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291 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What are the four components of blood?
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ERYTHROCYTES, LEUKOCYTES, BUFFY COAT, PLASMA
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What is a HEMATOCRIT?
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the percent of red blood cells
normal- 38-52 men, 36-48 women |
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What is the normal PH of blood?
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7.35-7.45
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What is the normal volume of blood
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5-6l in males
4-5 l in females |
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What are the three basic functions of blood?
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DISTRIBUTION
(delivers 02, wastes, nutrients, hormones) REGULATION (temp, ph, reservoir for buffers) PROTECTION (prevent blood loss, infection) |
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What is PLASMA?
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Extracellular matrix of blood. Yellow sticky fluid composed of water, plasma protiens, ions, clotting factor, electrolytes
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What are the three PLASMA PROTIENS and their functions?
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ALBUMIN (most common) - transport and ph buffer
GLOBULINS - transport, clotting and immunity FIBRINOGEN - clotting |
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What is SERUM?
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Plasma devoid of clotting factors
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What is an ERYTHROCYTE?
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rbc - small biconcave disc that has no nucleus - transports hemoglobin - shape maintained by SPECTRIN
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Erythrocytes can generate ATP _______. Making them efficient O2 transporters.
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Anerobically
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What is the function of erythrocytes?
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gas exchange via hemoglobin
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What is HEMOGLOBIN?
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molecule that binds easily and reversibly with 02
HEME iron - red pigment GLOBIN - protien - four polypeptide chains |
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What are normal values of hemoglobin?
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14-20g infants
13-18g males 12-16g females |
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How many molecules of hemoglobin are found in one erythrocyte?
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250 million
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What is significant about CO and hemoglobin?
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CO binds with 210x more affinity than 02, blocking 02 from binding
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What is the calculation for hemoglobin?
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Hematocrit/3
(measured in g/ml) |
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Where does the production of erythrocytes occur?
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red bone marrow
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What is the cell that all blood cells arise from?
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HEMATOCYTOBLAST or HEMATOPOETIC STEM CELL
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What is the sequence of cells in RBC production (6)?
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Hemocytoblast
myeloid stem cell proerythroblast basophillic erythroblast late erythroblast normoblast |
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How long does it take o produce erythrocytes?
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15 days
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Where is ERYTHROPOETIN made?
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kidneys
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What are the factors needed for erythropoesis?
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erythropoetin
iron amino acids b12&folic acid lipids intrinsic factor for b12 absorption |
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Where is iron stored in the body?
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hemoglobin (65%)
liver spleen bone marrow |
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What happens when erythrocytes get old?
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lose flexibility/hemoglobin begins to deteriorate
they become trapped and fragment in small blood vessels particularly in the spleen and are engulfed and destroyed by MACROPHAGES the HEME and GLOBIN split |
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What is the life span of an erythrocyte?
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100-120 days
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What happens to GLOBIN in a dead erythrocyte?
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Hydrolized into free amino acids
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What happens to the heme in dead erythrocytes?
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transported to liver and stored as ferritin or converted to biliverdin-billirubin-bile in SI and into feces
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What is ANEMIA?
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disease of the RBC characterized by insufficient #, low hemoglobin content, or genetic defect, deficiency in 02 carrying capacity of hemoglobin
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What is POLYCYTHEMIA?
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Opposite of anemia. Too many RBC
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What is a LEUKOCYTE?
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White blood cell - complete cell parts - less than 1% of blood
4800-10800/ml they defend against disease |
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What is DIAPEDESIS?
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ability to slip in and out of capillaries (wbc can do this)
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What is the most neumerous type of WBC?
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Neutrophils
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What are characteristics of a neutrophil?
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granulocyte
most numerous 2x size of rbc fine granules 3-6 lobed nuclei attracted to infection chemically, they are ACTIVE PHAGOCYTES live for a few hours to a few days |
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What are the 5 types of WBC?
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neutrophil
basophil eosinophil lymphocyte monocyte |
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WBC in order of abundance?
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NLMEB
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What are characteristics of an EOSINOPHIL?
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2-4% of leukocytes
dark red bilobed nucleus large coarse granules attack PARASITIC WORMS - PHAGOCYTIZE ALLERGIC RXNS lifespan 5 days |
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What are characteristics of BASOPHILS?
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rarest wbc
.5-1% large coarse granules that obscure nucleus HISTAMINE AND HEPARIN responses live a few hours to a few days |
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What are characteristics of LYMPHOCYTES?
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agranulocytes
second most prevalant main cell involved with IMMUNE SYSTEM - funcation to respond to viral infection, cancer cells and foreign material large nucleus can fill cytoplasm life span hours to years depending on function also found in lymphoid tissue |
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What are the types of lymphocytes?
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T - direct attack
b - memory cells secrete antibodies |
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What are characteristics of MONOCYTES?
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agranulocytes
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What are characteristics of MONOCYTES?
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largest leukocyte
U shaped nucleus 3-8% of WBC PHAGOCYTES of nonspecific material - Trash Dumps live for months |
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Where does leukopoiesis occur?
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Bone marrow
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What is the difference between a MYELOID and a LYMPHOID?
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lymphoid makes lymphocytes and myeloids make all other formed elements
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What is Leukemia?
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cancerous condition in which cells remain unspecialized - bone marrow becomes occupied by these cells - causes anemia, bleeding, fever, weight loss, bone pain
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What is leukocytosis?
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High leukocyte count not due to cancer caused by general infections and allergies
Mononeucleosis |
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What are characteristics of THROMBOCYTES (platelets)?
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fragments of large MEGAKARYOCYTES
contain chemicals including Ca+ - aid in clotting no nucleus no cell division live 5-10 days 150000-450000/nl |
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1/3 of platelets are stored in the ___.
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Spleen
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What is the function of platelets and how do they do it?
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create platelet plug by secreting vasoconstrictors, procoagulants and growth factors
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What are the steps of HEMOSTASIS(stoppage of bleeding)?
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vascular spasms (vasoconstriction)
platelet plug formation coagulation |
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Explain Vascular Spasms
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release of chemicals at injured site affect smooth muscle causing reflexes to be intitated by pain receptors
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Explain Plug Formation
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endothelial cells break and release VON WILLIBRAND factor (VWF - plasma protien)
collagen fibers and VWF become sticky platelets release chemicals to attract more platelets and begin coagulation (+ feedback cycle) |
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Explain Coagulation
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complex process involving 30 substances and 13 clotting factors
end product is FIBRIN intrinsic and extrinsic pathways activate factor X Final steps are Prothrombin activator converts prothrombin to thrombin thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin fibrin meshes together - traps platelets - makes durable clot |
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INTRINSIC pathways of coagulation are triggered by clotting factors from ____.
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platelets
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EXTRINSIC pathways of coagulation are triggered by clotting factors released from ____.
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Damaged tissue
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What is FIBRINOLYSIS?
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Process that removes clot after healing has occurred
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What is the process of fibrinolysis?
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PLASMINOGEN is activated to create enzyme PLASMIN using TPA - PLASMIN digests fibrin
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What is an ANTIGEN?
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a protein attached to the surface of erythrocyte
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What is an ANTIBODY?
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A plasma protien that attacks anything foreign
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Blood types are named based on the presence of ____.
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Antigens
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What is the most common blood type? Least common?
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Most - O
Least AB |
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What is the Universal Donor?
Universal Recipient? |
Donor O
Recipient AB |
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What is the concern with Rh factor?
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If a - person gets Rh + blood, it will develop antibodies. Subsequent transfusions of + blood will cause agglutination
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What is HEMOLYTIC DISEASE OF THE NEWBORN?
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Due to Rh factor - mother rh- first baby +, Subsequent pregnancy with + child will cause mother's antibodies to attack. Treated with immuoglobin
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What is the PERICARDIUM? What are the layers?
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double walled sac enclosing the heart
Fibrous pericardium - outer - CT - protective - prevents overfilling SEROUS PERICARDIUM thin two layer membrane - slippery |
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What are the layers of the heart wall?
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EPICARDIUM - outer layer
MYOCARDIUM - thickest muscular layer ENDOCARDIUM - thin inner layer continous with blood vessel lining |
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Explain the features and functions of the ATRIA.
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receiving chambers for the heart
haave PECTINATE MUSCLES AURICLES (protruding appendages) on outer surface of heart R&L are separated by the Interatrial septum |
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Explain the features and functions of the VENTRICLES.
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pumping chambers
L side has walls 3x thicker than right for systemic pumping TRABERCULAE CARNAE - ridges of muscles in ventricles PAPILLARY MUSCLES play role in valve function |
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What are CHORDAE TENDINAE?
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They attach the valves to papillary muscles. WHite bands of CT.
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What valve is between the RIGHT atrium and ventricle?
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The RAV or TRICUSPID valve
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What valve is between the left atrium and ventricle?
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LAV, BICUSPID or MITRAL valve
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WHen heart is relaxed, valves are _____, and when it contracts, they are _____ forcing blood into blood vessels
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OPEN
CLOSED |
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What are features of the SEMILUNAR VALVES?
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SL valves have 3 pcketlike cusps - forced open due to ventricular pressure - close when backflow of blood in bv fill cusps
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Where ae the SL valves located?
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AORTIC SL VALVE - base of aorta
PULMONARY SL VALVE - base of the pulmonary artery |
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What are the names and functions of the great vessels? (vessels entering and leaving heart)
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AORTA - leaves LV - blood to tissues
PULOMONARY TRUNK - blood to lungs PULMONARY VEINS - blood from lungs SUP/INF VENA CAVA - blood to RA from body tissues |
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What are the CORONARY ARTERIES?
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they supply the O2 blood to the heart - branch off the base of the arota
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What is the path of blood flow through the heart?
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RA - bicuspid - RV - p.art. - lungs - p.veins - LA - bicuspid - aorta - body tissues - vena cava - RA
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Name some characteristics of cardiac muscle.
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striated, many mitochondria, uninucliate, cells connect at INTERCALCATED DISKS, longer refractory period compared to skeletal muscles, cells can initiate their own depolarization, cardiac units contract as a whole unit - stimulus sent trough gap junctions
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What are AUTORHYTHMIC MONOCYTES?
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Pacemaker cells. They havve unstable resting membranc potential and depolarize at regular intervals
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What is the general sequence of excitation?
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SA node - AV node - bundle of HIS - bundle branches - perkinje fibers
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The SA node generates impulses at ___. This is called the _____.
The AV node generates impulses at ____. This is called the ______. The bundle of his is autorhythmic at ___. Perkinje fibers are autorhythmic at ___. |
75bpm
SINUS RHYTHM 40-50 bpm ECTOPIC FOCUS 30 bpm 25 bpm |
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What is the function of the AV node with regards to the depolarization wave?
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delays the wave for about .1 second. Allows atria to complete contraction before ventricles contract
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____ between heart chammbers determine blood flow.
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PRESSURE DIFFERENCES
30mmHg on right 120mmHg on left |
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What happens during ATRIAL SYSTOLE?
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SA node fires - atrial depolorization-contract and push blood into ventricle
responsible for 25-30% of blood volume in ventricles EDV 130ml |
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WHat happens during Ventricular Systole?
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ventricles depolarize-contract - pressure increases during contraction - AV valves shut as v.press becomes greater than a. press. - continues to increase and becomes greater than arterial pressure expelling blood into bv through arotic and pulmonary valves
resitual amt of blood in ventricles - ESV 60ml |
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What is ISOMETRIC CONTRACTION
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ventricular contraction when all four valves are closed
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Explain the events of VENTRICULAR DIASTOLE
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ventricles repolarize - prssure bacomes less than arterial pressure - blood refluxes toward valves causing them to close
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What is the ISOVOLUMETRIC CONTRACTION PERIOD?
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period during ventricular relaxation when all four valves are closed
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What is the QUIESCENT PERIOD?
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period when ventricles are filling - all chambers are in dyastole - AV valves open
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What is STROKE VOLUME?
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the vol. of blood pumped by each ventricle in one beat - represents the difference between EDV and ESV (sv=edv-esv) average is 70ml
changes with preload, contractility and afterload |
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what is PRELOAD?
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amt of tension in tissue before contraction.
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What is the Frank Starling Law?
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Says that the amt of stretch in myocardium affects contraction strength
Amt of blood coming back to heart affects how stretched the muscle is |
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Explain CONTRACTILITY
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Strength is achieved at a given muscle length - linked to CA+
increase in Ca=increase in contractility=increase in ejection volume Increased SNS stim increases heart contractility |
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Explain AFTERLOAD
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it is the bp in arteries opposing blood mvt. minor factor in healthy individuals but impt in people with high bp
decreases ejection vol and increases ESV |
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CARDIAC OUTPUT
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CO=HRxSV
volume of blood pumped by each ventricle in 1 min - avg 4-6 l/min |
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How do BARORECEPTORS control the heart?
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located in the carotid sinus and aorta, baroreceptors sense changes in pressure - send sig to cardiac center in MEDULLA - acceleratory or inhibitory
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How does the PSNS control heart?
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Cardioinhibitory nerves in medulla - vagus nerve - release of ACH
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What effects does ACH have on heart?
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inhibitory
decreases rate by decreasing sinus rhythm NO EFFECT ON SV |
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How does the SNS control heart?
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acceleratory
releases NE to increase BOTH heart rate and stroke volume |
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What is the P wave?
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depolorization of SA - atrial depolorization
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PR or PQ interval
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Av node delay
beginning of artrial excitement to beginning of ventricular excitation |
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QRS complex
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ventricular depolorization
atrial repolorization masked |
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QT interval
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period of ventricular depolarization through ventricular repolorization
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T wave
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Ventricular repolorization
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TP interval
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quiescent period - time between cycles
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What is the SINUS VENOSUS?
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developmental part of fetus - turns into RA, coronary sinus, AV node
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What is the BULBUS CORDIS?
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developmental part of fetal heart -
turns into turns into pulm. trunk, aorta, RV |
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What is the path of circulation through the fetus?
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placenta-umb vein-ductus venosis-inf vena cava-RA - foramen ovale - LA - pulm vein - LV - aorta
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WHat are the three modifications in the fetal heart and their roles?
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DUCTUS VENOSIS - shunts blood from umbilical vein to inf. vena cava
FORAMEN OVALE - hole between RA LA DUCTUS ARTERIOSUS - shunts blood from pulmonary trunk and aorta - blood bypasses lungs |
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What are the three layers of blood vessels?
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Tunica externa - outer - loose CT - fx:protection & stabilization
Tunica Media - middle - smooth muscle and elastin - fx:support and vasomotion - regualtes diameter Tunica interna - inner - simple squamous and some CT - function is to line BV - minimize friction |
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What are the three types of arteries and their functions?
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CONDUCTING ARTERIES - largest
DISTRIBUTING ARTERIES - branches that deliver blood to specific tissues ARTERIOLES - smallest - tunica media is one layer of sm. musc. play large role in TPR |
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What is the only layer present in capillaries?
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Tunica Interna
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What are the three types of capillaries and their differences?
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CONTINUOUS - skin and musc. tight jcts. uninterupted linings - diffusion across endothelial cells
FENESTRATED - s.i. & kidneys pores for rapid filtration SINUSOID - liver, bone marrow, endocrine, lymphoid organs Large fenestrations allow large molecules and blood cells to pass between |
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What is the diference between the layers of veins and arteries?
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TI in veins have valves
TM is thin TE is thicker veins have larger lumens than corresponding arteries. |
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What are ANASTOMOSES?
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blood vessels that branch from similar locations and provide alternate pathways to location
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What is a PORTAL SYSTEM?
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a system of blood vessels with two capillary beds
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Explain capillary hydrostatic pressure CHP.
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pressure of blood against capilary walls favors fluid moving into tissues. Higher on arterial side of capillary bed than venous side.
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Explain Plasma Colloid Osmotic Pressure.
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Osmotic pressure exerted by plasma protiens. Usually constant within capillary bed
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What is Net Filtration pressure?
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NFP - the difference between fluid out of capillary and into capillary
nfp=chp-cop |
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Access to capillary beds is controlled by _____.
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Precapillary Sphincters
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How do BARORECEPTORS control bp?
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INcrease in bp makes baroreceptors INCREASE firing causing bv to dailate and TPR to DECREASE.
DEcrease in bp causes baroreceptors to DECREASE firing, vasomotor centers cause bv to constrict, raising TPR |
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What are chemoreceptors and Chemoreflex?
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Chemoreceptors are chemical sensors located in carotid and aortic bodies and chemoreflex is autonomic response to change in blood chemistry.
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Explain the CHEMOREFLEX.
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if PH or 02 decrease or CO2 increase, chemoreceptors send signal to vasomotor center - HR & SV increase
bv constrict bp increases |
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What are the three main systems that control blood pressure
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renin angiotensin aldosterone system
atrial natruitic peptide ADH Epinephrine/Norepinephrine |
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Explain the RAA system.
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decrease in bp/bvol is sensed in kidneys - renin converts angiotensin from liver to angiontensin 1 A1 is converted in lungs to A2 by ACE. A2 consticts bv. Stimulates release of aldosterone in adrenal cortex. Aldosterone in creases Na+ absorption followed by water which increases bvol/bp
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How does the hormonal control of bp by ANP work?
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ANP secreted by heart, stimulates vasodialation, decreases bp - opposing effect of aldosterone in Na+ reabsorption
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How does the hormonal control of bp by ADH work?
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Secreted in hypothalamus, stimulates increased water retention by kidneys, increases bvol/bp
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What are the three mechainisms of venous return?
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Pressure gradient, Skeletal muscle pump, Thoracic pump
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What are the components and basic functions of the lymphatic system?
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Lymphatic vessels, tissues and organs
Fx: fluid transport and filtering, immunity |
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What is LYMPH?
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Fluid and suspended particles that originate from interstital fluid and are not returned to capillaries
3L per day flow to heart under very low pressure |
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What do Lymphatic Capillaries do?
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woven between cpaillary beds, they are closed at one end. They are permiable so fluid filters into themand have one way valves to prevent backflow they converge to form trunks and then empty into collecting ducts
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Lymphatic Capillaries are found everywhere EXCEPT
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teeth, bone marrow, CNS
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What is the role of the RIGHT LYMPHATIC DUCT?
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empties lymph into rt. subclavian vein from upper right quadrant of body
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What is the role of the THORACIC DUCT?
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empties lymph into left subclavian vein from rest of body - originates in lumbar region with CYSTERNA CHYLI - drains lumbad trunks from legs and intestinal trunk
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Lymph moves via:
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Skeletal muscle pump, Thoracic pump, Blood flow
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What are the types of cells found in the lymphatic system?
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monocytes, macrophages, lymphocytes (t,b,nk) support cells
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How are Lymphatic Tissues defined?
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Clusters of leukocytes in CT of organ or membrane - present in urinary, respiratory, dogestive and repro tissue
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What are LYMPH NODES?
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Encapsulated tissue - most NUMEROUS lymph organ
located at 5 jcts. of body Fx: initiation of immune response filters lymph activate T, B, lymphocytes |
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What kinds of cells are contained in the cortex of a lymph node?
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Dividing B cells and dendridic cells
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What kind of cells are in the medulla of the lymph nodes?
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B,T lymphocytes and macrophages that monitor lymph for foreign antigens
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What is the spleen and what are its functions?
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largest lymph organ
Fx: macrophages remove debris lymphocytes filter blood removal of old erythrocytes and Fe storage platelet storage |
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What is the THYMUS and what are its functions?
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lymphatic and endocrine organ superior to heart
FX: area where T lymphocytes mature activates T lymphocytes with hormones |
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What are the functions of Tonsils
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remove ingested bacteria by trappin it in CRYPTS
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What are PEYERS PATCHES?
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diffuse lymph tissue in small int.
FX: destroys ingested bacteria, pathogens and creates B memory cells |
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What is BONE MARROW's function with regards to lymphatic system?
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Largest overall lymph organ, bone marrow produces leukocytes
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What is PULSE PRESSURE?
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Systolic-Diastolic
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What is MEAN ARTERIAL PRESSURE?
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1/3 pulse pressure + diastolic pressure
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What are INATE DEFENSES?
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Nonspecific, always prepared - protect the body from ALL foreign substances
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What are the body's nonspecific internal defenses?
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Phagocytes (macrophages, leukocytes)
NK cells Inflammation Fever Antimicrobial Protiens (interferon, compliment) |
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What are the types of and role of phagocytes in nonspecific defense?
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Macrophages - eat forigen substances(manyX)
Leukocytes - ingest bacteria and foreign material (1X) |
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What are NK Cells?
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Found in both blood and lymph, NK cells lyse and kill cells before adaptive immune system
Differ from lymphocytes in that they are "less Picky" and only detect lack of self they are not phagocytes. The contact target directly and secrete chemical to kill |
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What are INTERFERONS?
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Plasma protiens that infected cells secrete to stimulate protien synthesis in nearby cells and attracts macrophages and nk cells
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What is COMPLIMENT?
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plasma protiens that are circulating body in inactive state - activated by antibodies - stimulates inflamation and cell lysis
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What are the four characteristics of adaptive immune defenses?
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Recognition
Antigen Specific Systemic Memory |
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______ produce antibodies.
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B Lymphocytes
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What are the types of antibodies and their dfferences?
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HUMORAL - ( b lymphocytes) attack and destroy via antibody production
CELL MEDIATED - ( t lymphocytes) attach and attack pathogen directly |
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What kind of cells do B cells differntiate into after stimulation by antigen or T Call?
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Plasma Cell - secrete antibodies for specific antigen
Memory (clone) Cell - same structure as B cell - remembers antigen for secondary resopnse |
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What do plasma cell antibodies do?
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Bind to active site on pathogen to neutralize
agglutinate cells to immoblize them mark pathogen for destruction |
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What is the difference between a primary and secondary humoral immune response?
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Primary - first exposure - takes 5-6 days only a few B cells respond
Secondary - B cells respond faster producing more antibodies for a longer period of time (2-3 days) |
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IG A
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works in saliva and tears against bacteria and foreign substances
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IG D
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found on B cell membrane - plays role in B cell activation
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IG E
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Histamine, allergic and parasitic functions
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IG G
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Primary antibody - viral and bacterial second immune response
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IG M
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Second most common - first immune response
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What are the types of acquired immunity?
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Naturally - antibodies produced by body during infection
Artificially - exposure to dead pathogen or harvesting |
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What do T lymphocytes do?
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Directly attach and lyse cell. Do not produce antibodies. release chemicals to intensify attack. activate lymphocytes and macrophages. produce interferons and lymphokines/leukotrienes
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What is the role of Cytoxic T cells?
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directly attacks - looks for specific antigens on cell. Can mature into memory t cell after encounter
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What is the role of Helper T cells?
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regulatory cell. dorects immune response. Stimulates production of T and B cells. Releases cytokines to attract more leukocytes to area
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WHat is the role of Supressor T cells?
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Regulatory cell - supress both T and B cells - help prevent autoimune rxn
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What is the role of Memory T cells?
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mature TH and TC cellsthat maintain memory of previous antigen
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T cells mature in ____ and are activated in _____.
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thymus
lymph nodes |
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What are the basic functions of the respiratory system?
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gas exchange
regulation of PH aid in bp control aid in venous return and lymph mvt |
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What are the three processes of respiration?
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Ventilation
Gas Exchange (internal/external) Cellular Respiration |
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What is the conducting zone and what are its structures?
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part of the resp. system where no gas exchange occurs
oral/nasal cavity pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchial tree |
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What is the first structure in the respiratory zone?
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Respiratory Bronchioles
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What are the NASAL CONCHAE?
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cartilage and tissue in nasal cavity that serve to increase surface area and create turbluent air flow
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What are the NASAL CHOANAE?
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posterior nasal aperatures - funnels that attach nasal cavity to nasopharynx
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What are the structures of the PHARYNX?
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Nasopharynx - air only - ciliated pseudostratified
Oropharynx - air and food - stratified squamous Laryngopharynx - air and food - stratified squamous |
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What is the Larynx?
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voice box - serves as a center for voice production and a switching station for air and food
mase of tissue and cartilage Glottis: opening in larynx between vocal cords Epiglottis: flap of cartilage and tissue above the glottis - diverts food into esophagus and air into larynx |
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What are the cartilages of the Larynx?
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Paired: cunieforms, corniculates, arytenoids
Unpaired: Thyroid (adam's apple) Cricoid (looks like top ring of trachea) |
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What is the difference between true and false vocal cords?
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True: ligaments attached to arytenoid
False: folds of tissue that close glottis during swallowing |
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What allows for the constricting of the trachea?
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TRACHIALIS MUSCLE
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How many lobes does the human lung have
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Left 2
Right 3 |
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What marks the end of the conductiong zone?
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terminal bronchioles
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How is bronchiole diameter regulated
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ANS
SNS causes dialation PSNS causes constriction |
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What are the alveoli and how does gas exchange occur in alveoli?
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Alveoli are one layer of simple squamous epithelium surrounded by many capillaries gas moves via simple diffusion across cell membranes and into the blood stream
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How does gas exchange occur at alveoli?
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simple diffusion into intracate capillary bed from single cell thick simple squamous tissue of alveolus
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What are the main and assisting muscles involved in respiration?
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Main: diaphragm - external/internal intercostals
Assisting: rectus abdominus, external oblique, scalenes, sternocleidomastoid |
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What is CHARLES LAW?
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Volume is proportional to temp
(as temp goes up so does volume) |
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What is BOYLES LAW?
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Gas pressure is inversely proportional to volume p=1/v
(as volume increases, pressure decreases) |
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What is DALTONS LAW?
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The total pressure of a mixture of gasses is equal to the sum of it's partial pressures Ptot=P1+P2+P3
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What are three types of resistance encountered during pulmonary ventilation?
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Bronchiole Diameter (smaller diameter - greater resistance)
Alveolar surface tension Lung Compliance |
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How is alveolar surface tension regulated?
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SURFACTANT - lipoprtien that acts like detergent to decrease surface tension of water
RESIDUAL VOLUME - small volume of air in lungs that keeps them slightly inflates |
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What is LUNG COMPLIANCE?
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the ease by which lungs expand. Compliance decreases with decreased stretchability of lung tissue
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What is the difference between TB and EMPHYSEMA with regards to lung complaince?
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TB - decreased complaince due to fibrosis - alveolar walls stiffen
EMPHYSEMA - increased complaince due to breakdown of alveolar walls. Lungs are easy to inflate, but have decreased recoil - hard to exhale |
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What is TIDAL VOLUME?
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normal amt of air inhaled and exhaled
=500ml |
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What is Expiratory Reserve Volume?
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amt of air that can be exhaled after tidal exhalation
=1.2L |
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What is Inspiratory Reserve Volume?
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Volume that can be forcible inhaled after tidal inhalation
IRV=VC-(TV+ERV) |
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What is Inspiratory Capacity?
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Total volume of air you can inhale
IC=TV+IRV |
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What is Vital Capacity?
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volume of usable air you have in lungs after maximal inspiration
VC=TV+IRV+ERV |
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What is Residual Volume?
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Volume reamining in lungs after maximal expiration
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What is the Functional REsidual Capacity?
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The volume of air in lungs after tidal expiration
FRC=ERV+RV |
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What is Total Lung Capacity?
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Total of all air in lungs after maximum respiration
RV+VC |
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What is a minute respiratory volume?
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volume of air moved in and out of lungs each minute
=TV+breathing rate |
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What is Alveolar Ventilation Rate?
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volume of air available for gas exchange
(TV-DS)x breathing rate |
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What is Forced Expiratory Volume?
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FEV is vol of air expired over a given amount of time (1 sec)
should be 70-80% in first second |
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What are the two types of dead space and what is the difference between the two?
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Anatomical - air that fills respiratory passageways but not alveoli (30%)
Physiological - anotomical + any DS due to nonfunctional alveoli |
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What is HENRYS LAW?
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when a gas is in contact with a liquid, each gas will dissolve according to its partial pressure - dependent on solubility
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What are the three factors affecting gas exchange between blood/lungs/tissue?
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Partial pressure gradients and gas solubilities
ventilation/perfusion coupling thickness and surface area of respiratory membrane |
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How does Partial pressure gradiant and gas solubility affect gas exchange?
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A steep O2 gradient exists between alveoli and capillaries. CO2 has a more gentle pressure gradient, but it is more soluble
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How does ventilation/perfusion coupling affect gas exchange?
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For gas exch. to be efficient, there must be a close match in vent/perf.
changes in CO2 pressure in alveoli cause bronchiole diameter to change If alveolar CO2 is high, passageways dialate - if low, they constrict |
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How does the condition of the respiratory membrane affect gas exchange?
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in healthy lungs, membrane is only .5-1nm thick - gas exchange is efficient - in diseased lungs, membrane can thicken
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What are the factors affecting transport of oxygen by hemoglobin?
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Most Important PO2
temp, ph, pco2, amt of biphosphoglycerate in blood |
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An increase in temp, PH, PO2, bpg _________ affinity for O2 and shifts the curve to the _______.
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decreases
right |
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A shift of the curve to the right indicates_______ oxygen unloading.
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increased
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What is the BOHR EFFECT?
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says that deoxyhemoglobin has a greater affinity for H+ than does Oxy hgb
(when hgb is without oxygen it readilly binds to H+) |
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How does blood transport CO2 out of tissues?
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Bicarbonate Ions in plasma (70%)
Chemically bound to HGB (20%) Dissolved in plasma (7-10%) |
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What is the HALDANE EFFECT?
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the amt of CO2 transported is affected by the degree of oxygenation of the blood -- the lower the PO2, the more CO2 that can be carried
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Where does neural control of breathing take place?
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medulla and pons
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Explain the function of the medullary respiratory centers.
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The Dorsal Resp. Group is the major inspiratory site - output goes to the VRG then stimulate phrenic and intercostal nerves
Ventral Respiratory Group - site of expiratory and some inspiratory - aids accessory muscles in forced expiration |
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Explain the function of the Pons in neural control of breathing.
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The Pontine Respiratory Centers limits inhibiting role of the DRG - when the PRC is maximally active, you have rapid shallow breathing
Apneustic Center - stimulatory - increases depth of breathing but decreases rate by stimulating DRG |
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What are the Central Chemoreceptors?
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Located in the 4th ventricle, central chemoreceptors sense H+ - they are the most sensitive chemoreceptor
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What are peripheral chemoreceptors?
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Located in aortic and carotid bodies, the peripheral chemoreceptors are less sensitive than the central but sense pressures in O2, CO2 and H+. The work through the glossopharangeal and vagus nerves
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What is the HEring Breuer Reflex?
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Excessive inflation inhibits inspiration
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Where are respiratory stretch receptors located?
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bronchioles - smooth muscle
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What are the layers of the digestive tract from inner (lumen) to outer?
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Mucosa
Submucosa Muscularis Externa Serosa |
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Describe the MUCOSA
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Lines the lumen - has three sublayers lining epithelium made of simple columnar and mucus secreting goblet cells - Lamina Propria - lose areolar CT - nourish and absorb nutrients - sefend against bacteria
Muscularis Mucosae - smooth muscale - produces local mvt The mucosa secretes mucus, enzymes, protiens, absorbs products and defends against infection |
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Describe the SUBMUCOSA
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it is moderately dense CT - contains blood & lymph vessels, lymphoid follicles,glands and nerves
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Describe the MUSCULARIS EXTERNA
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muscular layer responsible for peristalsis and segmentation made of circular and longitudianl muscular layer
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What organ has an extra muscular layer?
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Stomach. Oblique
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Describe the SEROSA
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protective layer of digestive tract - CT
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What are ENTERIC NERVES?
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local nerves of digestive system
PSNS enhances activity SNS inhibits activity |
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What are the types of papillae on the tongue?
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Filiform - smallest and most numerous - rough surface of tongue
Fungiform - mushroom shaped - scattered throughout surface Valate - v shape on back of tongue Foliate - on lateral parts of tongue |
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What two structures mark the top and bottom of the esophagus?
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Superior esophageal sphincter
Inferior esophageal sphincter |
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The esophagus is composed of ______ muscle.
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skeletal and smooth
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What are the regions of the stomach?
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Cardiac - Fundus - Body - Pylorus
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What separates the stomach from the duodenum?
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Pyloric sphincter
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What does the lesser omentum do?
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runs from Liver to Lesser curvature of stomach
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What does the Greater Omentum do?
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covers small intestine and drapes from greater curvature of stomach
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What type of cells are present in the stomach and what do they each do?
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Neck Cells - produce thin acidic mucus
Parietal Cells - Produce HCl and intrinsic factor Goblet Cells - produce protective mucus Chief Cells - produce pepsinogen Enteroendocrine Cells histamine, serotonin, gastrin |
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What are the three digestive phases?
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cephalic phase
gastric phase intestinal phase |
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What is the cephalic phase?
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Prior to food entering the stomach, digestive reflexes trigered by the aroma, taste, thought or smell
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What is the Gastric Phase?
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3-4 hours long, it produces 2/3 of gatric juices - stimulated by stomach distension, peptides and low acidity. signals from vagus nerve and myenteric plexux stimulate
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What is Intestinal Phase?
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in the exitatory phase, food fills duodenum
In inhibitory phase, ENTEROGASTRIC REFLEX inhibits food from entering and causes pyloric sphincter to tighten. Triggers release of secretin, CCK and GIP Stretch receptors are triggered, initially increasing the dogestive enzymes, but as they stretch more, enzymes are inhibited |
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What is SECRETIN?
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Secreted by the duodenum, secretin stimulates secretion of pancreatic juices and bile. It inhibits motility and secretion of acid
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What is CCK?
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hormone secreted in SI, it stimulates gallbladder contractions and pancreatic secretions
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What is GIP?
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Secreted in the stomach, it stimulates insulin
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What are the features of the SI?
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duodenum - shortest, first and most active area
Jejunum - middle region Ileum - joins with large intestine at ileocecal valve |
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What are the roles of the ducts in the dudenum?
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The Bile Duct delivers bile from the liver
The Pancreatic Duct delivers pancreatic juices The Hepatopancreatic duct controls both bile and pancreatic juice |
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What are the modifications for absorption in the SI?
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PLICAE CIRCULAES_ permanent folds of mucosa and submucosa
Villi - fingerlike projections - capillary in core/lymph capillary - large in duodenum and gradually get smaller Microvilli - tiny projections of PM - absorptive - sometimes called brush border (brush border enzymes complete the digestion of carbs and protiens in the SI |
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What cell types are contained in the SI?
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Goblet Cells - alkaline mucus
Simple Columnar Epithelium - brush border enzymes Enteroendocrine Cells - secretin, CCK, GIP |
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What are the methods of motility in the SI?
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Segmentation - kneads chyme to increase contact and absorption
Peristalsis - pushing food forward GI reflex stimulates iliocecal valve to open and food to enter Cecum |
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What are the significan structures of the LIVER?
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Right Lobe - largest
Left Lobe Falciform Ligament - separates the two halves Caudate Lobe - underneath and posterior Quadrate Lobe - below left lobe Round Ligament - remnant of umbilical vein |
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What DUCTS is the liver associated with?
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Common Hepatic Duct - connection of smaller ducts that take bile FROM the liver
Cystic Duct - carries bile TO the gallbladder Bile Duct - Empties bile into duodenum |
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What is the path of bile?
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bile ductules-R/L hepatic ducts - common hepatic duct - cystic duct - common bile duct - hepatopancreatic sphincter - duodenum
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What stimulates the gallbladder to secrete bile?
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CCK major stim.
Vagus Nerve - Minor stim |
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What does the pancreas secrete into the duodenum and what influences its secretion
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hormones and the PSNS stimulate secretion of pancreatic juice which contains lipase, amylase, trypsinogen, bicarbonate, chymotrypsinogen, procarboxypeptidase
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What is the main function of the LI
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absorption of H2O and storage of waste for elimination
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What are the regions of the LI
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Cecum - saclike first part of LI
Appendix - plays role in immunity Ascending colon - goes up rt side of abdominal cavity Transverse colon - crosses abdomen Descending colon - down the left side of abdomen Sigmoid colon - s shaped - joins descending colon with rectum Anal canal - last part that contains internal and external sphincters |
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What are the TENIAE COLI?
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longitudinal muscle layer - three bands that cause LI to "pucker"
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What are HAUSTRA?
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pocketlike sacs caused by tenae coli
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What are BACTERIAL FLORA?
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bacterial colonies that ferment, metabolize, host derived protiens, harvest vitamins
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What are the two movements of the LI and how do they differ?
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Haustral Contractions - filling of Haustra with residue stimulats muscle contractions - propels residue and increases surface contact for H2O absorption
Mass Movements - strong contractions that occur 2-3x per day - stimulated by food in stomach |
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Explain the DEFICATION REFLEX
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triggered by stretch receptors in the rectum, myenteric plexux is signaled to contract muscles
controlled by the PSNS - muscle contractions and relaxation of internal anal sphincter occurs about 30 min after meal - can be ignored but will return stronger |
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How are CARBOHYDRATES digested?
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salivary amylase in mouth, pancreatic amylase in duodenum, dextrinase, glucoamylase, maltase, sucrase, lactase
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How are CARBOHYDRATES absorbed?
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glucose and galactose - active transport
fructose - facilitated diffusion |
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How are PROTEINS digested?
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Pepsin in stomach, trypsin, carboxypeptidase, chymotrypsin, brush border enzymes in SI
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How are PROTEINS absorbed?
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Active transport linked to Na+
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How are LIPIDS digested?
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first divided into smaller droplets by bile salts
Lipases then work in droplets and break apart tags Micelles transfer lipid monomers from brush border into cells tag resynthesizes in cell and packaged into chylomicron for transport to blood by Lacteal Duct |
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How does bile get to the duodenum from the gallbladder?
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cystic duct
bile duct |
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What food source has the most available energy?
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Lipids (9.3 kcal/g)
Protiens and carbs (4.1-4.3) |
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Where is most of the cholesterol synthesized?
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Liver
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What are lipid soluble vitamins?
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A
D E K |
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What is the most redilly available energy source?
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Glucose
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What is the order of energy utilization
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carbs
lipids protiens |
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What is the time required to deplete reserves of each?
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carbs - 13 hrs
fats 20-40 days proteins 2-3 hrs water 3-4 days Na 2-3 days Iron - 150-750 days Ca - 7 yrs |
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What does the liver do in terms of metabolism?
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converts fructose/galactose to glucose
Stores glucose and releases s needed breaks down chylomicrons stores excess fat converts aa to nonessential aa and aa to glucose forms plasma proteins stores b12, a, d3, iron, calcium glycogenesis gluconeogenesis? |
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What is glycogenesis?
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forming of glycogen - done in skeletal muscles and liver
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What is gluconeogenesis?
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making new glucose from carbs or converting aa to glucose
done in liver |
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What makes up the renal pyramids?
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Collecting ducts and blood vessels
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What fluid compartment contains the most volume of fluid?
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Intracellular
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What factor influences the secretion of K+ the most?
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The concentration of K+
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If blood Ph is basic the nephron_________more H+ and ________more bicarbonate
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reabsorbs
secretes |
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What system regulates PH by directly secreting H+ ions?
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Urinary
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Prolonged high levels of aldosterone lead to ____ ____.
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metabolic alkalosis
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Meiosis in women is completed at ______.
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fertilization
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Hormones that stimulate the survival of the corpus luteum are
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LH or hCG
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Neural tissue in the fetus is formed by the
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ectoderm
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The fibrous lining of the kidney is called the
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renal capsule
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What is the path of blood through the kidney?
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renal artery - segmental artery -interlobar artery - arcuate artery - interlobular artery - afferent arteriole - glomerulus - efferent arteriole - interlobular vein - arcuate vein - interlobar vein - etc.
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Renin is released directly from
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Juxtaglomerular cells
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The difference between a cortical nephron and a juxtaglomerular nephron is
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that JG nephrons create the osmotic gradient
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