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413 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
how many layers is the digestive tract composed of?
4
ths innermost layer of the digestive tract specialized to carry out various digestive functions, including absorption, secretion and protection
mucosa
what are the three layers of the mucosa layer of the digestive tract?
(1) Epithelium
(2) Lamina propria
(3) Muscular mucosae
what type of epithelium is in the mucosa layer of the digestive tract?
simple columnar
this is the loose, cellular connective tissue layer of the mucosa layer of the digestive tract that contains lymphatics, small vessels, and in some areas diffuse collection of lymphocytes
lamina propria
this is the layer of smooth muscle fibers in the mucosa layer of the digestive tract
muscularis mucosae
what are the four layers of the digestive tract?
(1) mucosa
(2) submucosa
(3) tunica muscularis
(4) tunica serosa
this layer of the digestive tract is a layer of moderately dense irregular connective tissue with few cells; it carries major distributing blood vessels, glands, nerves, and nerve plexuses, lymphatics and glands in duodenum
submucosa
this is the layer of the digestive tract that has mostly mechanical functions (tonus, transport, mixing); in the stomach, the stucture is more complex with three layers
tunica muscularis
what is the shape of the inner layer of the tunica muscularis?
circular
what is the shape of the outer layer of the tunica muscularis?
longitudinal
how many layers does the tunica muscularis have in the stomach?
3
this is hte layer of the digestive tract that is a thin layer of loose connective tissue covered by simple squamous epithelium, continuous with the mesentery
tunica serosa
this component of the GI tract starts at the level of the larynx, passes through the diaphragm and continues in the stomach; functions to move food into the stomach
esophagus
what are the three anatomically important regions that the esophagus passes through?
(1) neck
(2) posterior mediastinum
(3) abdomen
what type of muscle is contained in the upper 2/3 of the esophagus?
skeletal
what type of muscle is contained in the lower 1/3 of the esophagus?
smooth
this organ is located in the upper left area of the abdomen; continues digestive process begun in the oral cavity and converst it into a viscous mass
stomach
what two things does the stomach secrete into ingested food to continue the digestive process?
(1) hydrochloric acid
(2) pepsin
through muscular activity, the stomach converts ingested food into this viscous mass
chyme
the stomach secretes an intrinsic factor for absorption of what vitamin from the ileum?
vitamin B12
this portion of the stomach is right where the esophagus enters the fundic portion; upper bulging area above the entrance of the esophagus body
cardiac portion
a narrowed area of the stomach that enters the duodenum and contains the pyloric valve
pylorus
the mucosa of the stomach contains what types of glands, whose cells are responsible for secreting various products?
simple tubular
the main function of this organ is to absorb nutrients, electrolytes, and water, and also moves chyme forward and continues digestion with enzymes secreted by the liver, pancreas, and its own intrinsic glands
small intestine
how many divisions are there of the pharynx?
3
what nerve is responsible for stimulating the release of HCl and pepsin in the stomach?
vagus (parasympathetic input)
what type of input is responsible for sphincter function and visceral pain?
sympathetic
what three structures increase the surface area of the small intestine tremedously?
(1) circular plicae
(2) villi intestinales
(3) microvilli
what six structures does the small intestinal mucosa form?
(1) plicae ciruclares
(2) villi intestinales
(3) glands
(4) epithelial cells with microvilli
(5) entero-endocrine cells
(6) goblet (mucus) cells
how many meters long is the small intestine?
6
how many parts are there of the small intestine, and what are their names?
3
duodenum, jejunum, ileum
this part of the small intestine is a C shaped structure, most of which is attached to theposterior abdominal wall; it has four parts
duodenum
what are the four parts of the duodenum of the small intestine?
(1) superior
(2) descending
(3) horizontal
(4) ascending
this is the first of two parts of the small intestine that is referred to as the mesenteric small intestine; it is attached to the posterior abdominal wall by folds of the mesentery and moves freely in the abdomen
jejunum
this is a direct continuation of the jejunum that is slightly smalle rin diameter, with thinner walls and lower folds inside; the mucosa contains lymphatic nodules (Payer's patches) and is attached to the posterior abdominal wall via the mesentery
ileum
what are the lymphatic nodules called that are found in the ileum portion of the small intestine?
Payer's patches
the function of this organ is to absorb water and remaining salts from the rest of the digestive tract
large intestine (colon)
what surface of the large intestine contains no villi and is smooth, and most of the epithelial cells are goblet cells?
lumenal
the muscularis externa of the colon is arranged in three groups called the __ __
taenie coli
technically, how many parts does the large intestine have?
7
this part of the large intestine meets with the ileum at the iliocecal vale; extending from its lateroposterior wall is the appendix;
cecum
this extends from the lateroposterior wall of the cecum, and is found where the three taniae come together at the base of the cecum
appendix
this part of the large intestine is a fixed, immovable part that continues upward towards the right hypochondrium
ascending colon
this part of the large intestine is suspended from the right colic flexure to the left colic flexure; it is freely attached, movable, and suspended from the posterior abdominal wall by mesentery
transverse colon
this part of the large intestine is from the left colic flexure down to the brim of the pelvis, where it becomes the sigmoid; it is attached to the posterior abdominal wall
descending colon
this part of the large intestine is S shaped and freely movable; goes down from the iliac crest down to the true pelvis
sigmoid colon
this part of the large intestine is thrown up into the longitudinal folds and has sphincters in order to keep it closed
rectum and anal canal
what line do the system of the portal veins and the inferior vena cava communicate at?
pectinate line
what type of muscle is the internal sphincter of the anus?
smooth
what nerve innervates the external sphincter of the anus?
pudendal nerve
what nerve innervates the levator ani muscle?
pudendal nerve
what type of muscle is the external sphincter of the anus?
skeletal
this organ is found in the upper right quadrant of the abdomen; it is the largest organ in the body after the skin, and has both endocrine and exocrine functions
liver
what are the 5 functions of the liver?
(1) converts glucose to glycogen, stores vitamins
(2) bile secretion
(3) protein synthesis
(4) metabolism
(5) detoxification
what is important in emulsifying lipids brought in by the digestive tract, and also functions to solubilize cholesterol and promote its secretion from the body?
bile
what are three proteins that the liver produces and secretes as an endocrine function?
(1) albumin
(2) prothrombin
(3) fibrinogen
what is the process of the liver converting lipids and amino acids into glucose?
gluconeogenesis
what product does the liver form when it deaminates amino acids; it is a nontoxic excretory product excreted by the kidney
urea
what are the three steps in inactivating drugs by the liver?
(1) oxidation
(2) methylation
(3) conjugation
what is the thin capsule of regular dense connective tissue that surrounds the liver?
Glisson's capsule
where is Glisson's capsule the thickest on the liver?
hilum
what two things enter and exit at the hylum of the liver?
the portal vein and hepatic artery enter
right and left hepatic ducts exit
what is the basic structural component of the liver?
lobule
what are the two sources of the blood supply to the liver?
(1) portal vein system
(2) arterial system
this system carries oxygen poor but nutrient rich blood from the mesenteric veins of the gut to the liver
portal vein system
what vein do the hepatic veins drain into?
inferior vena cava
from the preterminal and terminal branches of the portal vein system that run around liver lobules, the blood enters the lobule, where it runs between plates of liver parenchymal cels in irregular channels called __
sinusoids
this substance is produced in liver cells and flows in the opposite direction of the blood and into the hepatic duct
bile
this organ is a greenish colored sac which lies in the depression of the inferior surface of the liver bweten the right hepatic lobe and quadrate lobe
gallbladder
what duct drains bile from the gallbladder?
cystic
what duct drains bile from the liver?
common hepatic duct
what two ducts come together to form the common bile duct?
cystic and common hepatic
where does the common bile duct enter the descending duodenum?
the major duodenal papilla (Vateri)
what two ducts enter the duodenum at the major duodenal papilla (Vateri)?
(1) common bile duct
(2) pancreatic duct
this organ does both exocrine and endocrine secretion; it is the principle enzyme producing accessory gland of the digestive system
pancreas
the excretory product of this organ includes a wide variety of enzymes capable of breaking down nearly all organic constituents of food (proteins, carbohydrates, fats, and nucleic acids)
pancreas
scattered patchets of what type of cells in the pancreas secrete insulin and glucagons and other hormones?
islets of Langerhans
what are the four parts of the pancreas?
(1) head
(2) uncinate process
(3) body
(4) tail
the exocrine secretory units of the pancreas are organized in grape-like clusters of __ which secrete into a branching duct system
acini
what artery branches off the celiac trunk and supplies the left side of the lesser curvature of the stomach?
left gastric artery
what branch of the splenic artery (which branches off the celiac trunk) supplies the greater curvature of the stomach to the greater omentum?
left gastroepiploic artery
what artery branches off the common hepatic artery and supplies the right side of the lesser curvature of the stomach?
right gastric artery
what branch of the gastroduodenal artery (which branches off the common hepatic artery) supplies the right greater curvature of the omentum?
right gastroepiploic artery
what branch of the gastroduodenal artery (that branches off the common hepatic artery) supplies the upper half of the duodenum and head of the pancreas?
superior pancreaticoduodenal artery
from what nerves does the sympathetic input to the GI system come (up to the left colic flexure)?
thoracic splanchnics
from what nerves does the sympathetic input to the GI system come (after the left colic flexure to the anus)?
lumbar splanchnics (L1, L2)
what nerve takes care of parasympathetic input to the gut as far as the left colic flexure?
vagus
what nerves give parasympathetic input to the gut after the left colic flexure?
sacral parasympathetics/splanchnics (S2-S4)
the lining of the gut and its associated organs is derived from what embryonic structure?
endoderm
muscle, connective tissue, and other layers of the gut and its associated organs are derived from what embryonic structure?
splanchnic mesoderm
what is the future anal opening called in an embryo?
cloaka
the embryonic gut is divided into how many parts, and what are their names?
3
foregut, midgut, and hindgut
the passage of what substance stimulates gut development in the embryo?
amniotic fluid
when does the cranial end of the embryo open?
3-5 weeks
when does the cloacal membrane rupture in the embryo to allow the passage of amniotic fluid?
7 weeks
the remnants of the ventral mesentery from embryonic development exist from what level?
from the umbilical vein upward to the diaphragm
the aorta lies in the posterior abdominal wall in the embryo, where how many unpaired arteries arise? what are their names?
three
(1) celiac
(2) superior mesenteric
(3) inferior mesenteric
what division of the gut is associated with the celiac trunk arising from the aorta?
foregut
which division of the gut is associated with the superior mesenteric artery arising from the aorta?
midgut
which division of the gut is associated with the inferior mesentery artery arising from the aorta?
hindgut
what three organs develop in the embryo as an outpouching of the descending duodenum between the foregut and midgut?
(1) liver
(2) pancreas
(3) gallbladder
what are the four structures that are secondary retriperitoneal part of the GI tract?
(1) most of the duodenum
(2) ascending colon
(3) descending colon
($) pancreas
which thoracic vertebra contains both a full facet and a demi facet for articulation with the head of the rib?
T1
which thoracic vertebrae contain a demi-facet for articulation with the head of the rib?
T2-T8
which thoracic vertebra contains a superior demi-facet for articulation with the head of the rib?
T9
which thoracic vertebrae contain full facets for articulation with the head of the rib?
T1, T10-T12
what range of angle do the spinous processes of T2-T4 sit at?
20-40º downward
what range of angle do the spinous processes of T3-T8 sit at?
40-60º downward
what thoracic vertebrae's spinous processes are more straightly oriented?
T9-T12
this process laterally comes off the junction point where the pedicle and laminae meet
transverse process
the end of the tranverse processes in the thoracic region articulate with the __ of its rib
tubercle
what are the three components of a rib?
(1) vertebral
(2) body
(3) sternal
this part of the vertebral portion of the rib articulates with the transverse process of the same numbered vertebrae
tubercle
this part of the vertebral portion of the rib articulates with the vertebral body of the thoracic column
head
what are the three structures found in the vertebral portion of the rib?
head, neck, and tubercle
this facet of the rib is for the inferior costal facet of the thoracic vertebra numbered one number lower than the rib
superior articular facet
this facet of the rib is for the superior costal facet of the thoracic vertebra of the same number as the rib
inferior articular facet
this facet of the rib is for the transverse costal facet of the thoracic vertebra of the same number as the rib
articular facet of tubercle
this ligament surrounds the head of the rib and articulation with the vertebrae
radiate ligament
this ligament runs from the transverse process of the thoracic vertebrae to the rib
lateral costotransverse ligament
this ligament runs from the superior aspect of one rib to the transverse process of the thoracic vertebra above it
superior costotransverse ligament
this ligament runs fro transverse process to transverse process in the thoracic spine
intertransverse ligament
what surrounds the articulation of the vertebral portion of the rib with the transverse process of the thoracic vertebra?
an articular capsule
what type of joints are the articulations of the vertebral portion of the rib with the transverse processes of the thoracic vertebra?
synovial joints
this structure on the body of the rib lies just sternal to the articular facets
rib angle
this structure on the body of the rib houses the intercostal veins
inferior costal groove
what are the two structures found on the body of the rib?
rib angle
inferior costal groove
what is the order of structures that the inferior costal groove of the rib houses, from superior to inferior?
Vein
artery
nerve
what two ribs do not articulate with the sternum and are considered "floating"?
11 and 12
what ribs are considered true ribs because they articulate with the sternum?
ribs 1-7
what ribs are considered false ribs because they do not articulate with the sternum?
ribs 8-12
the first rib is fused with the manubrium of the sternum as what type of joint?
synarthrosis
the 2nd rib articulates at the stenral angle as what type of joint?
synovial joint
the 3rd-7th ribs articulate with the body of the sternum as what type of joints?
synovial
the 8-10th ribs articulate with the ribs above as what type of joint?
synovial
these ribs are considered false ribs because they articulate with the costal cartilages above
ribs 8-10
where do most fractures of ribs occur?
where bone meets cartilage (most flexible here)
this is the superior portion of the stenrum that articulates with rib 1, part of rib 2, and the clavicle; the inferior portion fuses with the body to form the sternal angle
manubrium
the inferior portion of the manubrium and the body of the sternum come together to form what structure?
sternal angle
this portion of the sternum has four segments that fuse between puberty and the 25th year; superior portion fuses with manubrium to form the sternal angle
body
this portion of the sternum is inferior to the body and partially articulates with rib 7
xiphoid process
what is the fiber direction of the external intercostal muscles?
downward and forward
what is the fiber direction of the internal intercostal muscles?
downward and backward
what is the fiber direction of the innermost intercostal muscles?
downward and posteriorly
what is the fiber direction of the subcostal muscles?
downward and medially
what is the fiber direction of the transversus thoracis muscle?
upward and outward
what is the fiber direction of the levatores costarum muscle?
downward and outward
what are the four accessory muscles of the thorax?
(1) abdominals
(2) sternocleidomastoid
(3) quadratus lumborum
(4) sacrospinalis
what nerves are the ventral rami of the first 11 pairs of thoracic nerves?
intercostal nerves
each intercostal nerve gives rise to what two branches?
(1) lateral cutaneous branch
(2) anterior cutaneous branch
this type of respiration is accomplished mostly by contraction of the diaphragm and external intercostals which increases vertical height and A-P and lateral diameter due to bucket handle movement of the ribs
quiet inspiration and expiration
this type of respiration is when the first two ribs are elevated by contraction of scalenes and SCM, all intercostals contract, serratus posterior superior, levatores costarum, sacrospinalis, and diaphragm contract
forced inspiration
this type of respiration occurs when the last two ribs are pulled down by quadratus lumborum, intercostal constract, serratu sposterior inferior, abdominal musculature contracts and releases intraabdominal pressure, which pulls down on ribs and sternum and pushes upward in diaphragm increasing pleural cavity pressure
forced expiration
what is the first functioning system of the embryo?
cardiovascular
at what day in development are the cardiogenic cords in the cardiogenic areas of the embryo formed?
18th day
by what day in development do the angiogenic cells canalize to form the endocardiac heart tubes fuse together to form the pericardial cavity?
21st or 22nd day
after day 21/22 of development, the heart elongates and developes what five structures?
(1) truncus anteriosus
(2) bulbous cordis
(3) ventricle
(4) atrium
(5) sinus venosus
what forms from the splanchnic mesenchyne and surrounds the developing heart tube during development?
myoepicardial mantle
the myoepicardial mantle and the heart tube are separated by what substance?
cardiac jelly
the myoepicardial mantle differentiates into what two structures?
myocardium and epicardium
the endocardial tube during development becomes what lining of the heart?
epithelial
at what day of development does the heart bend on itself, forming the bulboventricular loop (common ventricular and atrial region)?
23rd day
during what weeks of development does formation of the interatrial and ventricular walls occur?
4-8th weeks
what structures are divided into the aorta and pulmonary trunks during development?
bulbous cordis and truncus anteriosus
this developmental defect is a defect of the foramen ovale; the blood flow is from the left to the right (increased blood flow to right atrium), pulmonary HTN, congestive heart failure, atrial arrhythmias, and increased risk of stroke
atrial septal defect
this developmental defect is when blood flows from the left ventricle to the right ventricle, and is a serious septal defect
ventricular septal defect
this developmental defect occurs when there is a ventricular septal defect, and the overriding aorta straddles the VSD, causing a pulmonary stenosis (increase in pressure) and R ventricular hypertrophy (and ultimately R ventricular failure)
tetralogy of Fallot
where does the heart lie in the chest?
middle mediastinum
this is the area above the heart
superior mediastinum
this is the area in front of the heart
anterior mediastinum
this is the area behind the heart
posterior mediastinum
the apex of the left ventricle of the heart lies at what intercostal space, 3-3.5 inches from midline?
5th
this type of pericardium is the outer sac that surrounds the heart and great vessels, and is attached to the diaphragm and sternum
fibrous
this type of pericardium has two parts, the parietal and visceral; lines the fibrous sac and the surface of heart and great vessels
serous pericardium
what are the two subdivisions of the serous pericardium?
(1) parietal
(2) visceral
this layer of the serous pericardium lines the fibrous sac
parietal
this layer of the serous pericardium lines the surface of the heart and the great vessels
visceral
the space between the two sacs (fibrous and serous pericardium) is filled with fluid and is known as what cavity?
pericardial cavity
this reflection of the serous pericardium is a space in which the finger can be passed behind the aorta, pulmonary trunk, and in front of the atria
transverse sinus
this reflection of the serous pericardium is a cul-de-sac where two fingers can enter the sinus between the right and left pulmonary veins, inferior vena cava on right and left atrium in front
oblique sinus
this groove on the outer surface of the heart houses the circumflex artery and coronary sinus
atrioventricular groove
this groove on the outer surface of the heart contains the left anterior descending artery
anterior interventricular groove
this groove on the outer surface of the heart contains the right posterior descending artery
posterior interventricular groove
this artery of the heart supplies the left atria, left ventricle, and portions of the septum
left coronary artery
what are the two branches of the left coronary artery?
(1) circumflex
(2) left anterior descending
this artery of the heart supplies the right atrium, right ventricle, SA node, and the posterior portion of the L ventricle in 80-90% of hearts
right coronary artery
what are the four branches of the right coronary artery?
(1) branch to the SA node
(2) circumflex
(3) posterior interventricular
(4) marginal
what are the three cardiac veins?
(1) small cardiac
(2) middle cardiac
(3) great cardiac
what cardiac vein helps to form the coronary sinus, which dumps into the right atrium?
great cardiac vein
what cardiac vein parallels the right coronary artery and brings blood from the apex of the heart?
middle cardiac vein
what external vessels of the heart bring blood from the lungs?
pulmonary veins
what external vessels of the heart take blood to the lungs?
pulmonary arteries
what two external vessels of the heart dump into the right atrium?
superior and inferior vena cava
during what phase of the heart beat are the valves of the heart open?
diastole
during what phase of the heart beat are the valves of the heart closed?
systole
oxygenated blood returns from the placenta in the __ __ in the prenate
umbilical vein
from the inferior vena cava, in a prenate, the blood is direction through the __ __ to the L atrium; it mixes with deoxygenated blood returning from the lungs via the pulmonary veins
foramen ovale
blood from the head and neck that comes in through the superior vena cava in a prenate passes through the R ventricle and exits the heart through the pulmonary trunk; the majority of the blood bypasses the lungs and gets to the aorta via the __ __
ductus arteriosis
what is the SA node beat rate?
60-80 bpm
what is the AV node beat rate?
40-50 bpm
what is the Purkinje fiber beat rate?
30 bpm
where does sympathetic control of the heart come from directly?
directly from T1-T4 spinal nerves
where does the sympathetic control of the heart come from indirectly?
cervical ganglia
the action of this control of the heart is to speed up the heart rate and force of the contraction
sympathetic
the sympathetic control of the heart ends in the __ __
cardiac plexus
what nerve supplies parasympathetic control of the heart?
vagus
the action of this stimulation of the heart is to slow down the heart rate and decrease the force of the contraction
parasympathetic
aspiration into the lungs is usually through what side of the bronchi?
right side (because left side is at more of an acute angle)
deoxygenated blood comes into the lungs via what vessel?
pulmonary artery
oxygenated blood leaves the lungs via what vessel?
pulmonary veins
how many lobes does the right lung have, and what are their names?
3 lobes, superior middle and inferior
how many lobes does the left lung have, and what are their names?
2 lobes, superior and inferior
this is a portion of the left lung superior lobe that acts like the right middle lobe
lingula
what fissure separates the superior and inferior lobes of the left lung?
oblique fissure
what fissure separates the superior and middle lobes of the right lung?
horizontal fissure
what fissure separates the middle and inferior lobes of the right lung?
oblique fissure
the development of the lungs occurs as an outpouching of what structure?
foregut
at the root of the lung during development, the parietal and visceral pleura create a fold inferior to the root known as the __ __
pulmonary ligament
surfactant begins to be produced at __ weeks gestation
28
these are the spaces the lungs expand into when fully inflated (inspiration)
pleural spaces
these are the recesses where the ribs meet the diaphragm
costodiaphragmatic recesses
this is the area behind the sternum and anterior to the heart
costomedial recesses
nutritional blood supply to the bronchial walls is through __ vessels
bronchial
the posterior thoracic wall is composed of what five things?
(1) bones
(2) muscles
(3) fascia
(4) costal pleura (internally)
(5) skin (externally)
the posterior thoracic wall is in close relationship with the __ __, which lies posterior to the pericardium
posterior mediastinum
the posterior mediastinum is located anterior to what thoracic vertebrae?
T5-T12
the thoracic part of the descending aorta begins on the left side of the inferior border of the body of what vertebra?
T4
the descending aorta enters the abdominal cavity through what opening?
the aortic hiatus
the __ and __ descend on the descending aorta's right side and accompany it through the aortic hiatus into the abdomen
thoracic duct and azygos vein
what are the branches that come off of the descending aorta?
(1) intercostal arteries for ribs 3-11
(2) subcostal artery
the first two intercostal artery branches arise from the __ trunk
costocervical
the esophagus descends into the posterior mediastinum passing __ and to the __ of the aortic arch
posterior, to the right of
the esophagus enters the abdominal cavity through what opening?
esophageal hiatus of the diaphragm
at what level is the esophageal hiatus of the diaphragm?
T10
at what level is the aortic hiatus of the diaphragm?
T12
what two things does the azygos system of veins on each side of the vertebral column drain?
(1) intercostal spaces
(2) mediastinal viscera
each side of the azygos venous system is formed by the union of what two veins?
(1) subcostal vein
(2) ascending lumbar vein
the normal azygos vein drains the right intercostal spaces and emptires into the __ just above the right atrium
superior vena cava
what vein drains the two upper intercostal spaces on the left side?
superior intercostal vein into the left brachiocephalic vein
what vein drains the left intercostal spaces 3-8?
accessory hemiazygous vein into the right azygous vein
what vein drains the left intercostal spaces 9-11?
hemiazygous vein and cross over to the right and drains into the azygos vein
would you insert a needle to perform a pleural tap above or below the upper margin of the rib?
ABOVE so as not to affect the intercostal vein, artery, and nerve
would you insert a needle to perform an intercostal nerve block above or below the lower margin of the rib?
below (to reach the intercostal nerve)
lymph drainage from the greater part of the body is returned to the venous system mainly by what structure?
thoracic duct
the thoracic duct is an upward continuation of what structure, a sack-like receptable for lymph from the abdominal and pelvic organs and walls?
cisterna chyli
the thoracic duct ascends into the thorax behind the aorta through the __ __ of the diaphragm
aortic hiatus
at the level of what vertebra does the thoracic duct pass posterior to the esophagus and exit the thorax on the left side in the superior mediastinum?
T5
where does the thoracic duct terminate?
the left venous angle
the left venous angle is at the union of what two veins?
left jugular and subclavian veins
at the thoracic duct termination, it receives lymphatic trunks from what three areas?
jugular, subclavian, and bronchomediastinal
what duct drains everything from the neck down except for the right arm and right thoracic region?
thoracic duct
what duct drains the right arm and right thoracic region?
right lymphatic duct
what does the right lympatic duct drain into?
the right venous angle
the sympathetic branches for the thoracic viscera are usually small and are __ __
post-ganglionic
the sympathetic branches that innervate the abdominal and pelvic viscera are gathered into three large nerves. WHat are their names?
Greater, lesser, and least splanchnic nerves
this nerve is formed from the T5-T9 sympathetic preganglionics; it perforates the diaphragmatic crura and terminates on post-ganglionic neurons int he celiac, superior mesenteric, and aorticorenal ganglia
greater splanchnic
what three ganglia do the greater and lesser splanchnic nerves terminate in?
(1) celiac
(2) superior mesenteric
(3) aorticorenal
this nerve is formed from sympathetic preganglionic nerves of T10-T11 and terminates on post-ganglionic neurons in the celiac, superior mesenteric, and aorticrenal ganglia
lesser splanchnic
this nerve is formed from the sympathetic preganglionic fibers of T12
least splanchnic
the parasympathetic system of the posterior thoracic wall is represented by what nerve?
vagus nerve
at the aortic arch, one branch of the vagus nerve turns under the arch and up the posterior side to reenter the neck as what nerve?
recurrent laryngeal nerve
the left vagus breaks up to lie on the anterior esophagus as the __ __ __ sending varous branches to the esophageal plexus and descends down into the abdomen to most of the digestive tract
anterior vagal trunk
what type of rami communicantes are found at the superior cervical ganglion?
ONLY GRAY
what are the only levels of the spine that a white rami communicantes exists in?
T1-L3 (sympathetic chain)
white rami communicantes carry what type of fibers?
preganglionic sympathetics
gray rami communicantes carry what type of fibers?
postganglionic sympathetics
what side of the body is the azygos vein located on?
right
this function of the kidney is to remove waste products of metabolism such as urea and creatinine
excretion
the kidney is an endocrine organ that secretes what three products (among others)?
(1) renin
(2) erythropoeitin
(3) prostaglandins
on the middle of the kidney's concave side is the __, which is the entry and exit point for blood vessels, nerves, and the beginning of the ureter
hilus
where does the ureter of the kidney begin?
renal pelvis
this portion of the kidney lobe contains all the renal corpuscles and the convoluted portions of the nephron
cortex
this portion of the kidney lobe contains the pyramid and renal columns
medulla
this portion of the renal medulla contains the straight portions of the nephrons (loops of Henle) as well as the collecting ducts (tubules)
pyramid
this part of the renal medulla contains the nephrons
renal columns
what is the functional part of the kidney?
nephron
this is the functional part of the kidney that is a tubule open at one end where it enters the collecting duct and closed at the other end at Bowman's capsule
nephron
about how many nephrons are there in one kidney?
1 million
this capsule in the nephron controls filtration of the plasma from capillaries
Bowman's capsule
this portion of the nephron reabsorbs glucose, amino acids, lactic acid, citric acid, and various other ions
proximal convoluted tubule
this portion of the nephron is the descending limb and does water reabsorption
loop of Henle
this portion of the nephron is responsible for reabsorption of sodium and chloride ions
ascending loop
this portion of the nephron continues the reabsorption of water and sodium and secretes hydrogen and potassium ions
distal convoluted tubule
this portion of the nephron arch together to form larger tubules that open at the cribriform area of the renal pappilla
collecting tubules
what do the renal pappillae open up into?
minor calices
the kidneys receive about how much of the cardiac output via the renal arteries?
1/5
these arteries in the kidney are branches of interlobar arteries that arch across the base of renal pyramids between the cortex and the medulla
arcuate arteries
these arteries are branches in the kidney from arcuate arteries and pass radially through the cortex and midway between medullary rays
interlobular arteries
these are branches in the kidney from the interlobular arteries to supply one or more renal corpuscles
afferent arterioles
these are fenestrated capillaries inside the renal corpuscle
glomerulus
these vessels in the kidney carry unfiltered blood away from the corpuscle
efferent arterioles
these are arterioles and capillaries in the kidney from efferent arterioles near the cortico-medullary borders; they accompany the loops of Henle and collecting tubules
vasa rectae
what are the four components of the excretory pathways of the kidneys?
(1) minor calices
(2) major calices
(3) renal pelvis
(4) ureter
this tube conveys urine from the kidneys to the bladder via several periastic waves per minute
ureters
this organ is a multi-layered smooth muscle bag
urinary bladder
what are the three nerve supplies to the kidney?
(1) thoracic splanchnic sympathetics
(2) lumbar splanchnic sympathetics
(3) sacral parasympathetics
what nerves of the kidney contract bladder muscle and relax the sphincter muscles?
parasympathetics
what nerve of the kidney relax the bladder and contract the urethral sphincter?
lumbar splanchnic sympathetics
developmentally, the urinary system arises from the __ __
intermediate mesoderm
this is the first kidney that forms that is not functional and disappears by day 25
pronephros
this is the second kidney structure that develops, and is partially functional in humans; the tubules arise on either side of the vertebral column from the upper thoracic region
mesonephros
the definitive kidney; it forms around day 28
metanephros
if there is a drop in fluid volume in the blood, what does the kidney secrete in order to regulate blood pressure?
renin
this organ is secondary lymphoid; it has several functions including lymphocyte proliferation, antibody secretion, destruction of red blood cells, and platelet storage
spleen
what are the five functions of the spleen?
(1) proliferation of lymphocytes in response to antigen stimulation
(2) antibody secretion by plasma cells
(3) destruction of senescent red blood cells
(4) recycling of iron from destroyed RBCs
(5) storage for platelets
this organ lies in the upper left quadrant of the abdomen against the diaphragm, covered by a thick capsule; it is brick red due to the abundance of red blood cells, with scattered small white spots
spleen
this pulp of the spleen consists of a complex interconnecting vascular sinus system separated by cords of reticular cells, some plasma cells and lymphocytes
red
this pulp of the spleen is lymphoid nodules and mature lymphocytes; there is no extravasated blood of local blood vessels; appears white because of dense population of lymphocytes
white
what are the three muscles of the posterior abdominal wall?
(1) quadratus lumborum
(2) psoas major
(3) psoas minor
what are the 8 arteries that supply the posterior abdominal wall?
(1) inferior phrenic arteries
(2) superior suprarenal arteries
(3) middle suprarenal arteries
(4) 1st to 4th lumbar arteries
(5) iliolumbar arteries
(6) renal arteries (inferior suprarenal arteries)
(7) testicular/ovarian arteries
(8) middle sacral arteries
what are the 10 nerves that supply the posterior abdominal wall?
(1) subcostal
(2) iliohypogastric
(3) ilioinguinal
(4) genitofemoral
(5) lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
(6) femoral
(7) obturator
(8) accessory obturator
(9) lumbosacral trunk
(10) sympathetic chain
what spinal level is the subcostal nerve from?
T12
what spinal level are the iliohypogastric and ilioinguinal nerves from?
L1
what spinal levels is the genitofemoral nerve from?
L1-L2
what spinal levels is the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh from?
L2-L3
what spinal levels is the femoral nerve from?
L2-L4
what spinal levels is the obturator nerve from?
L2-L3
what spinal levels is the accessory obturator nerve from?
L3-L4
what spinal levels is the lumbosacral trunk from?
L4-L5
at what week are the gonads induced to develop by the primordial germ cells that migrate from the yolk sack to populate the mesenchyme of the posterior body wall?
week 5
the male and female genital system are virtually identical until the end of what week?
week 6
male development is induced by a transcription factor on the Y chromosome that results in the production of what factor?
testis determining factor (TDF)
this is the male gonad invested in the scrotum
testis
the function of this male reproductive structure is to produce sperm and secrete testosterone
testis
this hormone is responsible for the development and maintenance of the secondary sex characteristics of maleness
testosterone
what three ducts do the sperm leave the testis through in males?
(1) ductuli efferentes
(2) duct of the epididymis
(3) ductus deferens
what are the three sources of blood supply to the testis?
(1) testicular artery
(2) testicular vein
(3) pampiniform plexus
what are the two sources of innervation to the testis?
(1) sympathetic efferents
(2) sympathetic afferents
what do the sympathetic efferents of the testis convey?
vasomotor information
what do the sympathetic afferents of the testis convey?
pain
this duct of the testis provides maturation and storage of the sperm
epididymis
this duct of the testis provides a passageway to to the urethra for the sperm
ductus deferens
these vesicles of the testis provide nutritive components for the sperm
seminal vesicles
this is the male organ of copulation; it has a body and root
penis
this is a sac formed by the continuation fo the skin and superficial fascia of the abdominal wall and contains the testes
scrotum
what are the seven layers of the scrotal sac from outside in?
(1) skin
(2) tunica dartos (dartos muscle)
(3) external spermatic fascia
(4) cremaster muscle and fascia
(5) internal spermatic fascia
(6) parietal layer of tunica vaginalis
(7) visceral layer of tunica vaginalis
what is the nerve that supplies sensory on the external genitalia to the penis?
pudendal nerve
what spinal levels does the pudendal nerve come from?
S2-S4
what nerves of the penis sense pain?
sympathetics from the hypogastric plexus
what nerves of the penis sense vasomotor and parasympathetic input?
pelvic splanchnics
what levels are the pelvic splanchnic nerves from?
S2-S4
what type of autonomic nerves are responsible for erection by dilating the arteries and enabling the cavernous tissue to fill with blood?
parasympathetics
what type of autonomic nerves function in ejaculation and also to close the internal vesical sphincter to prevent retrograde passage of the ejaculate into the bladder?
sympathetics
what are the regional lymph nodes to the testes?
abdominal nodes
what lymph nodes does scrotal lymph drain into?
inguinal nodes
the source of oocytes and hormones in the female reproductive system
ovary
the ovary is suspended from the broad ligament of the uterus by what structure?
mesovarium
these are bilateral tubes in the female reproductive system extending from the uterus to the ovary and function in gamete transportation and fertilization
uterine/fallopian tubes
this is a pear shaped hollow organ in the female reproductive system with muscualr walls; life support for developing embryo and fetus
uterus
this is the female organ of copulation; it passes through the urogenital diaphragm and begins with an ostium and ends with a recess around the vaginal part of the uterine cervix
vagina
what vessels serve the pelvis region?
internal iliac arteries
what branch of the internal iliac artery supplies the walls of the pelvis and the gluteal region?
posterior
what branch of the internal iliac artery supplies the pelvic viscera?
anterior
are the pelvic viscera intraperitonal or retroperitoneal?
retroperitoneal
are the ovary and tubes intraperitoneal or retroperitoneal?
intraperitoneal
this is a muscular layer that supports the abdominal and pelvic viscera, and is especially important when abdominal pressure is increased
pelvic diaphragm
what are the two muscles that comprise the pelvic diaphragm?
(1) levator ani
(2) coccygeus
this structure is critical in maintaining normal function of the deeper portion to the voluntary external anal sphincter
puborectal sling
what muscle may be weak in someone who has stress urinary incontinence?
obturator internus
what is the anterior boundary of the perineum?
pubic symphysis
what is the lateral boundary of the perineum?
ischial tuberosities on both sides
what is the posterior boundary of the perineum?
tip of the coccyx
what two triangles is it customary to divide the perineum into by joining the ischial tuberosities by an imaginary line?
anal triangle (posterior)
urogenital triangle (anterior)
what is the area called that lies betwen the layers of superior and inferior fascia that enclose the sphincter urethrae and deep transverse perineal muscles?
deep perineal pouch
this pouch is superficia lto the deep pouch and contains structures forming the root and crura of penis/clitoris and the muscles that cover these structures as well as the scrotum/labia.
superficial perineal pouch
what fascia bounds the superficial perineal pouch inferiorly and laterally?
Colles' fascia
what fascia bounds the superficial perineal pouch superiorly?
inferior fascia of the urogenital diaphragm
this is a triangular shaped musculo-fascial layer that fills the gap of the pubic arch
urogenital diaphragm
what four muscles are contained in the superficial perineal pouch in both the male and female?
(1) bulbospongiosus
(2) ischiocavernosus
(3) superficial transverse perineal
(4) deep transverse perineal
what are the 8 contents of the posterior mediastinum?
(1) thoracic aorta
(2) thoracic superior and inferior vena cavae
(3) vagus nerve
(4) esophagus
(5) esophageal plexus
(6) azygos vein system
(7) thoracic duct
(8) sympathetic trunk, splanchnic nerves
what structure of the kidney controls filtration of plasma from the capillaries?
Bowman's capsule
from what four places are the sympathetic nerves of the kidneys derived from?
(1) celiac plexus
(2) lesser splanchnic nerve
(3) least splanchnic nerve
(4) aorticorenal ganglion
from what two places are the parasympathetic nerves of the kidneys derived from?
(1) vagus nerve
(2) pelvic splanchnic presynaptics
what type of fibers does the renal plexus contain (that senses pain)?
visceral afferents of T10-L1
the fascia covering the quadratus lumborum is also considered to be what other structure?
anterior layer of thoracolumbar fascia
the upper margin of the thoracolumbar fascia that extends from the tranvserse process of L1 to the apex and lower border of the 12th rib
lateral arcuate ligament
what duct regresses in the male during reproductive development?
paramesonephric
what duct regresses in the female during reproductive development?
mesonephric
what two things do the sex cords in the male develop into during reproductive development?
(1) seminiferous tubules
(2) rete testis
in male reproductive development, testosterone stimulates the development of the mesonephric duct into what two structures?
(1) vas deferens
(2) seminal vesicles
during female reproductive development, the promordial germ cells form the follicle cells of what structure?
ovary
what three things does the paramesonephric duct develop into during female reproductive development?
(1) oviduct
(2) uterus
(3) vagina
what division of the ANS mediates male erection?
parasympathetic
what division of the ANS mediates male emission and ejaculation?
sympathetic
afferent (pain) fibers from the intraperitoneal viscera of the female reproductive system goes via what nerves to T11-T12?
(1) uterovaginal plexus
(2) pelvic plexus
(3) hypogastric nerves
(4) superior hypogastric plexus
(5) lower aortic plexus
(6) lumbar splanchnic nerves
afferent (pain) fibers from the subperitoneal structures of the female reproductive system (cervix, upper vagina) goes via what nerves?
pelvic splanchnic nerves (S2-S4)
this structure in the pelvis forms the funnel-shaped floor of the pelvic cavity and the medial slope of the V shaped roof of each ischiorectal fossa
pelvic diaphragm
what type of ANS fibers innervate the anal canal and internal anal sphincter?
sympathetic nerves from inferiro hypogastric plexus
what nerve innervates the external anal sphincter?
pudendal nerve
what are the four contents of the anal triangle?
(1) anal canal
(2) internal anal sphincter
(3) external anal sphincter
(4) ischiorectal fossa
what is contained within the ischiorectal fossa?
pudendal canal (containing pudendal artery, vein, and nerve)
what are the five layers of the urogenital triangle?
(1) skin and subcutaneous fatty fascia
(2) membranous layer
(3) deep fascia (in males-Buck's fascia)
(4) superficial perineal pouch
(5) urogenital diaphragm (deep pouch)
what are the seven things that are contained within the superficial perineal pouch?
(1) root and associated muscles of penis
(2) root of clitoris and associated muscles
(3) bulb of vestibule and associated muscles
(4) superficial transverse perineal muscles
(5) branches of internal pudendal vessels
(6) branches of pudendal nerves
(7) bulbourethral glands (female)
this is a triangular shaped musculofascial layer that fills the gap of the pubic arch that is formed by two layers of fascia
urogenital diaphragm
what are the two layers of fascia that form the urogenital diaphragm?
(1) inferior (perineal membrane)
(2) superior
what is the area between the inferior and superior fascial layers of the urogenital diaphragm called?
deep perineal pouch
what two muscles are mostly working during quiet inspiration and expiration?
(1) external intercostals
(2) diaphragm
what seven muscles are working during forced inspiration?
(1) scalenes
(2) SCM
(3) all intercostals
(4) serratus posterior superior
(5) levators costarum
(6) sacrospinalis
(7) diaphragm
what four muscles are working during forced expiration?
(1) quadratus lumborum
(2) all intercostals
(3) serratus posterior inferior
(4) all abdominal muscles
what does the endocardial tube become in the developing heart?
the epithelial lining of the heart
in the developing heart, around day 23, this structure arises when the heart bends on itself, and it is considered a common ventricular and atrial region
bulboventricular loop
what is the relation of the kidney to the peritoneum?
primary retroperitoneal
what is the relation of the pancreas to the peritoneum?
secondary retroperitoneal
what ist he relation fo the transverse colon to the peritoneum?
primary retroperitoneal
what is the relation of the ascending/descending colon to the peritoneum?
secondary retroperitoneal
what is the relation of the liver to the peritoneum?
primary intraperitoneal
what is the relation of the spleen to the peritoneum?
primary intraperitoneal
what is the relation of the duodenum and jejunum to the peritoneum?
primary intrperitoneal
what is the relation of 80% of the duodenum to the peritoneum?
secondary retroperitoneal
what are the 10 structures that are primary retroperitoneal structures?
(1) kidneys
(2) ureter
(3) bladder
(4) adrenal glands
(5) aorta
(6) inferior vena cava
(7) esophagus
(8) prostate
(9) vagina
(10) rectum
what are the four structures that are secondary retroperitoneal structures?
(1) pancreas
(2) duodenum (except first proximal segment which is intraperitoneal)
(3) ascending colon
(4) descending colon
what are the 10 structures that are intraperitoneal?
(1) stomach
(2) liver
(3) gallbladder
(4) spleen
(5) jejunum
(6) ileum
(7) transverse colon
(8) sigmoig colon
(9) uterus
(10) ovaries