• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

Card Range To Study

through

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/443

Click to flip

Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;

Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;

H to show hint;

A reads text to speech;

443 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

The breaking down phase of metabolism is called

Catabolism

The ability of an organism to sense changes that take place within its body would be an example of

Responsiveness

Heat is a form of energy.

TRUE

Match the following body cavities with the appropriate description.



Contains the cranial and spinal cavities

Dorsal

Match the following body cavities with the appropriate description.



The brain is found in this cavity

Cranial

Match the following body cavities with the appropriate description.



Contains the thoracic, abdominal and pelvic cavities



Ventral

Match the following body cavities with the appropriate description.



Contains one lung

Pleural

Match the following body cavities with the appropriate description.



Contians the heart and its great vessels

Mediastinum

Match the following body cavities with the appropriate description.



Contains the medistinum and the pleural cavities

Thoracic

Match the following body cavities with the appropriate description.



Contains the medistinum and the pleural cavities

Thoracic

Match the following body cavities with the appropriate description.



Contains the gonads

Pelvic

Water is

a. the most abundant chemical in the body.


b. a major component of the extracellular fluid.


c. a component of the internal environment.


d. a requirement of life.

Which of the following examples illustrates a homeostatic mechanism?

shivering in response to a drop in body temperature

The building up phase of metabolism is called

Anabolism

The traits that humans share with other organisms are called characteristics of life

TRUE

The ears are lateral to the eyes.

TRUE

All materials, including those of the human body, are composed of chemicals.

TRUE

Which of the following organs is found in the pelvic cavity?

urinary bladder

Homeostasis refers to

maintaining internal conditions

Parietal membranes are attached to the surfaces of organs.

FALSE

Requirements of organisms do not include

A control center

Which of the following includes all the others?

metabolism (excretion digestion respiration)

A section that separates the body into left and right portions is a

sagittal section

The mediastinum separates

the thoracic cavity into right and left parts

Homeostatic mechanisms do not include

positive feedback

The diaphragm separates the thoracic and the abdominopelvic cavities.

TRUE

Homeostatic mechanisms act through positive feedback.

FALSE

A part that is above another part is said to be

superior

Which term refers specifically to the structures that provide information about conditions in the internal environment?

receptors

Which of the following lists illustrates the idea of increasing levels of organization?

atom, molecule, macromolecule, organelle, cel

Requirements of humans do not include

light

The axial portion of the body includes

the cranial cavity, vertebral canal, thoracic cavity and abdominopelvic cavity

Which of the following is true of positive feedback mechanisms?

They cause unstable conditions, at least temporarily

The organ systems responsible for integration and coordination are the nervous and endocrine systems.

TRUE

The digestive system filters wastes from the blood and maintains fluid and electrolyte balance.

FALSE

Match the following directional terms with its appropriate description.



Cephalic

Superior

Match the following directional terms with its appropriate description.



Caudal

Inferior

Match the following directional terms with its appropriate description.



Ventral

Anterior

Match the following directional terms with its appropriate description.



Dorsal

Posterior

Match the following directional terms with its appropriate description.



Towards the midline

Medial

Match the following directional terms with its appropriate description.



Away from midline

Lateral

Match the following directional terms with its appropriate description.



In between

Intermediate

Match the following directional terms with its appropriate description.



Towards the origin of the body

Proximal

Match the following directional terms with its appropriate description.



Away from the origin of the body

Distal

Match the following directional terms with its appropriate description.



Towards the surface

Superficial

Match the following directional terms with its appropriate description.



Away from the surface

Deep

The elbow is distal to the wrist.

FALSE

The membrane on the surface of the lung is called the

visceral pleura.

The building up phase of metabolism is called

anabolism

When two or more atoms (reactants) bond to form a more complex structure (product) the reaction is called synthesis.

TRUE

If two pairs of electrons are shared, the resulting bond is called a double covalent bond.

TRUE

Buffers combine with hydrogen ions when H+ is in excess or they donate hydroxide ions when H+ is depleted.

FALSE

The building blocks of fat molecules are amino acids.

FALSE

The formula H2O means

a molecule contains 2 hydrogen atoms and 1 oxygen atom

The different types of carbohydrates do not include

proteins

As hydrogen ion concentration increases, the pH number

gets smaller.

The electrons in the outermost shell of an atom determine its

chemical behavior

Which of the following chemicals is not an inorganic substance?

Protein

Many inorganic substances dissociate in water to release ions.

TRUE

When two or more atoms bond, they form a new kind of particle called a molecule.

TRUE

The first electron shell of an atom can hold a maximum of

2 electrons.

Each whole number on the pH scale represents a ____ - fold difference in hydrogen ion concentration.

10

Which of the following is not organic?

Carbon dioxide

The molecular formula for compounds like sodium chloride (NaCl) give the relative amounts of each element present.

TRUE

The electrons of an atom occupy one or more areas of space called

shells

A covalent bond is formed by two atoms that share electrons.

TRUE

Carbon dioxide is

a waste product of metabolic processes

Chemistry is the branch of science that deals with the composition of matter.

TRUE

A decomposition reaction can be symbolized as ________.

AB→A+B

If the bonds of a reactant molecule break so that simpler molecules, atoms or ions form, the reaction is an exchange reaction.

FALSE

A substance that releases hydrogen ions in water is a base.

FALSE

Steroid molecules have four connected rings of carbon atoms.

TRUE

Chemicals that resist changes in pH are called

buffers

A salt is a compound composed of oppositely charged ions.

TRUE

The atomic weight of an atom of an element equals the number of neutrons in its nucleus.

FALSE

As a group, compounds that release ions when they dissolve in water are called

electrolytes

A solution that has a pH of 6 has ten times the hydrogen ion concentration of a solution with a pH of

7

The building blocks of proteins are amino acids.

TRUE

Which term describes a solution that contains more hydroxide ions than hydrogen ions?

Basic

An element with an atomic number of 6 contains 12 protons.

FALSE

Sodium and chloride ions readily combine because they have opposite charges.

TRUE

A pH value indicates the hydrogen ion concentration in solutions, including body fluids.

TRUE

An atom that has gained or lost electrons is called an ion.

TRUE

Matter is anything that has weight and takes up space.

TRUE

A chemical reaction in which pairs of two different molecules trade positions is called a(an) _________ reaction.

exchange

All matter is composed of atoms of fundamental substances called ________________.

carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen

An acid is defined as an electrolyte that releases hydroxide ions (OH-) in water.

FALSE

Cellular organelles use oxygen to release energy from glucose.

TRUE

A molecular formula represents the numbers and types of atoms in a molecule.

TRUE

A person has alkalosis if the blood pH

rises above 7.4.

Inorganic substances that usually dissociate in water are called

electrolytes

The attraction of the positive hydrogen end of a polar molecule to the negative nitrogen or oxygen end of another polar molecule is called a(an)

hydrogen bond

All of the food that we eat, liquids that we drink and medications that we take are

chemicals

At the cellular level of organization, biology becomes the study of

chemistry

Which of the following is the number of elements living organisms require?

20

Which of the following substances is not an element?

Water

Proteins include DNA and RNA.

FALSE

The atoms of the isotopes of a particular element vary in the number of

neutrons

Cholesterol is a protein.

FALSE

Which of the following processes uses specific carrier molecules?

Active transport.

The Golgi apparatus contains DNA.

FALSE

Movement of molecules through a membrane by filtration depends upon

hydrostatic pressure.

Interphase is a "time out" in the cell cycle, when the cell rests its synthetic activities.

FALSE

Ribosomes are composed largely of protein and

RNA

White blood cells that take in particles and cellular debris are termed

phagocytes

Which of the following is not a component of the cell membrane's structure?

Glycogen

Match the following phases of the cell cycle with its appropriate description.



Normal cellular functions are carried out

Interphase

Match the following phases of the cell cycle with its appropriate description.



Growth phase

G1

Match the following phases of the cell cycle with its appropriate description.



When genetic material replicates

S

Match the following phases of the cell cycle with its appropriate description.



The phase right before mitosis

G2

Match the following phases of the cell cycle with its appropriate description.



Chromatin become visible as chromosomes

Prophase

Match the following phases of the cell cycle with its appropriate description.



Chromatin align themselves down the center of the cell

Metaphase

Match the following phases of the cell cycle with its appropriate description.



Chromosomes split and can be seen moving to each side of the cell

Anaphase

Match the following phases of the cell cycle with its appropriate description.



Chromosomes re-scatter themselves and prepare for cell division

Telophase

Match the following phases of the cell cycle with its appropriate description.



The division of the cell's cytoplasm

Cytokinesis

Cells that retain the ability to divide without specializing are called

stem cells.

Vesicles are formed by folding of the

cell membrane

Adrenoleukodystrophy is an inborn error of metabolism that causes brain degeneration starting at age 5 or 6. The defect is in peroxisomes. This is an organelle that

houses several types of enzymes

Tina has a sunburn. A week later, the skin on her burnt shoulder peels away. The cells are undergoing

apoptosis

In Krabbe disease, an enzyme is abnormal or absent in the

lysosomes

Centromeres pull apart during

anaphase

Tiny droplets of fluid can enter and cross a cell membrane from the outside in a process called

pinocytosis

The series of changes that a cell undergoes from when it forms to when it divides is called

the cell cycle

The process that moves sodium ions from where they are not very concentrated inside a cell to where they are much more concentrated outside the cell is called

active transport

Match the following pieces of cellular anatomy with its appropriate function.



Stores all genetic material

Nucleus

Match the following pieces of cellular anatomy with its appropriate function.



Has nuclear pores

Nuclear membrane

Match the following pieces of cellular anatomy with its appropriate function.



Makes ribosomes

Nucleoli

Match the following pieces of cellular anatomy with its appropriate function.



An uncondensed version of a chromosome

Chromatin

Match the following pieces of cellular anatomy with its appropriate function.



The most superficial portion of a cell

Plasma membrane

Match the following pieces of cellular anatomy with its appropriate function.



Where aerobic respiration occurs

Mitochondria

Match the following pieces of cellular anatomy with its appropriate function.



Protein production

Ribosomes

Match the following pieces of cellular anatomy with its appropriate function.



Studded with organelles that make proteins and has the ability to transport things around a cell

Rough ER

Match the following pieces of cellular anatomy with its appropriate function.



Cholesterol production and fat breakdown

SmoothER

Match the following pieces of cellular anatomy with its appropriate function.



Transports proteins through the cytosol to the plasma membrane

golgi appaaratus

Match the following pieces of cellular anatomy with its appropriate function.



Cell's demolition site

Lysosomes

Match the following pieces of cellular anatomy with its appropriate function.



Detoxification of free radicals

Peroxisomes

Match the following pieces of cellular anatomy with its appropriate function.



Movement of cell and support of organelles in the cytosol

Cytoskeleton

Match the following pieces of cellular anatomy with its appropriate function.



Attracts chromosomes to either side of a cell during cellular replication

Centrioles

A cell membrane is composed mostly of

proteins and lipids

Genetic material (DNA) is a component

TRUE

An adult human body has about

75 trillion cells

During the metaphase of mitosis, chromosomes

line up between the centrioles

Endoplasmic reticulum is best described as a

network of interconnected membranes

Which of the following describes a cleavage furrow?

Cellular constriction that occurs towards the end of mitosis.

A nucleolus is composed largely of

RNA and protein.

If a solution outside of a cell contains a greater concentration of dissolved particles than the contents of the cell, the solution is said to be

hypertonic

In anaphase of mitosis, centromeres and duplicated parts of chromosomes separate.

TRUE

Too infrequent cell division can lead to cancer, whereas too frequent cell division can delay wound healing.

FALSE

Which type of cell has many mitochondria?

Muscle

Two functions of the cell membrane are

enabling the cell to communicate and attach to other cells

The activity that takes place on ribosomes is

protein synthesis

A type of cell that has a flagellum is a(n)

sperm

The parts of a DNA molecule that contain the genetic information for making particular proteins are the

nitrogenous bases.

The anticodon sequence is part of a transfer RNA.

TRUE

The anticodon sequence is part of a transfer RNA.

TRUE

An example of catabolism is


hydrolysis

DNA replicates by

the double helix separating and pulling in new complementary bases

Enzymes enable chemical reactions in organisms to proceed fast enough to sustain life by

lowering the activation energy.

The genetic code

is a sequence of nucleic acid bases that instructs cells how to make specific protein molecules.

During the anaerobic phase of cellular respiration, one molecule of glucose

is broken down to yield two molecules of pyruvic acid.

The four nitrogenous bases in DNA are adenine, cytosine, guanine and uracil.

FALSE

The transfer of genetic information from the nucleus into the cytoplasm is a function of

messenger RNA

The proportion of the human genome that encodes protein is about ___ percent.

2

Enzymes

do not change as they control reactions.

Cells burn glucose in a process called oxidation.

TRUE

Most metabolic processes use chemical energy.

TRUE

Copying of the information in DNA into RNA, which can exit the nucleus is called

transcription

A protein that is altered by exposure to certain chemicals, heat, extremes of pH, electricity, or radiation, is said to be

denatured

A DNA molecule

is composed of joined nucleotides.

A genome is a section of DNA in which the nitrogenous base sequence encodes a specific sequence of amino acids.

FALSE

The enzyme catalase acts on the substrate

hydrogen peroxide

Genes carry information that instructs a cell to

make specific proteins from amino acids

A codon is a set of three nucleotides of an mRNA molecule that correspond to a particular amino acid.

TRUE

Cellular respiration occurs in three distinct, yet interconnected series of reactions. Which of the following gives the correct order of these reactions?


Glycolysis, citric acid cycle and electron transport chain

A DNA strand has the sequence T, C, G, A, T, C. The sequence of the complementary strand is

A, G, C, T, A, G

The part of an ATP molecule that holds the energy used in metabolism is

the phosphate bonds

A rate-limiting enzyme is typically the first enzyme in a series. This position is important because

a rate-limiting enzyme that acts later in the pathway could lead to build up of an intermediate chemical.

A sucrose molecule decomposing to yield a glucose molecule and a fructose molecule

uses a water molecule

If a DNA strand has the organic base sequence T, T, A, C, G, A, the corresponding base sequence of a messenger RNA molecule would be

A, A, U, G, C, U.

All mutations are harmful.

FALSE

Anabolism includes

the buildup of larger molecules from smaller ones, requiring energy

The active site of an enzyme is the part that

temporarily combines with a specific part of the substrate, forming an enzyme-substrate complex.

Anabolism and catabolism together constitute

metabolism

If a strand of DNA molecule contained the base sequence C, T, A, G, C, the complementary strand would contain the base sequence

G, A, T, C, G.

Which of the following describes the steps in the correct order for an enzyme-catalyzed reaction?

Substrate, enzyme, enzyme-substrate complex, product+enzyme molecule

Each enzyme acts only on a particular chemical called its

substrate

Glycolysis is referred to as the ____________ phase of cellular respiration because it does not require oxygen.

anaerobic

The reactions of anaerobic respiration occur in the

cytosol

Almost all enzymes are proteins but a few are

RNA

The two molecules that enter the citric acid cycle are a

4-carbon compound and an acetyl CoA

A piece of bread held in the mouth begins to taste sweet as large carbohydrate molecules are broken down into smaller sugars. These reactions are examples of

catabolism

The complementary base pairs in DNA are

A with T and G with C

All of the DNA in a cell constitutes the

genome

For each molecule of glucose that is decomposed completely, up to _______ molecules of ATP can be produced.


38

Enzymes are nucleic acids that promote specific chemical reactions

FALSE

The organelle that houses the reactions of aerobic respiration is the

mitochondrion

Catalysis is the speeding of a chemical reaction.

TRUE

A metabolic pathway is a sequence of enzyme-catalyzed reactions.

TRUE

During protein synthesis, amino acids are positioned in the proper sequence by molecules of

transfer RNA

The part of an enzyme that combines with a specific part of the substrate is called the

active site

Which of the following substances becomes more abundant during cellular respiration?

ATP

In dehydration synthesis

monosaccharides are joined

An ATP molecule that loses its terminal phosphate becomes

ADP

Cardiac muscle is found in the wall of the

heart

Bone cells are also called osteocytes.

TRUE

Bone cells (osteocytes) are arranged in concentric circles around longitudinal tubes (central canals).

TRUE

Which of the following is not a characteristic of nerve tissue?

Its intercellular spaces are filled with collagen

Which of the following cell types are least likely to reproduce?

Skeletal muscle cells

Tendons and ligaments are composed primarily of

dense connective tissue.

A basement membrane anchors

epithelial tissue to connective tissue.

The tissue through which gases are exchanged between the blood and the air in the lungs is

simple squamous epithelium

Muscle tissue conducts nerve impulses from one neuron to another and coordinates body activities.

FALSE

Membranes lining body cavities that lack openings to the outside are called

serous membranes

Which of the following is not one of the four basic types of body tissues?

Eye tissue (epithelial, connective, muscle, nervous)

Cartilage tissues are likely to be slow in healing following an injury because

cartilage tissues lack direct blood supplies.

Smooth muscle is found in the wall of the

stomach and intestine

A carcinoma is a cancer originating from

epithelium

Of the four major types of membranes, the one consisting of fibrous connective tissue overlying loose connective tissue is

synovial membrane.

When cardiac muscle cells are damaged by a heart attack, they are usually replaced by

connective tissue cells

Permanent wrinkling of skin is usually due to changes caused by excessive exposure to

sunlight

A neuron is a type of neuroglia

FALSE

Usually epithelial tissues do not have blood vessels.

TRUE

The type of epithelium that lines the urinary bladder and many urinary passageways is

transitional

Epithelial tissue functions in

secretion absorption protection excretion

A skeletal muscle fiber contains many nuclei.

TRUE

Blood is composed of red blood cells, white blood cells and platelets that are suspended in a fluid intercellular matrix called plasma.

TRUE

Bone cells are arranged in concentric circles around longitudinal tubes in cylinder-shaped units called

central canals.

The muscle tissue that can be consciously controlled is

skeletal muscle tissue.

Exposure to ultraviolet light darkens the skin by stimulating production of

melanin

As cells are pushed from the deeper part of the epidermis toward the surface

they die.

Which of the following is not a method for helping prevent pressure ulcer formation?

Maintaining one body position

Injections that are administered into the tissues of the skin are called

intradermal

The main function of melanocytes is to

produce melanin

The regulation of body temperature is of vital importance because

slight shifts in temperature can disrupt the rates of metabolic reactions

Cutaneous carcinomas are most commonly caused by exposure to

ultraviolet light

Which of the following is not correct concerning the skin?

The subcutaneous layer is between the dermis and the epidermis

Nerve fibers scattered throughout the dermis are associated with

muscles, glands, and sensory receptors.

Which of the following is a characteristic of the person most likely to develop a cutaneous carcinoma?

Over forty years of age, Often works outdoors, Light-complexioned skin, Light-complexioned skin

Eccrine sweat glands

respond primarily to elevated body temperature

In healthy skin, the production of epidermal cells is closely balanced with the loss of skin cells.

TRUE

Pressure ulcers are usually associated with skin overlying

bony projections

The outermost layer of the epidermis is stratum basale and the innermost layer is stratum corneum.

FALSE

The secretion of the sebaceous glands is called sebum.

TRUE

Skin cancer cells are most likely to develop from

nonpigmented epithelial cells.

The shaft of a hair is composed of

dead epidermal cells

The granulations that appear during the healing of a large, open wound are composed mainly of

fibroblasts surrounding blood vessels.

When the body temperature rises above normal, dermal blood vessels are likely to constrict.

FALSE

A nail consists of a

nail bed and nail plate.

Skin cells play an important role in the production of vitamin

D

he major blood vessels that supply skin cells are found in the

subcutaneous layer

Three physiological factors that affect the color of skin are: volume of blood in dermal vessels, carotene in the subcutaneous layer and various diseases.

TRUE

Which of the following is a normal response to excess loss of body heat in a cold environment?

Dermal blood vessels constrict, Sweat glands become inactive, Skeletal muscles contract involuntarily, Less blood flows to dermal vessels

The most common cause of cutaneous melanoma is

relatively short exposure to high intensity sunlight

Osteoclasts are large cells that cause the breakdown of osseous tissue.

TRUE

Bone that develops within sheetlike layers of connective tissue is called _______

intramembranous bone

A hip bone includes a (an) _______

ilium ischium pubis acetabulum

The appendicular skeleton consists of the parts that support and protect the head, neck, and trunk.

FALSE

Which of the following is NOT a step in the formation of endochondral bone?

Hyaline cartilage changes to adipose tissue.

Which of the following bones is NOT included within the lower limb?

Ulna

The cells responsible for removing excess bone tissue after the fracture repair process are _______

osteoclasts

Which of the following is NOT included in the appendicular skeleton?

Vertebral column

A meniscus functions to cushion articulating surfaces of bones

TRUE

Which of the following increase the risk of developing osteoporosis?

Low intake of dietary calcium, Lack of physical exercise, Smoking, Low intake of vitamin D

The presence of an epiphyseal plate indicates that _______

the bone is lengthening

The degenerative joint disease osteoarthritis may develop as a result of damage to the _______

articular cartilage

The hip joint is a pivot joint.

FALSE

The importance of fontanels in the infant's skull is to permit some movement of bones, thereby enabling the infant to pass more easily though the birth canal.

TRUE

The tarsal bones form the wrist.

FALSE

Cervical vertebrae can be distinguished from other types by the presence of

transverse foramina

The parietal bones meet the frontal bone along the sagittal suture.

FALSE

The humerus has an olecranon fossa.

TRUE

Which of the following describes the female pelvis compared to that of the male?

The distance between the female ischial spines is greater

The joints between the vertebrae of the backbone are best described as _______

slightly movable.

Which of the following is included in the pectoral girdle?

Scapula

Synovial fluid moistens and lubricates the cartilaginous surfaces within a joint.

TRUE

The femur _______

is the longest bone in the body, extends from the hip to the knee, has a large rounded head, articulates with the patella

Vitamin D is needed for the proper absorption of calcium in the small intestine.

TRUE

Red bone marrow functions in the formation of _______

red and white blood cells and platelets.

Articular cartilage is _______

hyaline cartilage.

The zygomatic arch is composed of processes of the _______

zygomatic and temporal bones.

Match each of the following boney landmarks with the bone it is on.



Foramen magnum

Occipital

Match each of the following boney landmarks with the bone it is on.



External acoustic meatus

Temporal

Match each of the following boney landmarks with the bone it is on.



Mastoid process

Temporal

Match each of the following boney landmarks with the bone it is on.



Dens

C2 veterbrae

Match each of the following boney landmarks with the bone it is on.



IVF

Vertebrae

Match each of the following boney landmarks with the bone it is on.



Spinous process

Vertebrae

Match each of the following boney landmarks with the bone it is on.



Lamina

Vertebrae

Match each of the following boney landmarks with the bone it is on.



Pedicle

Vertebrae

Match each of the following boney landmarks with the bone it is on.



Manubrium

Sternum

Match each of the following boney landmarks with the bone it is on.



Xiphoid process

Sternum

Which of the following terms and descriptions is correctly paired?

Pronation-turning the hand so the palm is downward or facing posteriorly (in anatomical position)

A cleft palate results from incomplete development of the _______

maxillae

Match the following boney landmarks found on the upper extremity with the bone it is on.

Acromion process

Match the following boney landmarks found on the upper extremity with the bone it is on.

Corocoid process

Match the following boney landmarks found on the upper extremity with the bone it is on.

Glenoid fossa

Match the following boney landmarks found on the upper extremity with the bone it is on.

Greater tubercle

Match the following boney landmarks found on the upper extremity with the bone it is on.

Deltoid tuberosity

Match the following boney landmarks found on the upper extremity with the bone it is on.

Trochlea

Match the following boney landmarks found on the upper extremity with the bone it is on.

Capitulum

Match the following boney landmarks found on the upper extremity with the bone it is on.

Radial tuberosity

Match the following boney landmarks found on the upper extremity with the bone it is on.

Olecranon process

Match the following boney landmarks found on the upper extremity with the bone it is on.

Lesser tubercle

An osteocyte is a _______

bone cell surrounded by matrix.

When a muscle undergoes atrophy in response to disuse,

there is a reduction in capillary networks, the number of mitochondria decreases, the size of actin and myosin filaments decreases, the muscle gets smaller

The characteristic reddish brown color of skeletal muscle comes from which substance?

myoglobin

Endomysium separates individual muscle fibers from each other.

TRUE

In the initiation of muscle contraction, calcium ions bind to tropomyosin, exposing active sites on actin for cross-bridge formation.

FALSE

The threshold stimulus is the

minimum strength of stimulus required to cause muscle fiber contraction to occur

The term "muscle" can refer to

cell, tissue, organ

Cardiac muscle is located in the walls of blood vessels.

FALSE

ATP is necessary for muscle relaxation.

TRUE

Multiunit smooth muscle

responds to stimulation by neurons and certain hormones

The electrical impulse that triggers a contraction travels deep into a skeletal muscle fiber by means of

transverse tubules

The enzyme acetylcholinesterase causes acetylcholine to

decompose

Creatine phosphate

supplies energy for the synthesis of ATP

Match the following terms/actions with its best description.



This boundary separates one sarcomere from another

Z line

Match the following terms/actions with its best description.



Thick filaments are attached to this

M line

Match the following terms/actions with its best description.



This tissue stores calcium

Sarcoplasmic reticulum

Match the following terms/actions with its best description.



When an action potential is met the charge will travel deep into the cell through which piece of tissue

T-tubule

Match the following terms/actions with its best description.



What neurotransmiiter is secreted into the synapse of a neuromuscular juntion

Ach

Match the following terms/actions with its best description.



Which ion is pumped into a muscle cell during depolarization

Na

Match the following terms/actions with its best description.



Which ion is pumped out of a skeletal muscle cell during depolarization

K

Match the following terms/actions with its best description.



The dark band

A band

Match the following terms/actions with its best description.



The light band

I band

Match the following terms/actions with its best description.



Covers the active site of actin in a relaxed muscle cell

Tropomyosin

Match the following terms/actions with its best description.



The protein calcium binds to in a sarcomere to help cause cross bridges

Tropinin

A motor unit typically includes

one motor neuron and several muscle fibers

Rigor mortis that occurs in skeletal muscles a few hours after death is due to

lack of ATP increased membrane permeability to calcium ions

Functions of muscle include

heartbeat, muscle tone, production of heat, moving body parts

Binding sites on the surface of actin allow the formation of cross bridges with molecules of

myosin

A sarcomere is best described as _______

a unit within a myofibril

Ach released by a motor neuron crosses the synaptic cleft and reaches the motor end plate by diffusion.

TRUE

The increase in the number of motor units activated as a result of more intense stimulation is called

recruitment

In a recording of a muscle twitch, the delay between the time a stimulus is applied and the time the muscle responds is called the

latent period

The amount of oxygen needed to support the conversion of lactic acid to glucose by the liver is called the

oxygen debt

The muscle primarily responsible for opposing a particular action is called the

antagonist

Myofibrils are composed primarily of

actin and myosin

Neurotransmitter molecules are stored in vesicles within

motor neuron endings

A muscle cramp is most likely due to a temporary lack of

ATP

The phrenic nerves arise from the

cervical plexuses

Which is true of drugs that decrease membrane permeability to sodium ions?

Some are used as local, They may block nerve impulses from moving along the axon, They may prevent the perception of pain, They work by blocking sodium channels in the cell membrane

Match the following actions with the autonomic nervous system branch that primarily controls it.



Fight or flight

Sympathetic

Match the following actions with the autonomic nervous system branch that primarily controls it.



Vasodilation to skeletal muscle

Sympathetic

Match the following actions with the autonomic nervous system branch that primarily controls it.



Have ganglion found close to the vertebral column

Sympathetic

Match the following actions with the autonomic nervous system branch that primarily controls it.



Increases breathing rate

Sympathetic

Match the following actions with the autonomic nervous system branch that primarily controls it.



Pupil dilation

Sympathetic

Match the following actions with the autonomic nervous system branch that primarily controls it.



Increases blood flow to the visceral organs

Parasympathetic

Match the following actions with the autonomic nervous system branch that primarily controls it.



Have long preganglionic fibers

Parasympathetic

Match the following actions with the autonomic nervous system branch that primarily controls it.



Have short postganglionic fibers

Parasympathetic

Match the following actions with the autonomic nervous system branch that primarily controls it.



Are strictly cholinergic

Parasympathetic

Match the following actions with the autonomic nervous system branch that primarily controls it.



Decreases heart rate

Sympathetic

During an action potential, depolarization occurs as a result of

sodium ions diffusing to the inside of the cell membrane

During an action potential, repolarization occurs as a result of

potassium ions diffusing to the outside of the cell membrane.

An infant's responses to stimuli are coarse and undifferentiated because its nerve fibers

are not completely myelinated

Match the following neuroglia cells with their best description.



Anchors capillaries in the brain to nutrient supply lines

Astrocytes

Match the following neuroglia cells with their best description.



Forms the blood brain barrier

Astrocytes

Match the following neuroglia cells with their best description.



Phagocytose debris

Microglia

Match the following neuroglia cells with their best description.



It is ciliated

Ependymal

Match the following neuroglia cells with their best description.



Lines the dorsal body cavity

Ependymal

Match the following neuroglia cells with their best description.



Are the myelin making cells of the CNS

Oligodendrocytes

Match the following neuroglia cells with their best description.



Are the myelin making cells of the PNS

Schwann

Match the following neuroglia cells with their best description.



Multiple cells lining one axon

Schwann

Match the following neuroglia cells with their best description.



One cell lining many axons

Oligodendrocytes

Match the following neuroglia cells with their best description.



It is the cell associated with Multiple Sclerosis

Oligodendrocytes

Nodes of Ranvier connect adjacent neurons.

FALSE

When a neuron becomes more excitable as a result of incoming subthreshold stimulation, it is said to be

facilitated

Interneurons are specialized to carry impulses from peripheral receptors into the brain or spinal cord.

FALSE

The cardiac and vasomotor center are located in the

medulla oblongata

Which of the following lists parts of a reflex arc in the correct sequence?

Receptor, sensory neuron, motor neuron, effector

Which of the following is most closely associated with the diencephalon?

Thalamus

The pressure of cerebrospinal fluid is usually measured by introducing a hollow needle between lumbar vertebrae into the

subarachnoid space

In the case of a subdural hematoma (blood accumulating beneath the dura) resulting from a blow to the head, blood accumulates between the

dura mater and arachnoid mater

Which of the following is NOT a type of neuroglia?

Neuron (Astrocyte, Oligodendrocyte, Ependymal cell, Microglial cell)

The complex network of tiny islands of gray matter in the brain that "awakens" the cerebral cortex is the

reticular formation

The arbor vitae is part of the cerebrum.

FALSE

Match the following descriptions/functions with the proper part of the brain stem.



Contains the cerebral aqueduct

Midbrain

Match the following descriptions/functions with the proper part of the brain stem.



Have ascending and descending tracts in its peduncles

Midbrain

Match the following descriptions/functions with the proper part of the brain stem.



Reflex center for vision and hearing

Midbrain

Match the following descriptions/functions with the proper part of the brain stem.



Anterior part of the brain stem associated with breathing

Pons

Match the following descriptions/functions with the proper part of the brain stem.



Most inferior portion of the brain stem

Medulla oblongata

Match the following descriptions/functions with the proper part of the brain stem.



Controls heart rate

Medulla oblongata

Match the following descriptions/functions with the proper part of the brain stem.



Controls blood pressure

Medulla oblongata

Match the following descriptions/functions with the proper part of the brain stem.



Controls breathing, swallowing and vomiting

Medulla oblongata

Match the following descriptions/functions with the proper part of the brain stem.



Gray matter extending over the entire brain stem

Reticular formation

Match the following descriptions/functions with the proper part of the brain stem.



Damage to this results in a coma

Reticular formation

The cellular processes of neurons that provide receptive surfaces for input from other neurons are

dendrites

The respiratory areas are in the pons and in the

medulla oblongata.

A synapse is the functional connection between two neurons.

TRUE

A nerve is a single neuron.

FALSE

The following structures that contain pain receptors are

meninges on the surface of the brain and blood vessels in the brain.

Rods are more sensitive to light than cones, but cones are important for color vision.

TRUE

The sets of color receptors (cones) in the retina contain photopigments that are

. red, green and blue.

If you enter a fish market and smell the strong fishy odor, but the odor quickly seems to fade away, you have experienced

sensory adaptation.

Floaters that cast shadows on the visual receptors are usually located in the

vitreous humor

Tears contain an enzyme that reduces the chances of developing an eye infection.

TRUE

The ampullae are swellings containing sensory receptors associated with

the semicircular canals.

The conjunctiva lines the inner surface of the eyelid and covers the anterior surface of the sclera.

TRUE

The region of receptors on the retina that gives the sharpest vision is the

fovea centralis

The auditory nerve pathways carry impulses to the auditory cortices in the

temporal lobes.

Match the following pieces of tissue with its best description/function.



The outer fleshy part of the ear

Pinna

Match the following pieces of tissue with its best description/function.



Where cerumen is normally found

Auditory canal

Match the following pieces of tissue with its best description/function.



Separates the outer ear from the middle ear

Tympanic membrane

Match the following pieces of tissue with its best description/function.



The ear bone that articulates with the eardrum

Hammer (malleus)

Match the following pieces of tissue with its best description/function.



Connects the middle ear to the pharynx

Auditory tub

Match the following pieces of tissue with its best description/function.



The ear bone that connects the middle ear to the inner ear

Stirrup (stapes

Match the following pieces of tissue with its best description/function.



Controls static equilibrium

Vestibule

Match the following pieces of tissue with its best description/function.



Controls dynamic equilibrium

Semicircular canals

Match the following pieces of tissue with its best description/function.



Carries sound from the inner ear to CN8

Cochlea

Match the following pieces of tissue with its best description/function.



It is the middle of the three ear bones

Anvil (incus)

Match the following pieces of tissue with its best description/function.



The organ of corti is found within which tissue of the ear

Cochlea

Match the following pieces of tissue with its best description/function.



The three ear bones are found within which section of the ear

Middle ear

Pain receptors

are generally stimulated by factors that can damage tissues

Blowing the nose improperly may cause an infection in the auditory tube to spread to the

middle ear.

Match the following pieces of anatomy with its proper description/function.



Lining in the eye covering the underside of the eyelid and fusing with the cornea

Conjuctiva

Match the following pieces of anatomy with its proper description/function.



Found in the superior lateral portion of the eye and secretes fluid

Lacrimal gland

Match the following pieces of anatomy with its proper description/function.



Drains fluid from the medial side of the eye into the nasal cavity

Nasolacrimal duct

Match the following pieces of anatomy with its proper description/function.



White substance around the eye

Sclera

Match the following pieces of anatomy with its proper description/function.



The most anterior and superficial piece of eye tissue

Cornea

Match the following pieces of anatomy with its proper description/function.



The colored portion of the eye

Iris

Match the following pieces of anatomy with its proper description/function.



The "hole" in the eye that controls the amount of light entering the eye

Pupil

Match the following pieces of anatomy with its proper description/function.



Where all images are projected to in a normal eye

Retina

Match the following pieces of anatomy with its proper description/function.



Area of greatest visual acuity

Fovea centralis

Match the following pieces of anatomy with its proper description/function.



Projects a focused image to the retina

Lens

Match the following pieces of anatomy with its proper description/function.



Provides nutrients to the lens and cornea

Aqueous humor

Match the following pieces of anatomy with its proper description/function.



Prevents the eyeball from collapsing

Vitreous humor

Anosmia a loss of the sense of

smell

The lens of the eye thickens when the

ciliary muscles contract

The auditory tube connects the throat with the

middle ear

Olfactory receptor cells are best described as

neurons

Worldwide, blindness is most commonly caused by changes in the

cornea

Which of the following correctly lists the parts through which light passes as it enters the eye?

Cornea, aqueous humor, lens, vitreous humor

The olfactory receptors are examples of

chemoreceptors

Which of the following is part of the inner tunic of the eye?

Retina

Which of the following would cause a form of conductive hearing impairment?

Torn tympanic membrane

The auditory ossicles are located in the

middle ear

The auditory ossicles are located in the inner ear.

FALSE

Treatment for cataract usually removes the

lens

Rod cells contain the pigment

rhodopsin

Which of the following is not a primary taste sensation?

Pungent

The range of human hearing is about ________ cycles per second.

20-20,000

The hearing receptors are contained in the

spiral organ

Nerve impulses from taste receptors can travel in the facial, glossopharyngeal, and vagus nerves.

TRUE

Nightblindness is most commonly caused by


an improper diet