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393 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Why is the pharynx visible radiographically?
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Gas in it contrasts with water densities
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What is the location of the pharynx?
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Ventral to vertebrae C1-C2
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What structure separates the oropharynx from the nasopharynx and can be seen radiographically?
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Soft palate
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List the hyoid bones.
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Stylohyoid, epihyoid, ceratohyoid, basihyoid, thyrohiod
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Which hyoid bone appears very white in the lateral projection?
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Basihyoid
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Which is the easiest laryngeal cartilage to see radiographically?
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Cricoid cartilage.
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What phenomenon can happen to the laryngeal cartilages with age?
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Calcification
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List the radiographically visible laryngeal cartilages.
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Epiglottic, thyroid, and cricoid
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Why is the esophagus normally not seen radiographically?
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Collapsed and similar density to surrounding structures
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What can make the cervical esophagus visible radiographically?
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Swallowed air (aerophagia), common during general anesthesia
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What can make the normal esophagus visible radiographically in the thorax?
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Gas outside of it (pneumomediastinum)
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What parts of the esophagus should be taken in survey films?
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Cervical and thoracic portions including caudal pharynx and cranial abdomen.
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What is a barium study of the esophagus and pharynx?
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Esophagram
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How is an esophagram taken?
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Contrast medium by mouth, radiographed immediately
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What esophageal folds are delineated with an esophagram in the dog and cat?
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Dog: longitudinal folds
Cat: proximal 3/4 longitudinal; last 1/4 oblique mucosal folds (herring bone pattern) |
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What is inflammation of a sinus?
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Sinusitis
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What is a frequently fractured skull bone and why?
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Frontal bone, due to rostrodorsal position
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What surgical procedure can be used to treat middle ear infections?
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Open tympanic bulla via mouth for drainage
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What can be mistaken for a fracture line on the zygomatic arch radiographically?
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Fusion of temporal process of zygomatic bone and zygomatic process of temporal bone
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Why do minor injuries of the tongue heal rapidly?
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Rich blood supply
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Paralysis of the tongue is due to problems with what nerve?
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Hypoglossal n
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What is the neam for inflammation of the tongue?
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Glossitis
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How is unilateral paralysis of the hypoglossal nerve detected?
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Lack of resistance to pulling; tongue (inability to retract tongue) and decreased movement associated with dysphagia
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What is inflammation of the mouth?
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Stomitis
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What is inflammation of the gums?
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Gingivitis
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What is a defect in hard palate?
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Cleft palate
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What is a scientific term for vomiting?
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Emesis
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What is excessive salivation?
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Ptyalism
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What is an elongated jaw (mandible)?
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"Overshot" (prognatia), sow mouth, monkey mouth (mesioclusion - underbite?)
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What is a shortened jaw (mandible)?
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"Undershot" (brachygnathia), parrot mouth, distoclusion - overbite.
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What results in swelling or draining (pus) below the carnivore's eye?
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Carnassial tooth abscess (upper P4)
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How is the carnassial tooth (upper P4) removed?
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Split first because has 3 roots - dogs and cats
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Why should upper P4 be split before it is removed?
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3 roots diverge, a root or jaw may break if not split
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How is aging of dog by their teeth used practically in dogs?
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- Baby teeth in by 6 weeks - vaccination
- Adult in by 6 months - time to spay |
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How are cats aged by their teeth?
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Like dogs, baby by 6 wks, adult by 6 months.
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Which dog teeth have 3 roots?
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Last 3 on top
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Which cat permanent tooth has 3 roots?
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Upper Pm4 (carnassial)
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In the dog, how many teeth should there be between the canines and the carnassial teeth in the upper and lower jaw?
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Upper: 3 between C and PM4
Lower: 4 between C and M1 |
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How are teeth fractures divided into two groups?
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Complicated or uncomplicatedd, depending on if pulp exposed or not, respectively
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What can you say about a discolored tooth?
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Dead tooth
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What can cause discoloration of enamel of puppy teeth?
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High temperature when developing (e.g. distemper) or tetracycline antibiotics used
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What is the number one disease of teeth in dogs?
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Periodontal disease
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What point is used to measure the recession of the gums?
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Cemento-enamel junction
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What is the clinical significance of furcations?
What should be done if a furcation is exposed (attachment loss)? |
Common site for attachment loss and periodontal disease
- Degree of exposure should be measured and recorded |
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Lymph nodes ____ the lymph passing through them.
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Filter
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Why are lymph nodes important indicators of infection?
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Respond to pathogens they filter by enlarging
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Why is care taken when evaluating enlargement of lymph nodes?
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Large variations in size between individuals and even sides of the same animal
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Where can neoplastic cells metastasize by lymph channels?
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To more centrally located lymph nodes or dumped back into general circulation to lungs.
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To where do neoplastic cells metastasize in lymph channels?
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Through heart to lungs.
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To where do hematogenous metastases from the abdominal GI organs go?
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Via portal vein to liver
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To where do neoplastic cells metastasize via lymphatics or all veins except those forming the portal vein?
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Through heart to lungs.
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Why are needle or surgical biopsies of lymph nodes performed?
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To evaluate changes for diagnostic purposes.
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Why are lymph nodes cut and checked during meat inspection and necropsy?
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Checked for changes in color and consistency indicating pathogenic processes.
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How are the dog's mandibular lymph nodes and salivary gland palpated?
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Grasp skin and deep structures at jaw angle. Let them slip through fingers and feel a big lump (mandibular gland) and a few small lumps (lymph nodes)
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What is an accumulation of saliva causing a swelling called?
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Salivary mucocele or ranula (under tongue)
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What is the most common salivary gland involved in mucoceles?
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Sublingual salivary gland
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What is contrast radiography in the salivary glands?
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Sialingiography
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How can sicca (dry eye) be treated surgically?
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Transposition of parotid duct to fornix of the conjunctiva
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At what level do the parotid and zygomatic ducts open into the buccal vestibule?
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P: upper carnassial
Z: last upper molar |
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What is also removed with monostomatic sublingual gland? Why?
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Mandibular gland, same capsule
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After translocation of the parotid duct, what happens whenever a dog sees food?
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Salivates ("spits") onto its eye
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The palpable mandibular salivary gland is between what 2 vessels?
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Maxillary and linguofacial veins
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Protrusion of the eye due to inflammation of the qygomatic salivay gland must be differentiated from what? Which is more common?
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Abscess; abscess more common
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How is a zygomatic salivary mucocele differentiate from a retrobulbar abscess?
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Abscesses very painful; open jaw
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The mandibular lymph nodes can be palpated in a ____ __ ___ lateral to the immovabel mandibular salivary gland.
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Fold of skin
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From what should a salivary gland be differentiated?
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Enlarged lymph node
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A laryngotomy to open larynx goes through what paired muscle to expose the larynx?
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Sternohyoid mm., middle "strap muscles"
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Deep wounds to the pharynx can gravitate down ____ planes to reach the mediastinum (thorax).
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Fascial plane
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In a laryngotomy (opening the larynx), the stab incision pierces what 2 structures?
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Cricothyroid ligament and mucus membrane
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What paired muscel identifies the ventral midline of the larynx?
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Cricothyroideus muscles ("bow tie muscles")
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What is one method of feeding an animal that won't or can't eat?
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Pharyngostomy tube
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What is a surgical incision into the pharynx?
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Pharyngostomy
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To locate the site of the incision for performing a pharyngostomy, where should the surgeon's finger be placed?
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Piriform recess of the laryngopharynx
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Describe how a pharyngostomy tube is place in a dog?
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Press pyriform recess laterally with a hemostat and incise, pass tube through wall and out mouth. Reverse tube down esophagus, suture to neck.
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Where in the pharynx is the palatine tonsil located?
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Lateral wall of oropharynx
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The palatine tonsil sits in a ____ and is covered on its ____ side by the _____ ____
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Sinus; medial; tonsilar fold
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An uvulectomy is the removal of the ______________, to reduce respiratory distress in some brachycephalic dogs.
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Caudal free edge of soft palate
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Where may bones become lodged and shut off the laryngeal opening of the airway in the dog?
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Pyriform recess
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What is the term for surgically opening the esophagus?
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Esophagostomy
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Are esophageal surgeries simple procedures with few complications?
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no, avoided if possible
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The esophagus is accessible to surgery in the ____half of the neck region on the ____ side
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Caudal, left
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What is inflammation of the nasal cavity?
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Rhinitis
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What is bleeding from the nose?
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Epistaxis
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What is difficult bleeding?
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Dyspnea
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What surgical landmark indicates the ventral midline of the larynx?
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Cricothyroideus or bow tie muscle
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Paralysis of what muscle results in "roarers" in horses?
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Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis m.
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What is inflammation of the larynx?
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Laryngitis
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What is placing an endotracheal tube into the larynx and trachea?
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Intubation
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How is a tranquilized dog intubated?
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Gently pull tongue rostrally, push soft palate up with endotracheal tube, hold epiglottis down with tube, direct tube between vocal folds into trachea
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What is done after the endotracheal tube is placed into trachea?
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Inflate endotracheal tube cuff and tie tube around upper jaw with gauze.
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What is the term for recession of eyeball into orbit?
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Enophthalmos
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What is abnormal protrusion of the eye?
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Exophthalmus
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Prolapse of the globe (proptosis) is common in what types of dogs?
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Brachycephalic breeds
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What is accumulation of pus behind the globe in the orbit?
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Retrobulbar abscess
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What is the inversion of the margins of the eyelid?
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Entropion
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What is the eversion of the margin of the eyelid?
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Ectropion
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What is a misplaced eyelash that rubs against the cornea?
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Ectopic cilia
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What is inflammation of the eyelids?
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Blepharitis
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Define blepharospasms.
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tonic blinking
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What is inflammation of the conjunctiva?
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Conjunctivitis
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What is a common name for conjunctivitis?
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Red eye
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What is hypertrophy and prolapse of the superficial gland of the 3rd eyelid?
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Cherry eye or Haws
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How can the conjunctiva be used as a bandage in surgery?
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Pull over ulcerated cornea to protect while healing
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What is a third eyelid flap?
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3rd eyelid pulled over cornea and sutured.
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How is a third eyelid flap done (steps)?
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Stitch through palpebral conjunctiva around the top of T of cartilage without going through conjunctiva on the bulb side of the 3rd eyelid
- Needle through fornix of conjunctiva and upper eyelid - Tie sutures (button) |
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What procedure opens the palpebral fissure fro better visualization of the eyeball?
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Canthotomy - lateral
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What is used to tell the midline of the eyelid's margin?
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Opening of Meibomian glands
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What must you penetrate to put stay stuture in the eyeball?
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Into sclera, not just conjunctiva
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What is inflammation of the cornea?
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Keratitis
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What is the term for a dry eye?
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KCS, keratoconjunctivitis keratitis
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How is the amount of tear flow checked?
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Schirmer's tear test
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What is an abscence of corneal epithelium and a variable amount of stroma?
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Corneal ulcer or ulcerative keratitis
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What is the first thing to think when you see a corneal ulcer?
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No steroid as slows healing, predispose to perforation
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What is an ulcer with loss of stroma down to descemet's membrane?
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Descemetocele
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What is an iris prolapse?
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Iris protruding through a defect in cornea
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What is chronic superifical keratitis in German Shepherds, resulting in vascularization and pigment crossing the cornea?
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Pannus
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What is inflammation of the iris and ciliary body?
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Anterior uveitis, iritis, iridocyclitis
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What is inflammation of the choroid?
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Posterior uveitis
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What is the condition in which the pupils are of different size?
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Anisocoria
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What is the spectrum of posterior malformation of the eye seen in 80% of purebred collies?
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Collie eye
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What is progressive retinal atrophy (PRA)?
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Group of retinopathies of working breeds that slowly go blind, night vision is lost first
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What is the separation of the neural retina from the retinal pigmented epithelium?
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Retinal detachment
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What is a small or absent optic nerve?
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Optic nerve hypoplasia
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What is inflammation of the optic nerve?
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Optic neuritis
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What condition is caused by increased intraocular pressure (IOP)?
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Glaucoma
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What instrument is used to look into the eye?
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Ophthalmoscope
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What is any opacity in the lens?
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Cataract
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How can a middle ear infection affect the eye?
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Paralysis of facial nerve to lacrimal gland and orbicularis oculi = dry eye
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What is inflammation and prolapse of the superficial gland of the third eyelid?
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Cherry eye
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How was cherry eye treated in the past? How is it treated now?
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Then: Gland removed
Now: Sutured back in place |
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Why is removing the superficial gland of the third eyelid not recommended in cases of cherry eye?
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It's an accessory lacrimal gland and contributes 1/2 tear film
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What is the overflow of tears from the eyelids?
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Epiphora
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What lacrimal apparatus condition results in epiphora?
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Blockage of nasolacrimal duct
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How is the nasolacrimal duct flushed to correct blockage?
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Cannulate lacrimal puncta or nasolacrimal duct
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Why is the nasolacrimal apparatus important clinically?
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It can become plugged, causing tear to spil onto face (epiphora)
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How would a facial fracture disrupt the nasolacrimal duct?
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Maxillary fracture through osseous part of lacrimal duct
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What is the function of the aqueous humor?
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Maintains intraocular pressure and nutrient to cornea
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What vessel in carnivores is an alternative site for venipuncture, second choice after cephalic vein?
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External jugular vein
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What is a possible site for venipuncture during surgery if other vessels are inaccessible?
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Lingual v. on ventral surface of the tongue.
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What is a problem of using the lingual vein for venipuncture? Why?
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Hematoma because of loose tissue surrounding tongue
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What large vein must be avoided when doing orbital surgery? Where?
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Angularis oculi vein: near medial canthus
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What is analgesia?
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Absence of pain perception
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Define depression
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Relatively unresponsive awake animal
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What is stupor?
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Sleeping unless aroused by a strong stimulus
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Describe an animal in a coma.
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Unconscious, can't be aroused
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What is an aneurysm?
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Blowout of a vessel
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What is the definition of ataxia?
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Irregularity of muscular activity
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What is a tremor?
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Small, rapid, alternating movements at rest
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Define an intention tremor.
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Tremor that worsens with initiation of a movement and disappears at rest
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What is myoclonus?
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Flexor spasm, coarse jerking moments of muscle groups at rest
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What is dysmetria?
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Movement that is too long or too short
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Give an example of dysmetria.
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Goose steping, plunging head into water to drink.
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What iss a medical term for weakness?
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Paresis
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What is the defiinition of proprioception?
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Sensing movements and position of body parts.
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What does contralateral and ipsilateral mean?
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Abnormal increase in sensitivity of skin or organ
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What is hyperesthesia?
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Abnormal increase in sensitivity of skin or organ
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Define strabismus.
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Uncontrollable deviation of eye
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Where can the infraorbital nerve be palpated and anesthetized?
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Emerging from infraorbital foramen
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Where can the mental nerve be palpated and anesthetized?
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Emerges from mental foramina
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What clinical signs may develop from injury to the trigeminal nerve?
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Sensory deficit of face and drooped jaw
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What would cause a dropped jaw?
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Paralysis of trigemeinal nerve (5)
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How would injury to abducens nerve present?
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Inability to gaze laterally (medial strabismus).
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Why is the facial nerve role in lacrimations so important?
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Lacrimation only controlled by CrN 7 (facial), whereas salivation also caused by CrN 9 (Glossopharyngeal)
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What problems can develop from facial nerve paralysis?
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Loss of taste, facial paralysis and loss of lacrimation
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Why is paralysis of the orbicularis oculi and loss of lacrimation the most vital results of facial nerve paralysis?
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Drying of eye, animals not vain (facial paralysis), glossopharyngeal nerve also has taste fibers.
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How is the auriculopalpebral nerve manipulated clinically? In what species?
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Blocked to paralyze eyelids for eye procedures in large animals
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How is the facial nere commonly injured in the horse?
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Lying on a harness buckle during surgery (buccal on buckle)
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What cranial nerves are associated with the following complaints?
- Anisocoria (unequal sized pupils) - Strabismus (uncontrolled deviation of eye) - Dropped jaw and head atrophy - Increase or decrease facial sensation - Facial paralysis - Dysphagia (difficult swallowing) - Megaesophagus - Laryngeal paralysis - Paralysis of tongue |
- Anisocoria: Sympathetic, parasympathetic (Oculomotor - 3)
- Strabismus: Oculomotor (3), Trochlear (4), Abducens (6) - Dropped jaw and head atrophy: Trigeminal (5) - Increase or decrease facial sensation: Trigeminal (5) - Facial paralysis: Facial (7) - Dysphagia: Glossopharyngeal (9), Vagus (10) - Megaesophagus: Vagus (10) - Laryngeal paralysis: Vagus (10), recurrent laryngeal nerve - Paralysis of tongue: Hypoglossal (12) |
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Paralysis of what nerve results in a weak tongue?
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Hypoglossal nerve
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How is the facial / trigeminal reflex arc checked?
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Prick face, pulling away indicates intact trigeminal nerve, twitch of face muscles indicated intact facial nerve
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What is dysfunction of the sympathetic fibers to the eye?
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Horner's syndrome
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List the cardinal sigsn of Horner's syndrome.
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Miosis, enophthalmos, ptosis, protrusion of 3rd eyelid
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List a few causes of Horner's syndrome?
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Hypothalamus lesions, thoracic masses, trauma to cranial thorax or neck, middle ear and orbital diseases
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What is required to diagnose Horner's syndrome?
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Presence of at least 3 of 4 cardinal signs.
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List the pathway along which a lesion can cause Horner's syndrome?
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Idiopathic (cause unknown)
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Lesions to what parts of the NS can result in Horner's syndrome?
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Hypothalamus / brain stem, cervical cord and cranial thoracic cord, brachial plexus, cranial thorax, neck, middle ear, orbit
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What is miosis?
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Constriction of pupil: small word - small pupil
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What is anisocoria?
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Unequal sized pupils
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What is enophthalmos?
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Sinking of eyeball
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What is ptosis of the upper eyelid?
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"Drooping" of upper eyelid
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Why does Horner's syndrome result in miosis and anisocoria?
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Unilateral loss of stimulation to dilator papillae muscle
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What causes enophthalmos ("bulging") of Horner's syndrome?
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Loss of smooth muscle tone of the periorbital fascia
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What causes ptosis (drooping of eyelid) of Horner's syndrome?
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Due to sinking of eyelid (decrease smooth muscle tone in periorbita)
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What causes the protrusion of 3rd eyelid in Horner's syndrome?
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Sinking of eyeball due to loss of smooth muscles tone of periorbita
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What can cause CNS lesions resulting in Horner's syndrome?
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Trauma, vascular or embolic ischemia, neoplasia, infection or inflammatory diseases
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What thoracic masses can result in Horner's syndrome?
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Neoplasia (lymphosarcoma, etc.), abscess, foreign body, hematoma or cranial lung lobe disease.
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List trauma to the thorax and neck that can result in Horner's syndrome?
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Brachial plexus avulsion, bite wound to neck, carotid sheath manipulation (venipuncture and catheterization of common carotid artery), surgery on neck, neoplasia
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List some postganglionic lesions that can result in Horner's syndrome?
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Middle ear, retrobulbar or cavernous sinus vascular disease, peripheral neuropathy associated with hypothyroidism.
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List two causes of retrobulbar disease that can result in Horner's syndrome.
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trauma, neoplasia, abscess
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What is a classical finding of Horner's syndrome when lights are turned off?
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Anisocoria (difference in size) becomes greater in dark as normal
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What is a concussion?
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Abrupt, temporary loss of consciousness
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What is a contusion of the brain?
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Visible bruising of brain due to trauma.
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What does a contusion usually result in?
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Extended unconsciousness, minutes to several hours
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What is a laceration of the brain?
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Tearing of brain (skull fracture or gunshot wound)
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What are the consequences of laceration of the brain?
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Cerebral hematoma, edema, increased intracranial pressure
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How does a knockout blow to the human mandible cause unconsciousness?
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Twists and distorts brain stem, overwhelming the reticular activation system (RAS) with a volley of nerve impulses
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What causes a coma?
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Complete disconnection of reticular activation system from cerebral cortex, usually due to a severe brain stem lesion.
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How do animals below the level of primates function without a cerebrum?
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In many ways quite normally
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List 3 primary deficits that may be seen with lesions to the cerebrum?
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- Seizures
- Behavior and mentation abnormalities - Depression - Abnormal posture w/ normal gait - Blind with normal pupillary reflexes - Compulsive pacing, head pressing |
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Unilateral cerebral lesions will cause _____ signs?
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Contralateral (opposite side)
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Is circling a localizing lesion? Why?
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No; lesions to many parts of the brain can cause circling
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What do epileptic seizures usually signify?
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Cerebral abnormalities
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How is an animal with normal mental state described?
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BAR (bright, alert, and responsive)
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What signs are seen with diacephalon lesions?
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Behavior abnormalities, abnormal postural reactions w/ relatively normal gait, loss of vision with normal pupillary reflexes usually, and autonomic and endocrine disturbances (polyuria, polydipsia, hyperphagia, poor temperature regulation, altered sleep patterns).
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|
How could the last answer be summarized?
|
Same as cerebral signs + ANS and endocrine signs
|
|
|
Clinically what part of the brain does the thalamus resemble?
|
Cerebrum
|
|
|
What signs are seen with thalamic lesions?
|
Same as cerebral lesions
|
|
|
What is seen with hypothalamic dysfunction?
|
Variety of autonomic and endocrne disturbances
|
|
|
What are signs of hypothalamic dysfunction?
|
Polyuria, polydipsia, hyperphagia, poor temperature regulation, altered sleep patterns.
|
|
|
What is polyuria?
|
Urinating large volumes of water
|
|
|
Define polydipsia?
|
Drinking large volumes of water
|
|
|
What is hyperphagia?
|
Eating large volumes of food.
|
|
|
What part of the brain does normal gait depend?
|
Brainstem, houses locomotor function
|
|
|
How is the brain stem disease characterized?
|
Abnormal gait + abnormal posture and cranial nerve deficits, mental state
|
|
|
What is a significant difference between midbrain and cerebral / diencephalon lesions?
|
Abnormal gait as well as postureal abnormalities
|
|
|
What type of gait and postural deficits will midbrain lesions exhibit, UMN or LMN?
|
UMN in character
|
|
|
What limbs will be affected by brain stem lesions, depending on the extent of the lesion?
|
All 4 limbs (tetraparesis) or both limbs on 1 side (hemiparesis)
|
|
|
What does decreased levels of consciousness due to brainstem leions?
|
Depression to coma
|
|
|
What is the best evidence of brainstem lesions?
|
Dysfunction of cranial nerves 3-12
|
|
|
When should brain stem disease be suspected?
|
If cranial nn. abnormalites + UMN paresis or decreased consciousness
|
|
|
How are disorders of the basal ganglia (nuclei) characterized?
|
Distrubance at rest and in anticipation of movement
|
|
|
What disease in animals affects the basal nuclei?
|
Yellow star thistle poisoning in horses
|
|
|
What areas of brain are affected by yellow star thistle poisoning in horses?
|
Substantia nigra and/or globus pallidus
|
|
|
On what part of the brain do hypnotics, anesthetic and tranquilizers work by blocking transmission of impulses?
|
Reticular activating system
|
|
|
What will a brainstem lesion affecting the reticular formation cause?
|
Decreased levels of consciousness
|
|
|
What can cause a state ranging from depression to coma?
|
Brainstem lesion (RAS damage)
|
|
|
What is narcolepsy?
|
Syndrome of unknown cause characterized by abnormal sleep tendencies
|
|
|
What results in the "cataplexy" part of narcolepsy?
|
Sudden collapse
|
|
|
How does a cerebellar lesion present?
|
Uncoordinated without paresis (no weakness)
|
|
|
To what are all signs of cerebellar disease related?
|
Alteration in coordination
|
|
|
What is dysmetria?
|
A movement that is too long or too short.
|
|
|
Give 1 example of dysmetria.
|
Goose stepping, sticking nose too far into water dish to drink
|
|
|
What are tremors?
|
Small repetitive movements
|
|
|
When are tremors worse in cerebellar disease?
|
When animal initiates the movement (intention tremors).
|
|
|
What characterizes cerebellar ataxia?
|
Wide based stance, dysmetria, and intention tremors
|
|
|
What helps differentiate cerebellar disease from spinal cord disease?
|
Abnormal head motion
|
|
|
What type of nystagmus may be present in cerebellar disease?
|
Tremor of eye without fast-slow component
|
|
|
What eye reflex can be affected by diffuse cerebellar disease?
|
Decreased menace response with normal vision and palpebral reflex
|
|
|
What is cerebellar hypoplasia?
|
In utero damage to cerebellum before it reaches normal size
|
|
|
What causes cerebellar hypoplasia in kittens?
|
Panleukopenia virus to pregnant dam
|
|
|
How do kittens with cerebellar hypoplasia present?
|
Incoordination, intention tremors and dysmetria
|
|
|
Which side of the body is affected by unilateral lesions of the cerebellum or its tracts or vestibular nuclei?
|
Same side (ipsilateral)
|
|
|
Why can a hard blow to the base of the skull be fatal?
|
Many vital activities controlled by medulla
|
|
|
What signs might be seen with nonfatal medullary injuries?
|
Cranial nerve dysfunctions, paralysis and loss of sensation on opposite side of body and irregularities in respiratory control.
|
|
|
Describe briefly the physiology of dynamic equilibrium.
|
Rotation of head causes endolymph to move cupula, bending hair cells = NAP via vestibular branch of CrN 8 to brain
|
|
|
When does normal physiological nystagmus always occur automatically?
|
When semicircular canals stimulated
|
|
|
Damage to what three areas can cause loss of equilibrium?
|
Cerebellum, cerebrum, vestibular system.
|
|
|
How is vestibular disease differentiated from cerebellar and cerebral disease?
|
Blindfolded righting test, holding animal by pelvis
|
|
|
How is the vestibular system tested?
|
Observe gait, nystagmus, alter body position for positional nystagmus, righting reflexes, caloric test
|
|
|
What is the primary diagnostic concern with vestibular disease?
|
Differentiating peripheral from central vestibular disease.
|
|
|
How does unilateral vestibular disease present?
|
Ataxia (usually asymmetric), head tilt, nystagmus, +/- falling, rolling, circling, and strabismus.
|
|
|
What is nystagmus?
|
Involuntary rhythmic eyeball involvement
|
|
|
How is peripheral vestibular different from central vestibular disease?
|
Doesn't exhibit weakness or postural deficits
|
|
|
How does central and peripheral vestibular disease present?
|
Central: vestibular signs + weakness and postural deficits
Peripheral: vestibular signs, no paresis, no altered postural reactions. |
|
|
Why may postural reactions in peripheral vestibular disease seem awkward?
|
Because of loss of balance and disorientation.
|
|
|
What is the primary difference between peripheral and central vestibular disease?
|
Central: has brain stem signs (paresis and postural deficits)
|
|
|
Define ataxia.
|
Uncoordinated movement
|
|
|
When is mannitol used?
|
In cerebral trauma cases to decrease intracranial pressure / CSF production
|
|
|
What is external hydrocephalus?
|
Accumulation of CSF in subarachnoid space
|
|
|
What causes external hydrocephalus?
|
Interference with drainage of CSF into dural sinuses
|
|
|
What is an accumulation of CSF in the ventricles of the brain?
|
Internal hydrocephalus
|
|
|
What does internal noncommunicating hydrocephalus cause?
|
Enlarged ventricles
|
|
|
Where is the highest incidence of blockage of the ventricular system?
|
Mesencephalic aqueduct
|
|
|
How is CSF an important diagnostic tool?
|
For neurological disorders - analysis of protein, cells, ect.
|
|
|
Where can CSF be obtained from an animal?
|
Cisterna magna (cerebellomedullary cistern) and lumbar subarachnoid space (lumbar cistern)
|
|
|
What procedure is used for diagnosis of brain and spinal compression?
|
Myelograms - radiographic
|
|
|
What is a myelogram?
|
Radiographs of contrast material in the subarachnoid space
|
|
|
What is the most important component of hte blood-brain barrier?
|
Nonfenestrated capillaries (continuity of endothelial cells)
|
|
|
What may result if blood flow is even briefly interrupted in the brain?
|
Unconsciousness
|
|
|
What length of deprivation of blood results in permanent damage to brain cells?
|
4 minutes
|
|
|
What results if blood to brain is low in glucose?
|
Mental confusion, dizziness, convulsions, and loss of consciousness
|
|
|
What is a blowout of a vessel of the brain?
|
Aneurysm
|
|
|
What is a blockage by a clot of a blood vessel?
|
Thrombus or emboli
|
|
|
Which animals will immediately collapse if both carotid arteries are cut in the neck region?
|
Sheep and cat.
|
|
|
How long before cattle fall after bilateral cutting of the common carotid arteries? Why?
|
8 seconds, due to vertebral supply to brain
|
|
|
Why is the blood supply to the brians of food animals important?
|
Humane slaughter techniques
|
|
|
Why doesn't the dog show gross motor signs of cerebrovascular accidents like man?
|
Not primarily a cortical animal, but a brainstem motor animal
|
|
|
When should a screening neurological exam be done?
|
During every physical exam.
|
|
|
List the parts of screening neurology exam that may be used during a regualr physical exam.
|
Observe:
- mental status, stance / head position and gait - check for strength - proprioception - head: cranial nerve exam - body: palpation and reflexes |
|
|
What abnormal stances or head positions signal a neurology problem?
|
Head tilt, wide based stance; head tremor / bobbing
|
|
|
How would you test for weakness?
|
Push on back
|
|
|
How is proprioception tested for in a neurological screening?
|
Knuckle paws over, abduct limb or cross limbs
|
|
|
What is the first deficit to show with a neurological deficit?
|
Proprioceptive positioning
|
|
|
How are a cranial nerves screened in a regular physical exam?
|
Check facial symmetry:
- check eye position, movements and pupil size - Menace eye - touch both angles of eye - light in eyes - manipulate jaw - finger down throat |
|
|
How is the body manipulated in a neurological screening exam?
|
Palpate body muscles
- tap patellar ligament - poke anus - move tail - finger pinch toe of all 4 limbs |
|
|
What is the function of the vestibular system?
|
Maintain posture with respect to gravity and coordinating eye and head movements.
|
|
|
What senses maintain equilibrium? With what arease of the brain are the associated?
|
Inner ear receptors and vestibular brain stem nuclei (vestibular system), vision (cerebrum), proprioception (cerebellum)
|
|
|
What is the function of the vestibular (labyrinthine) righting reflexes?
|
Stabilize eye and head movements and head in space
|
|
|
What becomes very important if the vestibular righting reflexes are deficient?
|
Visual-righting reflexes
|
|
|
Where is the vestibular system located?
|
In inner ear (peripheral part) and brain stem (central part)
|
|
|
What one word best describes the vestibular system?
|
Equilibrium
|
|
|
What is nystagmus?
|
Involuntary sudden jumping and slow backward motion of eye
|
|
|
What are the 2 components of nystagmus?
|
Fast and slow component
|
|
|
What is nystagmus abnormal?
|
When not related to head movement.
|
|
|
When is abnormal hystagmus seen?
|
Disease of vestibular system, including vestibular nuclei
|
|
|
How does normal nystagmus occur?
|
As head rotates, eyes must rotate in opposite direction to remain fixed on an object; then jump in direction of head rotation to fix on another object and then rotate slowly backward.
|
|
|
What are the components of the peripheral vestibular system?
|
Inner ear (labyrinth, receptors, vestibular nerve (CrN 8))
|
|
|
What are the central components of the central vestibular system?
|
Vestibular nuclei in brain stem
|
|
|
How is the inner ear divided?
|
Vestibule, semicircular canals, cochlea.
|
|
|
What makes up the vestibular system?
|
Peripheral (receptors, vestibular nerve (CrN 8)),
central (vestibular nuclei, efferents) |
|
|
What are the receptors of the vestibular system and to what do tehy respond?
|
Cristae: semicircular canals: angular (rotation) acceleration
Maculae of utriculus and sacculus: linear acceleration and gravity. |
|
|
What is the purpose of the fibers from the vestibular nuclei that pass to LMN of the spinal cord?
|
Maintain posture and locomotion
|
|
|
What is the function of the ascending fibers from the vestibular nuclei to the nerves innervating the extrinsic muscles of the eye?
|
Coordinate head and eye movements.
|
|
|
What is the purpose of neurological screening part of a physical exam?
|
Detect any neurological problems.
|
|
|
What is observed in a screening neurology exam?
|
Mental status, stance and head position and gait
|
|
|
List three possible mental states looked for during a neurological screening test.
|
BAR, manic, consciousness, seizures
|
|
|
What does BAR stand for?
|
Bright, alert, and responsive
|
|
|
Why is the gait observed in a neurology screening exam?
|
Incoordination, weakness, stumbling
|
|
|
Why is facial symmetry checked in an exam?
|
Dysfunction of CrN7 (Facial n.)
|
|
|
What cranial nerves are checked by observing eye position, movements and pupil size?
|
Cranial nerves 3,4,6 sympathetic
|
|
|
How is a menace response checked?
|
Threaten eye with hand or cotton ball
|
|
|
What cranial nerve does a menace response check?
|
CrN 2, 7 (optic and oculomotor)
|
|
|
Why do you manipulate the lower jaw in a physical exam?
|
Test CrN 5(3) mandibular division of trigeminal nerve
|
|
|
What is tested by putting your finger down a dog's throat?
|
Gag reflex - CrN 10,9 (vagus, glossopharyngeal)
|
|
|
How is the palpebral reflex done?
|
Touch both angles of eye
|
|
|
What does a palpebral reflex test?
|
CrN 5-7 (Ophthalmic and maxillary branches of tigeminal n.)
|
|
|
Why should you palpate the entire body's muscles?
|
Check for muscle atrophy (head and limbs)
|
|
|
Why is a patellar tap performed in a physical exam?
|
Test reflex arch of pelvic limb
|
|
|
What easy, reliable reflexes are tested for peripheral reflex arcs?
|
Patellar tap, anal sphincter, tail tone, withdrawal reflex
|
|
|
How is the withdrawal reflex tested in a screening physical?
|
Pinch toes of all 4 limbs
|
|
|
What can cause gait abnormalities?
|
Cerebrum, cerebellum, brain stem, spinal cord, peripheral nerves, or vestibular lesions
|
|
|
What type of neurological problems can cause weakness or paresis?
|
Cerebrum, brain stem, or spinal cord injuries (UMN or LMN deficit)
|
|
|
What neurological problems don't cause paresis?
|
Peripheral vestibular or cerebellar lesions
|
|
|
What specific neurological screening tests that don't localize a lesions, but are sensitive indicators of neurology disorders?
|
Postural reactions
|
|
|
List 4 postural reactions that are sensitive neurology screening tests?
|
Proprioceptive positioning, hopping: hemi-stands and hemi-walks, wheelbarrowing
|
|
|
What is the postural reaction used in a neurological screening exam?
|
Proprioceptive positioning
|
|
|
What should be done once a neurology problem had been confirmed?
|
Localize the lesion.
|
|
|
List 5 "head signs" of a neurology problem above the foramen magnum.
|
Changes in mental attitude, mentation, consciousness and behavior; seizures, head tilt, head tremors, circling, cranial nn. deficiencies
|
|
|
Where is the lesion of an animal with "head signs' depending on its gait and strength?
- "Head signs" and normal gait - "Head signs" and weakness or paralysis (4 or 2 ipsilateral limbs) - "Head signs" and incoordination or dysmetria: no weekness - "Head signs" and leaning, circling, no weakness - "Head signs" and leaning, circling, weakness |
- "HS" + normal gait: Rostral to midbrain (cerebrum or diencephalon)
- "HS" + weakness or paralysis (4 or 2 ips): Lesions to brain stem - "HS" + incoordination or dysmetria: no weakness: Cerebellum - "HS" + leaning, circling, no weaknes: Peripheral vestibular - "HS" + leaning, circling, weakness: Central vestibular |
|
|
WHat is the first step in localizing a neurological lesion?
|
Rule in or out the head, spinal cord and/or periphery
|
|
|
What signs would R/O (rule out) a disorder above the foramen magnum?
|
No "head signs" (normal mental attitude, consciousness, head position, cranial nerves)
|
|
|
What is done next in neurological lesion localization when the head has been ruled out?
|
Localization to peripheral nerves or spinal cord
|
|
|
What spinal reflexes are tested to evaluate the spinal cord?
|
- Perineal reflex
- Patellar reflex - Flexor reflex (rear limb) - Withdrawal reflex (all limbs) - Cutaneous trunci - Schiff-Sherrington syndrome |
|
|
Does a withdrawal of a limb when it is pinched confirm an animal has feeling in the limb?
|
No
|
|
|
Why is deep pain said to be the "last to go, first to show"?
|
It is the last to disappear and 1st to return if there is recovery
|
|
|
When would you map superficial sensation?
|
If LMN signs
|
|
|
What is the first thing to do if a neurology problem is suspected?
|
First confirm neurology problem
|
|
|
How is a neurology problem confirmed?
|
Observe mental state, stance and head position and gait, test strength, proprioceptive positioning.
|
|
|
After a neurological problem is confirmed, what should be done?
|
Try to localize the lesion
|
|
|
What does R/O stand for ?
|
Rule out
|
|
|
Why are limbs palpated in a neurology exam?
|
For tone (normal to increased or decreased)
|
|
|
What may normal tone or flaccidity of the limbs muscles indicate?
|
LMN damage
|
|
|
What would normal tone in a limbs muscles indicate?
|
Normal or UMN disease
|
|
|
What would i tone in limb muscles indicate?
|
UMN disease, normal excitement, tetanus
|
|
|
How is superficial pain evaluated?
|
Light pinch to toes (withdrawal reflex)
|
|
|
What reflex evaluates the sensory limb of a reflex arch?
|
Withdrawal reflex
|
|
|
To what does the saying "last to go, first to show" refer?
|
Deep pain
|
|
|
What is the pharynx evaluated for radiographically?
|
Decrease or increase contrast
|
|
|
What could cause decreased contrast of the pharynx?
|
Inflammation, masses, or normal in brachycephalic breeds.
|
|
|
What causes increased contrast to the pharynx radiographically?
|
Gas around pharynx (retropharyngeal gas)
|
|
|
What could cause retropharyngeal gas?
|
Penetrating wounds or rupture of pharynx or esophagus
|
|
|
What could cause the following displacements of the pharynx?
- Ventral displacement? - Lateral displacement? - Caudal displacement? |
- Ventral: retropharyngeal masses
- Lateral: laryngeal, tonsillar or thyroid masses - Caudal: hyoid apparatus fracture |
|
|
In what type of dogs is the pharynx difficult to interpret because there is less air and thus less contrast in the pharyngeal region?
|
Brachycephalic dogs
|
|
|
What is the #1 clinical radiographic finding of the hyoid bones?
|
Fractures
|
|
|
What are three common sites for foreign bodies to lodge in the esophagus due to constriction of surrounding structures?
|
- Cranial to thoracic inlet
- Cranial to base of heart - Cranial to diaphragm |
|
|
How does the esophagus relate to the aorta in a persistent right aortic arch?
|
To left of aorta instead of right
|
|
|
What structures constrict the esophagus in a persistent right aortic arch?
|
Aorta, ligamentum arteriosum, pulmonary trunk, and base of heart
|
|
|
The constriction due to a persistent right aortic arch causes food to be stopped and the esophagus to balloon cranial to the _____ __ _____
|
Base of heart
|
|
|
Name a dilation of the caudal cervical and thoracic esophagus.
|
Megaesophagus
|
|
|
Which way does a megaesophagus displace the trachea and heart?
|
Ventral
|
|
|
What is the line caused by the air in a megaesophagus and air in trachea contrasting the adjacent walls of the two structures?
|
Tracheal-esophageal stripe
|
|
|
What is the name for the VD appearance of a megaesophagus as it passes caudally to the diaphragm?
|
Esophageal cone
|
|
|
The teeth are arranged in two opposing dental _____.
|
Arches / arcades
|
|
|
Name four substances found in teeth from inside out.
|
Enamel (superficial on crown), cementum (superficial on root), dentin, and pulp (inside)
|
|
|
What is the hardest substance in the body?
|
Enamel
|
|
|
Name the four types of permanent teeth and give their abbreviations.
|
Incisors (I), Canine (C), Premolars (PM), and Molars (M)
|
|
|
The premolars and the molars make up the ______ teeth.
|
Cheek teeth
|
|
|
Name two types of teeth.
|
Deciduous and permanent
|
|
|
Name the three parts of low-crowned (brachydont) teeth of carnivores.
|
Crown, neck, root
|
|
|
What are shortand representations of the number of teeth?
|
Dental formul
|
|
|
What forms the bulk of the tooth and surrounds the pulp cavity?
|
Dentin
|
|
|
Where are the nerves found in the teeth?
|
Pulp cavity
|
|
|
What is the socket the teeth sit in?
|
Alveoli
|
|
|
What holds the teeth in the alveoli? What does it connect?
|
Periodontal membrane, connects cementum on root with alveolar wall
|
|
|
Write the permanent dental formula of the dog?
|
2 (I 3/3 C 1/1 P 4/4 C 2/3) = 42
|
|
|
Is the dental formula constant in dogs? Why?
|
No, brachycephalic breeds may be missing teeth.
|
|
|
What is a furcation?
|
Where roots meet in two and three rooted teeth.
|
|
|
What is an elongated jaw (mandible)?
|
"Overshot" (prognathia), sow mouth, monkey mouth (mesioclusion - underbite)
|
|
|
What is a shortened jaw (mandible)?
|
"Undershot" (brachygnathia), parrot mouth, (distoclusion - overbite)
|
|
|
What results in swelling or draining (pus) below the carnivore's eye?
|
Carnassial tooth abscess (upper P4)
|
|
|
How is the carnassial tooth abscess (Upper P4) removed?
|
Split tooth becasue has 3 roots - dogs and cats
|
|
|
Why should upper pm4 be split before it is removed?
|
3 roots diverge, a root or jaw may break
|
|
|
How is aging of dog by their teeth used practically in dogs?
|
Baby teeth in by 6 weeks - vaccination
Adult teeth in by 6 months - time to spay |
|
|
How are cats aged by their teeth?
|
Like dogs, baby by 6 wk, adult by 6 mo.
|
|
|
Which dog teeth have three roots?
|
Last 3 on top
|
|
|
Which cat permanent tooth has three roots?
|
Upper Pm4 (carnassial)
|
|
|
How many teeth should there be between the canines and the carnassial teeth in the upper and lower jaw?
|
Upper: 3 between C and Pm4
Lower: 4 between C and M1 |
|
|
How are teeth fractures divided into two groups?
|
Complicated or uncomplicated, depending on if pulp exposed or not, respectively
|
|
|
What can you say about a discolored tooth?
|
Dead tooth
|
|
|
What can cause disoloration of enamel of puppy teeth?
|
High temperature when eveloping (e.g. distemper) or tetracycline antibiotics used
|
|
|
What is the number one disease of teeth in dogs?
|
Periodontal disease
|
|
|
What point is used to measure the recession of the gums?
|
Cemento-enamel junction
|
|
|
What is the lamina dura seen in radiographs of the head?
|
Wall of alveoli holding teeth.
|
