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271 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What type of catergory are atropine and glycopyrolate?
anticholinergics
Name 2 anticholinergics.
atropine and glycopyrolate
What animal would you not use atropine or glycopyrolate in?
horses - they can colic
What is the mechanism of action of anticholinercis?
competitive antagonist of Ach at the muscarinic cholinergic receptor (PSN)
What are uses for anticholinergics?
-prevent and treat bradycardia
-decrease respiratory secretions
-decrease salivation
What is the respiratory effect of anticholinercis?
bronchodilation
Do anticholiercis increase or decrease GI movement?
decrease - stasis
What is the duration of action of atropine?
60-90 minutes
What is the main difference between atropine and glycopyrolate?
glycopyrolate lasts longer, takes longer to act and does NOT cross the BBB or placenta (atropine does)
What are contraindications to using anticholinergics?
-pre-exisitng tachycardia
-narrow angle glaucoma and synechia
-horses
What are the 4 main uses for acepromazine?
-sedative
antiemetic
-antiarrhythmic
-antihistamine
What 2 NT does acepromazine block action of?
dopamine and serotonin

-also blocks alpha -1 receptors
Does acepromazine have anaglesia effects?
no
Why might acepromazine cause hypotension?
it causes vasodilation

-may also dcrease PCV, TP and platelet function
What is acepromazine a synergist with?
opioids
Does acepromazine have much of an effect on the respiratory system?
no
Is acepromazine reversible and if so, with what?
no
Why must you be careful when using acepromazine with male horses?
it causes relaxation of the retractor penis muscle
What is the effect of acepromazine on the CNS?
sedation and depression
What type of drug is acepromazine?
phenothiazine
How does acepromazine affect the bodys thermoregulation?
-causes hypothermia
When is acepromazine contraindicated?
-severe liver disease
-hypovolemia
-anemia
-shock
Give three examples of benzodiazepines.
-diazepam
-midazolam
-zolazepam
What are the 4 uses of benzodiazepines?
-mild sedation
-anxiolysis
-anticonvulsant
-muscle relaxation
How do benzodiazepines work?
increase affinity for GABA - inhibitory effects
What are the effects of benzodiazepines on CV and respiratory systems?
minimal

-CV - maybe thrombosis or pain due to 40% prpylene glycol

-respiratory - may exaggerate depressant effects of opioid
Which drug is better for sedation: acepromazine or a benzodiazepine?
acepromazine

-benzodiazepines cause minimal sedation and MAY cause paradoxical excitement
Diazepam is erratically absorbed from what tissue and why?
SQ - b/c lipid soluble
When is zolazepam used (a benzodiazepine)?
only used in 1:1mixture with Tiletamine (Telazol)
What are main differences between diazepam and midazolam?
shorter duration and cost more
-water soluble at pH < 4
In what animal is zolazepam metabolized slower in?
cats
What is the reversal agent of benzodiazepine?
flumazen- works via competitive antagonism BUT expensive
Which drug (phenothiazines or benzodiazepines) would you use if.... you wanted an antiarrhythmic?
phenothiazine
Which drug (phenothiazines or benzodiazepines) would you use if.... wanted an anticonvulsant.
benzodiazepines
What would you use an alpha-2 agonist for?
-sedation
-analgesia
-muscle relaxation
-anxyolisis
What are the CV effects of alpha-2 agonists?
bradycardia - AV blocks
What are the respiratory effects of alpha-2 agonists?
-decrease RR and tidal volume
In what animal do alpha-2s cause emesis?
cats
Do alpha-2s cause hypo or hyperglycemia?
hyperglycemia
What drug would you most use for analgesia: acepromazine, diazepam or an alpha-2 agonist?
alpha-2 --> it is the only one of the bunch with that quality --> but it also has profound CV and respiratory depression effects
Can alpha-2 agonists change your personality?
yes
How long does xylazine provide analgesia for and what is its duration of action?
duration - 1 hour

analgesia for 15-20 minutes
What does xylazine have more affinity for: alpha 1 or 2?
alpha 1: alpha 2 = 1: 160
What is the species difference for sensitivity for xylazine?
most to least
cattle> horse-dog-cat> pig
What can cause arousal when using xylazine?
auditory stimuli
Which has more predictable analgesisia/sedation: xylazine or medetomidine?
medetomidine
What is dexmedetomidine approved for?
FDA approved in dogs and cats for sedation and premedication

-active enantiomer of medetomidine
-use 3/4 of the dose of medetomidine
What is the duration of action of dexmedetomidine?
duration - 1.5 hours
analgesia - 45 minutes
What animal is detomidine used in?
horse and cattle
What is unique about the administration of detomidine?
can administer oral transmucosal (OTM)
Of the alpha-2 agonists, which has the greatest affinity for alpha-2 receptors?
Dexmedetomidine/medetomidine
Is romifidine approved for small animals?
no
Would you use a alpha-2 agonist in a patient with preexisitng cardiac disease?
no - contraindicated in animals with arrythmias
Give 3 reversal agents for alpha-2s. Which is better and why?
atipemazole - better because a lot more selective for A2
yohimbine
tolazoline
Which agent would you use to revere medetomidine or dexmedetomidine?

Which route?
atipemazole

IM only to avoid effects of sudden reversal
Opiods cause presynaptic inhibition of what NTs?
Ach, dopamine, NE, substance P and therefore decrease NT
What are the type of receptors for opioids?
Mu, kappa, delta
What are the uses of opiods?
-analgesia
-+/- sedation
-decrease anesthetic requirement
Do opiods depress the CV system?
minimally
-maybe bradycardia
Do opiods depress the respiratory system?
yes - decrease RR and tidal vollume
What are the specific CNS effects of opiods?
-nausea/vomiting
-reset thermoregulatory center
-may increase ICP
Why must you keep an animal well hydrated when using opiods (esp cats)?
decreased diuresis
-also constipation
In what animals do opiods cause mydriasis?
dog, rat, rabbit
What type of release can morphine cause?
histamine release
What might morphine cause in cats with very high doses?
mania
The opioids morphine, hydromorphine, oxymorphone, and fentanyl are all examples of what?

Which of these are short acting - all others last 2-4 hours?
full agonists

fentanyl is short acting
Fentanyl is a full agonist opioid and does not cause vomiting or histamine release like morphine, but....
it is shorter acting (20-40 minutes) and it has more effects causing bradycardia
Hydromorphone and oxymorphone can cause what in cats?
hydromorphone --> hyperthermia
oxymorphone --> ataxia and hyperesthesia
Why might you use hydromorphone instead of oxymorphone?
cost - oxymorphone is more expensive
Buprenophine is what type of drug?

How long does it last?
partial agonist opioid

last longer than the others - 6-12 hours with a slow onset (45 minutes)
What type of drug is butorphanol and what animal is it highly used in?
agonist (kappa) -antagoinist (Mu)

-horses - causes less respiratory depression and less GI effects
What is the reversal agent for opiods?
naloxone --> binds to all receptors
How do you administer naloxone?
IV SLOWLY or IM -- avoid sudden reversal

-reverses everything
What type of opioid would you use for severe pain and a duration of 3 hours?
morphine
Are iononized barbituates active or inactive?

-what about bound to albumin?
inactive

inactive
What happens with redistribution of barbirtuates?
gradually return to consciousness
What type of induction drug is thiopental?
US Acting barbituate - dose dependent
How does thiopental affect ICP?
decreases it
Does thiopental provide analgesia?
no
After administration of thiopental, HR _________ transiently and offsets the ________in BP.
increases
decrease
What type of CV effect does thiopental have?
causes arrhythmias --> decreases CO, SV, contractility, BP and peripheral vascular resistance
What type of respiratory effect does thiopental have?
-decreases RR, tidal volume, threshold for CO2 and causes post-induction apnea
What organ does thiopental cause an increase in?
spleen
Does thiopental cross the placenta?
yes - causes neonatal depression
best to avoid for C-sections
What happens when you give a perivascular injection with thiopental?
tissue sloughing
Does thiopental have a long or short shelf life?
long
What is the onset of induction with thiopental?
30 seconds
What is the main effect you are looking to get with thiopental?
CNS depression
Does thiopental have cumulative effects?
yes
What type of induction agent is propofol?
US acting non barbituate
What type of growth does propofol support?
bacteria
Which would you use for a C-section - thiopental or propofol?
propofol - does not cross placenta
Which drug is not cumulative - thiopental or propofol?
propofol
Which drug has a short shelf life - thio or propofol?
proppofol
Propofol decreases both what?
ICP and IOP
Which drug is an anticonvulsant - thio or propofol?
propofol
Thio and propofol both cause depression of what systems.
resp and CV
Which drug has a rough recovery if given alone? thio or propofol
thiopental
Why can't you use a constant rate infusion with thipental?
it has cumulative effects
What might you see with propofol that you may not with thiopental?
cyanosis
hypercapnea
myoclonus
What do multiple doses of propofol cause in the cat?
heinz body formations
Why would you use a propofol: thiopental 1:1 mixture?
to improve stability/shelf life
What might you use with propofol to decrease side effects?
ketamine - CV effects of each are opposite therefore balance each other out

-can mix in same syringe and titrate to effect
-use less of each
What type of drug is etomidate?
US acting non-barbituate
Is etomidate water soluble?
no
What is a major difference and benfit to etomidate over thiopental and propofol?
minimal cardio-pulmonary effects
What can happen with injection of etomidate?
pain on injection/hemolysis
Is etomidate a good choice for a C-section?
yes
What is the induction drug of choice for significant CV disease?
etomidate
Is etomidate an anti-convulsant?
yes
Which of the following are anaglesics: thiopental, propofol, etomidate?
none
What can etomidate suppress in dogs?
adrenal gland - therefore no constant rate infusion
What can happen at induction with etomidate?
nausea, vomiting
Etomidate decreases what?
ICP and IOP
What are 2 dissociative anesthetics?
ketamine and tiltamine
With ketamine, there is dissociation between what 2 systems?
thalamocortical and limbic systems
What is unique about ketamine?
induces a cataleptic state with amnesia - also analgelsia
What is the reversal agent for ketamine?
there is none
What type of pain is ketamine important in preventing?
chronic pain
Does etomidate cause vomiting?

Does propofol?

Does thiopental?
yes

no
no
What does ketamine do to ICP?
increases it
Why does ketamine have a fast onset of action?
it is lipid soluble
What type of behavior can be seen with ketamine use?
hallucinatory behavior --> hyperreflexia, sensitivity to touch ,ataxia
Does ketamine increase or decrease BP?

HR?
increase

increase
What type of respiratory side effect is seen with ketamine?
apnustic breathing --> holding breath

-increases salivation and secretions
What type of reflex remains intact with ketamine?
pharyngal/laryngeal reflex remains intact

-palpebral and corneal reflex (eyes remain open)
Are muscles rigid or flacid with ketamine?
rigid
What is the duration of action of ketamine?
IV - 3-10 minutes
IM - 10-30 minutes
How is ketamine metabolized in cats?
eliminated via kidney
How is ketamine metabolized in dogs?
hepatic metabolism and excreted in urine
Tiletamine is only available with what other drug?
zolazepam

- called telazol in the US
Is Telazol more or less potent than ketamine?
more
What is the difference between using tiletamine in the dog and the cat?
dog - emergence delrium

cat - less so
True or False, ketamine is a negative inotrope?
true
What type of ulcers can you get with ketamine and why?
corneal - eyes stay open
Of the following drugs (thiopental, propofol, etomidate and ketamine), what are the best and worst for induction?
Best - thiopental and propofol
Worst - etomidate
Of the following drugs (thiopental, propofol, etomidate and ketamine), what are the best and worst for recovery?
best - propofol
worst - ketamine
Of the following drugs (thiopental, propofol, etomidate and ketamine), what are the best and worst for therapeutic margin?
best - etomidate
worst - propofol and thiopental
Of the following drugs (thiopental, propofol, etomidate and ketamine), what are the best and worst for CNS effects?
best - thiopental
worst - ketamine
Of the following drugs (thiopental, propofol, etomidate and ketamine), what are the best and worst for CV?
best - etomidate
worst - propofol
Of the following drugs (thiopental, propofol, etomidate and ketamine), what are the best and worst for respiratory?
best - etomidate
worst - propofol
What is the definition of neuroleptoanalgesia?
profound state of sedation and analgesia

tranquilizer (phenothiazine, A2 or benzodiazepine) + opioid
What tranquilizer/opioid combo might you reserve for sick or old animals?
benzodiazepine with opioid
What do you want to give with a ketamine?
muscle relaxer
Can ketamine be given orally?
yes
What is the process of absorption for inhalent anesthesis?
breathed in ---> absorbed: alveoli into blood ---> absorbed: blood to brain then the whole process is reversible
Inspired concentration of inhalant anesthetic is directly proportional to what?
rise in alveolar partial pressure
What happens if an animal has rapid shallow breathing (poor ventilation) with inhalant anesthetic?
there is a slow rise of alveolar partial pressure

therefore, use mechanical ventilation - control the breathing to create a faster and more constant rise in PP
What 2 added things help determine the rise in alveolar partial pressure of inhalant anesthetic?
inspired concentration
alveolar ventilation
What is the time constant equal to?
V/flow

-it is the time required for flow thru a container to equal the capacity of the container
What are the two factors that offset the rise of alveolar partial pressure?
anesthestic solubility
CO
If inhalant anesthetic has a high solubility, is the speed of onset faster or slower?
slower - more drug moves into the blood from the alveoli and is not available as a diffusible gas
A low Blood: gas coefficient means....

A high B:G coefficient means...

-here, partial pressures are equal, concentrations are NOT equal
....low solubility (time of onset is faster)

....high solubility (time of onset is slower)
List in order from most to least soluble...sevoflurane, halothane, isoflurane
halothane (most), isoflurane, sevolfurane (least and shortest onset time)
What is better to preserve the heart-lung perfusion - high or low CO?
low CO - large amount of anesthetic goes to the brain
With a high CO, what percentage of anesthetic gets to the brain?
8% - small amount
What type of animals will have a slow in clinical onset of anesthesia?
stressed or excited animals --> blood is going to muscle
What type of animals will have a rapid in clinical onset of anesthesia?
sick or debilitated animals or those with a CV compromise --> CO is low
Alveolar partial pressure increases fast when what 3 things occur?
-good alveolar ventilation
-low cardiac output
-low anesthetic solubility
What MAC is required for surgical anesthesia in most animals?
1.2-1.3 x MAC

-more than 1 MAC guarantees surgical anesthesia in 100% of patients
What does MAC stand for?
minimum alveolar concentration --> % at which 50% of animals will not move in response to a surgical stimulus
In gas phase, what is partial pressure equal to?
% concentration x atmospheric pressure

-BUT dial on the machine is calibrated for barometric pressure
When comparing MACs between agents, what are you also comparing?

Which is more potent - isoflurane or sevoflurane?
potency


-iso bc there is a lower MAC
What is the B:G coefficient of isoflurane and sevoflurane?
iso = 1.4
sevo = 0.6
What is the MAC of:

halothane
isoflurane
sevoflurane
halothane -- 0.9 (1.1 in cats)
isoflurane -- 1.3 (1.6 in cats)
sevoflurane -- 2.4 (2.6 in cats)
If your patient is hypothermic, pregnant, old, or has hypothyroidism, is MAC increased or decreased?
decreased
Will hyperthermia, hyperthyroidism, hypernatremia or CNS stimulant drugs increase or decrease MAC?
increase
What might an overdose of inhalant anesthetic mean?
-severe ventilatory, CV, CNS depression
-death
What does an EEG look like with inhalent anesthesia?
high amplitude, low frequency (opposite of awake)
Do inhalants provide analgesia?
no
Do inhalants vasodilate or vasoconstrict? What does this mean for the patient?
vasodilate - increase ICP

(hyperventilation will reduce this)
At what MAC does contractility start to decrease?
> 1 x MAC

DOSE-DEPENDENT CHANGES
With inhalant anesthesia, why does CO remain constant while SV is decreased?
because HR increases (remains constant)

-hypotension is a main complaint of these
Inhalants can increase incidence of what due to the sensitization of the myocardium to catecholamine?
arrhythmias

-stress can induce endogenous catecholamine levels
An increase in PCO2 causes what?
vasodilation
Do positive inotropes or vasopressors affect anesthetic requirements (inhalant)?
no -- but counteract unwanted CV depression
Do inhalants increase or decrease the body's sensitivity to CO2?
decrease

-decrease the body's hypoxic drive and pulmonary vasoconstriction
Inhalants have an effect on the kidney - is it pre-renal, renal or post-renal?
pre-renal - correspond to decreased blood pressure --> decreased GFR and less urine output
What percent of iso and sevo are metabolized in the liver?
iso - .2%
sevo - 2-5%
Recovery from inhalants in mainly due to what system?
respiratory - lungs
What is the treatment for malignant hyperthermia?
dantrolene IV - muslce relaxant and anit-pyretic
-stop anesthesia and leave on 100% O2
-body cooling
Do low solubility drugs have more or less hangover?
less
Which inhalant is the most soluble?

Which is the most potent?
desflurane

halothane
What is the most reliable source of information for the cylinders?
the label
What is the size tank used in practice?

in the field?
E and H

D
When full, an oxygen cylinder has how much volume and pressure?
660 L

1900 psi
When full, a NO cylinder has how much volume and pressure?

pressure drop will only be observed when the volume drops below what?
1590L
745psi

250L
What are the US color codes for:

oxygen -
CO2 -
NO -
N -
Air -
oxygen - green (white internationally)
CO2 - gray
NO - blue
N - black
Air - yellow (white and black internationally)
Everything from the hanger yoke to the pressure regulator including cylinder pressure gauge are part of what system?
high pressure --> reflects the pressure in the gas cylinder
Everything downstream from the pressure regulator to the flowmeter flow control is part of what system?
intermediate --> constant pressure of 40-55psi
What is the oxygen flush valve part of?
intermediate system
What is the pressure in the intermediate system?
40-55 psi
Everything downstream from the flowmeter control to the common gas outlet is part of what system?
low pressure
Gauges are required to be calibrated in what?
kilopascals (kPa), but psi may also be used
What does the regulator due in the high pressure system?
reduces the pressure from the cylinder to a lower and more constant pressure 40-50 psig
Pipeline inlet connections that are part of the intermediate system have what type of safety system?
Diameter Index Safety System (DISS)
Flow indicator tubes are part of what system?
low pressure system

read in L/min
What is the vapor pressure of iso and sevo at 20 degrees C?
iso - 238
sevo - 157
What does the vaporizor chamber contain?

Which area is FREE of anesthetic?
anesthetic in its liquid and vapor state

the bypass chamber
What happens if the vaporizor is set to 5%?
5% more gas goes thru the vaporization chamber
What is the safety system used for the vaporizor?
key and color system
What happens if the anesthetic machine is tilted more than 45 degrees?

What do you do if this happens?
the bypass chamber can be contaminated with liquid anesthetic

-turn the flowmeter to 10L/min for at least 10 minutes
T or F - You will use the oxygen flush valve to clean out the bypass chamber if anesthetic gets into it
F - the oxygen flush valve bypasses this
Technically, where does the anesthesia machine end and what exits here?
the common gas outlet -- all gases (all breathing systems are connected here)
What are the 4 main functions of breathing systems?
1 - deliver anesthetic gases and oxygen to the patient
2 - remove CO2
3 - facilitate assisted or controlled ventilation
4 - facilitate scavenging of waste gases
What are the 2 main factors that influence breathing systems?
1 - resistance to breathing
2 - rebreathing of previously expired gas
What size patient would you use a rebreating system on?
above 7kg because they can overcome the resistance of one way valves and CO2 absorber
Connectors in a machine increase what?

sharp angles?
dead space

resistance to breathing
How big should a reservoir bag be?
5 x tidal volume (15ml/kg)

or 75ml/kg

-always select the bigger size
What does APL stand for?
adjustable pressure limiting valve -- pop off valve
What is used to remove CO2 from the system with a non-rebreathing system?
fresh gas flow
As a general rule, what should be the fresh gas flow in a non-rebreathing system?
150ml/kg/min
Soda lime is used in a rebreathing system and it converts the CO2 to what?
salt and water --> a pH indictor changes from white to purple when the soda lime is exhausted (high pH)
What is the most reliable way to determine if the soda lime is fresh?
observe the capnograph of the patient
What is the absolute minimum flow rate for oxygen?
500ml/min
What is the recommended gas flow for a closed vs. semi-closed system?
closed - 3-10 ml/kg/min

semi - 10-40ml/kg/min
What is the induction and maintenance oxygen for a rebreathing system?
induction--> 60 ml/kg/min

maintenance --> 30 ml/kg/min
What is the point of highest resistance in the breathing system?
the ETT
What type of tube is less likely to kink?
Which one is disposible?
PVC

PVC
What are the 3 main types of ETT?
1 - murphey
2 - magil - no opening besides the bevel; cuff can be placed closer to bevel and reduce the change of endobronchial intubation
3 - cole - always uncuffed
In what animals is direct visualization for intubation used?
dogs, cats, llamas, alpacas, lab animals, calves
In what animals is blind intubation used?
horses, rabbits
In what animals is digital palpation intubation used?
cows, camels
For ruminants why is it important to immediately seal the cuff and check the pressure later?
risk of regurgitation is greater
When do you deflate the cuff of the ETT?

-remove the tube?
-until the patient is able to secure their airway

-wait until animal swallows
What is hypoventilation?
PaCO2 is above normal (35-45)

-healthy animals are between 30 and 60
What are the disadvantages of high CO2 (4)?
1 - increase IOP
2 - increase ICP
3 - increase incidence of arrythmias
4 - decrease in pH
What is a disadvantage of using mechanical ventilation?
decrease in CO, decreased GFR, decreased oxygen delivery
What is the I:E ratio?
1:2
What is a PEEP and what does it do?
positive end-expiratory pressure

-helps keep alveoli open and minimize atelectasis

-not used all of the time because aggravates cardiac output depression
What 4 things are part of general anesthesia?
1 - unconsciousness
2 - insensitivity to pain
3 - muscle relaxation
4 - absence of reflex responses (respiratory, NM, ocular)
Stage I of anesthesia is characterized by what?
voluntary movement
-stress response, cough, laryngeal reflexes
(time of administration of induction agent to loss of consciousness)
Stage II of anesthesia is characterized by what?
delirium or involuntary movement

-still jaw tone, therefore can't intubate
What stage is intubation performed in?
Stage III light plane
Stage III is characterized by what?
surgical anesthesia
What is still present in the light plane of stage III?
-eyeball movement
-palpebral reflexes and lacrimation
-HR, BP and RR remain normal and regular (RR slows)
If you open the eye during stage III, medium plane, what will you see?
see the sclera - eye is opeten obscured by the third eyelid
What plane of anesthesia is adequate for most procedures?
stage III, medium plane - here palpebral reflexes will be sluggish
Which palpebral reflex is lost first?

When are they beginning to be lost - sluggish?
medial palpebral

stage III, medium plane
What happens to the respiratory rate in stage III, deep plane?
increases with abdominal to diaphragmatic
Where is the eye at stage III, deep?
centered with dilated pupil - no lacrimation or palpebral reflexes
What happens in stage IV?
extreme CNS depression

-respiration ceases, BP barely palpable, SHOCK!

-NOT responsive to light
Which type of signs yield more information?
positive signs
What are the MOST reliable signs when monitoring a patient? there are 4
1 - gross purposeful reflex movement
2 - immediate hemodynamic or respiratory response to stimulation
3 - response to stimulation prior to incision
4 - stimulate patient before making a clinical judgment
What nerves does the palpebral reflex test and what stage is the animal in if there is none?
CN 5 and 7
-stage III, medium or deep
What nerves does the pupillary light response stimulate and what stages are they most sensitive?
CN 2 and 3

they will blink in stage III, light and medium
Lacrimation idicates what stage?
stage III, light
What are LESS reliable signs in assessing anesthesia depth?
-HR, RR, BP, CRT/color
What are NOT reliable signs in assessing anesthesia depth?
-pupil size
-shivering
-spasmodic muscular twitching
-flick of ears with cats
-nasal flaring
What is the most important pieces of equipement that can tell you if your patient is alive or not?
esophageal stethescope - HR and rhythm
What are the 2 ways to assess arterial BP indirectly?

what is the direct method?
indirect - doppler and oscillometer

direct - gold standard (in peripheral artery)
What should systolic BP be kept at?

mean BP?
systolic - over 90-100

mean - 70 - 90
What does Doppler flow measure?
only systolic BP
-hear an auditory heart rate, but tempermental
-use on small patients when oscillometer won't work
What does an oscillometer measure?
HR< systolic, diastolic, and MAP

-least accurate in cold animals because of vasoconstriction and small

-involves the use of a cuff
What does a pulse oximeter measure?
it is a non-invasive, continuous monitor of arterial oxygen saturation

-gets info from a light signal therefore works better on fair skin, no hair
What values are good to see on a pulse oximeter?
above 90% (95%)
What do values obtained from a capnograph approximate?
alveolar ventilation

-it is a continuous, noninvasive method of monitoring CO2
What produces poor results with a pulse ox?
vasoconstriction, motion, methy, carboxy
How many phases are there to a capnogram and what are they?
4
I - inspiration - baselines should read 0 otherwise indicates rebreathing of CO2

II - expiratory upstroke

III - expiratory plateau (highest point represents the best approximation of alveolar CO2

IV - start of inspiration
What is the gold standard for measurement of CO2 and O2 tensions - measuring the patients ventilatory and metabolic status?
arterial blood gas
What should urine output be?
1-2 ml/kg/hr
-should be monitored using a closed system
At what temperature is it considered life threatening and what temp needs agressive rewarming?
-life threatening - 86

90 - 92 needs aggressive rewarming
What is the most common method for induction of wild animals?
IM
What is the only animal that allows to be nasotracheally intubated with sedation alone?
FOALS
When can intibation be done?
plane 2/3, stage III (medial plane)
What is the most important thing to do after induction of an animal?
palpate the pulse
What is the emergence period?
period between discontinuation of anesthesia and extubation
What must you always do before moving the patient?
disconnect to prevent tracheal tear
What is the minimum preop PCV?
27-30
How many ASA classifications are there?
5
I - normal, healthy patient
II - neonatal or gereatric or patients with mild disease or moderate obesity
III - moderate systemic disease
IV - severe systemic disease that is a threat to their life
V - not expected to survive for 24 hours
What ASA class are neonates or geratrics?
II