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62 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Which of the following numbers is a supply
Project code?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 7
4. 13
7
Which of the following Project codes is used when maintenance activities requesition material to restore an aircraft to a MC status

1. 7
2. 9
3. 0
4. 13
0
Which of the following Project codes is used when maintenance activities requesition material to return mission essential subsystems to an operational condition when an aircraft is in a PMC status

1. 0
2. 9
3. 7
4. 3
7
Which of the following Project codes is used when an aircraft is within days of becoming in an NMC or PMC status due to high time forced removal of required items?

1. 0
2. 7
3. 9
4. 13
9
Which of the following publications would you refer to to find a complete listing of supply project codes?

1. MILSTRIP/MILSTRAP 437
2. NAVSUP Pub 485
3. 4790
4. Both 1 and 2
Both 1 and 2
To determine the Uniform material Movement and issue priority system (UMMIPS) for the requesitioning of parts by a maintenance activity, which of the following are used?

1. FAD
2. Urgency of need
3. Project code
4. Both 1 and 2
Both 1 and 2
Which of the following FAD's is also called combat?

1. I
2. IV
3. II
4. III
I
Which of the following FAD's is also called positioned?

1. I
2. II
3. III
4. IV
II
Which of the following FAD's is also called ready?

1. I
2. II
3. III
4. IV
III
Which of the following FAD's is used for reserves and support?

1. I
2. II
3. III
4. IV
IV
FAD V is used for which of the following?

1. Others
2. Combat
3. Positioned
4. Reserves and support
Others
Of the following urgency of need designators, which one is used for unable to perform?

1. C
2. B
3. A
4. D
A
Of the following urgency of need designators, which one is used for impairs capability?

1. C
2. B
3. A
4. D
B
Of the following urgency of need designators, which one is used for Routine?

1. C
2. B
3. A
4. D
C
In regards to FAD II, which of the following urgency of need designators are correct

1. 8, 10, 15
2. 1, 4, 11
3. 3, 6, 13
4. 8, 10 15
1, 4, 11
In regards to FAD III, which of the following urgency of need designators are correct

1. 8, 10, 15
2. 1, 4, 11
3. 3, 6, 13
4. 2, 5, 12
2, 5, 12
In regards to FAD IV, which of the following urgency of need designators are correct

1. 8, 10, 15
2. 1, 4, 11
3. 3, 6, 13
4. 2, 5, 12
3, 6, 13
In regards to FAD V, which of the following urgency of need designators are correct

1. 7, 9, 14
2. 1, 4, 11
3. 3, 6, 13
4. 2, 5, 12
7, 9, 14
In regards to FAD V, which of the following urgency of need designators are correct

1. 7, 9, 14
2. 8, 10, 15
3. 3, 6, 13
4. 2, 5, 12
8, 10, 15
Your squadron is categorized as a FAD II activity and you require a mission essential
part. What is the highest priority that can be assigned to your request?

1. 2
2. 3
3. 11
4. 5
2
What type of code identifies the agent or agency that has design control over an item?

1. CAGE
2. H4/H8
3. MCRL
4. ML-N
CAGE
When a FAD III is assigned to your activity, what is the highest priority you should use to order routine replenishment stock?

1. 5
2. 2
3. 10
4. 13
13
Which of the following is a purpose of an illustrated parts breakdown?

1. To allow supply and maintenance personnel to identify and order replacement parts for aircraft or equipment
2. To determine interchangeables, next
higher assemblies, and repairables
3. To determine source codes, CAGES, and source of supply
4. To determine units used for assembly and aircraft bureau number application
To allow supply and maintenance personnel to identify and order replacement parts for aircraft or equipment
Information from which of the following sources is used by supply department personnel as justification for stocking
material?

1. Forecasted flights
2. Usage statistics
3. Management decisions
4. Monthly maintenance plans
Usage statistics
What section in an IPB contains general information and instructions for using the
publication?

1. Introduction
2. Group assembly parts list
3. Numerical index
4. Alphabetical index
Introduction
Besides the introduction, each IPB includes which of the following information?

1. Table of contents or alphabetic index
2. Group assembly parts list
3. Numerical index
4. Each of the above
Each of the above
What section of the IPB contains an explanation of the source or SM&R codes
used in the IPB?

1. Introduction
2. Group assembly parts list
3. Numerical index
4. Alphabetical index
Introduction
What listing in the IPB lists aircraft assemblies and identifies the pages or
figure numbers where the assemblies are shown in the IPB?

1. Alphabetical index
2. Group assembly parts list
3. Numerical index
4. Introduction
Alphabetical index
What section of the IPB contains a description of a component listed in the IPB?

1. Introduction
2. Group assembly parts list
3. Numerical index
4. Alphabetical index
Group assembly parts list
What section of the IPB lists supplementary handbooks to which you may refer?

1. Introduction
2. Group assembly parts list
3. Numerical index
4. Alphabetical index
Introduction
What is the purpose of an index number in an IPB?

1. To describe a major component
2. To establish the relationship between
parts in the illustration and the corresponding parts list
3. To identify items procured from a
commercial source
4. To provide a reference number
To establish the relationship between parts in the illustration and the corresponding parts list
You need to order a replacement component for an aircraft, and you do not
know the part number of the item. Which of the following basic information should
you be able to provide the AK so that he or she can research the IPB?

1. Type of aircraft on which the part was installed
2. The component on which the part was installed
3. The bureau number of the aircraft from which the part was removed
4. All of the above
All of the above
An SM&R code is a five- or six-position alphanumeric code.

1. True
2. False
True
What part of a part’s SM&R code indicates how the part is to be acquired?

1. Source code only
2. Maintenance code only
3. Recoverability code only
4. Source, Maintenance, and
Recoverability codes
Source code only
What position of the SM&R code identifies the maintenance level assigned to a list of Navy-managed material that is
completely repair an item?

1. First
2. Second
3. Fourth
4. Fifth
Fourth
What information does the third position of an SM&R code provide?

1. The highest maintenance level authorized to remove, replace, and use an item
2. The maintenance level authorized to completely repair an item
3. The lowest maintenance level authorized to remove, replace, and use an item
4. The Service Option code that applies
The lowest maintenance level authorized to remove, replace, and use an item
What two instructions govern policies, procedures, and definitions applicable to
SM&R codes?
1. OPNAVINST 4790.2 and
NAVSUPINST 4440.16
2. NAVSUPINST 4423.14 and
NAVAIRINST 4423.3
3. OPNAVINST 4440.25 and
NAVSUPINST 7300.6
4. NAVSUPINST 4700.16 and
NAVAIRINST 4410.4
NAVSUPINST 4423.14 and
NAVAIRINST 4423.3
When removal of a component from an aircraft is not feasible or advisable until a
replacement is on hand, supply personnel can exempt the turn-in of the component
(retrograde) if its part number is listed in
what document?

1. LIRSH
2. CRIPL
3. MCRL
4. MESSM
CRIPL
What type of material is listed in the CRIPL?

1. Material essential for flight operations
2. Material exempt from the one-for-one turn-in rule
3. Material considered hazardous
4. Material subject to deterioration after a
specified time
Material exempt from the one-for-one turn-in rule
The reference number on a master cross reference
list refers to what number or
numbers?
1. Manufacturer’s part number only
2. Drawing numbers only
3. Drawing number and design control
number only
4. Either a manufacture’s part number, a drawing number, or a design control
Either a manufacture’s part number, a drawing number, or a design control
The MCRL is used to provide a cross reference between what items of information?

1. Noun name and CAGE
2. CAGE and NIIN
3. NIIN and item number
4. Reference number and NSN
Reference number and NSN
What is the purpose of the ICRL-A?

1. To cross-reference numbers to NSNs
2. To provide squadrons with a list of NSNs that are exempt from the onefor-
one turn-in rule
3. To provide a list of repairables and the
local IMA's capability to repair them
4. To cross-reference CAGES to
reference numbers
To provide a list of repairables and the
local IMA's capability to repair them
An ICRL-A is revised at what specified interval?

1. Annually
2. Biannually
3. Quarterly
4. Monthly
Quarterly
What ICRL Capability code is used for check and test only?

1. Z1
2. X2
3. C1
4. A1
A1
Within the ICRL listing, what code is equivalent to Beyond Capability of Maintenance (BCM)-3?

1. X1
2. X2
3. X3
4. X6
X3
What is the 13–digit number called that identifies an item of material in the supply
system?

1. NSN
2. NIIN
3. FSC
4. SMIC
NSN
What is the title of the overall program that
provides the data required for effective management of support equipment at all
levels of maintenance?

1. ICRL
2. IMRL
3. AMMRL
4. AVCAL
AMMRL
What command exercises overall program management for the AMMRL program?

1. ASO
2. NAVAIRSYSCOM
3. NAVAIRENGCEN
4. NAMO
NAVAIRSYSCOM
What information is provided by the first two digits in the FSC code number?

1. The FSC group
2. The major or broad category of the stock
3. Manager that controls the category of material
4. The detailed breakdown of a category of material
The FSC group
In the NSN 7RHF 1560-00-123-4567DF, what is the cognizance symbol?

1. 7R
2. H
3. F
4. 1560
7R
In the NSN 7RHF 1560-00-123-4567DF, what is the material control code?

1. 7R
2. H
3. F
4. 1560
H
In the NSN 7RHF 1560-00-123-4567DF, what is the material condition code?

1. 7R
2. H
3. F
4. 1560
F
In the NSN 7RHF 1560-00-123-4567DF, which is the NIIN?

1. 7R
2. 123-4567
3. F
4. 1560
123-4567
In the NSN 7RHF 1560-00-123-4567DF, which is the FSC?

1. 7R
2. 123-4567
3. F
4. 1560
1560
The NSN is comprised of what total number of digits?

1. 15
2. 16
3. 17
4. 13
13
Which of the following acronyms identifies
equipment that is required on the ground to make a system, subsystem, or end item of
equipment operational?

1. IMRL
2. ATE
3. GFE
4. SE
SE
Within an activity, personnel in what rating normally maintain the IMRL?

1. AZ
2. AK
3. AS
4. AD
AK
The IMRL contains how many major sections?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 5
5
At the organizational maintenance level, the
point of contact for all material requirements generated by a squadron is
located in what organization?

1. Material control center
2. ASD/SSC
3. AIMD
4. Production control
ASD/SSC
What Material Condition code tells you that an item of supply is fast moving and in
high demand?

1. F
2. I
3. O
4. S
F
To determine whether an intermediate maintenance activity has capability to test/check or repair an item, what I-level supply area screens all components turned
into ASD/SSC?

1. AMSU
2. SRS
3. CCS
4. SUADPS
AMSU
The ASD/SSC is composed of what section or sections?

1. CCS only
2. SRS only
3. SRS and CCS
4. ASD
SRS and CCS