Anatomy Lecture Final

Front 1

In puppies, the area in which ossification of

sutures between the frontal and parietal bones in the skull is not complete is called what?

Back 1

Fontanelle

Front 2

Each incisive bone has how many teeth?

Back 2

3

Front 3

True or false

The temporal fossa is a concave structure that is the origin of the temporalis muscle

Back 3

False

It is convex

Front 4

The hard palate is made of which bones?

Back 4

Palatine

Maxilla

Incisive

Front 5

Which of the following nerves does not exit through the orbital fissure?

Facial

Oculomotor

Trochlear

Abducent

Ophthalmic division of the trigeminal

Back 5

Facial

Front 6

The maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve

follows which path through the skull?

Back 6

Through the round foramen then through the rostral alar foramen

Front 7

Which of the following nerves exits the skull through the stylomastoid foramen?

Hypoglossal

Trigeminal

Maxillary

Facial

Back 7

Facial

Front 8

All of the following nerves exit the skull through the tympano-occipital fissure except which?

Hypoglossal

Vagus

Accessory

Glossopharyngeal

Back 8

Hypoglossal

Front 9

The internal carotid artery enters the skull through what?

Back 9

Foramen lacerum

Front 10

What contributes to the cerebral arterial circle on the base of the brain?

Back 10

Basilar arter

Internal carotid arteries

Front 11

True or false

The venous sinuses in the central nervous

system are valveless and have low pressure

Back 11

True

Front 12

The lumen of the embryological neural tube still persists as the __________ of the brain

Back 12

Ventricles

Front 13

Which structure connects the 3rd ventricle and the lateral ventricles of the brain?

Back 13

Interventricular foramen

Front 14

Where is the fourth ventricle located?

(in which part of the brain)?

Back 14

Medulla

Front 15

What structures located in the ventricles

produce CSF by ultrafiltration of blood plasma?

Back 15

Choroid plexuses

Front 16

How does CSF escape the ventricular system?

Back 16

Through lateral apertures of the 4th ventricle

Front 17

How is CSF removed from the CNS?

Back 17

It is absorbed into the venous system at

arachnoid villi along the dorsal midline

Front 18

What separates the 3rd and 4th ventricles?

Back 18

Mesencephalic aqueduct

Front 19

Which ventricle surrounds the interthalamic

adhesion?

Back 19

Third ventricle

Front 20

Which structure separates the cerebrum and the cerebellum?

Back 20

Tentorium cerebelli

Front 21

Which lobe of the brain could be damaged if you notice motor and/or sensory deficits?

Back 21

Parietal

Front 22

Which lobe of the brain could be damaged if you notice a problem with vision?

Back 22

Occipital

Front 23

The cerebral cortex is made up of ______ matter

Back 23

Gray

Front 24

Which structure connects the cerebrum with the brainstem and the cerebellum?

Back 24

Internal capsule

Front 25

True or false

The cerebellum is the part of the brain that

initiates somatic motor activity

Back 25

False

Front 26

The transverse fibers of the pons are continuous with the ___________ cerebellar peduncle

Back 26

Middle

Front 27

The cerebellum is the dorsal ____________

Back 27

Metencephalon

Front 28

The pineal body (epiphysis) is found where?

What does it synthesize?

Back 28

It is found in the diencephalon

It synthesizes melatonin

Front 29

All sensory input except for what passes through the thalamus?

Back 29

Olfactory stimuli

Front 30

The ________ geniculate bodies relay conscious visual impulses

Back 30

Lateral

Front 31

The __________ geniculate bodies relay conscious auditory impulses

Back 31

Medial

Front 32

Where does cranial nerve V originate from?

Back 32

Pons

Front 33

What is the motor pathway from the cerebrum to the brainstem/spinal cord and from the

cerebrum to the cerebellum via the pons?

Back 33

Median sulcus

Front 34

The medulla is also called what?

Back 34

Myelencephalon

Front 35

The ventral surface of the medulla is composed of what?

Back 35

Trapezoid body

Pyramids

Front 36

What conveys proprioceptive information from the hindlimbs?

Back 36

Fasciculus gracilis

Front 37

What conveys proprioceptive information form the forelimbs?

Back 37

Fasciculus cuneatus

Front 38

The pyramids contain what kind of fibers that run from the cerebral cortex to the spinal cord?

Back 38

Motor

Front 39

All of the following muscles receive motor

information from the facial nerve except which?

Buccinator

Oribicularis oris

Levator nasolabialis

Temporalis

Back 39

Temporalis

Front 40

All of the following muscles are innervated by the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve except which?

Buccinator

Masseter

Temporalis

Pterygoids

Back 40

Buccinator

Front 41

The rostral half of the digastricus is innervated by cranial nerve _______, while the caudal half is innervated by cranial nerve _________

Back 41

Rostral half: V (trigeminal)

Caudal half: VII (facial)

Front 42

Three of the four muscles of the larynx are

innervated by the recurrent laryngeal branch of the vagus nerve. Which one is not?

Lateral cricoarytenoid

Dorsal cricoarytenoid

Cricothyroid

Thyroarytenoideus

Back 42

Cricothyroid

Front 43

All of the following are pharyngeal constrictors except which?

Cricopharyngeus

Thyropharyngeus

Hyopharyngeus

Stylopharyngeus

Back 43

Stylopharyngeus

Front 44

The lateral rectus and the 4 bellies of the

retractor bulbi muscle are innervated by which nerve?

Back 44

VI (abducent)

Front 45

Which of the following eye muscles is not

innervated by the oculomotor nerve?

Dorsal rectus

Medial rectus

Ventral rectus

Ventral oblique

Dorsal oblique

Back 45

Dorsal oblique

Front 46

Which of the following muscles is not innervated by the hypoglossal nerve?

Genioglossus

Thyroglossus

Geniohyoideus

Styloglossus

Hyoglossus

Back 46

Thyroglossus

Front 47

What are the lateral boundaries of the opening from the oral cavity into the oropharynx?

Back 47

Palatoglossal arches

Front 48

Approximately how many palatine ridges are

found on the hard palate of the dog?

Back 48

9

Front 49

Which structure divides the rostral part of the

pharynx into the nasopharynx and the

oropharynx?

Back 49

Soft palate

Front 50

True or false

The tongue is primarily supported by the

mylohyoideus muscle

Back 50

True

Front 51

Which two salivary ducts empty at the sublingual caruncles underneath the tongue?

Back 51

Mandibular

Sublingual

Front 52

The main blood supply to the tongue is from which artery?

What is that artery a branch of?

Back 52

Lingual

External carotid

Front 53

Dentine makes up a major portion of the tooth. It is a hard, calcified connective tissue that is

produced by which kind of cells?

Back 53

Odontoblasts

Front 54

The part of the tooth that projects from the gun is generally capped with what?

Back 54

Enamel

Front 55

Where can odontoblasts be found in the tooth?

Back 55

Lining the central pulp cavity

Front 56

True or false

Enamel is mesodermal in origin

Back 56

False

Front 57

What kind of cells form enamel?

Back 57

Ameloblasts

Front 58

Which tissue in teeth is incapable of repairing

itself once damaged?

Back 58

Enamel

Front 59

Which tissue in teeth has an acellular portion

toward the upper part of the tooth root and cells in lacunae in the lower part of the tooth root?

Back 59

Cement

Front 60

How does the vascularized and innervated pulp communicate with the jaw?

Back 60

Apical foramen

Front 61

Which type of teeth have a large portion of enamel-covered crown kept in reserve below the gumline?

Back 61

Hypsodont

Front 62

A diastema refers to what?

Back 62

A space in the jaw with no teeth naturally

Front 63

Which permanent teeth do not have a

deciduous precursor?

Back 63

Molars

Front 64

Dogs normally have a total of how many

permanent teeth?

Back 64

42

Front 65

Cats normally have a total of how many

permanent teeth?

Back 65

32

Front 66

The carnasal tooth of the bottom jaw in both cats and dogs is which tooth?

Back 66

Molar 1

Front 67

Which premolar in the dog lacks a deciduous precursor?

Back 67

P1

Front 68

True or false

A dog's permanent teeth have usually all

erupted by 8-10 months of age

Back 68

True

Front 69

All of the following upper teeth have 3 roots

except which?

P3

P4

M1

M2

Back 69

P3

Front 70

What phrase allows you to remember the teeth of a dog's upper jaw?

Back 70

One one

Two twos

Three threes

Front 71

What phrase allows you to remember the teeth of a dog's lower jaw?

Back 71

A string of twos with a one at each end

Front 72

The lower 1st molar (M1) occludes with which upper tooth in the dog?

Back 72

P4

Front 73

An infection of which tooth root is often the cause of a draining fistula?

Back 73

Upper 4th premolar

Front 74

True or false

Feline premolars and molars have no grinding surfaces

Back 74

True

Front 75

Which feline tooth is the only one that has 3 roots?

Back 75

PM4

Front 76

Which gland is only found in carnivores and opens into the vestibule at the level of the last upper molar?

Back 76

Zygomatic gland

Front 77

Which salivary gland has a monostomatic part and a polystomatic part?

Back 77

Sublingual

Front 78

Which salivary gland empties into the vestibule at the level of the caudal margin of the upper fourth premolar (carnasal)?

Back 78

Parotid

Front 79

Sympathetic innervation of salivary glands is through postganglionic fibers originating from neurons in which ganglion?

Back 79

Cranial cervical

Front 80

Postganglionic parasympathetic innervation of the parotid and zygomatic salivary glands arises from which ganglion?

Back 80

Otic ganglion

Front 81

Which cranial nerve supplies the necessary

preganglionic innervation to the otic ganglion?

Back 81

Glossopharyngeal

Front 82

The facial nerve suppies preganglionic

parasympathetic fibers to the mandibular

ganglion. Postganglionic fibers arising from this ganglion innervate which two of the following salivary glands?

Facial, parotid, mandibular, sublingual

Back 82

Mandibular

Sublingual

Front 83

In dogs, there are how many parathyroid glands?

Back 83

4

Front 84

The parathyroid glands of the dog lie at the

__________ pole of each lobe of the thyroid gland

Back 84

Cranial

Front 85

In cats, the parathyroid glands lie at the _________ pole of each lobe of the thyroid gland

Back 85

Caudal

Front 86

Where do the two lobes of the thyroid gland lie?

Back 86

On either side of tracheal rings 1-5

Front 87

The caudal opening from the nasal cavities into the nasopharynx is called what?

Back 87

Choanae

Front 88

A stomach tube should always be passed through the _________ meatus

Back 88

Ventral

Front 89

True or false

The frontal and maxillary sinuses drain

independently into the nasal cavity

Back 89

True

Front 90

The nasopharynx is bound dorsally by what?

Back 90

Vomer bone

Front 91

The part of the pharynx bounded by soft palate, root of the tongue, and the epiglottis is

considered to be what?

Back 91

Oropharynx

Front 92

Which structure lies in the lateral walls of the

oropharynx?

Back 92

Tonsilar fossa

Front 93

The rostral esophagus lies _______ to the trachea

Back 93

Dorsal

Front 94

The laryngeal ventricles are also called what?

Back 94

Saccules

Front 95

The laryngeal ventricles are bordered by the

_________ folds rostrally and the _________ folds caudally

Back 95

Vestibular

Vocal

Front 96

Narrowing of which structure causes changes in the voice?

Back 96

Glottic cleft

Front 97

All of the following laryngeal muscles narrow the glottic cleft except for which?

Thyroarytenoid

Lateral cricoarytenoid

Dorsal cricoarytenoid

Cricothyroid

Back 97

Dorsal cricoarytenoid

Front 98

All of the following laryngeal muscles are

innervated by the caudal laryngeal nerve except for which?

Thyroarytenoid

Lateral cricoarytenoid

Dorsal cricoarytenoid

Cricothyroid

Back 98

Cricothyroid

Front 99

True or false

The vagus nerve is responsible for both sensory and motor innervation of the larynx

Back 99

True

Front 100

What branches off of the vagus nerve near the base of the skull?

Back 100

Cranial laryngeal nerve

Front 101

What branches off of the vagus nerve at the level of the heart?

Back 101

Recurrent laryngeal nerve

Front 102

What branches off of the vagus nerve at the

larynx?

Back 102

Caudal laryngeal nerve

Front 103

Damage to which nerve results in laryngeal

hemiplegia (called "roaring" in horses)?

Back 103

Recurrent/caudal laryngeal

Front 104

Where do the optic nerves arise from?

Back 104

Ganglionic cells in the retina

Front 105

Which cranial nerve is responsible for autonomic control of the pupillary light reflex?

Back 105

Oculomotor (III)

Front 106

Which of the following lymph nodes do ALL of the other lymph nodes in the head drain into?

Medial retropharyngeal

Zygomatic

Parotid

Mandibular

Back 106

Medial retropharyngeal

Front 107

What is the line called between a dog's nostrils?

Back 107

Philtrum

Front 108

What are the big bumps called on the bottom side of the skull between the occipital condyles and the back of the zygomatic arches?

Back 108

Tympanic bulla

Front 109

What are the huge openings toward the back of the maxilla called?

(they are the ones just medial to the eyes)

Back 109

Choanae

Front 110

The basilar artery is formed by which two

arteries?

Back 110

Vertebral arteries

Ventral spinal artery

Front 111

The _______ are the grooves in the external

surface of the cerebellum

Back 111

Sulci

Front 112

All of the following muscles of mastication serve to close the mouth except for which?

Temporalis

Masseter

Pterygoids

Digastricus

Back 112

Digastricus

Front 113

What is considered the "yes" joint?

Back 113

Atlanto-occipital joint

Front 114

What is the bump behind a dog's upper incisors called?

Back 114

Incisive papilla

Front 115

The vein running along a dog's lower jaw that then runs above to the maxilla is which?

Back 115

Linguofacial vein

Front 116

The vein that runs up a dog's jaw toward its ear is called what?

Back 116

Maxillary vein

Front 117

All of the following arteries are branches of the external carotid except:

Occipital

Lingual

Temporal

Facial

Maxillary

Back 117

Temporal

Front 118

The holes in the incisive bone are the what?

Back 118

Palatine fissures

Front 119

If there is drooping (ptosis) of the upper eyelid, which muscle is paralyzed?

Back 119

Levator palpebrae superioris

Front 120

Which eye muscle winds around a cartilaginous pulley and is innervated by the trochlear nerve?

Back 120

Dorsal oblique

Front 121

Which division of the trigeminal nerve contains both sensory and motor fibers?

Back 121

Mandibular

Front 122

If a dog fails to blink when the cornea is touched, which nerve is damaged?

Back 122

Ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve

Front 123

Which nerve should you anesthetize prior to

removing a tooth in the upper jaw?

Back 123

Infraorbital

Front 124

Which nerve should you anesthetize prior to

removing a tooth in the lower jaw?

Back 124

Inferior alveolar

Front 125

A bilateral lesion in which nerve would cause a "dropped" jaw?

Back 125

Mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve

Front 126

A lesion of the abducent (IV) nerve would cause deviation (strabismus) of the eye medially

because it innervates which two of the following muscles?

Dorsal rectus

Lateral rectus

Retractor bulbi

Dorsal oblique

Back 126

Lateral rectus

Retractor bulbi

Front 127

Which cranial nerve exits the skull through the internal acoustic meatus and emerges

peripherally through the stylomastoid foramen?

Back 127

Facial

Front 128

A lesion of this nerve will cause dry eye on the ipsilateral side

Back 128

Facial

Front 129

Which nerve can you block (anesthetize) to

facilitate examination of the eye because it will stop the animal from blinking?

Back 129

Auriculopalpebral

Front 130

If a dog presents to you with drooping of the

corner of the mouth, drooling, and accumulation of wadded food in the cheek, which nerve would you suspect has been damaged?

Back 130

Buccal branches of the facial nerve

Front 131

Which is the only nerve that does not reach the exterior of the skull?

Back 131

Vestibulocochlear (VIII)

Front 132

What type of innervation is supplied to the

parotid and zygomatic salivary glands by the glossopharyngeal nerve (IX)?

Back 132

Parasympathetic

Front 133

The menace response is used to test which

cranial nerves?

Back 133

II and VII

Front 134

If a dog presents in your clinic with protrusion of the tongue and deviation of the tongue toward the left, which nerve is affected?

Back 134

Left hypoglossal