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183 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Junction of ilium, ischium and pubis is called:
Acetabulum.
The _____ constitutes hip width:
Greater trochanter.
Fractures of neck of femur in adults and children:
In adults: retinacular arteries from the medial circumflex femoral artery tear, thus vascular necrosis of the femoral head due to inadequate blood supply to the femoral head.

In children: fovea of femur head contain artery in ligament of femoral head, supplying epiphysis of the head hence adequate blood supply will prevent avascular necrosis.
What is so special about the patella?
Largest sesamoid bone.
Tendinous attachments of the patella:
Superiorly: Quadriceps femoris tendon; Inferiorly: patellar ligament to the tibial tuberosity.
Fibula functions as:
Non-weight bearing; muscle attachment site; stabilises joint.
Abduction and adduction of the toes defined with respect to the axis of the:
2nd toe.
The part of the ____ that is gripped by 2 malleoli is called the ____.
Talus; Trochlea.
Bones of the foot:
Calcaneus, Talus, Cuboid (lateral), Navicular (medial), Cuneiforms (medial, intermediate, lateral), Metatarsals, Phalanges.
3 arches of the foot:
Medial longitudinal, Lateral longitudinal, Transverse.
Flat foot (pes planus) is due to the collapse of which arch of the foot?
Longitudinal arch.
Major ligaments of the foot (that support longitudinal arch):
Spring ligament (plantar calcaneonavicular ligament); Short plantar ligament (short plantar calcaneocuboid ligament); Long plantar ligament (long plantar calcaneocuboid ligament).

Plantar aponeurosis also helps superficially.
Acetabulum cavity is deepened by:
Fibrocartilaginous acetabular labrum.
Articular surface of the acetabulum is deficient _____ at the _____, but this is bridged by the _____.
Inferiorly; Acetabular notch; Transverse acetabular ligament.
Articular surfaces of the hip joint is covered by _____ cartilage except the:
Hyaline; fovea on the femoral head.
Hip joint type:
Synovial ball and socket joint.
Ligaments of the hip joint:
Iliofemoral; Pubofemoral; Ischiofemoral; Ligament of head of femur.
Which ligament maintains posture and prevents hyperextension?
Iliofemoral ligament. It is the body's strongest ligament.
Blood supply to hip joint:
Mainly the anastomosis formed by medial and lateral circumflex femoral artery.

Artery to head of femur (through ligament of head of femur, branch of the obturator artery) also supplies blood to the epiphysis of the femoral head in childhood.
Articulation of knee joint:
Between femur and tibia and patella.
Knee joint type (2):
Between femur and tibia: Synovial modified hinge joint.

Between femur and patella: Plane joint.
Which meniscus is attached to joint and ligament? What is the significance of this?
Medial meniscus; easier to tear because it is fixed.
Lateral meniscus is attached to which tendon? What function does this serve?
Popliteus; pulls it posteriorly during flexion to prevent it from being crushed.
Synovial membrane in the knee joint separated from the patella by the:
Infrapatellar fatty pad.
Ligaments of the knee (6):
Patellar ligament; Tibial collateral ligament; Fibular collateral ligament; Anterior cruciate ligament; Posterior cruciate ligament; Oblique popliteal ligament; Arcuate popliteal ligament.
Which ligament is attached to the joint capsule and medial meniscus?
Tibial collateral ligament.
Anterior cruciate ligament is to prevent anterior/posterior dislocation?
Anterior displacement of tibia on femur.
Which ligament is the posterior tendinous expansion of the semimembranous?
Oblique popliteal ligament.
When knee is fully extended, there is _____ rotation of _____ on _____ to lock the knee.
Medial; Femur; Tibia.
To unlock the knee, which muscle contracts?
Popliteus.
Which is more common, anterior or posterior cruciate ligament tear?
Anterior.
Articulation of the ankle joint:
Superiorly: mortise formed by malleoli of tibia and fibula; Inferiorly: trochlea of talar.
Ankle is more stable when:
Dorsiflexed.
Ankle joint type:
Synovial hinge joint.
Subtalar joint is also called the:
Talocalcaneal joint.
Inversion and eversion are ankle movements about the _____ joint.
Subtalar.
Subtalar joint type:
Synovial plane joint.
The swing phase and stance phase of the gait cycle take up ____ and ____ respectively.
40%; 60%.
Gluteal muscles:
Deep: Piriformis; Triceps coxae (Obturator internus; Gemellus superior; Gemellus inferior); Quadratus femoris.

Superficial: Gluteus maximus; Gluteus medius; Gluteus minimus; Tensor fascia lata.
Nerve, attachments and actions of piriformis:
Nerve: L5-S2 branches:

Attachments: Anterior sacrum - Trochanteric fossa and medial side of greater trochanter.

Action (on hip): Lateral rotation, Abduction.
Nerve, attachments and actions of obturator internus:
Nerve: nerve to obturator internus.

Attachments: Obturator membrane - Trochanteric fossa and medial side of greater trochanter.

Action (on hip): Lateral rotation, Abduction.
Nerve, attachments and actions of gemellus superior:
Nerve: nerve to obturator internus.

Attachments: Ischial spine - Trochanteric fossa and medial side of greater trochanter.

Action (on hip): Lateral rotation, Abduction.
Nerve, attachments and actions of gemellus inferior:
Nerve: nerve to quadratus femoris.

Attachments: Ischial tuberosity - Trochanteric fossa and medial side of greater trochanter.

Action (on hip): Lateral rotation, Abduction.
Nerve, attachments and actions of quadratus femoris:
Nerve: nerve to quadratus femoris.

Attachments: Ischial tuberosity - Intertrochanteric crest.

Action (on hip): Lateral rotation.
What muscles form the triceps coxae? Why?
Obturator internus, Gemellus superior, Gemellus inferior.

Incapable of independent action.
What is the significance of piriformis?
Landmark between superior and inferior gluteal vessels.
Nerve, attachments and actions of gluteus maximus:
Nerve: inferior gluteal nerve.

Attachments: sacrum, coccyx, ilium posterior to posterior gluteal line - Gluteal tuberosity (femur) and iliotibial tract.

Action (on hip): Extension, Lateral rotation.
Action (on knee): Extension.
Why does the gluteus maximus extend the knee joint as well?
Inserts into iliotibial tract which is attached to the anterolateral tubercle of the tibia.
Nerve, attachments and actions of gluteus medius/minimus:
Nerve: Superior gluteal nerve.

Attachments: Ilium - Greater trochanter.

Action (on hip): Abduction, Medial rotation.
Nerve, attachments and actions of tensor fascia lata:
Nerve: Superior gluteal nerve.

Attachments: Iliac crest - Iliotibial tract.

Action (on hip): Flexion.
Action (on knee): Extension.
Which muscle causes flexion at the hip and extension at the knee?
Tensor fascia lata.
Positive Trendelenburg test suggests a weakness in which muscles? Which nerve is affected?
Gluteus minimus/medius; Superior gluteal nerve.
Describe the positive sign in Trendelenburg's test.
When standing on one leg, pelvis on unsupported side descends.
Gluteal gait is when:
Centre of gravity is placed more to the stronger supporting limb when the other limb is weakened.
Where should intramuscular injections be carried out? This is to prevent what complication?
Upper outer quadrant. Sciatic nerve damage.
Muscles of anterior thigh:
Ilipsoas (Psoas major, Iliacus); Sartorius; Pectineus; Quadriceps femoris (Vastus lateralis/medialis/intermedius; Rectus femoris).
Nerve, attachments and actions of iliopsoas:
Nerve: L1-L3 anterior rami (psoas major); Femoral nerve (iliacus).

Attachments: T12-L5 transverse process, bodies, intervertebral discs - Lesser trochanter (psoas major); Iliac fossa - Lesser trochanter (iliacus).

Actions (on hip): Flexion, Medial rotation.
Nerve, attachments and actions of sartorius:
Nerve: femoral nerve.

Attachments: Anterior superior iliac spine - Pes anserinus (on medial tibia).

Actions (on hip and knee): Flexion.
Which muscle causes flexion on both hip and knee:
Sartorius.
Nerve, attachments and actions of pectineus:
Nerve: femoral nerve.

Attachments: Superior pubic rami - pectineal line of femur (inferior to lesser trochanter).

Actions (on hip): Flexion, Abduction.
Nerve, attachments and actions of quadriceps femoris:
Nerve: femoral nerve.

Attachments: Linea aspera of femur (for vastus muscles), ilium (for rectus femoris) - Tibial tuberosity via quadriceps femoris tendon.

Action (on knee): Extension.
Action (on hip, only rectus femoris): Flexion.
"N" is formed superficially by which muscles of the thigh?
Gracilis, Sartorius and Tensor fascia lata.
Which muscle overlies the adductor canal?
Sartorius.
Which muscle is considered both a muscle of the anterior and medial compartment of the thigh? Why?
Pectineus. Dual nerve innervation (femoral nerve and obturator nerve).
How is quadriceps tendon jerk performed and which nerve function is it testing for?
Tapping the patella ligament. Femoral nerve (L2-L4).
Which muscle performs a cross-legged sitting action?
Sartorius.
Medial thigh muscles:
Adductor longus, Adductor brevis, Adductor magnus (adductor part), Gracilis, Obturator externus, (Pectineus).
Nerve, attachments and actions of adductor longus/brevis/magnus:
Nerve: obturator nerve.

Attachments: Pubis - Linea aspera on femur.

Action (on hip): Adduction.
Which muscle has components in the medial and posterior compartment?
Adductor magnus: adductor/hamstring components.
Nerve, attachments and actions of gracilis:
Nerve: obturator nerve.

Attachments: Pubis - Pes anserinus (tibia).

Action (on hip and knee): Flexion.
Nerve attachments and actions of obturator externus:
Nerve: obturator nerve.

Attachments: Obturator membrane - Trochanteric fossa.

Action (on hip): Lateral rotation, Adduction.
Where is the adductor hiatus?
Between the aponeurotic adductor and the tendinous hamstring attachments of the adductor magnus.
What are the boundaries of the adductor canal?
Anterior/lateral: Vastus medialis; Posterior: Adductor longus/magnus; Medial: Sartorius.
Adductor canal is a continuation of the _____?
Femoral triangle.
What does the adductor canal contain?
Femoral vein, artery and nerve.
Vessels pass from the adductor canal to the _____ through the _____.
Popliteal fossa; Adductor hiatus.
Which muscle attaches to the patella?
Vastus medialis.
Posterior thigh muscles (hamstring muscles):
Biceps femoris, Semitendinosus, Semimembranosus, Adductor magnus (hamstring part).
Nerve, attachments and actions of biceps femoris:
Nerve: Sciatic nerve - peroneal (short head) and tibial (long head) division.

Attachments: Lateral lip of linea asperaof femur - Fibular head.

Action (on hip): Extension.
Action (on knee): Flexion, Lateral rotation.
Nerve, attachments and actions of semitendinosus:
Nerve: Sciatic nerve, tibial division.

Attachments: Ischial tuberosity - Pes anserinus.

Action (on hip): Extension.
Action (on knee): Flexion, Medial rotation.
Nerve, attachments and actions of semimembranous:
Nerve: Sciatic nerve, tibial division.

Attachments: Ischial tuberosity - Medial condyle of tibia.

Action (on hip): Extension.
Action (on knee): Flexion, Medial rotation.
Which is more medial, semimembranous or semitendinosus?
SemiMembranous.
Nerve, attachments and actions of hamstring part of adductor magnus (hamstring part):
Nerve: sciatic nerve, tibular division.

Attachments: Ischial tuberosity - Adductor tubercle on the femur.

Action (on hip): Extension, Adduction.
Pes anserinus is a tendon of:
Sartorius; Gracilis; Semitendinosus.
Anterior leg muscles:
Tibialis anterior; Extensor hallucis longus; Extensor digitorum longus; Fibularis tertius.
Lateral leg muscles:
Fibularis longus; Fibularis brevis.
Nerve, attachments and actions of tibialis anterior:
Nerve: deep fibular nerve.

Attachments: Tibia - Medial cuneiform, metatarsal 1.

Action (on ankle): Dorsiflexion, Inversion.
Nerve, attachments and actions of extensor digitorum longus:
Nerve: deep fibular nerve.

Attachments: Fibula - Distal/middle phalanx 2-5.

Action (on ankle): Dorsiflexion.
Action (on toes): Extension 2-5.
Nerve, attachments and actions of extensor hallucis longus:
Nerve: deep fibular nerve.

Attachments: Fibula - Distal phalanx 1.

Action (on ankle): Dorsiflexion.
Action (on toes): Extension 1.
Nerve, attachments and actions of fibularis tertius:
Nerve: deep fibular nerve.

Attachments: Fibula - Metatarsal 5.

Action (on ankle): Dorsiflexion, Eversion.
Nerve, attachments and actions of fibularis longus:
Nerve: Superficial fibular nerve.

Attachments: Fibula - Medial cuneiform and metatarsal 1 (enters groove on anterio-inferior aspect of cuboid bone and courses medially on plantar surface of foot).

Action (on ankle): Plantarflexion, Eversion.
Nerve, attachments and actions of fibularis brevis:
Nerve: superficial fibular nerve.

Attachments: Fibula - Metatarsal 5.

Action (on ankle): Plantarflexion, Eversion.
Fibularis longus and fibularis brevis produce plantar/dorsiflexion on the ankle? Why?
Plantarflexion. They pass posterior to lateral malleolus.
Posterior leg muscles:
Superficial: Plantaris, Gastrocnemius, Soleus; Deep: Popliteus, Flexor digitorum longus, Flexor hallucis longus, Tibialis posterior.
Which muscle in the posterior leg compartment is a vestigial muscle?
Plantaris.
Nerve, attachments and actions of plantaris:
Nerve: tibial nerve.

Attachments: Inferior lateral supracondylar line of femur - Posterior calcaneus via calcaneal tendon (Achilles tendon).

Action (on knee): Flexion.
Action (on ankle): Plantarflexion.
Which muscles make up the triceps surae:
Gastrocnemius and soleus.
Nerve, attachments and actions of gastrocnemius:
Nerve: tibial nerve.

Attachments: Superior to medial (medial head) and lateral (lateral head) condyle of femur - Calcaneal tendon.

Action (on knee): Flexion.
Action (on ankle): Plantarflexion.
Nerve, attachments and actions of soleus:
Nerve: tibial nerve.

Attachments: Shaft of tibia and fibula - calcaneal tendon.

Action (on ankle): Plantarflexion.
When the knee is flexed, which muscle acts to plantarflex the foot?
Soleus.
Which muscle cannot act to plantarflex the foot when the knee is flexed?
Gastrocnemius.
Nerve, attachments and actions of popliteus:
Nerve: tibial nerve.

Attachments: Femur (lateral condyle and lateral meniscus) - Tibia.

Action (on knee): Unlocks knee by laterally rotating femur on fixed tibia.
Which important structure does the popliteus attach itself to?
Lateral meniscus.
Nerve, attachments and actions of flexor hallucis longus:
Nerve: tibial nerve.

Attachments: Fibula - Distal phalanges 1 (runs through groove under sustentaculum tali).

Action (on toes): Flexion 1.
Nerve, attachments and actions of flexor digitorum longus:
Nerve: tibial nerve.

Attachments: Tibia - Distal phalanges 2-5.

Action (on toes): Flexion 2-5.
The tendons of ____ and ____ criss cross on sole of the foot. Why?
Flexor digitorum longus and flexor hallucis longus. FDL is attached to tibia, while FHL is attached to fibula.
Nerve, attachments and actions of tibialis posterior:
Nerve: tibial nerve.

Attachments: Posterior interosseous membrane - navicular tuberosity.

Action (on ankle): Plantarflexion, Inversion.
Arrangement of structures in the tarsal tunnel (flexor retinaculum):
(Tom, Dick ANd Harry) - Tibialis posterior; Flexor digitorum longus; Tibial artery and its venae comitantes; Tibial nerve; Flexor hallucis longus.
Calcaneal tendon jerk tests for which nerve or spinal segments?
Tibial nerve; S1-S2.
Injury to the calcaneal tendon may cause:
Triceps surae contracture - fibrosis of the calcaneal tendon and hence shortening.
What is compartment syndrome? Why does it occur in the lower limb?
Increase in pressure within a compartment (e.g. due to muscle inflammation), thus compressing muscles and nerves within that compartment, causing ischemia in structures distal to the compressed area.

This is because lower limb fascia is strong and compartments are clearly defined closed spaces.
Most foot muscles supplied by:
Tibial nerve.
Origin of sole muscles:
Calcaneus - independent of flexion of foot.
Origin of femoral nerve:
Lumbar plexus (L2-L4), in abdomen with psoas major, runs inferolaterally between psoas and iliacus.
Course of femoral nerve:
Enters thigh through femoral triangle, outside and lateral to femoral sheath, deep to midpoint of inguinal ligament, terminates as cutaneous saphenous nerve, enters through adductor canal with femoral vessels, descends with great saphenous vein.
Origin of obturator nerve:
Lumbar plexus (L2-L4).
Course of obturator nerve:
Courses along lateral pelvic wall and crosses the pelvic brim above sacroiliac joint and beneath the common iliac vessels, continues through the obturator canal into the medial thigh, splits into anterior (between adductor longus and brevis) and posterior (between adductor brevis and magnus) branches.
Motor supply of the femoral nerve:
Anterior thigh muscles, except psoas major.
Motor supply of the obturator nerve:
Medial thigh muscles, except hamstring part of adductor magnus.
Origin of sciatic nerve:
Lumbosacral plexus (L4-S3).
Course of sciatic nerve:
Through greater sciatic foramen (lateralmost structure) inferior to piriformis, runs deep to gluteus maximus then biceps femoris in posterior thigh, divides into tibial nerve and common fibular nerve at apex of the popliteal fossa.
Motor supply of the sciatic nerve:
Tibial division supplies most of the posterior thigh muscles (including hamstring part of adductor magnus), common fibular division supplies the short head of biceps femoris (only branch before it bifurcates).

Terminal branches supply all muscles in leg and foot.
Course of tibial nerve (branch of sciatic nerve):
Enters popliteal fossa, then courses through posterior leg with tibial artery and vein on tibialis posterior, enters tarsal tunnel, divides into medial and lateral plantar nerves at flexor retinaculum to supply to muscles of the foot.
Motor supply of the tibial nerve:
Posterior leg muscles and most muscles of the foot.
Course of common fibular nerve:
Follows medial border of biceps femoris, pass over head of fibula and winds subcutaneously around neck of fibula, divides into deep and superficial fibular nerve.
Common fibular nerve only supplies:
Short head of biceps femoris.
Fibular=
Peroneal.
Course of superficial fibular nerve:
Lateral compartment between fibularis longus and fibularis brevis (thus supplies these two muscles), becomes subcutaneous in distal 1/3, and supply cutaneous branches to dorsum of foot.
Course of deep fibular nerve:
Anterior compartment on leg lying on anterior interosseous membrane, accompanied by anterior tibial vessels, enters foot deep to external retinaculum (supplies some intrinsic foot muscles).
Formation of sural nerve:
Medial sural cutaneous nerve (branch of tibial nerve) and sural communicating branch (branch of common fibular nerve), descends between gastrocnemius heads and courses along with small saphenous vein on lateral side of leg and foot.
Where is the common fibular nerve commonly injured? What can be observed as a result?
Subcutaneous location over fibula neck; Foot drop (inability to dorsiflex).
Map of arterial supply of the lower limb:
Femoral artery - Popliteal artery - Posterior/Anterior tibial artery - Medial and Lateral Plantar artery, Fibular artery (from posterior tibial artery)/ Dorsalis pedis artery (from anterior tibial artery).
Origin of femoral artery:
Continuation of external iliac artery at midpoint of inguinal ligament.
Course of femoral artery:
Passes through femoral triangle through femoral sheath into adductor canal, through adductor hiatus into popliteal fossa and continues as popliteal artery.
Branches of the femoral artery:
Profunda femoris artery (supplies most muscles of the thigh); Lateral and medial circumflex femoral artery (supplies neck of femur); 4 perforating arteries (passes through adductor magnus to supply medial and posterior compartments).
Where can the femoral pulse be found?
In the femoral triangle inferior to the midpoint of inguinal ligament.
When inserting catheter into the femoral artery, what precautions must you make?
Avoid the femoral nerve (lateral to femoral artery).
Popliteal artery is the continuation of:
Femoral artery.
The popliteal artery divides into _____ and _____ at _____.
Anterior and posterior tibial arteries; inferior border of popliteus.
Branches of the popliteal artery:
5 genicular artery.
What functions do the genicular arteries serve?
Provide rich arterial anastomosis to ensure adequate blood supply even if popliteal artery is kinked (e.g. during knee flexion).
Origin of posterior tibial artery:
Popliteal artery at inferior border of popliteus.
Course of posterior tibial artery:
With tibial nerve, passes deep to flexor retinaculum (tarsal tunnel), branches into lateral and medial plantar arteries.

Fibular artery branches and descends in posterior leg.
Origin of anterior tibial artery:
Popliteal artery at inferior border of popliteus.
Course of anterior tibial artery:
Perforates interosseous membrane to anterior compartment of the leg, courses with deep fibular nerve, enters foot deep to extensor retinaculum as dorsalis pedis artery.
Origin of dorsalis pedis artery:
Anterior tibial artery inferior to extensor retinaculum.
Course of dorsalis pedis artery:
Courses between EDL and EHL, terminates at deep plantar artery (joins with lateral plantar artery to form plantar arch).
How do the end branches of anterior and posterior tibial arteries meet?
Deep plantar artery (branch of dorsalis pedis, branch of anterior tibial) connects with lateral plantar artery (branch of posterior tibial).
Where can dorsalis pedis pulse be felt?
In front of ankle between EDL and EHL tendon.
Venous drainage of leg:
Great saphenous vein (anterior to medial malleolus), Small saphenous vein (posterior to lateral malleolus).
Origin of great saphenous vein:
Union of dorsal vein of great toe and dorsal venous arch.
Origin of small saphenous vein:
Union of dorsal vein of little toe and dorsal venous arch.
Which nerve does the great saphenous vein ascend with?
Saphenous nerve.
Which nerve does the small saphenous vein ascend with?
Sural nerve.
The great saphenous vein empties into ____ at ____.
Femoral vein; Saphenous opening in tensor fascia lata.
The small saphenous vein empties into ____ at ____.
Popliteal vein; Popliteal fossa.
The muscles ____ and ____ contribute to the _____ pump.
Gastrocnemius; Soleus; Musculovenous.
Blood received by the superficial saphenous veins are continuously _____ to the deep veins through _____ veins.
Shunted; Perforating.
What are present in veins to prevent distal backflow of blood?
Venous valves.
Describe the musculovenous pump in the calf.
Muscular contractions propel blood in the deep veins towards the heart against gravity.
When does deep vein thrombosis usually occur?
Long periods of muscular inactivity (e.g. long flights) or incompetent fascia that do not resist increase in pressure of muscle compartments.
What happens during a deep vein thrombosis?
Formation of blood clot in deep vein (especially during stasis) that can break free and travel to the heart or lung - pulmonary thromboembolism.
Pulmonary thromboembolism/embolism may occur in a:
Deep vein thrombosis.
Tortuous varicose veins result from:
Incompetent veins that have been dilated such that valve cusps do not close completely, allowing backflow of blood or stasis.
Common causes of varicose veins:
Standing for long periods, pregnancy (IVC occluded due to increased intrabdominal pressure, hence accumulation of venous blood in legs).
Which vein can be used for bypasses?
Great saphenous vein.
Lymphatics of lower limb:
Deep inguinal nodes: femoral vessels, penis/clitoris in the perineum.

Superficial inguinal nodes: inguinal ligament, gluteal region, perineum and superficial regions in the lower limb.
Borders of the femoral triangle:
Superior: inguinal ligament; Lateral: Sartorius; Medial: Adductor longus.
Structures within the femoral triangle:
From lateral to medial: Femoral nerve, Femoral Artery, Femoral Vein (NAV); Femoral canal, deep inguinal lymph nodes.
Which of the structures in the femoral triangle is not held in the femoral sheath?
Femoral nerve.
What is the clinical significance of the femoral canal?
Femoral hernia occurs.
Piriformis muscles separates the _____ sciatic foramen into 2 regions.
Greater.
Lesser and greater sciatic foramen is separated by:
Sacrospinous ligament.
Major structures traversing the obturator canal:
Obturator nerve, Obturator artery.
Major structures traversing the space between inguinal ligament and pelvic bone:
Structures in the femoral triangle, femoral branch of the genitofemoral nerve, psoas major, iliacus, pectineus.
Major structures traversing the greater sciatic foramen superior to piriformis muscle:
Superior gluteal nerve, artery and vein.
Major structures traversing the greater sciatic foramen inferior to piriformis muscle:
Inferior gluteal nerve, artery and vein; Sciatic nerve; Pudendal nerve, inferior pudendal artery and vein.
Major structures traversing the lesser sciatic foramen:
Obturator internus muscle tendon; Pudendal nerve, inferior pudendal artery and vein to enter perineum (from greater sciatic foramen).
Adductor canal is also called the:
Subsartorial canal.
What structures pass anterior to the medial malleolus?
Great saphenous vein, saphenous nerve.
What structures pass posterior to the lateral malleolus?
Small saphenous vein, sural nerve, fibularis longus and brevis muscles.
Borders of the popliteal fossa:
From lateral to medial (superior): Biceps femoris, semitendinosus, semimembranosus.

Inferior: Lateral and medial heads of gastrocnemius.
Structures in the popliteal fossa, from superior to deep:
Nerve, vein, artery:
Sciatic (tibial/common fibular) nerve; Popliteal vein; Popliteal artery.