Anatomy & Physiology Review

Front 1

An organ contains

Back 1

two or more tissues grouped together that function together

Front 2

The human integumentary system includes

Back 2

skin, nails, hair follicles, and glands.

Front 3

Nerve fibers scattered throughout the dermis are associated with

Back 3

muscles, glands, and sensory receptors.

Front 4

Which of the following is not correct concerning the skin?

Back 4

The subcutaneous layer is between the dermis and the epidermis.

Front 5

As cells are pushed from the deeper part of the epidermis toward the surface

Back 5

they die.

Front 6

The skin

Back 6

retards water loss from deeper tissues, excretes wastes, regulates body temperature, synthesizes vitamin D

Front 7

The major blood vessels that supply skin cells are found in the

Back 7

subcutaneous layer.

Front 8

Skin cancer cells are most likely to develop from

Back 8

nonpigmented epithelial cells

Front 9

Which of the following is not a method for helping prevent pressure ulcer formation?

Back 9

Maintaining one body position

Front 10

The main function of melanocytes is to

Back 10

produce melanin.

Front 11

Epidermal cells are supplied with nutrients from blood vessels located in the

Back 11

subcutaneous layer.

Front 12

Pressure ulcers are usually associated with skin overlying

Back 12

bony projections.

Front 13

Cutaneous carcinomas are most commonly caused by exposure to

Back 13

ultraviolet light.

Front 14

Which of the following is a characteristic of the person most likely to develop a cutaneous carcinoma?

Back 14

Over forty years of age, Often works outdoors, Light-complexioned skin, Often plays outdoors

Front 15

The most common cause of cutaneous melanoma is

Back 15

relatively short exposure to high intensity sunlight.

Front 16

Injections that are administered into the tissues of the skin are called

Back 16

intradermal

Front 17

Skin cells play an important role in the production of vitamin

Back 17

D

Front 18

Exposure to ultraviolet light darkens the skin by stimulating production of

Back 18

melanin

Front 19

The shaft of a hair is composed of

Back 19

dead epidermal cells.

Front 20

A nail consists of a

Back 20

. nail bed and nail plate.

Front 21

Eccrine sweat glands

Back 21

respond primarily to elevated body temperature.

Front 22

Acne is a disorder involving the

Back 22

sebaceous glands

Front 23

The regulation of body temperature is of vital importance because

Back 23

slight shifts in temperature can disrupt the rates of metabolic reactions

Front 24

Which of the following is a normal response to excess loss of body heat in a cold environment?

Back 24

Dermal blood vessels constrict, Sweat glands become inactive, Skeletal muscles contract involuntarily, Less blood flows to dermal vessels,

Front 25

The granulations that appear during the healing of a large, open wound are composed mainly of

Back 25

fibroblasts surrounding blood vessels.

Front 26

Which of the following increase the risk of developing osteoporosis?

Back 26

Low intake of dietary calcium

Lack of physical exercise

Smoking

Low intake of vitamin D

Front 27

An osteocyte is a _______

Back 27

bone cell surrounded by matrix.

Front 28

The microscopic bony chambers that house mature bone cells are called _______

Back 28

lacunae.

Front 29

The salts that are abundant in the extracellular matrix of bone tissue consist largely of _______

Back 29

calcium phosphate.

Front 30

Which of the following is NOT a step in the formation of endochondral bone?

Back 30

Hyaline cartilage changes to adipose tissue.

Front 31

Bone that develops within sheetlike layers of connective tissue is called _______

Back 31

intramembranous bone.

Front 32

Red bone marrow functions in the formation of _______

Back 32

red and white blood cells and platelets.

Front 33

The cells responsible for removing excess bone tissue after the fracture repair process are _______

Back 33

osteoclasts.

Front 34

Which of the following bones is NOT included within the lower limb?

Back 34

Ulna

Front 35

Which of the following is NOT included in the appendicular skeleton?

Back 35

Vertebral column

Front 36

Which of the following is included in the pectoral girdle?

Back 36

Sternum

Front 37

The zygomatic arch is composed of processes of the _______

Back 37

zygomatic and temporal bones.

Front 38

Which of the following is part of the facial skeleton?

Back 38

Maxillary bone

Front 39

A cleft palate results from incomplete development of the _______

Back 39

maxillae

Front 40

Cervical vertebrae can be distinguished from other types by the presence of

Back 40

transverse foramina.

Front 41

Which of the following bones has an acromion process?

Back 41

Scapula

Front 42

A hip bone includes a (an) _______

Back 42

ilium.

ischium.

pubis.

. acetabulum.

Front 43

The joints between the vertebrae of the backbone are best described as _______

Back 43

slightly movable.

Front 44

The degenerative joint disease osteoarthritis may develop as a result of damage to the _______

Back 44

articular cartilage.

Front 45

A bone includes _______

Back 45

bone tissue.

blood.

dense connective tissue.

cartilage.

Front 46

Which of the following is not a function of bone?

Back 46

To provide nervous communication from bone to muscle

Front 47

The zygomatic bone is an example of a (an) _______

Back 47

irregular bone.

Front 48

Articular cartilage is _______

Back 48

hyaline cartilage.

Front 49

The presence of an epiphyseal plate indicates that _______

Back 49

the bone is lengthening.

Front 50

Sinuses are found within all of the following bones except the _______

Back 50

zygomatic bones.

Front 51

Which of the following describes the female pelvis compared to that of the male?

Back 51

The distance between the female ischial spines is greater.

Front 52

The femur _______

Back 52

is the longest bone in the body.

extends from the hip to the knee.

has a large rounded head.

articulates with the patella.

Front 53

Which of the following terms and descriptions is correctly paired?

Back 53

Pronation-turning the hand so the palm is downward or facing posteriorly (in anatomical position)

Front 54

A sarcomere is best described as _______

Back 54

a unit within a myofibril

Front 55

Myofibrils are composed primarily of

Back 55

actin and myosin

Front 56

A motor unit typically includes

Back 56

one motor neuron and several muscle fibers

Front 57

The electrical impulse that triggers a contraction travels deep into a skeletal muscle fiber by means of

Back 57

transverse tubules

Front 58

Neurotransmitter molecules are stored in vesicles within

Back 58

motor neuron endings

Front 59

The enzyme acetylcholinesterase causes acetylcholine to

Back 59

decompose

Front 60

Creatine phosphate

Back 60

supplies energy for the synthesis of ATP

Front 61

Binding sites on the surface of actin allow the formation of cross bridges with molecules of

Back 61

myosin

Front 62

The amount of oxygen needed to support the conversion of lactic acid to glucose by the liver is called the

Back 62

oxygen debt

Front 63

A muscle cramp is most likely due to a temporary lack of

Back 63

ATP

Front 64

An example of a partial but sustained contraction of a whole muscle is

Back 64

eye blinking

Front 65

The characteristic reddish brown color of skeletal muscle comes from which substance?

Back 65

myoglobin

Front 66

The threshold stimulus is the

Back 66

minimum strength of stimulus required to cause muscle fiber contraction to occur

Front 67

Rigor mortis that occurs in skeletal muscles a few hours after death is due to

Back 67

lack of ATP, increased membrane permeability to calcium ions

Front 68

The increase in the number of motor units activated as a result of more intense stimulation is called

Back 68

recruitment

Front 69

In a recording of a muscle twitch, the delay between the time a stimulus is applied and the time the muscle responds is called the

Back 69

latent period

Front 70

Activities such as distance swimming and distance running are most likely to stimulate development of

Back 70

slow fatigue-resistant muscle fibers

Front 71

When a muscle undergoes atrophy in response to disuse,

Back 71

there is a reduction in capillary networks

the number of mitochondria decreases

the size of actin and myosin filaments decreases

the muscle gets smaller

Front 72

Multiunit smooth muscle

Back 72

responds to stimulation by neurons and certain hormones

Front 73

The term "muscle" can refer to

Back 73

a cell

a tissue

an organ

Front 74

Compared to skeletal muscle, smooth muscle

Back 74

contracts more slowly and relaxes more slowly

Front 75

Functions of muscle include

Back 75

the heartbeat.

muscle tone.

production of heat.

moving body parts.

Front 76

The moveable end of a muscle is attached at its

Back 76

insertion

Front 77

The muscle primarily responsible for opposing a particular action is called the

Back 77

antagonist

Front 78

Which of the following is NOT a type of neuroglia?

Back 78

Neuron

Front 79

In the central nervous system myelin is formed by

Back 79

Schwann cells.

Front 80

The cellular processes of neurons that provide receptive surfaces for input from other neurons are

Back 80

dendrites

Front 81

Masses of myelinated nerve fibers appear

Back 81

white

Front 82

Ischemic cell damage is caused by a lack of blood flow, which deprives cells of

Back 82

oxygen

Front 83

An infant's responses to stimuli are coarse and undifferentiated because its nerve fibers

Back 83

are not completely myelinated.

Front 84

Which describes the ion concentrations inside and outside of a neuron?

Back 84

The sodium ion concentration is higher on the outside of the cell and potassium ion concentration is higher on the inside of the cell

Front 85

Which is true of drugs that decrease membrane permeability to sodium ions?

Back 85

Some are used as local .

They may block nerve impulses from moving along the axon.

They may prevent the perception of pain.

They work by blocking sodium channels in the cell membrane.

Front 86

During an action potential, depolarization occurs as a result of

Back 86

sodium ions diffusing to the inside of the cell membrane.

Front 87

During an action potential, repolarization occurs as a result of

Back 87

potassium ions diffusing to the outside of the cell membrane.

Front 88

When a neuron becomes more excitable as a result of incoming subthreshold stimulation, it is said to be

Back 88

facilitated

Front 89

Which of the following lists parts of a reflex arc in the correct sequence?

Back 89

Receptor, sensory neuron, motor neuron, effector

Front 90

Within the meninges, cerebrospinal fluid occupies the

Back 90

subarachnoid space.

Front 91

In the case of a subdural hematoma (blood accumulating beneath the dura) resulting from a blow to the head, blood accumulates between the

Back 91

dura mater and arachnoid mater.

Front 92

The pressure of cerebrospinal fluid is usually measured by introducing a hollow needle between lumbar vertebrae into the

Back 92

subarachnoid space.

Front 93

The spinothalamic tract conducts impulses

Back 93

up the spinal cord to the thalamus.

Front 94

The part of the brain that coordinates voluntary muscle movements is the

Back 94

cerebrum

Front 95

Which of the following is most closely associated with the diencephalon?

Back 95

Thalamus

Front 96

The complex network of tiny islands of gray matter in the brain that "awakens" the cerebral cortex is the

Back 96

reticular formation

Front 97

The cardiac and vasomotor center are located in the

Back 97

medulla oblongata.

Front 98

The phrenic nerves arise from the

Back 98

cervical plexuses.

Front 99

The respiratory areas are in the pons and in the

Back 99

medulla oblongata.

Front 100

Amphetamines have stimulating effects on the nervous system because they

Back 100

. release norepinephrine.

Front 101

Which of the following are adrenergic fibers?

Back 101

Sympathetic postganglionic fibers

Front 102

Cancer patients often develop endocrine disorders because

Back 102

cancer cells sometimes secrete hormones inappropriately.

Front 103

Steroid hormones produce their effects by

Back 103

. activating genes.

Front 104

Hormone concentrations are regulated by

Back 104

levels of substances in the blood only.

Front 105

The secretion of hormones from the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland is largely controlled by

Back 105

releasing hormones from the hypothalamus.

Front 106

Which of the following is secreted by neurosecretory cells in the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland?

Back 106

Antidiuretic hormone

Front 107

Growth hormone

Back 107

promotes the movement of amino acids into cells only.

increases the rate of cell division only.

increases the rate of fat metabolism only.

promotes bone growth only.

Front 108

Which of the following hormones exerts its effect primarily on the reproductive organs?

Back 108

Follicle-stimulating hormone

Front 109

Diabetes insipidus is caused by

Back 109

a lack of ADH.

Front 110

Growth hormone release is stimulated by

Back 110

growth hormone releasing hormone.

Front 111

Thyroxine

Back 111

increases the rate at which proteins are synthesized.

Front 112

The hormone that decreases the plasma calcium concentration is

Back 112

calcitonin

Front 113

Cretinism is caused by

Back 113

hypothyroidism

Front 114

A person with an abnormally high metabolic rate, who is underweight and who has protruding eyes is exhibiting symptoms of

Back 114

hyperthyroidism

Front 115

The secretion of parathyroid hormone is controlled primarily by the

Back 115

plasma calcium concentration.

Front 116

Parathyroid hormone stimulates

Back 116

osteoclast activity.

Front 117

An example of a hormone secreted by the adrenal medulla is

Back 117

epinephrine

Front 118

Aldosterone promotes the homeostasis of ions by causing the kidneys to

Back 118

conserve sodium and excrete potassium.

Front 119

Cortisol

Back 119

stimulates the production of glucose from noncarbohydrates.

Front 120

The neurons that stimulate secretions from cells of the adrenal medulla are best described as

Back 120

sympathetic neurons.

Front 121

A deficiency of hormones from the adrenal medulla is likely to produce

Back 121

None of -

high blood pressure.

increased heart rate.

elevated blood sugar.

sodium loss in the urine.

Front 122

Insulin causes

Back 122

a decrease in the concentration of blood glucose.

Front 123

Diabetes mellitus is characterized by

Back 123

glucose in the urine.

excess urine production.

dehydration.

increased thirst.

Front 124

Type 1 diabetes mellitus is caused by

Back 124

a disorder of the immune system.

Front 125

Treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus usually includes

Back 125

controlling the diet.

exercising regularly.

maintaining desirable body weight.

reducing sugar intake.

Front 126

Melanocyte-stimulating hormone, which regulates the formation of melanin, is produced by the

Back 126

pineal gland.

Front 127

A person who is experiencing the effects of chronic stress usually has

Back 127

increased blood pressure

Front 128

The cardiovascular system consists of all of the following except

Back 128

lungs

Front 129

The pulmonary circuit

Back 129

sends deoxygenated blood to the lungs.

Front 130

The tissue that forms a loose-fitting sac around the heart is the

Back 130

fibrous pericardium.

Front 131

Which of the following represents the correct sequence of parts through which blood moves from the vena cava to the lungs?

Back 131

Right atrium, tricuspid valve, right ventricle, pulmonary valve

Front 132

The skeleton of the heart consists of

Back 132

fibrous connective tissue in the interventricular septum.

fibrous connective tissue encircling the heart valves.

Front 133

The pain of angina pectoris comes from a blockage in an artery that supplies the

Back 133

heart.

Front 134

When the ventricular walls contract, the

Back 134

bicuspid and tricuspid valves close.

Front 135

Which of the following structures consists of self-exciting tissue?

Back 135

Sinoatrial node

Front 136

The correct sequence of parts that function to carry cardiac impulses is

Back 136

SA node, AV node, AV bundle, Purkinje fibers.

Front 137

In an ECG pattern, the P wave is caused by

Back 137

depolarization of atrial muscle fibers.

Front 138

In an ECG pattern, the T wave is caused by

Back 138

repolarization of ventricular muscle fibers.

Front 139

In an ECG pattern, the P-Q interval indicates how long it takes for the cardiac impulse to travel from the

Back 139

SA node to the ventricular muscular fibers.

Front 140

Impulses carried to the heart by means of fibers that secrete acetylcholine are

Back 140

parasympathetic impulses and cause the heart rate to decrease.

Front 141

An abnormally slow heart rate is termed

Back 141

bradycardia

Front 142

The effect on the heart of excess potassium ion concentration usually is

Back 142

decreased rate and decreased force of contraction.

Front 143

Sympathetic branches of the autonomic nervous system stimulate smooth muscle in artery and arteriole walls to

Back 143

contract

Front 144

Which of the following is not a risk factor for atherosclerosis?

Back 144

Diet high in unsaturated fats

Front 145

Which type of blood vessel serves as a blood reservoir?

Back 145

Vein

Front 146

The density of capillaries within a tissue varies directly with the tissue's

Back 146

rate of metabolism.

Front 147

Plasma proteins in blood capillaries help to

Back 147

maintain the osmotic pressure of the blood.

Front 148

Because net inward pressure in venular capillary ends is less than net outward pressure at the arteriolar ends of capillaries

Back 148

more fluid leaves the capillaries than returns.

Front 149

The blood pressure in the systemic arteries is greatest during

Back 149

ventricular systole.

Front 150

Starling's law of the heart holds that the

Back 150

greater the length of myocardial fibers, the greater the force with which they contract.

Front 151

Which of the following helps return blood to the heart?

Back 151

Contracting skeletal muscles

Front 152

Which of the following is not a branch of the aorta?

Back 152

Pulmonary artery

Front 153

Blood from the face and scalp is drained by the

Back 153

external jugular vein.

Front 154

Excess fluid is kept from accumulating in tissue spaces by

Back 154

the lymphatic system.

Front 155

The structure of a lymphatic vessel is most similar to that of a(an)

Back 155

vein

Front 156

The two collecting ducts that drain the lymphatic trunks are

Back 156

the thoracic duct and right lymphatic duct.

Front 157

The formation of lymph increases as a result of

Back 157

increasing osmotic pressure in tissue fluid.

Front 158

The movement of lymph through lymphatic vessels is caused largely by

Back 158

muscular activity.

Front 159

Stephanie has her cancerous right breast removed, and the surgeon also removes lymph nodes in the axillary region. As a result, Stephanie's right arm

Back 159

becomes edematous.

Front 160

The region of a lymph node through which blood vessels pass is called the

Back 160

hilum

Front 161

Cells in a lymph node that engulf and destroy damaged cells, foreign substances, and cellular debris are

Back 161

macrophages

Front 162

The spleen

Back 162

is a blood reservoir.

responds to low oxygen concentration.

contains many macrophages.

resembles a large lymph node divided into nodules.

Front 163

Interferon is a group of proteins that cells produce in response to

Back 163

viruses

Front 164

The most active phagocytic cells in circulating blood are

Back 164

neutrophils and monocytes.

Front 165

Which of the following is an example of a specific body defense mechanism?

Back 165

Immunity

Front 166

The cells that are primarily responsible for immunity are

Back 166

lymphocytes and macrophages.

Front 167

T lymphocytes are responsible for

Back 167

the cellular immune response.

Front 168

HIV infects

Back 168

macrophages

Front 169

In HIV infection, reverse transcriptase

Back 169

makes DNA from viral RNA.

Front 170

A normal immune response requires

Back 170

both T and B cells.

Front 171

The most abundant type of immunoglobulin is

Back 171

IgG

Front 172

A newborn infant may have some defense against digestive and respiratory disturbances because of IgA obtained from its mother's

Back 172

milk

Front 173

The type of resistance that is a response to contracting an infectious disease is

Back 173

naturally acquired active immunity

Front 174

As a result of an allergen-antibody reaction,

Back 174

mast cells release histamine.

Front 175

In an autoimmune disease, the immune response is directed toward

Back 175

cells of the body ("self").

Front 176

Which of the following is an autoimmune disease?

Back 176

uvenile rheumatoid arthritis

Multiple sclerosis

Type 1 diabetes mellitus

Systemic lupus erythematosus

Front 177

The digestive system

Back 177

mechanically and chemically breaks down food for nutrient absorption.

Front 178

The alimentary canal extends, in its entirety, from

Back 178

the mouth to the anus.

Front 179

The correct sequence for the layers within the wall of the alimentary canal from inside to outside is

Back 179

mucosa, submucosa, muscular layer, serosa.

Front 180

Peristalsis occurs in the digestive tract

Back 180

from the pharynx to the anus.

Front 181

The uvula is

Back 181

a projection of the soft palate.

Front 182

Because of their location, swollen palatine tonsils may interfere with

Back 182

both breathing and swallowing.

Front 183

The teeth that are best adapted for biting off relatively large pieces of food are the

Back 183

incisors

Front 184

Microorganisms promote the development of dental cavities by metabolizing carbohydrates and releasing by-products that are

Back 184

acidic

Front 185

Salivary amylase digests

Back 185

carbohydrates

Front 186

In the swallowing reflex

Back 186

the soft palate, larynx, and hyoid bone are raised.

the epiglottis closes off the top of the trachea.

the tongue presses against the uvula and soft palate.

muscles pull the pharynx upward toward the food.

Front 187

A hiatal hernia is due to a weakness of the

Back 187

diaphragm

Front 188

The main part of the stomach is called the

Back 188

body

Front 189

The parietal cells of gastric glands secrete

Back 189

hydrochloric acid.

Front 190

Gastrin, which stomach cells secrete

Back 190

increases the secretion by the gastric glands.

Front 191

Which of the following is a protein-splitting enzyme found in pancreatic juice?

Back 191

Trypsin

Front 192

All of the enzymes that digest protein are

Back 192

secreted in inactive form.

Front 193

Acute pancreatitis is often caused by the conversion of

Back 193

trypsinogen to trypsin.

Front 194

The hormone secretin

Back 194

stimulates the release of pancreatic fluid.

Front 195

Cholecystokinin secretion from the intestinal wall is stimulated by the presence of

Back 195

proteins and fats in the small intestine.

Front 196

The liver

Back 196

forms glucose from noncarbohydrates.

stores vitamin D.

destroys damaged red blood cells.

forms urea.

Front 197

Which constituent of bile has a digestive function?

Back 197

Bile salts

Front 198

Jaundice, which is characterized by a yellowish tinge to the tissues, is due to an increased blood concentration of

Back 198

bile pigments.

Front 199

Gallstones are usually composed of

Back 199

cholesterol

Front 200

Severe liver damage would most likely affect digestion of

Back 200

lipids

Front 201

The greater omentum is composed of

Back 201

the peritoneal membrane.

Front 202

The epithelial cells that form the inner lining of the small intestine

Back 202

are replaced every few days.

Front 203

Lactose intolerance is caused by

Back 203

deficiency of lactase.

Front 204

One of the major functions of the large intestine is to

Back 204

reabsorb water from chyme.

c. regulate the release of bile.

Front 205

During the defecation reflex,

Back 205

the diaphragm lowers.

Front 206

The American Heart Association recommends that the percentage of calories in a person's diet derived from fats should not exceed

Back 206

30%.

Front 207

Plant proteins typically contain less than adequate amounts of

Back 207

essential amino acids.

Front 208

The results of poor nutrition from lack of nutrients or failure to use them is

Back 208

malnutrition

Front 209

Microorganisms removed from incoming air by sticky airway mucus are most likely to be destroyed by

Back 209

the digestive action of gastric juice.

Front 210

The vocal cords are located within the

Back 210

larynx

Front 211

The walls of the alveoli are composed of

Back 211

simple squamous epithelium.

Front 212

The walls of the nasal cavity are composed of

Back 212

ciliated columnar epithelium.

Front 213

Microorganisms trapped in the mucus of the nasal cavity eventually end up in the

Back 213

stomach

Front 214

Most of the inspired air eventually ends up in the

Back 214

alveoli

Front 215

Laryngitis is potentially dangerous condition because it may cause

Back 215

obstruction of the airway.

Front 216

The condition of newborns called infant respiratory distress syndrome is caused by

Back 216

lack of surfactant.

Front 217

Cancer that originates in the lungs is most likely to develop from

Back 217

epithelial cells.

Front 218

The procedure used to directly examine the trachea and bronchial tree is called

Back 218

bronchoscopy

Front 219

The muscular action that causes air to move into the lungs during inspiration is provided by

Back 219

the diaphragm

Front 220

The force responsible for normal resting expiration is supplied by

Back 220

elastic recoil of the lungs.

Front 221

The amount of air that enters or leaves the lungs during a respiratory cycle is the

Back 221

tidal volume.

Front 222

Which of the following would be most helpful for forceful expiration?

Back 222

abdominal wall muscles

Front 223

The additional volume of air that can be expelled from the lungs at the end of a resting expiration is called

Back 223

expiratory reserve volume.

Front 224

The additional volume of air that can be inhaled at the end of a resting inspiration is called

Back 224

inspiratory reserve volume.

Front 225

The volume of air that can be expelled from completely filled lungs is called

Back 225

vital capacity.

Front 226

The visceral and parietal pleural membranes are normally held together by

Back 226

decreased pressure in the pleural cavity.

Front 227

The condition in which outside air enters the pleural cavity is called

Back 227

pneumothorax

Front 228

Emphysema is characterized by an increase in

Back 228

total surface area of the respiratory membrane.

alveolar wall elasticity.

alveolar capillary networks.

Front 229

Which of the following is a value that cannot be measured or calculated using a simple spirometer?

Back 229

total lung capacity

Front 230

The respiratory membrane consists of

Back 230

two thicknesses of epithelial cells and their basement membranes.

Front 231

Breathing rate is most likely to increase if the blood level of

Back 231

carbon dioxide increases.

Front 232

The receptors of the inflation reflex are most sensitive to

Back 232

stretch

Front 233

Hyperventilation causes

Back 233

a decrease in plasma pCO2.

Front 234

Gas exchange between the air in the alveoli and the blood in nearby capillaries occurs by the process of

Back 234

diffusion

Front 235

The enzyme carbonic anhydrase speeds the reaction between

Back 235

carbon dioxide and water.

Front 236

Carbaminohemoglobin is formed when hemoglobin bonds

Back 236

amino acids.

Front 237

Which of the following is correct concerning the location of the kidneys?

Back 237

They are located behind the parietal peritoneum.

Front 238

A renal corpuscle includes the

Back 238

glomerulus and glomerular capsule.

Front 239

Which of the following indicates the parts of a renal tubule in the correct sequence from beginning to end?

Back 239

proximal convoluted tubule, descending limb of the nephron loop, ascending limb of the nephron loop, distal convoluted tubule

Front 240

Afferent arterioles are branches of the

Back 240

cortical radiate arteries.

Front 241

Efferent arterioles lead to the

Back 241

peritubular capillaries.

Front 242

Urine formation involves

Back 242

glomerular filtration

tubular reabsorption

tubular secretion

Front 243

If the arteriole that supplies blood to the glomerulus becomes constricted,

Back 243

the glomerular filtration rate decreases.

Front 244

Reabsorption of glucose occurs primarily through the walls of the

Back 244

proximal convoluted tubule.

Front 245

The reabsorption of sodium under the influence of aldosterone occurs primarily in the

Back 245

distal convoluted tubule.

Front 246

Whenever sodium ions are reabsorbed through the wall of the renal tubule by active transport, the chloride ions are

Back 246

reabsorbed passively by electrical attraction.

Front 247

The hormone ADH functions to promote water reabsorption through the wall of the

Back 247

distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct.

Front 248

The largest quantity of hydrogen ions is secreted

Back 248

actively into the proximal convoluted tubule.

Front 249

Glomerular filtrate is least likely to contain

Back 249

plasma proteins.

Front 250

If a substance is transported from the plasma of the peritubular capillary into the fluid of the renal tubule, it is said to be

Back 250

secreted

Front 251

If a substance is transported from the fluid of the renal tubule into the plasma of the peritubular capillary, it is said to be

Back 251

reabsorbed

Front 252

During a kidney transplant procedure, the renal artery and vein of the donor kidney are connected to the recipient's

Back 252

iliac artery and vein.

Front 253

Gout is a condition in which the plasma has an abnormally high concentration of

Back 253

uric acid

Front 254

Which of the following is an abnormal constituent of urine?

Back 254

urea

uric acid

creatinine

water

none of these

Front 255

Kidney stones are least likely to be composed of

Back 255

cholesterol

Front 256

Shock-wave lithotripsy is a procedure for

Back 256

. fragmenting kidney stones.

Front 257

As a result of excessively low arterial blood pressure, glomerular hydrostatic pressure

Back 257

drops and filtration decreases.

Front 258

The ureters extend downward

Back 258

behind the parietal peritoneum and join the urinary bladder from below.

Front 259

The micturition reflex center is located in the

Back 259

sacral portion of the spinal cord.

Front 260

The effector of the micturition reflex is the

Back 260

detrusor muscle.

Front 261

The stretch receptors of the micturition reflex are in the

Back 261

urinary bladder.

Front 262

Cystitis occurs more commonly in women than in men because the

Back 262

female urethral pathway is shorter.

Front 263

An automatic bladder is most likely to result from injury to the

Back 263

spinal cord above the sacral region.

Front 264

The male and female reproductive systems

Back 264

produce sex cells.

transport sex cells to sites of fertilization.

secrete hormones for developing secondary sex characteristics.

secrete hormones for maintaining secondary sex characteristics.

Front 265

The cells in the testis that produce male sex hormones are called

Back 265

interstitial cells.

Front 266

Testicular cancer is most likely to originate from

Back 266

epithelial cells of seminiferous tubules.

Front 267

Undifferentiated spermatogenic cells are called

Back 267

spermatogonia.

Front 268

In spermatogenesis, meiosis results in the formation of

Back 268

four sperm cells with 23 chromosomes each.

Front 269

The head of a sperm is mostly

Back 269

the nucleus.

Front 270

The tightly coiled tube that leads to the ductus deferens is the

Back 270

epididymis

Front 271

Androgens are

Back 271

male sex hormones.

Front 272

The hormone responsible for the development and maintenance of male secondary sexual characteristics is

Back 272

testosterone.

Front 273

Meiosis occurs during

Back 273

both spermatogenesis and oogenesis.

Front 274

Which of the following can be fertilized to produce a zygote?

Back 274

Secondary oocyte

Front 275

The movement of an egg cell down a uterine tube is aided by

Back 275

both ciliary action and peristaltic contractions.

Front 276

The tubular portion of the uterus that extends downward into the upper part of the vagina is the

Back 276

cervix

Front 277

The endometrium is the inner layer of the

Back 277

uterus

Front 278

A Pap smear is used to detect abnormal cells in the

Back 278

cervix

Front 279

The female structure that corresponds to the male penis is the

Back 279

clitoris

Front 280

The hormone mainly responsible for the development and maintenance of female secondary sexual characteristics is

Back 280

estrogen

Front 281

In the female reproductive cycle, menstrual flow occurs when the concentrations of

Back 281

estrogen and progesterone are low.

Front 282

Women athletes sometimes experience disturbances in their reproductive cycles because of

Back 282

decreased synthesis of estrogens.

Front 283

Mechanical barriers used in birth control include

Back 283

the male condom.

the female condom.

the diaphragm.

a cervical cap.

Front 284

Symptoms of sexually transmitted infections include all except

Back 284

increased sex drive.