4% of the 4–6–8% dehydration rule?

Back 182

"4% - history of fluid loss, no detectable signs"

Front 183

What is the 6% of the 4–6–8% dehydration rule?

Back 183

6% - tacky skin, concentrated urine, increased PCV

Front 184

What is the 8% of the 4–6–8% dehydration rule?

Back 184

8% - depression, loss of skin pliability

Front 185

What is the 10% of the 4–6–8% dehydration rule?

Back 185

10% - shock, critical illness

Front 186

What is the daily fluid maintenance rate for cats?

Back 186

20 ml/lb/day

Front 187

What is the daily fluid maintenance rate for dogs?

Back 187

30 ml/lb/day

Front 188

What crystalloid solutions contain electrolytes such as sodium, chloride, potassium, calcium, etc.?

Back 188

"Lactated Ringers, Normosol–R, Plasmalyte, 10% Dextrose in saline"

Front 189

What is the maintenance fluid rate?

Back 189

1 – 2 ml/lb/hr continuous drip

Front 190

What is the rehydration fluid rate?

Back 190

1 – 5 ml/lb/hr for 4 hours

Front 191

What is the anesthesia fluid rate?

Back 191

10 ml/lb/hr

Front 192

What is the fluid rate for shock?

Back 192

30 – 40 ml/lb for 1 hour