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413 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
how many layers is the digestive tract composed of?
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4
|
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ths innermost layer of the digestive tract specialized to carry out various digestive functions, including absorption, secretion and protection
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mucosa
|
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what are the three layers of the mucosa layer of the digestive tract?
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(1) Epithelium
(2) Lamina propria (3) Muscular mucosae |
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what type of epithelium is in the mucosa layer of the digestive tract?
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simple columnar
|
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this is the loose, cellular connective tissue layer of the mucosa layer of the digestive tract that contains lymphatics, small vessels, and in some areas diffuse collection of lymphocytes
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lamina propria
|
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this is the layer of smooth muscle fibers in the mucosa layer of the digestive tract
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muscularis mucosae
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what are the four layers of the digestive tract?
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(1) mucosa
(2) submucosa (3) tunica muscularis (4) tunica serosa |
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this layer of the digestive tract is a layer of moderately dense irregular connective tissue with few cells; it carries major distributing blood vessels, glands, nerves, and nerve plexuses, lymphatics and glands in duodenum
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submucosa
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this is the layer of the digestive tract that has mostly mechanical functions (tonus, transport, mixing); in the stomach, the stucture is more complex with three layers
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tunica muscularis
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what is the shape of the inner layer of the tunica muscularis?
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circular
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what is the shape of the outer layer of the tunica muscularis?
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longitudinal
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how many layers does the tunica muscularis have in the stomach?
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3
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this is hte layer of the digestive tract that is a thin layer of loose connective tissue covered by simple squamous epithelium, continuous with the mesentery
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tunica serosa
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this component of the GI tract starts at the level of the larynx, passes through the diaphragm and continues in the stomach; functions to move food into the stomach
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esophagus
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what are the three anatomically important regions that the esophagus passes through?
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(1) neck
(2) posterior mediastinum (3) abdomen |
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what type of muscle is contained in the upper 2/3 of the esophagus?
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skeletal
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what type of muscle is contained in the lower 1/3 of the esophagus?
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smooth
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this organ is located in the upper left area of the abdomen; continues digestive process begun in the oral cavity and converst it into a viscous mass
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stomach
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what two things does the stomach secrete into ingested food to continue the digestive process?
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(1) hydrochloric acid
(2) pepsin |
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through muscular activity, the stomach converts ingested food into this viscous mass
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chyme
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the stomach secretes an intrinsic factor for absorption of what vitamin from the ileum?
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vitamin B12
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this portion of the stomach is right where the esophagus enters the fundic portion; upper bulging area above the entrance of the esophagus body
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cardiac portion
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a narrowed area of the stomach that enters the duodenum and contains the pyloric valve
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pylorus
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the mucosa of the stomach contains what types of glands, whose cells are responsible for secreting various products?
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simple tubular
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the main function of this organ is to absorb nutrients, electrolytes, and water, and also moves chyme forward and continues digestion with enzymes secreted by the liver, pancreas, and its own intrinsic glands
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small intestine
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how many divisions are there of the pharynx?
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3
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what nerve is responsible for stimulating the release of HCl and pepsin in the stomach?
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vagus (parasympathetic input)
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what type of input is responsible for sphincter function and visceral pain?
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sympathetic
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what three structures increase the surface area of the small intestine tremedously?
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(1) circular plicae
(2) villi intestinales (3) microvilli |
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what six structures does the small intestinal mucosa form?
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(1) plicae ciruclares
(2) villi intestinales (3) glands (4) epithelial cells with microvilli (5) entero-endocrine cells (6) goblet (mucus) cells |
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how many meters long is the small intestine?
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6
|
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how many parts are there of the small intestine, and what are their names?
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3
duodenum, jejunum, ileum |
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this part of the small intestine is a C shaped structure, most of which is attached to theposterior abdominal wall; it has four parts
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duodenum
|
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what are the four parts of the duodenum of the small intestine?
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(1) superior
(2) descending (3) horizontal (4) ascending |
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this is the first of two parts of the small intestine that is referred to as the mesenteric small intestine; it is attached to the posterior abdominal wall by folds of the mesentery and moves freely in the abdomen
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jejunum
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this is a direct continuation of the jejunum that is slightly smalle rin diameter, with thinner walls and lower folds inside; the mucosa contains lymphatic nodules (Payer's patches) and is attached to the posterior abdominal wall via the mesentery
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ileum
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what are the lymphatic nodules called that are found in the ileum portion of the small intestine?
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Payer's patches
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the function of this organ is to absorb water and remaining salts from the rest of the digestive tract
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large intestine (colon)
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what surface of the large intestine contains no villi and is smooth, and most of the epithelial cells are goblet cells?
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lumenal
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the muscularis externa of the colon is arranged in three groups called the __ __
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taenie coli
|
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technically, how many parts does the large intestine have?
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7
|
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this part of the large intestine meets with the ileum at the iliocecal vale; extending from its lateroposterior wall is the appendix;
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cecum
|
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this extends from the lateroposterior wall of the cecum, and is found where the three taniae come together at the base of the cecum
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appendix
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this part of the large intestine is a fixed, immovable part that continues upward towards the right hypochondrium
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ascending colon
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this part of the large intestine is suspended from the right colic flexure to the left colic flexure; it is freely attached, movable, and suspended from the posterior abdominal wall by mesentery
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transverse colon
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this part of the large intestine is from the left colic flexure down to the brim of the pelvis, where it becomes the sigmoid; it is attached to the posterior abdominal wall
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descending colon
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this part of the large intestine is S shaped and freely movable; goes down from the iliac crest down to the true pelvis
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sigmoid colon
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this part of the large intestine is thrown up into the longitudinal folds and has sphincters in order to keep it closed
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rectum and anal canal
|
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what line do the system of the portal veins and the inferior vena cava communicate at?
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pectinate line
|
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what type of muscle is the internal sphincter of the anus?
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smooth
|
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what nerve innervates the external sphincter of the anus?
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pudendal nerve
|
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what nerve innervates the levator ani muscle?
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pudendal nerve
|
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what type of muscle is the external sphincter of the anus?
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skeletal
|
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this organ is found in the upper right quadrant of the abdomen; it is the largest organ in the body after the skin, and has both endocrine and exocrine functions
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liver
|
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what are the 5 functions of the liver?
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(1) converts glucose to glycogen, stores vitamins
(2) bile secretion (3) protein synthesis (4) metabolism (5) detoxification |
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what is important in emulsifying lipids brought in by the digestive tract, and also functions to solubilize cholesterol and promote its secretion from the body?
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bile
|
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what are three proteins that the liver produces and secretes as an endocrine function?
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(1) albumin
(2) prothrombin (3) fibrinogen |
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what is the process of the liver converting lipids and amino acids into glucose?
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gluconeogenesis
|
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what product does the liver form when it deaminates amino acids; it is a nontoxic excretory product excreted by the kidney
|
urea
|
|
what are the three steps in inactivating drugs by the liver?
|
(1) oxidation
(2) methylation (3) conjugation |
|
what is the thin capsule of regular dense connective tissue that surrounds the liver?
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Glisson's capsule
|
|
where is Glisson's capsule the thickest on the liver?
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hilum
|
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what two things enter and exit at the hylum of the liver?
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the portal vein and hepatic artery enter
right and left hepatic ducts exit |
|
what is the basic structural component of the liver?
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lobule
|
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what are the two sources of the blood supply to the liver?
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(1) portal vein system
(2) arterial system |
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this system carries oxygen poor but nutrient rich blood from the mesenteric veins of the gut to the liver
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portal vein system
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what vein do the hepatic veins drain into?
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inferior vena cava
|
|
from the preterminal and terminal branches of the portal vein system that run around liver lobules, the blood enters the lobule, where it runs between plates of liver parenchymal cels in irregular channels called __
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sinusoids
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this substance is produced in liver cells and flows in the opposite direction of the blood and into the hepatic duct
|
bile
|
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this organ is a greenish colored sac which lies in the depression of the inferior surface of the liver bweten the right hepatic lobe and quadrate lobe
|
gallbladder
|
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what duct drains bile from the gallbladder?
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cystic
|
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what duct drains bile from the liver?
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common hepatic duct
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what two ducts come together to form the common bile duct?
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cystic and common hepatic
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where does the common bile duct enter the descending duodenum?
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the major duodenal papilla (Vateri)
|
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what two ducts enter the duodenum at the major duodenal papilla (Vateri)?
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(1) common bile duct
(2) pancreatic duct |
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this organ does both exocrine and endocrine secretion; it is the principle enzyme producing accessory gland of the digestive system
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pancreas
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the excretory product of this organ includes a wide variety of enzymes capable of breaking down nearly all organic constituents of food (proteins, carbohydrates, fats, and nucleic acids)
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pancreas
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scattered patchets of what type of cells in the pancreas secrete insulin and glucagons and other hormones?
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islets of Langerhans
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what are the four parts of the pancreas?
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(1) head
(2) uncinate process (3) body (4) tail |
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the exocrine secretory units of the pancreas are organized in grape-like clusters of __ which secrete into a branching duct system
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acini
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what artery branches off the celiac trunk and supplies the left side of the lesser curvature of the stomach?
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left gastric artery
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what branch of the splenic artery (which branches off the celiac trunk) supplies the greater curvature of the stomach to the greater omentum?
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left gastroepiploic artery
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what artery branches off the common hepatic artery and supplies the right side of the lesser curvature of the stomach?
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right gastric artery
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what branch of the gastroduodenal artery (which branches off the common hepatic artery) supplies the right greater curvature of the omentum?
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right gastroepiploic artery
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what branch of the gastroduodenal artery (that branches off the common hepatic artery) supplies the upper half of the duodenum and head of the pancreas?
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superior pancreaticoduodenal artery
|
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from what nerves does the sympathetic input to the GI system come (up to the left colic flexure)?
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thoracic splanchnics
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from what nerves does the sympathetic input to the GI system come (after the left colic flexure to the anus)?
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lumbar splanchnics (L1, L2)
|
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what nerve takes care of parasympathetic input to the gut as far as the left colic flexure?
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vagus
|
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what nerves give parasympathetic input to the gut after the left colic flexure?
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sacral parasympathetics/splanchnics (S2-S4)
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the lining of the gut and its associated organs is derived from what embryonic structure?
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endoderm
|
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muscle, connective tissue, and other layers of the gut and its associated organs are derived from what embryonic structure?
|
splanchnic mesoderm
|
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what is the future anal opening called in an embryo?
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cloaka
|
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the embryonic gut is divided into how many parts, and what are their names?
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3
foregut, midgut, and hindgut |
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the passage of what substance stimulates gut development in the embryo?
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amniotic fluid
|
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when does the cranial end of the embryo open?
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3-5 weeks
|
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when does the cloacal membrane rupture in the embryo to allow the passage of amniotic fluid?
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7 weeks
|
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the remnants of the ventral mesentery from embryonic development exist from what level?
|
from the umbilical vein upward to the diaphragm
|
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the aorta lies in the posterior abdominal wall in the embryo, where how many unpaired arteries arise? what are their names?
|
three
(1) celiac (2) superior mesenteric (3) inferior mesenteric |
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what division of the gut is associated with the celiac trunk arising from the aorta?
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foregut
|
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which division of the gut is associated with the superior mesenteric artery arising from the aorta?
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midgut
|
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which division of the gut is associated with the inferior mesentery artery arising from the aorta?
|
hindgut
|
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what three organs develop in the embryo as an outpouching of the descending duodenum between the foregut and midgut?
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(1) liver
(2) pancreas (3) gallbladder |
|
what are the four structures that are secondary retriperitoneal part of the GI tract?
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(1) most of the duodenum
(2) ascending colon (3) descending colon ($) pancreas |
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which thoracic vertebra contains both a full facet and a demi facet for articulation with the head of the rib?
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T1
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which thoracic vertebrae contain a demi-facet for articulation with the head of the rib?
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T2-T8
|
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which thoracic vertebra contains a superior demi-facet for articulation with the head of the rib?
|
T9
|
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which thoracic vertebrae contain full facets for articulation with the head of the rib?
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T1, T10-T12
|
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what range of angle do the spinous processes of T2-T4 sit at?
|
20-40º downward
|
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what range of angle do the spinous processes of T3-T8 sit at?
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40-60º downward
|
|
what thoracic vertebrae's spinous processes are more straightly oriented?
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T9-T12
|
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this process laterally comes off the junction point where the pedicle and laminae meet
|
transverse process
|
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the end of the tranverse processes in the thoracic region articulate with the __ of its rib
|
tubercle
|
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what are the three components of a rib?
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(1) vertebral
(2) body (3) sternal |
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this part of the vertebral portion of the rib articulates with the transverse process of the same numbered vertebrae
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tubercle
|
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this part of the vertebral portion of the rib articulates with the vertebral body of the thoracic column
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head
|
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what are the three structures found in the vertebral portion of the rib?
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head, neck, and tubercle
|
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this facet of the rib is for the inferior costal facet of the thoracic vertebra numbered one number lower than the rib
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superior articular facet
|
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this facet of the rib is for the superior costal facet of the thoracic vertebra of the same number as the rib
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inferior articular facet
|
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this facet of the rib is for the transverse costal facet of the thoracic vertebra of the same number as the rib
|
articular facet of tubercle
|
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this ligament surrounds the head of the rib and articulation with the vertebrae
|
radiate ligament
|
|
this ligament runs from the transverse process of the thoracic vertebrae to the rib
|
lateral costotransverse ligament
|
|
this ligament runs from the superior aspect of one rib to the transverse process of the thoracic vertebra above it
|
superior costotransverse ligament
|
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this ligament runs fro transverse process to transverse process in the thoracic spine
|
intertransverse ligament
|
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what surrounds the articulation of the vertebral portion of the rib with the transverse process of the thoracic vertebra?
|
an articular capsule
|
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what type of joints are the articulations of the vertebral portion of the rib with the transverse processes of the thoracic vertebra?
|
synovial joints
|
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this structure on the body of the rib lies just sternal to the articular facets
|
rib angle
|
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this structure on the body of the rib houses the intercostal veins
|
inferior costal groove
|
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what are the two structures found on the body of the rib?
|
rib angle
inferior costal groove |
|
what is the order of structures that the inferior costal groove of the rib houses, from superior to inferior?
|
Vein
artery nerve |
|
what two ribs do not articulate with the sternum and are considered "floating"?
|
11 and 12
|
|
what ribs are considered true ribs because they articulate with the sternum?
|
ribs 1-7
|
|
what ribs are considered false ribs because they do not articulate with the sternum?
|
ribs 8-12
|
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the first rib is fused with the manubrium of the sternum as what type of joint?
|
synarthrosis
|
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the 2nd rib articulates at the stenral angle as what type of joint?
|
synovial joint
|
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the 3rd-7th ribs articulate with the body of the sternum as what type of joints?
|
synovial
|
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the 8-10th ribs articulate with the ribs above as what type of joint?
|
synovial
|
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these ribs are considered false ribs because they articulate with the costal cartilages above
|
ribs 8-10
|
|
where do most fractures of ribs occur?
|
where bone meets cartilage (most flexible here)
|
|
this is the superior portion of the stenrum that articulates with rib 1, part of rib 2, and the clavicle; the inferior portion fuses with the body to form the sternal angle
|
manubrium
|
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the inferior portion of the manubrium and the body of the sternum come together to form what structure?
|
sternal angle
|
|
this portion of the sternum has four segments that fuse between puberty and the 25th year; superior portion fuses with manubrium to form the sternal angle
|
body
|
|
this portion of the sternum is inferior to the body and partially articulates with rib 7
|
xiphoid process
|
|
what is the fiber direction of the external intercostal muscles?
|
downward and forward
|
|
what is the fiber direction of the internal intercostal muscles?
|
downward and backward
|
|
what is the fiber direction of the innermost intercostal muscles?
|
downward and posteriorly
|
|
what is the fiber direction of the subcostal muscles?
|
downward and medially
|
|
what is the fiber direction of the transversus thoracis muscle?
|
upward and outward
|
|
what is the fiber direction of the levatores costarum muscle?
|
downward and outward
|
|
what are the four accessory muscles of the thorax?
|
(1) abdominals
(2) sternocleidomastoid (3) quadratus lumborum (4) sacrospinalis |
|
what nerves are the ventral rami of the first 11 pairs of thoracic nerves?
|
intercostal nerves
|
|
each intercostal nerve gives rise to what two branches?
|
(1) lateral cutaneous branch
(2) anterior cutaneous branch |
|
this type of respiration is accomplished mostly by contraction of the diaphragm and external intercostals which increases vertical height and A-P and lateral diameter due to bucket handle movement of the ribs
|
quiet inspiration and expiration
|
|
this type of respiration is when the first two ribs are elevated by contraction of scalenes and SCM, all intercostals contract, serratus posterior superior, levatores costarum, sacrospinalis, and diaphragm contract
|
forced inspiration
|
|
this type of respiration occurs when the last two ribs are pulled down by quadratus lumborum, intercostal constract, serratu sposterior inferior, abdominal musculature contracts and releases intraabdominal pressure, which pulls down on ribs and sternum and pushes upward in diaphragm increasing pleural cavity pressure
|
forced expiration
|
|
what is the first functioning system of the embryo?
|
cardiovascular
|
|
at what day in development are the cardiogenic cords in the cardiogenic areas of the embryo formed?
|
18th day
|
|
by what day in development do the angiogenic cells canalize to form the endocardiac heart tubes fuse together to form the pericardial cavity?
|
21st or 22nd day
|
|
after day 21/22 of development, the heart elongates and developes what five structures?
|
(1) truncus anteriosus
(2) bulbous cordis (3) ventricle (4) atrium (5) sinus venosus |
|
what forms from the splanchnic mesenchyne and surrounds the developing heart tube during development?
|
myoepicardial mantle
|
|
the myoepicardial mantle and the heart tube are separated by what substance?
|
cardiac jelly
|
|
the myoepicardial mantle differentiates into what two structures?
|
myocardium and epicardium
|
|
the endocardial tube during development becomes what lining of the heart?
|
epithelial
|
|
at what day of development does the heart bend on itself, forming the bulboventricular loop (common ventricular and atrial region)?
|
23rd day
|
|
during what weeks of development does formation of the interatrial and ventricular walls occur?
|
4-8th weeks
|
|
what structures are divided into the aorta and pulmonary trunks during development?
|
bulbous cordis and truncus anteriosus
|
|
this developmental defect is a defect of the foramen ovale; the blood flow is from the left to the right (increased blood flow to right atrium), pulmonary HTN, congestive heart failure, atrial arrhythmias, and increased risk of stroke
|
atrial septal defect
|
|
this developmental defect is when blood flows from the left ventricle to the right ventricle, and is a serious septal defect
|
ventricular septal defect
|
|
this developmental defect occurs when there is a ventricular septal defect, and the overriding aorta straddles the VSD, causing a pulmonary stenosis (increase in pressure) and R ventricular hypertrophy (and ultimately R ventricular failure)
|
tetralogy of Fallot
|
|
where does the heart lie in the chest?
|
middle mediastinum
|
|
this is the area above the heart
|
superior mediastinum
|
|
this is the area in front of the heart
|
anterior mediastinum
|
|
this is the area behind the heart
|
posterior mediastinum
|
|
the apex of the left ventricle of the heart lies at what intercostal space, 3-3.5 inches from midline?
|
5th
|
|
this type of pericardium is the outer sac that surrounds the heart and great vessels, and is attached to the diaphragm and sternum
|
fibrous
|
|
this type of pericardium has two parts, the parietal and visceral; lines the fibrous sac and the surface of heart and great vessels
|
serous pericardium
|
|
what are the two subdivisions of the serous pericardium?
|
(1) parietal
(2) visceral |
|
this layer of the serous pericardium lines the fibrous sac
|
parietal
|
|
this layer of the serous pericardium lines the surface of the heart and the great vessels
|
visceral
|
|
the space between the two sacs (fibrous and serous pericardium) is filled with fluid and is known as what cavity?
|
pericardial cavity
|
|
this reflection of the serous pericardium is a space in which the finger can be passed behind the aorta, pulmonary trunk, and in front of the atria
|
transverse sinus
|
|
this reflection of the serous pericardium is a cul-de-sac where two fingers can enter the sinus between the right and left pulmonary veins, inferior vena cava on right and left atrium in front
|
oblique sinus
|
|
this groove on the outer surface of the heart houses the circumflex artery and coronary sinus
|
atrioventricular groove
|
|
this groove on the outer surface of the heart contains the left anterior descending artery
|
anterior interventricular groove
|
|
this groove on the outer surface of the heart contains the right posterior descending artery
|
posterior interventricular groove
|
|
this artery of the heart supplies the left atria, left ventricle, and portions of the septum
|
left coronary artery
|
|
what are the two branches of the left coronary artery?
|
(1) circumflex
(2) left anterior descending |
|
this artery of the heart supplies the right atrium, right ventricle, SA node, and the posterior portion of the L ventricle in 80-90% of hearts
|
right coronary artery
|
|
what are the four branches of the right coronary artery?
|
(1) branch to the SA node
(2) circumflex (3) posterior interventricular (4) marginal |
|
what are the three cardiac veins?
|
(1) small cardiac
(2) middle cardiac (3) great cardiac |
|
what cardiac vein helps to form the coronary sinus, which dumps into the right atrium?
|
great cardiac vein
|
|
what cardiac vein parallels the right coronary artery and brings blood from the apex of the heart?
|
middle cardiac vein
|
|
what external vessels of the heart bring blood from the lungs?
|
pulmonary veins
|
|
what external vessels of the heart take blood to the lungs?
|
pulmonary arteries
|
|
what two external vessels of the heart dump into the right atrium?
|
superior and inferior vena cava
|
|
during what phase of the heart beat are the valves of the heart open?
|
diastole
|
|
during what phase of the heart beat are the valves of the heart closed?
|
systole
|
|
oxygenated blood returns from the placenta in the __ __ in the prenate
|
umbilical vein
|
|
from the inferior vena cava, in a prenate, the blood is direction through the __ __ to the L atrium; it mixes with deoxygenated blood returning from the lungs via the pulmonary veins
|
foramen ovale
|
|
blood from the head and neck that comes in through the superior vena cava in a prenate passes through the R ventricle and exits the heart through the pulmonary trunk; the majority of the blood bypasses the lungs and gets to the aorta via the __ __
|
ductus arteriosis
|
|
what is the SA node beat rate?
|
60-80 bpm
|
|
what is the AV node beat rate?
|
40-50 bpm
|
|
what is the Purkinje fiber beat rate?
|
30 bpm
|
|
where does sympathetic control of the heart come from directly?
|
directly from T1-T4 spinal nerves
|
|
where does the sympathetic control of the heart come from indirectly?
|
cervical ganglia
|
|
the action of this control of the heart is to speed up the heart rate and force of the contraction
|
sympathetic
|
|
the sympathetic control of the heart ends in the __ __
|
cardiac plexus
|
|
what nerve supplies parasympathetic control of the heart?
|
vagus
|
|
the action of this stimulation of the heart is to slow down the heart rate and decrease the force of the contraction
|
parasympathetic
|
|
aspiration into the lungs is usually through what side of the bronchi?
|
right side (because left side is at more of an acute angle)
|
|
deoxygenated blood comes into the lungs via what vessel?
|
pulmonary artery
|
|
oxygenated blood leaves the lungs via what vessel?
|
pulmonary veins
|
|
how many lobes does the right lung have, and what are their names?
|
3 lobes, superior middle and inferior
|
|
how many lobes does the left lung have, and what are their names?
|
2 lobes, superior and inferior
|
|
this is a portion of the left lung superior lobe that acts like the right middle lobe
|
lingula
|
|
what fissure separates the superior and inferior lobes of the left lung?
|
oblique fissure
|
|
what fissure separates the superior and middle lobes of the right lung?
|
horizontal fissure
|
|
what fissure separates the middle and inferior lobes of the right lung?
|
oblique fissure
|
|
the development of the lungs occurs as an outpouching of what structure?
|
foregut
|
|
at the root of the lung during development, the parietal and visceral pleura create a fold inferior to the root known as the __ __
|
pulmonary ligament
|
|
surfactant begins to be produced at __ weeks gestation
|
28
|
|
these are the spaces the lungs expand into when fully inflated (inspiration)
|
pleural spaces
|
|
these are the recesses where the ribs meet the diaphragm
|
costodiaphragmatic recesses
|
|
this is the area behind the sternum and anterior to the heart
|
costomedial recesses
|
|
nutritional blood supply to the bronchial walls is through __ vessels
|
bronchial
|
|
the posterior thoracic wall is composed of what five things?
|
(1) bones
(2) muscles (3) fascia (4) costal pleura (internally) (5) skin (externally) |
|
the posterior thoracic wall is in close relationship with the __ __, which lies posterior to the pericardium
|
posterior mediastinum
|
|
the posterior mediastinum is located anterior to what thoracic vertebrae?
|
T5-T12
|
|
the thoracic part of the descending aorta begins on the left side of the inferior border of the body of what vertebra?
|
T4
|
|
the descending aorta enters the abdominal cavity through what opening?
|
the aortic hiatus
|
|
the __ and __ descend on the descending aorta's right side and accompany it through the aortic hiatus into the abdomen
|
thoracic duct and azygos vein
|
|
what are the branches that come off of the descending aorta?
|
(1) intercostal arteries for ribs 3-11
(2) subcostal artery |
|
the first two intercostal artery branches arise from the __ trunk
|
costocervical
|
|
the esophagus descends into the posterior mediastinum passing __ and to the __ of the aortic arch
|
posterior, to the right of
|
|
the esophagus enters the abdominal cavity through what opening?
|
esophageal hiatus of the diaphragm
|
|
at what level is the esophageal hiatus of the diaphragm?
|
T10
|
|
at what level is the aortic hiatus of the diaphragm?
|
T12
|
|
what two things does the azygos system of veins on each side of the vertebral column drain?
|
(1) intercostal spaces
(2) mediastinal viscera |
|
each side of the azygos venous system is formed by the union of what two veins?
|
(1) subcostal vein
(2) ascending lumbar vein |
|
the normal azygos vein drains the right intercostal spaces and emptires into the __ just above the right atrium
|
superior vena cava
|
|
what vein drains the two upper intercostal spaces on the left side?
|
superior intercostal vein into the left brachiocephalic vein
|
|
what vein drains the left intercostal spaces 3-8?
|
accessory hemiazygous vein into the right azygous vein
|
|
what vein drains the left intercostal spaces 9-11?
|
hemiazygous vein and cross over to the right and drains into the azygos vein
|
|
would you insert a needle to perform a pleural tap above or below the upper margin of the rib?
|
ABOVE so as not to affect the intercostal vein, artery, and nerve
|
|
would you insert a needle to perform an intercostal nerve block above or below the lower margin of the rib?
|
below (to reach the intercostal nerve)
|
|
lymph drainage from the greater part of the body is returned to the venous system mainly by what structure?
|
thoracic duct
|
|
the thoracic duct is an upward continuation of what structure, a sack-like receptable for lymph from the abdominal and pelvic organs and walls?
|
cisterna chyli
|
|
the thoracic duct ascends into the thorax behind the aorta through the __ __ of the diaphragm
|
aortic hiatus
|
|
at the level of what vertebra does the thoracic duct pass posterior to the esophagus and exit the thorax on the left side in the superior mediastinum?
|
T5
|
|
where does the thoracic duct terminate?
|
the left venous angle
|
|
the left venous angle is at the union of what two veins?
|
left jugular and subclavian veins
|
|
at the thoracic duct termination, it receives lymphatic trunks from what three areas?
|
jugular, subclavian, and bronchomediastinal
|
|
what duct drains everything from the neck down except for the right arm and right thoracic region?
|
thoracic duct
|
|
what duct drains the right arm and right thoracic region?
|
right lymphatic duct
|
|
what does the right lympatic duct drain into?
|
the right venous angle
|
|
the sympathetic branches for the thoracic viscera are usually small and are __ __
|
post-ganglionic
|
|
the sympathetic branches that innervate the abdominal and pelvic viscera are gathered into three large nerves. WHat are their names?
|
Greater, lesser, and least splanchnic nerves
|
|
this nerve is formed from the T5-T9 sympathetic preganglionics; it perforates the diaphragmatic crura and terminates on post-ganglionic neurons int he celiac, superior mesenteric, and aorticorenal ganglia
|
greater splanchnic
|
|
what three ganglia do the greater and lesser splanchnic nerves terminate in?
|
(1) celiac
(2) superior mesenteric (3) aorticorenal |
|
this nerve is formed from sympathetic preganglionic nerves of T10-T11 and terminates on post-ganglionic neurons in the celiac, superior mesenteric, and aorticrenal ganglia
|
lesser splanchnic
|
|
this nerve is formed from the sympathetic preganglionic fibers of T12
|
least splanchnic
|
|
the parasympathetic system of the posterior thoracic wall is represented by what nerve?
|
vagus nerve
|
|
at the aortic arch, one branch of the vagus nerve turns under the arch and up the posterior side to reenter the neck as what nerve?
|
recurrent laryngeal nerve
|
|
the left vagus breaks up to lie on the anterior esophagus as the __ __ __ sending varous branches to the esophageal plexus and descends down into the abdomen to most of the digestive tract
|
anterior vagal trunk
|
|
what type of rami communicantes are found at the superior cervical ganglion?
|
ONLY GRAY
|
|
what are the only levels of the spine that a white rami communicantes exists in?
|
T1-L3 (sympathetic chain)
|
|
white rami communicantes carry what type of fibers?
|
preganglionic sympathetics
|
|
gray rami communicantes carry what type of fibers?
|
postganglionic sympathetics
|
|
what side of the body is the azygos vein located on?
|
right
|
|
this function of the kidney is to remove waste products of metabolism such as urea and creatinine
|
excretion
|
|
the kidney is an endocrine organ that secretes what three products (among others)?
|
(1) renin
(2) erythropoeitin (3) prostaglandins |
|
on the middle of the kidney's concave side is the __, which is the entry and exit point for blood vessels, nerves, and the beginning of the ureter
|
hilus
|
|
where does the ureter of the kidney begin?
|
renal pelvis
|
|
this portion of the kidney lobe contains all the renal corpuscles and the convoluted portions of the nephron
|
cortex
|
|
this portion of the kidney lobe contains the pyramid and renal columns
|
medulla
|
|
this portion of the renal medulla contains the straight portions of the nephrons (loops of Henle) as well as the collecting ducts (tubules)
|
pyramid
|
|
this part of the renal medulla contains the nephrons
|
renal columns
|
|
what is the functional part of the kidney?
|
nephron
|
|
this is the functional part of the kidney that is a tubule open at one end where it enters the collecting duct and closed at the other end at Bowman's capsule
|
nephron
|
|
about how many nephrons are there in one kidney?
|
1 million
|
|
this capsule in the nephron controls filtration of the plasma from capillaries
|
Bowman's capsule
|
|
this portion of the nephron reabsorbs glucose, amino acids, lactic acid, citric acid, and various other ions
|
proximal convoluted tubule
|
|
this portion of the nephron is the descending limb and does water reabsorption
|
loop of Henle
|
|
this portion of the nephron is responsible for reabsorption of sodium and chloride ions
|
ascending loop
|
|
this portion of the nephron continues the reabsorption of water and sodium and secretes hydrogen and potassium ions
|
distal convoluted tubule
|
|
this portion of the nephron arch together to form larger tubules that open at the cribriform area of the renal pappilla
|
collecting tubules
|
|
what do the renal pappillae open up into?
|
minor calices
|
|
the kidneys receive about how much of the cardiac output via the renal arteries?
|
1/5
|
|
these arteries in the kidney are branches of interlobar arteries that arch across the base of renal pyramids between the cortex and the medulla
|
arcuate arteries
|
|
these arteries are branches in the kidney from arcuate arteries and pass radially through the cortex and midway between medullary rays
|
interlobular arteries
|
|
these are branches in the kidney from the interlobular arteries to supply one or more renal corpuscles
|
afferent arterioles
|
|
these are fenestrated capillaries inside the renal corpuscle
|
glomerulus
|
|
these vessels in the kidney carry unfiltered blood away from the corpuscle
|
efferent arterioles
|
|
these are arterioles and capillaries in the kidney from efferent arterioles near the cortico-medullary borders; they accompany the loops of Henle and collecting tubules
|
vasa rectae
|
|
what are the four components of the excretory pathways of the kidneys?
|
(1) minor calices
(2) major calices (3) renal pelvis (4) ureter |
|
this tube conveys urine from the kidneys to the bladder via several periastic waves per minute
|
ureters
|
|
this organ is a multi-layered smooth muscle bag
|
urinary bladder
|
|
what are the three nerve supplies to the kidney?
|
(1) thoracic splanchnic sympathetics
(2) lumbar splanchnic sympathetics (3) sacral parasympathetics |
|
what nerves of the kidney contract bladder muscle and relax the sphincter muscles?
|
parasympathetics
|
|
what nerve of the kidney relax the bladder and contract the urethral sphincter?
|
lumbar splanchnic sympathetics
|
|
developmentally, the urinary system arises from the __ __
|
intermediate mesoderm
|
|
this is the first kidney that forms that is not functional and disappears by day 25
|
pronephros
|
|
this is the second kidney structure that develops, and is partially functional in humans; the tubules arise on either side of the vertebral column from the upper thoracic region
|
mesonephros
|
|
the definitive kidney; it forms around day 28
|
metanephros
|
|
if there is a drop in fluid volume in the blood, what does the kidney secrete in order to regulate blood pressure?
|
renin
|
|
this organ is secondary lymphoid; it has several functions including lymphocyte proliferation, antibody secretion, destruction of red blood cells, and platelet storage
|
spleen
|
|
what are the five functions of the spleen?
|
(1) proliferation of lymphocytes in response to antigen stimulation
(2) antibody secretion by plasma cells (3) destruction of senescent red blood cells (4) recycling of iron from destroyed RBCs (5) storage for platelets |
|
this organ lies in the upper left quadrant of the abdomen against the diaphragm, covered by a thick capsule; it is brick red due to the abundance of red blood cells, with scattered small white spots
|
spleen
|
|
this pulp of the spleen consists of a complex interconnecting vascular sinus system separated by cords of reticular cells, some plasma cells and lymphocytes
|
red
|
|
this pulp of the spleen is lymphoid nodules and mature lymphocytes; there is no extravasated blood of local blood vessels; appears white because of dense population of lymphocytes
|
white
|
|
what are the three muscles of the posterior abdominal wall?
|
(1) quadratus lumborum
(2) psoas major (3) psoas minor |
|
what are the 8 arteries that supply the posterior abdominal wall?
|
(1) inferior phrenic arteries
(2) superior suprarenal arteries (3) middle suprarenal arteries (4) 1st to 4th lumbar arteries (5) iliolumbar arteries (6) renal arteries (inferior suprarenal arteries) (7) testicular/ovarian arteries (8) middle sacral arteries |
|
what are the 10 nerves that supply the posterior abdominal wall?
|
(1) subcostal
(2) iliohypogastric (3) ilioinguinal (4) genitofemoral (5) lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh (6) femoral (7) obturator (8) accessory obturator (9) lumbosacral trunk (10) sympathetic chain |
|
what spinal level is the subcostal nerve from?
|
T12
|
|
what spinal level are the iliohypogastric and ilioinguinal nerves from?
|
L1
|
|
what spinal levels is the genitofemoral nerve from?
|
L1-L2
|
|
what spinal levels is the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh from?
|
L2-L3
|
|
what spinal levels is the femoral nerve from?
|
L2-L4
|
|
what spinal levels is the obturator nerve from?
|
L2-L3
|
|
what spinal levels is the accessory obturator nerve from?
|
L3-L4
|
|
what spinal levels is the lumbosacral trunk from?
|
L4-L5
|
|
at what week are the gonads induced to develop by the primordial germ cells that migrate from the yolk sack to populate the mesenchyme of the posterior body wall?
|
week 5
|
|
the male and female genital system are virtually identical until the end of what week?
|
week 6
|
|
male development is induced by a transcription factor on the Y chromosome that results in the production of what factor?
|
testis determining factor (TDF)
|
|
this is the male gonad invested in the scrotum
|
testis
|
|
the function of this male reproductive structure is to produce sperm and secrete testosterone
|
testis
|
|
this hormone is responsible for the development and maintenance of the secondary sex characteristics of maleness
|
testosterone
|
|
what three ducts do the sperm leave the testis through in males?
|
(1) ductuli efferentes
(2) duct of the epididymis (3) ductus deferens |
|
what are the three sources of blood supply to the testis?
|
(1) testicular artery
(2) testicular vein (3) pampiniform plexus |
|
what are the two sources of innervation to the testis?
|
(1) sympathetic efferents
(2) sympathetic afferents |
|
what do the sympathetic efferents of the testis convey?
|
vasomotor information
|
|
what do the sympathetic afferents of the testis convey?
|
pain
|
|
this duct of the testis provides maturation and storage of the sperm
|
epididymis
|
|
this duct of the testis provides a passageway to to the urethra for the sperm
|
ductus deferens
|
|
these vesicles of the testis provide nutritive components for the sperm
|
seminal vesicles
|
|
this is the male organ of copulation; it has a body and root
|
penis
|
|
this is a sac formed by the continuation fo the skin and superficial fascia of the abdominal wall and contains the testes
|
scrotum
|
|
what are the seven layers of the scrotal sac from outside in?
|
(1) skin
(2) tunica dartos (dartos muscle) (3) external spermatic fascia (4) cremaster muscle and fascia (5) internal spermatic fascia (6) parietal layer of tunica vaginalis (7) visceral layer of tunica vaginalis |
|
what is the nerve that supplies sensory on the external genitalia to the penis?
|
pudendal nerve
|
|
what spinal levels does the pudendal nerve come from?
|
S2-S4
|
|
what nerves of the penis sense pain?
|
sympathetics from the hypogastric plexus
|
|
what nerves of the penis sense vasomotor and parasympathetic input?
|
pelvic splanchnics
|
|
what levels are the pelvic splanchnic nerves from?
|
S2-S4
|
|
what type of autonomic nerves are responsible for erection by dilating the arteries and enabling the cavernous tissue to fill with blood?
|
parasympathetics
|
|
what type of autonomic nerves function in ejaculation and also to close the internal vesical sphincter to prevent retrograde passage of the ejaculate into the bladder?
|
sympathetics
|
|
what are the regional lymph nodes to the testes?
|
abdominal nodes
|
|
what lymph nodes does scrotal lymph drain into?
|
inguinal nodes
|
|
the source of oocytes and hormones in the female reproductive system
|
ovary
|
|
the ovary is suspended from the broad ligament of the uterus by what structure?
|
mesovarium
|
|
these are bilateral tubes in the female reproductive system extending from the uterus to the ovary and function in gamete transportation and fertilization
|
uterine/fallopian tubes
|
|
this is a pear shaped hollow organ in the female reproductive system with muscualr walls; life support for developing embryo and fetus
|
uterus
|
|
this is the female organ of copulation; it passes through the urogenital diaphragm and begins with an ostium and ends with a recess around the vaginal part of the uterine cervix
|
vagina
|
|
what vessels serve the pelvis region?
|
internal iliac arteries
|
|
what branch of the internal iliac artery supplies the walls of the pelvis and the gluteal region?
|
posterior
|
|
what branch of the internal iliac artery supplies the pelvic viscera?
|
anterior
|
|
are the pelvic viscera intraperitonal or retroperitoneal?
|
retroperitoneal
|
|
are the ovary and tubes intraperitoneal or retroperitoneal?
|
intraperitoneal
|
|
this is a muscular layer that supports the abdominal and pelvic viscera, and is especially important when abdominal pressure is increased
|
pelvic diaphragm
|
|
what are the two muscles that comprise the pelvic diaphragm?
|
(1) levator ani
(2) coccygeus |
|
this structure is critical in maintaining normal function of the deeper portion to the voluntary external anal sphincter
|
puborectal sling
|
|
what muscle may be weak in someone who has stress urinary incontinence?
|
obturator internus
|
|
what is the anterior boundary of the perineum?
|
pubic symphysis
|
|
what is the lateral boundary of the perineum?
|
ischial tuberosities on both sides
|
|
what is the posterior boundary of the perineum?
|
tip of the coccyx
|
|
what two triangles is it customary to divide the perineum into by joining the ischial tuberosities by an imaginary line?
|
anal triangle (posterior)
urogenital triangle (anterior) |
|
what is the area called that lies betwen the layers of superior and inferior fascia that enclose the sphincter urethrae and deep transverse perineal muscles?
|
deep perineal pouch
|
|
this pouch is superficia lto the deep pouch and contains structures forming the root and crura of penis/clitoris and the muscles that cover these structures as well as the scrotum/labia.
|
superficial perineal pouch
|
|
what fascia bounds the superficial perineal pouch inferiorly and laterally?
|
Colles' fascia
|
|
what fascia bounds the superficial perineal pouch superiorly?
|
inferior fascia of the urogenital diaphragm
|
|
this is a triangular shaped musculo-fascial layer that fills the gap of the pubic arch
|
urogenital diaphragm
|
|
what four muscles are contained in the superficial perineal pouch in both the male and female?
|
(1) bulbospongiosus
(2) ischiocavernosus (3) superficial transverse perineal (4) deep transverse perineal |
|
what are the 8 contents of the posterior mediastinum?
|
(1) thoracic aorta
(2) thoracic superior and inferior vena cavae (3) vagus nerve (4) esophagus (5) esophageal plexus (6) azygos vein system (7) thoracic duct (8) sympathetic trunk, splanchnic nerves |
|
what structure of the kidney controls filtration of plasma from the capillaries?
|
Bowman's capsule
|
|
from what four places are the sympathetic nerves of the kidneys derived from?
|
(1) celiac plexus
(2) lesser splanchnic nerve (3) least splanchnic nerve (4) aorticorenal ganglion |
|
from what two places are the parasympathetic nerves of the kidneys derived from?
|
(1) vagus nerve
(2) pelvic splanchnic presynaptics |
|
what type of fibers does the renal plexus contain (that senses pain)?
|
visceral afferents of T10-L1
|
|
the fascia covering the quadratus lumborum is also considered to be what other structure?
|
anterior layer of thoracolumbar fascia
|
|
the upper margin of the thoracolumbar fascia that extends from the tranvserse process of L1 to the apex and lower border of the 12th rib
|
lateral arcuate ligament
|
|
what duct regresses in the male during reproductive development?
|
paramesonephric
|
|
what duct regresses in the female during reproductive development?
|
mesonephric
|
|
what two things do the sex cords in the male develop into during reproductive development?
|
(1) seminiferous tubules
(2) rete testis |
|
in male reproductive development, testosterone stimulates the development of the mesonephric duct into what two structures?
|
(1) vas deferens
(2) seminal vesicles |
|
during female reproductive development, the promordial germ cells form the follicle cells of what structure?
|
ovary
|
|
what three things does the paramesonephric duct develop into during female reproductive development?
|
(1) oviduct
(2) uterus (3) vagina |
|
what division of the ANS mediates male erection?
|
parasympathetic
|
|
what division of the ANS mediates male emission and ejaculation?
|
sympathetic
|
|
afferent (pain) fibers from the intraperitoneal viscera of the female reproductive system goes via what nerves to T11-T12?
|
(1) uterovaginal plexus
(2) pelvic plexus (3) hypogastric nerves (4) superior hypogastric plexus (5) lower aortic plexus (6) lumbar splanchnic nerves |
|
afferent (pain) fibers from the subperitoneal structures of the female reproductive system (cervix, upper vagina) goes via what nerves?
|
pelvic splanchnic nerves (S2-S4)
|
|
this structure in the pelvis forms the funnel-shaped floor of the pelvic cavity and the medial slope of the V shaped roof of each ischiorectal fossa
|
pelvic diaphragm
|
|
what type of ANS fibers innervate the anal canal and internal anal sphincter?
|
sympathetic nerves from inferiro hypogastric plexus
|
|
what nerve innervates the external anal sphincter?
|
pudendal nerve
|
|
what are the four contents of the anal triangle?
|
(1) anal canal
(2) internal anal sphincter (3) external anal sphincter (4) ischiorectal fossa |
|
what is contained within the ischiorectal fossa?
|
pudendal canal (containing pudendal artery, vein, and nerve)
|
|
what are the five layers of the urogenital triangle?
|
(1) skin and subcutaneous fatty fascia
(2) membranous layer (3) deep fascia (in males-Buck's fascia) (4) superficial perineal pouch (5) urogenital diaphragm (deep pouch) |
|
what are the seven things that are contained within the superficial perineal pouch?
|
(1) root and associated muscles of penis
(2) root of clitoris and associated muscles (3) bulb of vestibule and associated muscles (4) superficial transverse perineal muscles (5) branches of internal pudendal vessels (6) branches of pudendal nerves (7) bulbourethral glands (female) |
|
this is a triangular shaped musculofascial layer that fills the gap of the pubic arch that is formed by two layers of fascia
|
urogenital diaphragm
|
|
what are the two layers of fascia that form the urogenital diaphragm?
|
(1) inferior (perineal membrane)
(2) superior |
|
what is the area between the inferior and superior fascial layers of the urogenital diaphragm called?
|
deep perineal pouch
|
|
what two muscles are mostly working during quiet inspiration and expiration?
|
(1) external intercostals
(2) diaphragm |
|
what seven muscles are working during forced inspiration?
|
(1) scalenes
(2) SCM (3) all intercostals (4) serratus posterior superior (5) levators costarum (6) sacrospinalis (7) diaphragm |
|
what four muscles are working during forced expiration?
|
(1) quadratus lumborum
(2) all intercostals (3) serratus posterior inferior (4) all abdominal muscles |
|
what does the endocardial tube become in the developing heart?
|
the epithelial lining of the heart
|
|
in the developing heart, around day 23, this structure arises when the heart bends on itself, and it is considered a common ventricular and atrial region
|
bulboventricular loop
|
|
what is the relation of the kidney to the peritoneum?
|
primary retroperitoneal
|
|
what is the relation of the pancreas to the peritoneum?
|
secondary retroperitoneal
|
|
what ist he relation fo the transverse colon to the peritoneum?
|
primary retroperitoneal
|
|
what is the relation of the ascending/descending colon to the peritoneum?
|
secondary retroperitoneal
|
|
what is the relation of the liver to the peritoneum?
|
primary intraperitoneal
|
|
what is the relation of the spleen to the peritoneum?
|
primary intraperitoneal
|
|
what is the relation of the duodenum and jejunum to the peritoneum?
|
primary intrperitoneal
|
|
what is the relation of 80% of the duodenum to the peritoneum?
|
secondary retroperitoneal
|
|
what are the 10 structures that are primary retroperitoneal structures?
|
(1) kidneys
(2) ureter (3) bladder (4) adrenal glands (5) aorta (6) inferior vena cava (7) esophagus (8) prostate (9) vagina (10) rectum |
|
what are the four structures that are secondary retroperitoneal structures?
|
(1) pancreas
(2) duodenum (except first proximal segment which is intraperitoneal) (3) ascending colon (4) descending colon |
|
what are the 10 structures that are intraperitoneal?
|
(1) stomach
(2) liver (3) gallbladder (4) spleen (5) jejunum (6) ileum (7) transverse colon (8) sigmoig colon (9) uterus (10) ovaries |