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52 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
“Actions taken to retain material in a serviceable condition or to restore it to
serviceability” defines which of the following terms? 1. Management 2. Production 3. Maintenance 4. Inspection |
Maintenance
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Which of the following statements defines
management? 1. The efficient attainment of objectives 2. The coordination of the departmental workload 3. To ensure the entire capability of the department is utilized 4. To control the daily workload |
The efficient attainment of objectives
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Which of the following statements is a
responsibility of maintenance control? 1. Coordinate and monitor the workload of the maintenance department 2. Establish procedures to monitor the Subsystem Capability and Impact Report (SCIR) 3. Validate NMCS/PMCS supply status listings each day 4. Each of the above |
Each of the above
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What work center, division, or department is responsible for establishing procedures
for controlling cannibalization within a squadron? 1. Material control 2. Maintenance control 3. Supply support center 4. Aviation support division |
Maintenance control
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If you need to perform maintenance on an
aircraft that requires “no electrical power,” what must you do? 1. Post someone outside the aircraft to inform others 2. Request quality assurance place the aircraft in a “no power” status 3. Request maintenance control place the aircraft in a “no power” status 4. Nothing, just go to work |
Request maintenance control place the aircraft in a “no power” status
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What is the best tool for ensuring a smooth flow of maintenance information?
1. A passdown log 2. Daily maintenance meetings 3. Assign an administrative assistant to the LPO 4. NALCOMIS |
Daily maintenance meetings
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What report enables supporting
commanders to assess current material conditions and mission capabilities of squadron aircraft? 1. QDR 2. MDR 3. AMRR 4. TPDR |
AMRR
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By what means is the Aviation Material Readiness Report normally submitted?
1. Naval letter 2. Unclassified immediate message 3. Unclassified routine message 4. Classified immediate message |
Unclassified immediate message
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Where can maintenance and aircrew personnel find an accurate, comprehensive
record of all outstanding maintenance requirements on a specific aircraft? 1. The aircraft logbook 2. The Aviation Material Readiness Report 3. The Maintenance Data Report 4. The Aircraft Discrepancy Book |
The Aircraft Discrepancy Book
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As a minimum, how long must completed MAFS be retained in the Aircraft Discrepancy Book?
1. 10 months 2. 12 months 3. 10 flights 4. 12 flights |
10 flights
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What form is used to designate an aircraft
“safe for flight”? 1. OPNAV 4790/141 2. OPNAV 4790/26A 3. OPNAV 4790/60 4. OPNAV 47900/113 |
OPNAV 4790/141
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The Aircraft Inspection and Acceptance Record is signed by what person or persons?
1. The aircraft maintenance officer (or designated representative) only 2. The pilot only 3. The plane captain only 4. The aircraft maintenance officer (or designated representative), the pilot, and plane captain |
The aircraft maintenance officer (or designated representative) only
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Detailed procedures for maintaining aircraft historical files can be found in what volume of OPNAVINST 4790.2?
1. Volume I 2. Volume II 3. Volume III 4. Volume V |
Volume III
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Activities using NALCOMIS must store current MAFs on the host computer. How
many preceding months of completed MAFS must be stored? 1. 1 2. Activities using NALCOMIS must store current MAFs on the host computer. How many preceding months of completed MAFS must be stored? 1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 6 3. 3 4. 6 |
2
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For squadrons operating with
VIDS/MAFs, which historical file should include engine–related VIDS/MAFs? 1. Aircraft general file 2. Miscellaneous file 3. Aircraft inspection file 4. Aircraft engine file |
Aircraft general file
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In the TD compliance historical file, at a
minimum, how long must VIDS/MAFs be retained. 1. 4 months 2. 7 months 3. 6 months 4. 8 months |
6 months
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What reporting method was designed to reveal an equipments mission capability.
1. MDRs 2. NALCOMIS 3. VIDS 4. SCIR |
SCIR
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SCIR reports are generated from what codes on the VIDS/MAFs or in NALCOMIS?
1. Equipment Operational Capability codes 2. Type Equipment codes 3. Malfunction codes 4. Work Unit Codes |
Equipment Operational Capability codes
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The first position of the EOC code is derived from what source?
1. The Work Unit Code manual 2. OPNAVINST 4790.2 3. MESM, OPNAVINST 5442.4 4. Local maintenance instruction |
MESM, OPNAVINST 5442.4
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Local maintenance instruction
When an aircraft is delivered to the Navy, the Aircraft Logbook, OPNAV 4790/19, is initiated by what activity or office? 1. Manufacturer 2. OPNAV 3. Original accepting activity 4. NADEP |
Original accepting activity
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Aircraft logbooks are normally kept in what location?
1. In the aircraft 2. In the line shack 3. In the operations office 4. In the maintenance control office |
In the maintenance control
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What activity generates the Structural Life Limits Form, OPNAV 4790/142, for the
aircraft logbook? 1. NADEP 2. NAVAIR 3. The squadron 4. The functional wing |
The squadron
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The Inspection Record is identified by what OPNAV number?
1. OPNAV 4790/22A 2. OPNAV 4790/24A 3. OPNAV 4790/26B 4. OPNAV 4790/28A |
OPNAV 4790/22A
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The Repair/Rework Record is identified by what OPNAV number?
1. OPNAV 4790/24A 2. OPNAV 4790/23A 3. OPNAV 4790/21A 4. OPNAV 4790/18A |
OPNAV 4790/23A
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What type of technical directives are issued in greater numbers and require
careful screening to ensure accuracy? 1. PPBs and PPCs 2. AFBs and AFCs 3. SEBs and SECs 4. AVBs and AVCs |
PPBs and PPCs
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Which of the following actions requires an entry in the Miscellaneous/History section of an aircraft logbook?
1. The aircraft is damaged in an in-flight mishap 2. The aircraft is exposed to a large quantity of salt water 3. Dye is added directly to the aircraft fuel tanks to determine the location of a leak 4. Each of the above |
Each of the above
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On the Aeronautical Equipment Service Record, oil analysis results are documented on what form or record?
1. OPNAV 4790/136A 2. OPNAV 4790/27A 3. OPNAV 4790/24A 4. OPNAV 4790/25A |
OPNAV 4790/24A
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Explosive devices installed in personnel parachutes are recorded on what form or
record? 1. 4790/23A 2. 4790/24A 3. 4790/22A 4. 4790/26A |
4790/26A
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What record is used to record maintenance data for modules replaced by an intermediate maintenance activity?
1. Installed Explosive Device Record 2. Inventory Record 3. Parachute Record 4. Miscellaneous History Record |
Inventory Record
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What items should NOT to be listed on the Inventory Record, OPNAV 4790/27A?
1. ASR 2. EHR 3. MSR 4. Aircraft engines |
Aircraft engines
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What record is used to record TD compliance on a quick engine change kit(QECK)?
1. 4790/106A 2. 4790/22A 3. 4790/113 4. 4790/24A |
4790/113
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On a Scheduled Removal Component Card (SRC), in which section is the serial
number of the component documented? 1. I 2. II 3. III 4. IV |
I
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What officer designates the maintenance of all original aviation life support systems
(ALSS) records? 1. MMCO 2. AMO 3. XO 4. CO |
AMO
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On a Scheduled Removal Component Card (SRC), in what section would you document the bureau number on which a
component is installed? 1. I 2. II 3. III 4. IV |
III
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What is done with an EHR when the component is removed and turned into supply as a retrograde?
1. The EHR is destroyed 2. The EHR is put into a suspense file 3. The EHR is forwarded to the manufacturer 4. The EHR accompanies the component |
The EHR accompanies the component
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Once the NAVFLIRS is signed certified for completeness by the aircraft commander, where does it go next?
1. ECAMS operator for entry of ECAMS data 2. Maintenance control for screening and entry of pertinent aircraft information into logbooks 3. Operations for entry of flight information in aviators logbooks 4. Analyst for forwarding to the data services facility (DSF) |
Maintenance control for screening
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Which of the following persons or offices
has responsibility for ensuring validity of the Naval Flight Record Subsystem (NAVFLIRS)? 1. Analyst 2. Maintenance control 3. Operations department 4. Each of the above |
Each of the above
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What work center is considered the “nerve
center” of the Intermediate Maintenance Activity? 1. Production control 2. Aeronautical material screening unit (AMSU) 3. Quality assurance 4. Maintenance administration |
Production control
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Production control is directly responsible
to what officer for the overall production effort? 1. MMCO 2. AMO 3. CO 4. AAMO |
MMCO
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Which of the following is NOT considered a responsibility of Production Control
personnel? 1. Periodically accompany CDIs to observe their proficiency 2. Maintain liaison with the supply department 3. Maintain VIDS display boards 4. Ensure maximum use of material resources |
Periodically accompany CDIs to observe their proficiency
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When you order parts for a component inducted into an I-level work center, what
work center assigns the Project/Priority code to your request? 1. Aviation support division (ASD) 2. Aeronautical material screening unit (AMSU) 3. Production control 4. Component control section (CCS) |
Aviation support division (ASD)
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Priorities 2, 5, and 12 requisitions can be
submitted by activities with what force activity designator (FAD)? 1. FAD I 2. FAD II 3. FAD III 4. FAD IV |
FAD II
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Project codes are mandatory entries on all requisitions.
1. True 2. False |
True
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At a minimum, how often should a joint awaiting parts validation be performed
with the AWP unit in supply? 1. Quarterly 2. Monthly 3. Weekly 4. Daily |
Monthly
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What priority is assigned to the repair of salvaged material?
1. Priority 1 2. Priority 2 3. Priority 3 4. Priority 4 |
Priority 4
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What priority is assigned to the repair of material for non-mission capable aircraft?
1. Priority 1 2. Priority 2 3. Priority 3 4. Priority 4 |
Priority 1
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What priority is assigned to the repair of critical local repair cycle assets (LRCAs)?
1. Priority 1 2. Priority 2 3. Priority 3 4. Priority 4 |
Priority 2
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What priority is assigned to the repair of assets belonging to an activity within 30 days of deployment?
1. Priority 1 2. Priority 2 3. Priority 3 4. Priority 4 |
Priority 1
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What priority is assigned to the repair of non-critical local repair cycle assets?
1. Priority 1 2. Priority 2 3. Priority 3 4. Priority 4 |
Priority 3
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What priority is assigned to the repair or manufacture of material that is nonaeronautical?
1. Priority 1 2. Priority 2 3. Priority 3 4. Priority 4 |
Priority 4
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What priority is assigned to the repair or manufacture of material for non-fixed
allowance stock? 1. Priority 1 2. Priority 2 3. Priority 3 4. Priority 4 |
Priority 3
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Priorities may be adjusted either higher or
lower by IMA maintenance and supply officers to meet local support requirements. 1. True 2. False |
True
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