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American Board of Orthodontics

American Board Of Orthodontics

by jhillam, Jan. 2015

Subjects: abo, orthodontics

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1. What two bones meet at Articulare? (Ar: the point of intersection between the shadow of the zygomatic arch and the posterior border of the mandibular ramus) a. zygomatic bone b. mandible c. sphenoid d. temporal	the point of intersection of the external dorsal contour of the (b) mandibular condyle and the (d) temporal bone Proffit: "posterior mandibular ramus where it intersects the shadow of the zygomatic arch"
2. When looking at a ceph, what is level with Frankfort Horizontal? a. zygomatic arch b. Go-Gn c. S-N d. ANS-PNS	a. zygomatic arch (some sources say ANS-PNS)
4. How does the condyle move on the balancing side? a. upward, forward, and medial b. downward, forward, and medial c. upward, backward, and laterally d. downward, backward and laterally	b. downward, forward, and medial
5. What is the last movement in Posselt’s envelope when closing? a. Hinge b. translation	a. Hinge
6. What usually happens if you seat the mandible from CO to CR? a. decrease the vertical dimension b. increase the vertical dimension	b. increase the vertical dimension
7. How many mm can a patient open if they have a closed lock? a. 42mm b. 60mm c. 11mm d. 23mm	d. 23mm
8. What is an alternative to heat sterilization? a. phenol b. ethylene oxide c. gluteraldehyde	c. gluteraldehyde
9. When extracting maxillary first bi’s only and leaving the molars in Class II…. a. also leave the maxillary first molars mesially rotated b. tip the maxillary first molar crowns mesially c. do not close all the extraction space d. also extract the mandibular first bi’s	a. also leave the maxillary first molars mesially rotated
10. Which has no proprioceptors? a. Pulp b. muscles c. TMJ	a. Pulp
11. What can manifest itself as myositis? a. Osteosarcoma b. condensing osteitis c. osteomyelitis	a. Osteosarcoma
12. What causes the rotation of the head? a. occiput b. C1 c. C2	c. C2
13. In the primary dentition, a terminal plane occlusion usually turns into… a. Class I b. Class II c. Class III	a. Class I
14. When superimposing on the mandible, what do you not superimpose on? a. symphysis b. angle of the mandible c. the mandibular canal d. mental foramen e. inferior crypt of 3rd molar	c. the mandibular canal
15. What happens in arch length from deciduous to permanent dentition when measuring from the mesial of the first molars? a. increases a lot b. increases a little c. decreases a lot d. decreases a little e. stays the same	d. decreases a little
16. Where are the primate spaces? a. mesial to maxillary canine and distal to mandibular canine b. distal to maxillary and mandibular lateral incisors c. distal to maxillary and mandibular canines d. mesial to maxillary lateral incisors and distal to mandibular canine	a. mesial to maxillary canine and distal to mandibular canine
17. How many degrees are there normally between S-N and FH? a. 2 b. 4 c. 7 d. 9	c. 7
18. How many branches are there of CN VII? a. 2 b. 4 c. 5 d. 7	c. 5
19. What develops from tuberculum impar? a. Thyroid b. thymus c. tongue	c. tongue
20. What shows the rotational growth of the mandible? a. bending of canal and condylar neck angle b. increase in vertical dimension c. increase in the length of the mandible	a. bending of canal and condylar neck angle
22. What comes from Meckel’s cartilage? a. maxilla b. tuberculum impar c. CN VI d. Malleus	d. Malleus
23. What does not occur in hyalinization? a. physiologic tooth movement b. bone resorption c. pdl resorption d. medullary resorption	a. physiologic tooth movement
24. What is Peak Velocity Height? a. maximal growth spurt from birth to puberty b. birth to 2 years c. conception to birth d. from puberty for up to 24 months after	d. from puberty for up to 24 months after
25. What is a diagnostic tool to distinguish between skeletal, sexual and PVH maturity? a. plaster models b. hand/wrist film c. PA ceph d. Photographs	b. hand/wrist film
26. Which of the following would be considered to have a wormian bone or cotton wool appearance? a. fibrous dysplasia b. Paget’s disease c. Eosinophilic granuloma	b. Paget’s disease Fibrous displasia has ground glass appearance and expansile radiolucent lesions Eosinophilic granuloma is an expansile lytic radiolucency.
27. What bones form the Lambdoidal suture? a. 2 occipital and one parietal b. 2 parietal and one occipital c. 2 frontal and one parietal d. 2 parietal	b. 2 parietal and one occipital
28. Which bone is purely intramembranous? a. parietal and frontal b. ethmoid c. temporal	a. parietal and frontal
29. Which bone is not a part of the orbit? a. sphenoid b. frontal c. vomer d. maxilla	c. vomer
30. How many bones are in the craniofacial complex? a. 8 b. 14 c. 20 d. 22	d. 22
31. Supernumerary teeth are found in…. a. Gardner’s syndrome b. Marfans syndrome c. Mandibulofacial dysostosis d. Cleidocranial dysplasia	a. Gardner’s syndrome and d. Cleidocranial dysplasia
32. Osteoclasts come from? a. Blood b. PDL c. Bone	a. Blood
33. Undermining resorption occurs: a. In PDL b. In medullary spaces c. Is physiologic	a. In PDL
34. Which growth sites are not in cranium? a. Syndesmoses b. Periosteum c. Synchondroses d. Synostosis	a. Syndesmoses
35. Which organ helps retain Ca2+? a. Heart b. Skin c. Kidney d. Spleen	c. Kidney
36. What happens with hypocalcemia? a. Muscle hyperactivity b. Decrease in cardiac output	b. Decrease in cardiac output
37. Which muscle pulls lip up when smiling? a. Risorius b. Orbicularis oris c. Levator labii superioris	c. Levator labii superioris
38. What are some effects of a clefted soft palate? a. hypernasal speech b. Snoring c. All of the above d. None of the above	c. All of the above
39. What is the incidence of Cleft Palate? a. 1 in 100 b. 1 in 500 c. 1 in 750 d. 1 in 1500	c. 1 in 750
40. What is the incidence of Cleft palate in American Indian population? a. Higher than whites b. Less than whites	a. Higher than whites
41. When is the best time for a bone graft for a cleft patient ? a. When growth is complete b. When 2/3rds of the canine root is formed	b. When 2/3rds of the canine root is formed
42. Which is NOT found in cleft palates? a. Impacted centrals b. Rotated incisors c. Missing laterals d. Posterior crossbite	a. Impacted centrals
43. What is the origin of the medial pterygoid muscle? a. Sphenoid b. Condyle c. Ramus	a. Sphenoid
44. What covers the condyle? a. Loose connective tissue b. Dense connective tissue	b. Dense connective tissue
45. What is the location of the mandibular canal? a. Above the occlusal plane b. Below occlusal plane	a. Above the occlusal plane
46. What is affected early in Rheumatoid Arthritis? a. Cartilage b. Bone c. Synovia	c. Synovia
47. What are the characteristics of an Ameloblastoma? a. Occurs in the third molar area b. High recurrence after removal c. Usually occurs in the 20s and 30s d. All of the above	d. All of the above
48. What is the risk of bacteremia? a. Septicemia b. Infective endocarditis c. Meningitis	b. Infective endocarditis
49. According to Ricketts, the Frankfort Horizontal most closely parallels a. Palatal plane b. SN c. Occlusal Plane d. Mandibular Plane	a. Palatal plane
50. What is the most difficult point to identify? a. B point b. N c. A point d. Go	c. A point
51. What is the usual cause of two lines at the mandibular border? a. Asymmetry b. Magnification c. Incorrect positioning of patient	b. Magnification
52. Which is correct when looking at a developed lateral cephalogram? a. Left mandible is higher and bigger b. Left mandible is lower and smaller c. Right mandible is higher and smaller d. Right mandible is lower and bigger	d. Right mandible is lower and bigger
53. Why would the mandible be smaller on a ceph taken 3 years later? a. Head rotated b. Patient moved c. Patient too close to x-ray source on initial	c. Patient too close to x-ray source on initial
54. What are symptoms of TMD? a. Pain b. Locking c. Condyle Dislocation d. All of the above	d. All of the above
55. What would you do to the kVp or mA to visualize a root fracture? a. Increase kVp b. Decrease kVp c. Increase mA d. Decrease mA	a. Increase kVp
56. Which are not centric cusps in posterior crossbite? a. Lingual cusps of the maxillary first molar b. Buccal cusps of the maxillary first molar	a. Lingual cusps of the maxillary first molar
57. On a view of a lateral ceph with the second molars and E’s present, how old is the pt? a. 13 years b. 9 years c. 11 years d. 15 years	c. 11 years
58. What kind of bone is formed after initial ortho movement? a. Woven b. Composite c. Bundle	a. Woven
59. At what stage are developmental problems caused? a. Fetal b. Embryonic	b. Embryonic
60. Nasal septum is usually deviated where? a. Superior ½ b. Inferior ½ c. Inferior 1/3	c. Inferior 1/3
61. Treacher Collins autosomal dominant. If one of the parents and the first child is affected, what is chance next child will be affected? a. 1% b. 25% c. 50% d. 100%	c. 50%
62. If a lower incisor to GoGn changed from 105 to 95, how many mm of mand. space is necessary? a. 10mm b. 8mm c. 6mm d. 4mm	d. 4mm 1mm per 2.5 degrees.
63. What causes the metabolic rate to increase? a. Thyroid b. Growth Hormone c. All the above d. None of the above	c. All the above
64. Which is a correct statement regarding inplant research if using it for anchorage? a. There is no movement of the implant b. There was slight movement (<.1 microns/yr) c. There is little movement d. There is moderate movement	a. There is no movement of the implant
65. What happens if you drink excessive soda? a. Dentin becomes exposed b. Enamel layer decreases due to low pH c. Enamel layer decreases due to high pH d. None of the above	b. Enamel layer decreases due to low pH
66. Which cranial bone is totally membranously formed? a. Parietal b. Sphenoid c. Inferior turbinate d. None of the above	a. Parietal
67. How many cartilages are in the inferior 1/3 of the nose? a. 1 b. 3 c. 5	b. 3
68. Mean = 100 Variance = 64, how many standard deviation is 116? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4	b. 2 Standard deviation is the square root of variance.
69. What varies the most when you go from a small to a large sample? a. Mean b. Median c. Mode	b. Median
70. Esthetically, how much room do you need for an implant? a. 3mm b. 5mm c. 7mm d. 10mm	c. 7mm
71. How do you treat a vertical root fracture? a. Extract b. Root Canal Therapy c. RCT & Crown d. Nothing	a. Extract
72. If you find internal resorption, what is your treatment? a. Watch and wait b. Immediate RCT c. Extract d. Stop all orthodontic treatment	b. Immediate RCT
73. Why is there a greater break down of bone in patients with gingival inflammation? a. Osteoporosis b. Higher prostaglandin levels c. Higher phosphatase levels	b. Higher prostaglandin levels
74. What is the widest cervical vertebrae from C1 to C5? a. C1 b. C2 c. C4 d. C5	a. C1
75. What is the least stable surgical movement? a. Mandibular advancement b. Mandibular setback c. Maxillary downfracture d. Maxillary expansion	c. Maxillary downfracture
76. An exposed radiographic film should remain in the fixer solution a. As long as it remained in the developer b. Until the film first clears c. For 5 min at 70 degrees F d. For at least 10 minutes	c. For 5 min at 70 degrees F
77. A very light radiograph is caused by the following EXCEPT a. Too short exposure time b. Wrong side of film being toward the tube c. White light being leaked into the darkroom	c. White light being leaked into the darkroom
78. Which of the following structures do NOT appear radiolucent on a radiograph? a. Median palatine suture b. Anterior nasal spine c. Mandibular canal	b. Anterior nasal spine
79. The density of a radiograph is decreased by a. increasing the milliamperes b. Increasing the exposure time c. Increasing the developing time d. Increasing the tube-patient distance	d. Increasing the tube-patient distance
80. What bone bridges the cranial base and the facial skeleton? a. Sphenoid b. Maxilla c. Temporal d. Frontal	b. Maxilla
81. If there is no correlation between two sets of data, what is the coefficient of correlation? a. 0 b. 1 c. 10 d. 100	a. 0
82. What happens to A point during an RME? a. Moves forward b. Moves downward c. Moves backward d. Moves upward e. Doesn’t move	a. Moves forward
83. Which sutures get split with an RME? a. Palatal b. Circummaxillary c. Circumzygomatic d. All of the above	d. All of the above
84. Which bones have air in them? a. Ethmoid b. Temporal c. Sphenoid d. Frontal e. All of the above	e. All of the above
85. Where does the frontal sinus drain? a. Inferior nasal meatus b. Middle nasal meatus c. Superior nasal meatus d. All of the above	b. Middle nasal meatus
86. How many mm’s are there between the CEJ to crest of healthy bone? a. 0mm b. 2mm c. 4mm d. 7mm	b. 2mm
87. What do you suspect is happening when a patient has clicking after 30mm of opening? a. Trigeminal Neuralgia b. Anterior displaced disc c. Torn disc d. Arthritic condyle	b. Anterior displaced disc
88. A patient comes to you after an auto accident with a shift to the right, what is the cause? a. Trigeminal Neuralgia b. Left condylar fracture c. Right condylar fracture d. Bell’s Palsy	c. Right condylar fracture
89. On a lateral ceph, what is elongated in Eagle’s Syndrome? a. Styloid process b. Coronoid process c. Tuberosity d. Symphysis	a. Styloid process
90. The mandibular condyle is composed of a. Hyaline Cartilage b. Fibrous Cartilage	a. Hyaline Cartilage
91. Which suture is NOT at the posterior border of the maxillary tuberosity? a. Zygomatico b. Pterygo c. Palatine d. Sphenoid e. None of the above	e. None of the above
92. The palate grows down by a. Apposition on the lingual b. Sutural c. All of the above d. None of the above	c. All of the above
93. What is the major difference between Apert’s and Crouzon’s syndromes? a. Slant of the eyes b. Syndactaly c. One is Class II and the other is Class III d. None of the above	b. Syndactaly
94. For a female at menarche, which statement is true? a. Most growth is complete b. Most growth is yet to come	a. Most growth is complete
95. Based on bone density, which teeth are the best for anchorage? a. Maxillary second molars b. Maxillary first molars c. Mandibular first molars	c. Mandibular first molars
96. Which would you use to compare 2 means? a. t-test b. Chi square c. Correlation	a. t-test
97. When correlating 3 variables, which would you use? a. t-test b. Chi-square c. Correlation	b. Chi-square
98. The distance between two magnets decreases by 50%, the force increases by? a. 50% b. 100% c. 200% d. 400%	d. 400%
99. A patient had a horizontal root fracture at the apex 5 years ago, no treatment was done, and there are no symptoms. a. You can begin ortho treatment right away b. You should have endo done and then commence ortho treatment c. You should do endo, and an apicoectomy and then commence ortho treatment d. You should do nothing	a. You can begin ortho treatment right away
100. If you have an open apex with necrosis… a. You can commence ortho treatment right away b. You should have endo done and then ortho c. You should do apexification and then ortho d. You should do nothing	c. You should do apexification and then ortho
101. During a one year period of treatment a female patient, you notice that she is shifting to the right with an open bite on the right getting worse. What is the cause? a. Resorption of the right condyle or hyperplasia of the left condyle b. Resorption of the left condyle or hyperplasia of the right condyle	a. Resorption of the right condyle or hyperplasia of the left condyle
102. According to normal values, the maxillary lateral should be what proportion of the central? a. 1/9 b. 2/9 c. 1/3 d. 2/3	d. 2/3
103. When wouldn’t you level the curve of spee? a. In maxillary downfracture surgery b. In mandibular surgery c. All of the above d. None of the above	a. In maxillary downfracture surgery
104. In using a unilateral headgear, which arm should be long and out? a. The one in which you want to distalize b. The one you want to maintain the current molar relationship c. It doesn’t matter	a. The one in which you want to distalize
105. What are the side effects of a bionator? a. Maxillary incisors protrude and mandibular incisors retrude b. Maxillary incisors retrude and mandibular incisors protrude	b. Maxillary incisors retrude and mandibular incisors protrude
106. Which of the following is not formed from ectoderm? a. Skin b. Nails c. Hair d. Dentin e. Cementum	d. Dentin
107. What are some possible causes of a cleft palate? a. Heredity b. Drugs c. All of the above d. None of the above	c. All of the above
108. When does a cleft palate form? a. 2 weeks b. 6 weeks c. 11 weeks d. 20 weeks	b. 6 weeks
109. Which of the following best characterizes a skeletal crossbite? a. Maxillary molars tipped lingual, mandibular molars tipped buccal b. Maxillary molars tipped buccal, mandibular molars tipped lingual	b. Maxillary molars tipped buccal, mandibular molars tipped lingual
110. On an articulator, change in the anterior-posterior is controlled by what? a. Condylar angulation b. Bennett angle c. Either angle	b. Bennett angle
111. After root resorption has occurred during orthodontic treatment and treatment is stopped, what happens to the root resorption? a. It slowly stops b. It continues to get worse c. It stops	c. It stops
112. To check the periodontal condition in the posterior, which would you use? a. Vertical Bitewing b. Horizontal Bitewing c. Occlusal d. Panorex	a. Vertical Bitewing
113. When evaluating the smile line, where do we put the incisors? a. Smile to gingival margin b. Smile to teeth c. Relaxed lip to teeth	b. Smile to teeth
114. Is there more of a risk of bone loss and periodontal disease if the roots are not parallel and are too close? a. Yes b. No	b. No
115. How long does it take for the apex of a root to close? a. 6 months b. 1 year c. 2-3 years d. 5 years	c. 2-3 years
116. What is the time that the spheno-occipital synchondrosis unites? a. 8 to 10 years b. 10 to 12 years c. 12 to 14 years d. 15 to 16 years	b. 10 to 12 years
117. Which of the following are characteristics of adenoid faces? a. High palate and constricted maxillary arch b. Flared incisors c. Class III tendencies d. Open bite	characteristics of adenoid faces? a. High palate and constricted maxillary arch
118. The fibrocartilage between the temporal area and basion around the occipital condyle and functions: a. For lateral growth b. For frontal growth c. For cushioning any direct forces or to protect from pressure of transfer forces	c. For cushioning any direct forces or to protect from pressure of transfer forces
119. When wire is increased in length the load deflection rate a. Increases b. Decreases c. Stays the same d. None of the above	b. Decreases
120. A patient with no spacing of the deciduous dentition will have a. Crowding in the permanent dentition b. Normal permanent dentition c. Spacing of the permanent dentition d. A Class III malocclusion	a. Crowding in the permanent dentition
120. A patient with no spacing of the deciduous dentition will have a. Crowding in the permanent dentition b. Normal permanent dentition c. Spacing of the permanent dentition d. A Class III malocclusion	a. Crowding in the permanent dentition
121. The greatest amount of mandibular arch length measured from the mesial of one molar to the mesial of the other will occur at what age? a. 3 b. 6 c. 9 d. 12 e. 18	b. 6
122. When a tooth is moved bodily a. Osteoblastic activity occurs on the compression side and osteoclastic occurs on the tension side b. Osteoclastic activity occurs on the pressure side and osteoblastic occurs on the tension side	b. Osteoclastic activity occurs on the pressure side and osteoblastic occurs on the tension side
123. In order to have bodily movement you need: a. A force and a moment b. A force c. A moment d. A couple	a. A force and a moment
124. Incisor liability refers to a. The space needed for the maxillary incisors b. The proclination of the maxillary incisors c. The retroclination of the maxillary incisors	a. The space needed for the maxillary incisors
125. A patient with a cleft palate only is best retained with a. An anterior bridge b. A posterior bridge c. Partial denture d. Retainer with a pontic	d. Retainer with a pontic
126. If your sample size was originally 25 and you increased it to 400, you would increase your accuracy by a. 4 times b. 40 times c. 4000 times d. None of the above	A. Margin of error is equal to 1/square root of the sample size.
127. The best measure of the limits of a sample are a. Range b. Standard Deviation c. Mean d. Specificity	b. Standard Deviation
128. Resorption is influenced by a. Hypothyroidism b. Nutrition c. Appliance type	a. Hypothyroidism
129. What does not happen during tooth eruption a. Elongation of the roots b. Occlusal movement c. Mesial movement d. Growth of the alveolar bone e. Resorption of deciduous tooth roots	c. Mesial movement
130. You notice a patient that is 9 years old with a space between the incisors. This condition is: a. Normal b. Caused by the frenum c. The ugly duckling stage d. Pathologic	a. Normal
131. Your patient has Class I molar and canine occlusion in both arches and everything is normal. There is spacing in the anterior maxillary segment. The problem is: a. Mandibular teeth are too large b. Maxillary teeth are too small c. Basal bone in the maxillary arch is too large d. None of the above	b. Maxillary teeth are too small
132. A good measure of the severity of a malocclusion is the AB line to a. Occlusal plane b. Mandibular plane c. Frankfort horizontal d. Facial plane	d. Facial plane
133. What is the best point from which to measure the protrusion of the upper incisor? a. SNA b. Facial angle c. Frankfort horizontal	a. SNA
134. If the angle of convexity is normally zero and you measure –5, what type of malocclusion is it? a. Class I b. Class II div I c. Class II div 2 d. Class III	d. Class III
135. Cephalometrics is best used to determine a. Skeletal pattern b. Dental pattern c. Dental pattern related to the skeletal pattern d. None of the above	c. Dental pattern related to the skeletal pattern
136. The optimum force to retract a canine is a. 50 to 75 grams b. 75 to 100 grams c. 100 to 150 grams d. 150 to 300 grams	c. 100 to 150 grams
137. Which tooth is lowest in the mandible at age 8? a. Lateral incisor b. First bicuspid c. Second bicuspid d. Canine	c. Second bicuspid
138. With a cervical headgear Kloen type with the bows bent lower than the occlusal plane: a. It would extrude the teeth b. Intrude the molar while distalizing c. Produce a distal movement with extrusion of the crowns by moving the roots to a larger arc	c. Produce a distal movement with extrusion of the crowns by moving the roots to a larger arc
139. Individuals who are late in their maturation show larger increments of growth than those individuals who mature early. a. True b. False	a. true
140. The mandibular growth rate in females has been found to be: a. Twice as large for 14 to 16 year olds when compared to 16 to 20 year olds b. Similar for 14 to 16 year olds when compared to 16 to 20 year olds c. Primarily in the mandibular plane area d. Greater in vertical growth than in anterior-posterior	d. Greater in vertical growth than in anterior-posterior
141. Soft tissue responses after a double jaw surgical procedure, when compared with a single jaw a. Show greater changes in double jaw surgery, with more fullness of the lips b. Show fewer changes than single jaw surgery, due to less movement c. Show similar changes, except in the lower lip and chin. d. Show a greater reduction in the upper and lower lip with the double jaw surgical procedure	b. Show fewer changes than single jaw surgery, due to less movement
142. Patients with severe nasopharyngeal obstruction who undergo adenoidectomy will change from mouth-open breathing to mouth-closed breathing approximately a. 10% of the time b. 50% of the time c. 80% of the time d. Rarely	c. 80% of the time
143. Thermal debonding of brackets is an alternative to the usual technique employed. When ceramic Brackets are debonded by thermal means, both more time and a higher temperature are required than for the debonding of stainless steel brackets, assuming a two paste adhesive system used. a. True b. False	a. True
144. Subgingival irrigation of orthodontically banded first molars with either a solution of chlorhexidine or isotonic saline solution produces a: a. Virtual cessation of gingival papillary bleeding b. Limited effect on gingival papillary bleeding c. Greater effect with chlorhexidine than with isotonic saline d. Greater effect with isotonic saline than with chlorhexidine	c. Greater effect with chlorhexidine than with isotonic saline
145. Bonded molars encourage better periodontal health of adults and adolescents than banded molars a. True b. False	b. False
146. Which of the following variables do not seem associated with the ability to project a gingival smile line? a) i and ii b) i, iii and iv c) ii, iii, and iv d) All of the above i. Upper lip length ii. Incisor clinical crown height iii. Mandibular plane angle iv. Palatal plane angle	a) i and ii
147. In utilizing the Wits Analysis, the choice of occlusal plane can alter the results. If the functional occlusal plane is used as opposed to the bisected occlusal plane, a higher correlation to the ANB angle is noted. a. True b. False	a. True
148. Patients treated with arch length expansion procedures in the mixed dentition: a. Maintain the expansion for an indefinite time period after treatment b. Relapse to the original arch length immediately after treatment c. Lose arch length, in the majority of cases, until the arch length is less than the pretreatment arch length d. Relapse to the original arch length after an average time of 7 years posttreatment	d. Relapse to the original arch length after an average time of 7 years posttreatment
149. When compared to metal brackets, a problem associated with ceramic brackets is the increased friction due to the roughness of the bracket interface a. True b. False	a. True
150. Maxillary incisor retraction during orthodontic treatment leads to: i. Forward mandibular displacement ii. Distal mandibular displacement iii. Condylar displacement iv. Growth of the nose and chin a) i and iv b) ii and iii c) iv only d) None of the above	d) None of the above
151. If you know the value of X and with which test you can find out the value of Y: a. Coefficient of variance b. Regression	b. Regression
152. A molar with a periodontal condition and a furcation involvement of III, you intend to upright and intrude it, what happens to the furcation? a. Decreased b. Increased c. Same or not changed d. Gingival recession	c. Same or not changed
153. Where are adrenocorticosteroids produced? a. Thalamus b. Pituitary c. Thyroid d. Adrenal gland	d. Adrenal gland
154. A 13 year old patient needs an implant of the maxillary incisor, at what time should it be done? a. Immediately following orthodontic treatment b. Once growth is completed c. In two years	b. Once growth is completed
155. The posterior point of the anterior cranial base is the a. Sphenoid b. Basion c. Sella Turcica	a. Sphenoid
156. The hammock ligament is related to a. Eruption b. The TMJ c. The digastrics	a. Eruption
157. Which of the following tissues does NOT grow interstitially? a. Muscle b. Bone c. Nerve d. Connective tissue	c. Nerve
158. What is NOT a major cause of malocclusion? a. Drugs b. Habits c. Hereditary d. Endocrine imbalances e. None of the above	e. None of the above
159. Acromegaly is caused by a disturbance in the a. Anterior pituitary gland b. Posterior pituitary gland c. Hypothalamus	a. Anterior pituitary gland
160. Which part of the maxilla does growth increase the arch length? a. Condyle b. Tuberosity c. Alveolus	b. Tuberosity
161. At what point does the palate close in fetal life? a. 2 weeks b. 6 weeks c. 12 weeks d. 20 weeks	c. 12 weeks
162. When do primary teeth start to calcify in the fetus? a. 4 weeks b. 14 weeks c. 24 weeks d. 8 months	b. 14 weeks
163. Which bone is not part of the bony orbit a. Sphenoid b. Vomer c. Temporal d. Lacrimal	b. Vomer
164. Where does the second branch of the trigeminal nerve pass through? a. Foramen Rotundum b. Foramen Ovale c. Foramen Spinosum	a. Foramen Rotundum
165. The facial nerve is derived from which branchial arch? a. First b. Second c. None of the above	b. Second
166. From where is the incus derived? Embryologically it is derived from the first pharyngeal arch along with the rest of the bones of mastication, such as the maxilla and mandible. a. Meckel’s cartilage b. The first branchial arch c. Tuberculum impar	a. Meckel’s cartilage
167. From where does the ala of the nose derived? a. Lateral Nasal process b. Median nasal process c. Maxilla	a. Lateral Nasal process
168. Growth does NOT occur at a. Fibrous sutures b. Syndesmoses c. Synchondroses d. Synostoses	d. Synostoses
169. Where does the mandibular foramen lie? a. Below and anterior to the mandibular molars b. Below and posterior to the mandibular molars c. Above and posterior to the mandibular molars d. Above and anterior to the mandibular molars	c. Above and posterior to the mandibular molars
170. Which suture separates the occipital and parietal bones? a. Sagittal b. Lambdoid c. Occipitomastoid d. Parietomastoid	b. Lambdoid
171. The parts of the sphenoid bone include all of these EXCEPT a. Anterior clinoid process b. Dorsum Sellae c. Cribriform plate d. Hypophyseal fossa	c. Cribriform plate
172. Which of the below is the posterior border of the maxillary tuberosity? a. The posterior part of the pterygomaxillary suture b. The anterior part of the pterygomaxillary suture	b. The anterior part of the pterygomaxillary suture
173. Which of the below is the anterior border of the pterygoid plate? a. The posterior part of the pterygomaxillary suture b. The anterior part of the pterygomaxillary suture	a. The posterior part of the pterygomaxillary suture
174. The cribriform plate is part of which bone? a. Sphenoid b. Ethmoid c. Mastoid d. Temporal	b. Ethmoid
175. Which sutures does maxillary expansion affect? a. Midpalatal b. Circummaxillary c. Circumzygomatic d. All of the above	d. All of the above
176. The limit of maxillary expansion is dictated by a. The amount of tipping you can get by the teeth b. Nothing, you can get all the expansion you want c. Zygomatic arches d. How large the palatal suture is	c. Zygomatic arches
177. After maxillary expansion, how long does it take to re-establish the suture? a. 4-6 weeks b. 2-3 months c. 4-6 months d. 9 months	c. 4-6 months
178. Which of the below is true about the suture expanding in maxillary expansion? a. It expands more anteriorly than posteriorly and more inferiorly than superiorly b. It expands more posteriorly than anteriorly and more inferiorly than superiorly c. It expands more anteriorly than posteriorly and more superiorly than inferiorly d. It expands more posteriorly than anteriorly and more superiorly than inferiorly	a. It expands more anteriorly than posteriorly and more inferiorly than superiorly
179. How many branches does the facial nerve have? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5	d. 5
180. From which bone does the medial pterygoid muscle arise from the pterygoid fossa? a. Sphenoid b. Ethmoid c. Temporal d. Nasal	a. Sphenoid
181. From where do cells for bone deposition originate? a. Osteoclasts b. Blood c. Mesenchymal cells d. Chondrocytes	c. Mesenchymal cells
182. Which of the following are NOT common characteristics of clefts? a. Missing lateral incisors b. Impacted central incisors c. Deficient maxilla d. Normal mandible	b. Impacted central incisors
183. What causes a problem in a cleft patients’ speech? a. An inability to build up intraoral pressure b. A large tongue c. A narrow mandible d. All of the above	a. An inability to build up intraoral pressure
184. An isolated cleft of the soft palate gives a problem with a. Missing teeth b. Deficient maxilla c. Hypernasality	c. Hypernasality
185. Which of the following is NOT associated with cleidocranial dysostosis? a. Missing clavicals b. Frontal and Parietal bossing c. Many unerupted supernumerary teeth d. Protrusive maxilla e. All of the above are associated with cleidocranial dysostosis	d. Protrusive maxilla
186. What are the chances that a child will inherit the trait if an autosomal dominant individual and a non-carrier have a child? a. 25% b. 50% c. 75%	b. 50%
187. What are the chances that a second child will have the characteristic if one parent is affected by an autosomal dominant characteristic and the other is not and they already have one child with the characteristic? a. 25% b. 50% c. 75% d. 100%	b. 50%
189. What is most likely the cause of malocclusion in cerebral palsy? a. Bone malformation b. Neural dysfunction c. Muscular dysfunction	c. Muscular dysfunction
188. Most anomalies occur in which period a. Pre-embryonic b. Embryonic c. Fetal d. Neo-natal	b. Embryonic
190. When should an alveolar bone graft in a cleft site be performed? a. When the canine root is 1/3 formed b. When the canine root is 2/3 formed c. When the central root is 1/3 formed d. When the central root is 2/3 formed	b. When the canine root is 2/3 formed
191. What are the articular surfaces of the TMJ lined by? a. Synovial fluid b. A thin synovial membrane c. TMJ ligament	b. A thin synovial membrane
192. A sudden change in occlusion, open bite and pain are associated with a. Rheumatoid arthritis b. Osteoarthritis c. The psyche	b. Osteoarthritis
193. Which of the following tests are used to diagnose an anteriorly displaced disk? a. Arthrogram b. Tomograms c. Cephalogram d. Panorex	a. Arthrogram
194. TMJ pain can be caused by a. Myositis b. Trauma c. Dental problems d. Intracapsular problems e. All of the above f. None of the above	e. All of the above
195. A patient presents with TMJ and muscle pain that crosses the midline. What are some likely explanations? a. It is of osteolytic origin b. It is of psychogenic origin c. It is of muscular origin	b. It is of psychogenic origin
196. A patient presents with a mandibular shift to the right on opening. They may have a. Right condylar resorption b. Left condylar resorption c. Right pterygoid paralysis d. Left pterygoid paralysis	a. Right condylar resorption
197. Instruments that cannot be heat sterilized can be sterilized with: a. High heat b. Alcohol c. Ethylene oxide	c. Ethylene oxide
198. Abdominal thrusts on a child should be performed a. Above the navel and above the sternum b. Above the navel and below the sternum c. Below the navel and above the sternum d. Below the navel and below the sternum	b. Above the navel and below the sternum
199. If a child swallows a band and is conscious with coughing, the doctor should: a. Rush the child to the nearest emergency room b. Perform the Heimlich maneuver c. Stay with the patient and encourage coughing d. Watch and wait	c. Stay with the patient and encourage coughing
200. An experimental situation was given in which the researcher wanted to compare the means of two groups. Which statistical test would you use? a. Chi-square b. T-test c. Correlations	b. T-test
201. An experimental situation was given in which the researcher wanted to determine the effects of three continuous variables on a fourth variable. Which statistical test would you use here? a. Chi-square b. T-test c. Analysis of variance	c. Analysis of variance
201. An experimental situation was given in which the researcher wanted to determine the effects of three continuous variables on a fourth variable. Which statistical test would you use here? a. Chi-square b. T-test c. Analysis of variance	c. Analysis of variance
202. What is affected the most by extreme values? a. Median b. Mean c. Sensitivity	B. mean
203. Which of the following is the ability to detect a disease if the disease is present? a. Sensitivity b. Plausibility c. Variance	a. Sensitivity
204. Which variable does research measure after manipulating things in the experiment? a. Independent b. Dependent c. None of the above	b. Dependent
205. What is the x-ray filter made of? a. Copper b. Tungsten c. Aluminum d. Carbide	c. Aluminum
206. On a standard lateral cephalogram, which side of the mandibular border is lower and more magnified? a. Right b. Left c. Depends on the asymmetry d. None of the above	a. Right
207. How far away is the midsagittal plane of the patient from the x-ray source on a lateral cephalogram? a. 36 inches (3 feet) b. 60 inches (5 feet) c. 108 inches (9 feet)	b. 60 inches (5 feet)
208. What is the most reasonable explanation when the mandible appears smaller on a successive cephalometric radiograph? a. The first one is wrong b. The patient didn’t grow c. The patient’s head was tilted	c. The patient’s head was tilted
209. What should you change when you use a double film packet for a periapical radiograph? a. Increase the mA, but not the kVp b. Decrease the mA, and increase the kVp c. Decrease the kVp, but not the mA d. Do nothing	d. Do nothing
210. What should you do to decrease the contrast? a. Increase the kVp b. Decrease the kVp c. Increase the mA d. Decrease the mA	a. Increase the kVp
211. Which affects the penetration of an x-ray? a. MA b. Time c. KVp	c. KVp
212. Which radiograph would you use to see the maxillary sinuses? a. Tomogram b. Lateral Cephalogram c. Posterior-Anterior Cephalogram d. Waters View	d. Waters View
213. What is the posterior border of the foramen magnum called on a cephalogram? a. Basion b. Opisthion c. Axithion d. Posterior border of the foramen magnum	b. Opisthion
214. According to Ricketts, which plane is nearly parallel to the Frankfort horizontal? a. Occlusal b. Palatal c. Facial	b. Palatal
215. What is the average difference between S-N and Frankfort horizontal? a. 3 degrees b. 7 degrees c. 10 degrees d. 13 degrees	b. 7 degrees
216. On average, what is the percentage of ANS-Me to the anterior facial height? a. 35% b. 55% c. 65%	b. 55%
217. Where do you superimpose the mandible on? a. The third molar crypt, the outer cortical part of the symphysis and on the lower border of the mandibular canal b. The third molar crypt, the inner cortical part of the symphysis and on the lower border of the mandibular canal c. The third molar crypt, the inner cortical part of the symphysis and on the mandibular canal d. The third molar crypt, the outer cortical part of the symphysis and on the mandibular canal	c. The third molar crypt, the inner cortical part of the symphysis and on the mandibular canal
218. The radiopaque line that passes obliquely through the orbits on a posterioanterior ceph is which bone? a. Ethmoid b. Sphenoid c. Temporal d. Parietal	b. Sphenoid
219. Which point is associated with the occipital condyle? a. Fulcrum point b. Bolton point c. Basion point	b. Bolton point
220. Which ratio is used to see the relationship between the lower incisors and the chin? a. Holdaway ratio b. Ricketts ratio c. Bolton ratio d. Jarabak ratio	a. Holdaway ratio Holdaway ratio: prominence in saggital plane of pogonion relative to the inclination of mandibular incisors
221. What is the name of the intersection between the Bolton-nasion line and a perpendicular from sella? a. Witz registration point b. Broadbent registration point c. Jarabak registration point d. Holdaway registration point	b. Broadbent registration point
222. What is the name of the midline point at the most inferior point of the maxillary alveolus? a. Supradentale b. Subdentale c. Labialdentale	a. Supradentale
a. Internal meatus b. Maxillary tuberosity c. Ear rod d. Frankfort Horizontal	c. Ear rod
224. What are common and stable reference lines when tracing successive cephs? a. Nasion-B point b. Nasion –A point c. Frankfort horizontal d. Facial Axis	c. Frankfort horizontal
225. Which malocclusion is commonly found with an interincisal angle of 165 degrees? a. Class I b. Class II div 1 c. Class II div 2 d. Class III	c. Class II div 2 Normal is 135
226. Which appraisal is a determination of the relationship between the maxilla and the mandible? a. Wits b. SNA c. Facial Axis d. E-line	a. Wits
227. Articulation of the _____ with C1 permits the rotation of the head. a. Odontoid process b. Dens c. All of the above d. None of the above	Odontoid process
228. Where is the articular tubercle located relative to the sigmoid notch? a. Anterior b. Posterior c. Middle	b. Posterior
229. What happens to the facial angle and the mandibular plane angle as a person ages? a. The facial angle increases and the mandibular plane angle decreases b. The facial angle decreases and the mandibular plane angle increases c. The facial angle decreases and the mandibular plane angle decreases d. The facial angle increases and the mandibular plane angle increases	d. The facial angle increases and the mandibular plane angle increases FA increases, MPA decreases, mandible rotates forward and increases posterior facial height. FA: FH-N-Po
230. Where does growth occur in order to make room for the maxillary molars? a. Alveolar process b. Maxillary tuberosity c. Ramus d. All of the above	b. Maxillary tuberosity
231. Resorption of the anterior border of the ramus allows for what kind of growth? a. Increase in mandibular corpus length b. Allows for vertical growth c. Decrease in ramal height d. Allows for tuberosity growth	a. Increase in mandibular corpus length
232. Which kind of growth in the face is completed first? a. Height b. Width c. They occur at the same time	b. Width
233. Which are most related? a. Dental age, peak height velocity, skeletal age b. Dental age, skeletal age, sexual age c. Peak height velocity, skeletal age, sexual age d. Peak height velocity, dental age, sexual age	c. Peak height velocity, skeletal age, sexual age
235. Which is the BEST way to determine a person’s remaining growth potential? a. Serial cephs b. Hand-wrist c. Family history d. Chronological age	a. Serial cephs
236. How is the sphenoid bone form? a. Partly by endochondral bone formation b. Entirely by endochondral bone formation c. Entirely by intramembranous bone formation	a. Partly by endochondral bone formation
237. How are the parietal and frontal bones formed? a. Partly by endochondral bone formation b. Partly by intramembranous bone formation c. Entirely by endochondral bone formation d. Entirely by intramembranous bone formation	d. Entirely by intramembranous bone formation
238. Which bone ossifies upon termination of growth in the distal phalanges? a. Palatal bone b. Sesamoid bone c. Occipital bone d. Femur bone	b. Sesamoid bone
239. What are some characteristics of a skeletal open bite? a. A tall person b. Antegonial notching and a low mandibular plane angle c. Antegonial notching and a high mandibular plane angle d. Antegonial notching and a high Wits	c. Antegonial notching and a high mandibular plane angle
240. A curve of the mandibular canal and inclination of the condylar head is a characteristic of what? a. Rotation of the mandible b. A Class III malocclusion c. A skeletal open bite d. A skeletal deep bite	a. Rotation of the mandible
241. Which of the following is NOT formed by endoderm? a. Nails b. Skin c. Hair d. Cementum e. all of the above	e. all of the above
242. Which structure is most likely to grow into a person’s twenties? a. Chin b. Nose c. Maxilla d. Mandible	b. Nose
243. Which system is the first formed in the embryo? a. Muscular b. Vascular c. Neural d. Lymph	c. Neural
244. What happens to the mandibular plane angle when the downward growth of the maxilla plus tooth eruption is greater than the growth of the ramus? a. It increases b. It decreases c. It stays the same	a. It increases
245. The arch length from the mandibular second molar to the contralateral second molar should be about what percentage of that distance in the maxillary arch? a. 50% b. 73% c. 91% d. 100%	c. 91%
246. Which cusp of the mandibular right second molar moves through the occlusal embrasure between the maxillary right first and second molar when a person moves from right lateral excursion to centric occlusion? a. Mesobuccal b. Distobuccal c. Mesolingual d. Distolingual	a. Mesobuccal
247. Which cusp of the maxillary first molar occludes on the mesial marginal ridge of the mandibular second molar in an ideal centric occlusion? a. Mesobuccal b. Distobuccal c. Mesolingual d. Distolingual	d. Distolingual
248. If a person has steep premolar cusps, then the orthodontist should finish this patient with…. a. Equilibration b. Open bite c. Deeper overbite d. Sharper canines	c. Deeper overbite
249. What additional piece of information would you gather at your records visit to obtain condylar inclination? a. A CR bite b. A CO bite c. A Protrusive wax bite d. Lateral excursive wax bites	c. A Protrusive wax bite
250. How does the nonworking condyle move? a. Downward forward, and medially b. Downward, backward, and medially c. Downward, forward, and laterally d. Downward, backward, and laterally	a. Downward forward, and medially
251. What happens to the balancing side in canine protected occlusion? a. The canine is the only thing touching b. Group function c. It is out of occlusion	c. It is out of occlusion
252. Which of the following cause frequent balancing side contacts? a. Lingual cusps of the maxillary first premolars b. Lingual cusps of the mandibular first premolars c. Lingual cusps of the maxillary second molars d. Lingual cusps of the mandibular second molars	c. Lingual cusps of the maxillary second molars
253. Non-centric cusps in a posterior crossbite are the… a. Upper lingual and the lower buccal b. Upper lingual and the lower lingual	a. Upper lingual and the lower buccal
254. Which of the following is a viable treatment plan when there is less tooth mass on the upper? a. Extract 2 maxillary premolars b. Extract 2 mandibular premolars c. Extract 1 lower incisor d. Extract 4 premolars	c. Extract 1 lower incisor
255. Which of the following does NOT occur when a person swallows? a. Masseters contract b. Tongue is on the roof of the mouth c. The teeth are in occlusion d. Suprahyoids relax	d. Suprahyoids relax
256. When a person goes from centric occlusion to centric relation, which of the following is true? a. Overbite decrases b. Overjet increases c. Vertical dimension increases d. All of the above e. None of the above	d. All of the above
257. In Posselt’s diagram what is the final motion? a. Pure Hinge b. Pure Rotation c. Half rotation, half hinge d. None of the above	a. Pure Hinge
258. Of the following, which is true? a. A 1mm CO/CR shift is acceptable b. A 1mm lateral shift is acceptable	a. A 1mm CO/CR shift is acceptable
259. What happens to arch length as one progresses from the primary to permanent dentition? a. It increases b. It decreases c. It stays the same	b. It decreases
260. Where is the mandibular primate space? a. Between the lateral and canine b. Between the canine and first molar c. Between the permanent first molar and the primary second molar	b. Between the canine and first molar
261. Which of the below are possible arch forms? a. Bonwill-Hawley – based on a mathematical model b. Catenary – based on a pendulum swinging from two points c. Bradey Trifocal – based on trifocal ellipse d. All of the above	d. All of the above
262. Often in the treatment of a Class II case in a nongrowing patient with upper premolar extractions, which of the below are possible outcomes? a. The maxillary first molars are meant to be left with a small amount of mesial rotation b. There is a small space between the canine and the premolar meant to be left c. The maxillary first molar occludes with the buccal groove of the mandibular first molar	a. The maxillary first molars are meant to be left with a small amount of mesial rotation
264. Which characteristic of a Class II division 2 malocclusion that is most prone to relapse? a. Rotated centrals b. Mesially rotated maxillary first molars c. Deep bite	c. Deep bite
265. What are possible reasons for a patient to have a Class I occlusion on one side and a Class II on the other? a. Arch asymmetry b. Skeletal asymmetry c. Midline discrepancy d. All of the above e. None of the above	d. All of the above
266. What happens to anterior open bites in children? a. They will remain, regardless if a habit is stopped b. They may close spontaneously c. They will turn into a skeletal open bite	b. They may close spontaneously
267. When a tooth emerges, how much root has been formed? a. 2/3 b. ¾ c. 1/3 d. ½	a. 2/3
268. How long does it take for the root apex to be completely formed after tooth eruption? a. 6 months b. 1 year c. 2-3 years d. 5 years	c. 2-3 years
269. What is the treatment of an interdental crater? a. Osseous resection b. Apical repositioning c. Distal wedge	a. Osseous resection
270. What is the treatment of a one-walled defect? a. Uprighting b. Extrusion c. All of the above d. None of the above	c. All of the above
271. What is the treatment of a three-walled defect? a. Apical repositioning b. Distal wedge c. Guided tissue regeneration	c. Guided tissue regeneration
272. What is the treatment of an abraded maxillary central incisor with a gingival margin lower than the other central? a. Intruding the abraded tooth and restoring that tooth b. Apical repositioning c. Gingivectomy on the other central	a. Intruding the abraded tooth and restoring that tooth
273. What is the most predictable way to protract a molar? a. Use the rest of the arch as anchorage b. Use a TPA c. Use an implant	c. Use an implant
274. How large should a crown on an implant be for an aplastic maxillary lateral incisor? a. Same size b. 2/3 width of the maxillary central c. 5/8 width of the maxillary central d. ½ width of the maxillary canine	b. 2/3 width of the maxillary central
275. What is the bacteria that causes periodontal disease? a. Stapholococcus areus b. Streptococcus albicans c. Porphyromonas gingivalis	c. Porphyromonas gingivalis
276. Which bacterium is involved in juvenile periodontitis? a. Stapholococcus areus b. Streptococcus albicans c. Porphyromonas gingivalis d. Actinobactilus actinomycetemcomitans	d. Actinobactilus actinomycetemcomitans
277. What is the best way to tell if a tooth is ankylosed? a. Looking at the bone level compared to adjacent teeth b. Tapping on it, listening to the way it sounds compared to others c. Luxating it	a. Looking at the bone level compared to adjacent teeth
278. What is the best treatment for an impacted maxillary central incisor? a. Extract it b. Expose it and perform the closed eruption technique c. Expose it and allow it to come in on its own	b. Expose it and perform the closed eruption technique
279. What should the interface between an implant and bone be? a. Such that the implant does not move relative to adjacent bone b. Such that it acts like a pdl c. Such that it absorbs the shock of mastication	a. Such that the implant does not move relative to adjacent bone
280. A patient has lost a mandibular first molar, the second molar is tipped mesially, and you want to upright the second molar. Which should be evaluated in your decision whether to extract the third molar? a. Presence of maxillary third molar on that side b. Pontic space needed c. Distance of the mandibular third molar to the ramus d. All of the above	d. All of the above
281. What is the force to dislodge an implant? a. 100g b. 250g c. 500g d. 600g e. None of the above	e. None of the above
282. What will happen to a class III furcation defect after uprighting the tooth orthodontically? a. It will remain the same b. It will get worse c. All of the above d. None of the above	a. It will remain the same
283. How should a fracture on the maxillary central incisor with a necrotic pulp in a growing child be treated? a. Extraction b. Apexification with calcium hydroxide c. Forced eruption d. Implant	b. Apexification with calcium hydroxide
284. What are some contraindications to orthodontic movement when a patient presents with a maxillary incisor that had previously had a horizontal fracture in the apical third of the root, which has now healed? a. If it had endo performed b. If it had apicoectomy performed c. All of the above d. None of the above	d. None of the above
285. A radiolucency appears inside the pulp canal and is expanding. The patient has pain in this tooth. What is it and how should it be treated? a. External resorption and endodontic therapy should be initiated b. Internal resorption and endodontic therapy should be initiated c. External resorption and orthodontic treatment should stop immediately d. Internal resorption and orthodontic treatment should stop immediately	b. Internal resorption and endodontic therapy should be initiated
286. What happens to the friction in sliding mechanics when forces are parallel to the archwire? a. Increase b. Decrease c. Stays the same	c. Stays the same
287. If you tip maxillary central incisors toward each other with springs on a Hawley to close a diastema, where is the center of rotation? a. In the apical 1/3 of the root b. In the center of the root c. In the center of the entire tooth	a. In the apical 1/3 of the root
288. Which is true if you provide a lingual force and lingual root torque to a maxillary incisor depending on the M/F ratio? a. Crown tip b. Root tip c. Bodily movement d. All of the above	d. All of the above
289. What is parallel forces in opposite directions? a. Moment b. Couple c. Rotation	b. Couple
90. Where are helicies placed? a. In areas of the smallest bending moment b. Anywhere c. In areas of the largest bending moment d. All of the above	c. In areas of the largest bending moment
291. Which side is more force produced in asymmetric cervical headgear? a. Side with the longer outer bow and with the outer bow further from the cheek b. Side with the shorter outer bow and with the outer bow further from the cheek c. Side with the longer outer bow and with the outer bow closest to the cheek d. Side with the shorter outer bow and with the outer bow closest to the cheek	a. Side with the longer outer bow and with the outer bow further from the cheek
292. What is a side effect of an asymmetric headgear? a. Crossbite of the molar of the same side of the longer outer bow b. Crossbite of the molar of the opposite side of the longer outer bow	a. Crossbite of the molar of the same side of the longer outer bow More likely to get crossbite on side with the longer bow if expansion is not introduced.
293. How can you prevent molar crown tip with a Kloehn type cervical headgear? a. Lifting the inner bow occlusally b. Lifting the inner bow gingivally c. Lifting the outer bow gingivally d. Lifting the outer bow occlusally	c. Lifting the outer bow gingivally
294. How can you counter the effects on the molars of a tip-back bend? a. Use a high pull headgear with a long outer bow b. Use a high pull headgear with a short outer bow	b. Use a high pull headgear with a short outer bow
295. What are some problems that occur if there is a lack of lingual crown torque on the mandibular molars? a. Crossbites b. Extrusion of molars c. Extrusion of premolars d. All of the above e. None of the above	d. All of the above
296. What effect does a high pull headgear have on A point? a. It moves it posteriorly b. It moves it anteriorly c. It moves it down d. It moves it up e. It stays the same	e. It stays the same
297. What is the ratio of the amount of bony vs. soft tissue advancement in an advancement genioplasty? a. 1:1 b. 1:2 c. 1:3 d. 1:4	a. 1:1
298. Which is the least stable? a. Maxillary impaction b. Maxillary downgraft c. Mandibular advancement d. Mandibular reduction	b. Maxillary downgraft
299. Which procedure would you perform for a hyperdivergent patient with a long anterior face height? a. 2 jaw, maxillary downgraft and mandibular advancement b. 2 jaw, maxillary 3 piece and mandibular advancement c. At least maxillary impaction	c. At least maxillary impaction
300. If you do a maxillary impaction for a hyperdivergent patient who already has a class I occlusion, then you also need to consider? a. Mandibular advancement b. Maxillary advancement or mandibular reduction c. Nothing	b. Maxillary advancement or mandibular reduction
301. When do you level the curve of Spee in a brachyfacial patient? a. Before surgery b. During surgery c. After surgery	c. After surgery
302. What would you want presurgically if a patient were to have a mandibular advancement only? a. Maximum retraction of the lower incisors b. Maximum retraction of the upper incisors	a. Maximum retraction of the lower incisors
303. What is a side effect after maxillary impaction surgery? a. Nasal tip rises b. Alar base widens c. Nasal tip drops d. Alar base narrows	b. Alar base widens
304. How much acid is in acid etch? a. 10% b. 20% c. 30% d. 40%	d. 40%
305. What happens in osteopetrosis? a. Increased radiopacity b. Decreased radiopacity c. A honeycombed appearance of bone	a. Increased radiopacity
306. A differential diagnosis for a multilocular radiolucency includes all of the following except? a. Ameloblastoma b. Central giant cell granuloma c. Cementoblastoma	c. Cementoblastoma
307. How does a mucocele differ from a true cyst? a. It lacks saliva b. It lacks an epithelial lining c. It fluctuates in size	b. It lacks an epithelial lining
308. Which of the following is true about Ameloblastomas? a. They fluctuate in size b. They are radiopaque c. They do not frequently metastasize	c. They do not frequently metastasize
309. Where do you find supernumerary teeth? a. Gardner’s Syndrome b. Cleidocranial dysostosis c. All of the above d. None of the above	a. Gardner’s Syndrome
310. What is associated with primary herpetic gingivostomatitis? a. Fever b. Lymphadenopathy c. Gingival lesions d. All of the above e. None of the above	d. All of the above
311. Problems with heart valves can cause… a. Ludwig’s angina b. Infective endocarditis c. Rheumatic Fever d. Aortic Stenosis e. All of the above	e. All of the above
312. Presence of the hepatitis B surface antigen in a patient’s blood means that the patient is a. Infected b. A carrier c. Potentially infectious d. Is safe	c. Potentially infectious
314. Which of the facial bones are not paired? a. Palatal b. Maxilla c. Vomer d. Nasal	c. Vomer
315. Transferring the Frankfort-horizontal between serial cephs: a. Does not create a common reference line b. Does create a common reference line c. Changes the measurements	b. Does create a common reference line
316. What is a force acting at distance along any given axis? a. A force b. A couple c. A moment	c. A moment
317. Where must the force be to produce a counter clockwise rotation of the maxilla with high pull headgear? a. Distal to the center of resistance b. Mesial to the center of resistance c. Through the center of resistance	a. Distal to the center of resistance (? - seems like it should be mesial)
318. What is the correlation coefficient when two variables are linearly related? a. 0 b. 1 c. 10 d. 100	b. 1
319. When we use double fill package, what setting should change on the machine? a. kVp b. mA c. Time d. Do nothing	d. Do nothing
320. Where is ameloblastoma more common? a. In females and in the angle of the mandible b. In males and in the angle of the mandible	b. In males and in the angle of the mandible
321. What is the treatment of a tooth with a sulcus depth of 5mm and uneven gingival margins with adjacent teeth? a. Apical repositioning b. Distal wedge c. Gingivectomy	c. Gingivectomy
322. What is the most predictable site to get a bone graft from? a. Ramus b. Iliac crest of the hip c. Chin	b. Iliac crest of the hip
323. What are some possible problems associated with implants? a. Dehiscence b. Unfavorable crown/root ratio c. All of the above d. None of the above	c. All of the above
324. A problem of a missing papilla between teeth is probably due to? a. Unfavorable root position b. Crown shape c. Perio bone loss d. All of the above e. None of the above	d. All of the above
325. What is the bacteria that is the cause of bone loss during orthodontic treatment? a. Bacteroides Gingivalis b. Actinomyces c. Porphyromonas gingivalis d. Staphylococcus areus	a. Bacteroides Gingivalis
326. Which of the following are true for teeth with perio involvement? a. Can be caused by ortho treatment b. Has periods of remission and exacerbation c. Bacteria can be transmitted from one patient to the other d. All of the above e. None of the above	d. All of the above
327. Which of the following is NOT true when extracting a primary canine too early? a. May prevent impacting teeth b. Teeth may shift c. Increase in OJ and OB	a. May prevent impacting teeth
328. A shorter horizontal distance measured from Ar to PTM indicates what? a. Maxillary hyperplasia b. Maxillary hypoplasia c. Mandibular hyperplasia d. Mandibular hypoplasia	b. Maxillary hypoplasia
329. What is the most inferior point of maxillary alveolus on a ceph? a. Supradental b. Subdentale c. A point	a. Supradental AKA prosthion
330. What are the sequela of having inadequate lingual crown torque on mandibular molars? a. Creates crossbites b. Elongation of lingual cusps c. All of the above d. None of the above	c. All of the above
331. Where is palatal expansion more pronounced? a. Inferiorly and posteriorly b. Inferiorly and anteriorly c. Superiorly and posteriorly d. Superiorly and anteriorly	b. Inferiorly and anteriorly
332. Where does the temporal bone appear on a PA ceph? a. Superiorly 1/3 of orbit ? b. Middle 1/3 of orbit c. Inferior 1/3 of orbit	c. Inferior 1/3 of orbit
333. Which of the following participates in the formation of the ala of the nose? a. Medial nasal process b. Lateral nasal process c. Premaxilla	b. Lateral nasal process
334. Which of the following is responsible for the formation of the malleus? a. Meckel’s cartilage b. The incus c. Tuberculum impar	a. Meckel’s cartilage
335. How many minutes without oxygen can the brain survive? a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 7 e. 8	c. 6
336. Which part of the face has both intramembranous and endochondral sutures? a. Upper and middle b. Upper and lower c. Middle and lower d. Upper only	c. Middle and lower
337. What does the upper second premolar occlude with in a Class III? a. Mandibular second premolar and first molar b. Mandibular first molar only c. Mandibular first and second molar d. Mandibular second molar only	b. Mandibular first molar only
338. What is the most stable tooth position? a. CR b. Maximum Intercuspation c. Freeway space	a. CR
339. What is the best radiographic technique to see TMJ soft tissue? a. Arthrography b. Tomograms c. MRI d. CT scan	c. MRI
340. What is your treatment for a 5 year old with a thumbsucking habit? a. RPE b. Crib c. Extraction d. Do nothing	d. Do nothing
341. What is the facial artery a branch of? a. External carotid artery b. Internal carotid artery c. Lingual artery d. Thyroid artery	a. External carotid artery
342. How many minutes without oxygen until the brain is dead? a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 7 e. 8	c. 6
347. When you go from CO to CR you do which of the following? a. Increase OJ b. Decrease OB c. Decrease OJ d. A & B e. B & C	d. A & B
348. What is the best Radiographic technique to see TMJ soft tissue? a. CAT scan b. Tomogram c. MRI d. Bitewing	c. MRI
349. When taking an intraoral PA with two films (duplicates), what do you need to adjust to ensure quality? a. Increase kVP b. Decrease kVP c. Increase milliamps d. Decrease milliamps	a. Increase kVP
358. A patient has a thumbsucking habit at the age of five, you should. a. Do surgery b. Start with a habit breaking appliance ASAP c. Punish the child d. Do nothing	d. Do nothing
360. What type of bone can you not use for ridge augmentation? a. Hydroxyapetite b. FDDB c. Hip graft	a. Hydroxyapetite
361. Which of the following is not a common symptom of TMD? a. ADO b. pain c. headaches	a. ADO sign, not symptom.
363. The facial artery is branch of? a. Internal carotid b. External carotid c. Maxillary d. Internal jugular	b. External carotid
368. What sutures are affected with RPE? a. Circummaxillary b. Circumzygomatic c. Midpalatal d. All of the above	d. All of the above
370. What is the smallest bone in the head? a. Lacrimal b. Frontal c. Stapes d. Mandible	c. Stapes
376. When doing a maxillary impaction, what factors are taken into consideration? a. Resting lip/tooth b. Full smile lip tooth c. All of the above d. None of the above	c. All of the above
379. When NiTi is activated it goes from? a. Austenitic to martensitic b. Martensitic to austenitic	a. Austenitic to martensitic
380. First sign of permanent deformation is known as what? a. Threshold b. Proportional limit c. Elastic limit	b. Proportional limit
383. What do you not superimpose the mandible on? a. Third molar buds b. Inferior border c. Mental foramen d. Symphysis	c. Mental foramen
398. In Paget’s disease which of the following lab tests are elevated? a. Serum Alkaline phosphatase b. WBC count c. PTT d. Serum glucose	a. Serum Alkaline phosphatase
399. How should a patient be positioned for taking a panoramic XR? a. Chin parallel to the floor b. Frankfort horizontal parallel to the floor c. Occlusal plane parallel to the floor d. None of the above	c. Occlusal plane parallel to the floor
400. How should a patient be positioned for taking a cephalometric XR? a. Patient staring at a distant point in the horizon (Natural head position) b. Alert feeding position c. Chin parallel to the floor d. None of the above	a. Patient staring at a distant point in the horizon (Natural head position)
401. Heat treated elgiloy has the same stiffness as ? a. NiTi b. Stainless Steel c. TMA d. Copper NiTi	b. Stainless Steel
402. Most stainless steel wires are made of ? a. 18% Chromium b. 10% Nickel c. 8 % Nickel d. a & b e. a & c	e. a & c
403. Patient with rotated maxillary incisors, deep bite, large OJ. What is most likely to relapse after treatment? a. OJ b. OB c. Rotations	c. Rotations
404. On the non-working side, the condyle moves? a. Downward, forward, laterally b. Downward, forward, and medially	b. Downward, forward, and medially
406. Wits analysis uses which plane for reference? a. Frankfort b. Occlusal c. SN d. Palatal	b. Occlusal
407. What muscle protrudes the mandible? a. Lateral Pterygoid b. Medial pterygoid c. Buccinator d. Masseter	a. Lateral Pterygoid
408. Periodontal disease is caused from all but which of the following? a. Biologic width impingement b. Occlusion c. Poor OH d. Increase in virulent oral flora	b. Occlusion
409. What causes black triangles? a. Crown shape b. Bone loss c. Root position d. All the above	d. All the above
411. In what type of surgery do you not need to level both maxillary and mandibular arches? a. Mandibular advancement b. Maxillary downgraft c. Three piece maxillae	c. Three piece maxillae
412. If you see an unconscious person lying on the floor what do you do first? a. Activate EMS b. Look for ID c. Start CPR d. Nothing	a. Activate EMS
413. How many chromosomes are there in a somatic cell? a. 23 b. 1 c. 46 d. 47	c. 46
417. Correlation is generally expressed as a: a. Whole number b. Ratio c. Fraction d. Percentage	c. Fraction
422. Where there is no correlation r= what? a. >1 b. <1 c. 0 d. none of the above	c. 0
423. To maximize mandibular advancement, one can extract? a. Lower 1st bicuspids b. Upper 1first bicuspids c. A lower incisor d. Nothing	a. Lower 1st bicuspids
424. Patient with impacted canines 3mm above mucogingival junction, what should you do? a. Expose using closed eruption technique b. Bracket and graft later c. Bracket and bring into arch d. Nothing	a. Expose using closed eruption technique
425. Growth of the mandible is between what two growth curves? a. General and neural b. General and genital c. Neural and lymphoid d. None of the above	a. General and neural
426. At birth the crowns of which primary teeth have been calcified? a. Mandibular incisors b. Mandibular 1st molars c. Maxillary canine d. Maxillary 1st molars	a. Mandibular incisors
427. Characteristics of an ameloblastoma? a. Tend to recur b. Do not metastisize c. Occur at angle of mandible (third molar area) d. All of the above	d. All of the above
428. Which of the following is not a radiolucent lesion? a. Cementoblastoma b. Dentigerous cyst c. Ameloblastoma	a. Cementoblastoma
430. If performing apexification with calcium-hydroxide how long do you wait before you start ortho treatment? a. Immediately b. Never c. 6 months d. 12 months	a. Immediately
431. To align marginal ridges what kind of bend? a. 1st order b. 2nd order c. 3rd order d. 4th order	b. 2nd order
432. What is the most common cause of mandibular anterior crowding? a. Late mandibular growth b. Poor orthodontics c. Third molars erupting d. None of the above	d. None of the above
433. What is most commonly seen in Hepatitis B? a. Jaundice b. High fever c. Weakness d. No symptoms	d. No symptoms
434. Which of the following are generally placed in the sharps container? a. Scapel b. Wires c. Bands d. All of the above	d. All of the above
435. According to someone (1997), what is the effect of reverse pull headgear? a. Increase in SNA b. Tipping of maxillary molars c. Tipping of palatal plane	a. Increase in SNA
438. In late maturing girls, PVH occurs? a. 6-11 months before menstruation b. 18-24 month before menstration c. more than 24 months before menstration	c. more than 24 months before menstration 15 mos is average
439. What surgical procedure is the most unstable? a. Maxillary downfracture b. Mandibular advancement c. RPE d. Three piece maxilla	a. Maxillary downfracture
440. In a normal development, what happens to the arch length? a. Remains the same or slightly increases b. Remains the same or slightly decreases c. Decreases significantly d. Increases significantly	b. Remains the same or slightly decreases
445. What variable do you change if you want to observe changes in the experiment? a. Confounding variables b. Independent variables c. Dependent variables d. None of the above	c. Dependent variables
448. What is the primary osteon? a. Woven bone b. Mature spongy bone c. Mature cancellous bone d. Cartilage	a. Woven bone
449. A patient has a 2 mm gingival discrepancy of the upper central incisors and the incisal edges. If the upper right central incisors gingival margin is more apical than that of the canine what should you do? a. Build up the edges b. Extrude the incisor c. Intrude the canine d. Nothing	b. Extrude the incisor
450. How many craniofacial bones are there? a. 8 cranial b. 14 facial c. 22 total d. all of the above	c. 22 total
451. If there is a significant crater between the maxillary PM’s, what do you do? a. Osseous recountouring b. Extrude the PM c. Extract d. Nothing	a. Osseous recountouring
453. In centric occlusion, where does the distolingual cusp of the maxillary 1st molar occlude? a. Mesial marginal ridge of mandibular 2nd molar b. Central fossa of mandibular 1st molar c. Central fossa of mandibular 2nd molar d. None of the above	a. Mesial marginal ridge of mandibular 2nd molar
454. When is condylar hypoplasia most common? a. Early childhood b. Early adult- late adolescent c. Late adult	b. Early adult- late adolescent
455. If a patient was in an accident and the chin deviates to the right, which lateral pterygoid is working? a. Left b. Right c. Neither d. Both	a. Left
459. A type III furcation is detected before orthodontic treatment what do you do? a. Open flap curettage b. Intrude the tooth c. Bone graft d. Membrane regeneration	a. Open flap curettage
464. What amount of overbite is necessary for a bonded bridge? a. 0.5mm b. 1-2 mm c. 2-3 mm d. 3-4 mm	a. 0.5mm
465. You are most likely to get a magnified image if? a. Increase object to film distance b. Decrease object to film distance	a. Increase object to film distance
466. What is the difference in degrees from FH to SN? a. 4 b. 7 c. 11 d. 15	b. 7
467. What is the difference between primary osteons and secondary osteons? a. Primary osteons is woven bone b. Primary bone is fine woven bone c. Primary osteon has ordered osteocytes d. Primary osteons has canaliculi perpendicular to medullary canal	a. Primary osteons is woven bone
470. Which is most closely associated with opisthion? a. Bolton b. Basion c. Condylion d. Occipital condyle	d. Occipital condyle
472. On PA radiograph, what is the oblique line on the orbit?	a. Temporal line (see Yen article)
471. What is opisthion?	a. Most posterior point on foramen magnum
473. What is the midpoint on a perpendicular between sella and Bolton-nasion?	a. Broadbent registration point
474. What is Rickett’s E-line?	a. Soft tissue Po to tip of nose
475. What is the best cephalometriic measurement for incisor position on the chin?	a. Holdaway ratio
476. If you increase the Kvp you do what to the contrast? a. Increase b. Decrease c. No change	b. Decrease
477. Patient has antegonial notch on ceph, how do you know if right or left side when the notch is on the inferior border of the mandible? a. Right side will be magnified b. Left side will be magnified c. You won’t	a. Right side will be magnified
478. What is the filter made of? a. Copper b. Aluminum c. Zinc d. Gold	b. Aluminum
479. What has no effect on the penetrating power? a. KVp b. Mamps c. Wavelength of the photons d. Exposure time	d. Exposure time
480. If you have a double film of periapical, what do you need to do? a. Increase KVp b. Increase M amps c. Increase exposure times d. Nothing	d. Do nothing
481. If you buy a new ceph machine, but it’s 5 mm greater distance between object and film-what happens? (15.5 cm instead of 15.0cm) a. Slightly enlarged b. Significantly enlarged c. No change	a. Slightly enlarged
483. If you are doing research on cephs, but one group is on one machine and the second group is on another machine. What affect on your results? a. Factor in a magnification between the two machines b. Can’t use the data c. No effect	a. Factor in a magnification between the two machines
484. FH is at the level of what structure? a. Zygomatic arch b. Key ridge c. Mandible d. Occiput	a. Zygomatic arch
486. Where does the petrous bone lie on a PA ceph radiograph? a. Upper 1/3 of orbit b. Inferior 1/3 of orbit ? c. Roof of orbit d. Floor of orbit	d. Floor of orbit
487. What is the transcranial XR least reliable for viewing? a. Condyle shape b. Glenoid fossa c. Joint space d. Range of motion	a. Condyle shape
488. What covers the articulating surface of the condyle? a. Dense fibrous CT b. Perochondrium c. Synovial membrane	a. Dense fibrous CT
489. The tuberculum impar gives rise to what structure? a. Tongue b. Thyroid gland c. Thymus	a. Tongue
490. The position of the mandibular foramen is where? a. Above the occlusal plane b. Below the occlusal plane	a. Above the occlusal plane
491. What type of bone is formed after initial ortho movement? a. Cancellous bone b. Spongy bone c. Woven bone d. Lamellar bone	c. Woven bone
492. How many bones are in the craniofacial complex? a. 8 cranial b. 14 facial c. 22 total d. all of the above	c. 22 total
494. A positive Hepatitis B surface antibody indicates what? a. Infectious b. Immune c. Infected	B. Immune
499. If using a unilateral headgear to correct a Class II molar on the right side, a possible side effect would be a crossbite developing on which side? a. Right b. Left c. Neither d. Both	a. Right
503. Peak incidence of dental trauma occurs between what ages? a. 6-7 b. 8-10 c. 12-14 d. 15-16	b. 8-10
504. When a tooth is ankylosed the amount of the ridge defect depends mainly upon: a. The amount of facial growth after ankylosis b. The adjacent teeth	a. The amount of facial growth after ankylosis
507. Space discrepancies of up to ___ mm can usually be resolved without extraction of some teeth other than third molars? a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8	b. 4
508. Space discrepancies greater than 10 mm ______ require extraction? a. Sometimes b. Never c. Almost always d. None of the above	c. Almost always
509. Serial extraction applies to patients who meet which of the following criteria? a. Class I Molar relationship b. Normal overbite c. Large arch perimeter deficiency (10mm or more) d. All of the above e. None of the above	d. All of the above From Graber chapter by Jack Dale. Indications: Hereditary crowding >10mm Crescent resorption of primary canines.
510. The goal of serial extraction is to:	a. Transfer incisor crowding posteriorly to the PM extraction site
511. The key to success of serial extraction is to extract the first PM’s : a. Before the canines erupt b. after the canines erupt c. never	a. Before the canines erupt
512. The best method for assessing the completion of facial growth is: a. Superimposition of serial cephs b. Hand wrist films c. Cervical vertebrae d. None of the above	a. Superimposition of serial cephs
513. After maxillary tooth extraction in the anterior region the ridge width is reduced in the buccolingual dimension over the next 6 months by what percentage? a. 11% b. 18% c. 23% ( over 6 months) d. 34% (over 5 years)	c. 23% ( over 6 months)
515. When placing an implant the head of the fixture should be how many mm apical to the desired gingival margin? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5	c. 4mm (kokich/spear: "3-4mm below level of attached gingiva")
516. The estimated healing time for an implant in the maxilla is? a. 1-2 months b. 3-4 months c. 4-6 months d. 6-8 months	d. 6-8 months
517. The estimated healing time for an implant in the mandible is? a. 1-2 months b. 3-4 months c. 4-6 months d. 6-8 months	c. 4-6 months
518. What is used in filtration? a. Aluminum b. Tungsten c. Gold d. Silver	a. Aluminum
520. Clockwise moment around maxillary molar, where do you put your force? a. Distal to Center of resistance b. Mesial to Center of reisistance c. Above center of resistance d. Below center of resistance	b. Mesial to Center of reisistance
521. What can cause myofacial pain? a. Myocardial infarction b. Parotitis c. Myositis d. All of the above	d. All of the above
522. What is responsible for detecting discomfort and pain? a. Proprioceptors b. Nociceptor c. None of the above d. All of the above	b. Nociceptor
523. Which lacks proprioceptors? a. Pulp b. Gingiva c. Tmj d. Skeletal muscle	a. Pulp
524. Where are clefts more dominant? a. Whites equal to Indians b. Indians > whites	b. Indians > whites
525. Which is not important when deciding to bring canines into lateral position? a. Restorations on centrals b. Classification and mandible position c. Color of canines d. Shape of canines	a. Restorations on centrals
526. If you have a 5mm deep probing depth on buccal surface of molar and it does not go through furcation what do you do? a. GTR b. Osseous recontouring c. Nothing d. Hemisection	b. Osseous recontouring
527. What kind of bone is fetal bone? a. Lamellar b. Woven c. Spongy d. Cancellous	b. Woven
528. When you have a vertical root fracture what do you do? a. Extract b. Extrude and restore c. Nothing d. ?	a. Extract
529. What is the ideal percentage of the lower facial height? a. 45% b. 55% c. 35% d. 65%	b. 55%
530. What does Rickett’s measure? a. Frankfort horizontal b. SN c. Palatal plane d. Occlusal plane	a. Frankfort horizontal
532. If you are preparing for a mandibular advancement which is the best treatment? a. Extract lower 1st PM’s b. Extract lower 2nd PM’s c. Extract upper 1st PM’s d. Extract lower incisor	a. Extract lower 1st PM’s
534. Syndromes associated with clefts include: a. Pierre Robins b. Treacher Collins c. Crouzon’s d. Aperts e. Van der Woude f. All the above	f. All the above
537. Which is reduced in cleft patients? a. Upper facial height b. Lower facial height c. Neither d. Both	d. Both
538. Limits of surgical procedures? a. Max impaction: anterior limit = 9-10mm b. “ “ = 5-6 mm c. Maxillary advancement = 5-6 mm d. Maxillary expansion = 5-6 mm e. Mandibular advancement = 9-10 mm f. Mandibular setback = 10 mm	e. Mandibular advancement = 9-10 mm Proffitt says 5-6mm.
539. What is the normal intermolar width in adults? a. 33-35 mm b. 36-39 mm c. 39-42mm d. none	a. 33-35 mm
540. What is the normal intermolar width for adolescents? a. 33-35 b. 36-39 c. 39-42 d. none	a. 33-35
541. What is the least stable surgical procedure? a. Max. downfracture b. Man. Advancement c. Man. Set-back d. Lefort II	a. Max. downfracture
542. How do you minimize tipping when retracting canines? a. Use narrow bracket b. Maximize intrabracket moment c. Use uprighting spring d. Something else	b. Maximize intrabracket moment
543. What is the largest in an infant? a. Width of head b. Depth of head c. Vertical size of head	a. Width of head
544. Which dimension finishes growing first? a. Width (breadth) b. Depth c. Vertical	a. Width (breadth)
549. What is the significance of a short posterior cranial base? a. Mandibular prognathism b. Anterior x-bite c. Maxillary retrognathism d. All of the above	d. All of the above
553. Three walled defect, what will happen if start orthodontics? a. Nothing b. Get better c. Get worse	c. Get worse
554. What is effective bone graft for alveolar cleft? a. Bone from cadaver b. Bone from chin c. Bone from calvaria d. Bone from rib	d. Bone from rib Iliac crest is best. Particulate autogenous cancellous bone. Chin OK but not much bone. Calvaria not as good. Rib ok to use for primary graft as an infant but very old technique.
555. What is the proper age for a patient to have an alveolar bone graft if a cleft patient? a. 2/3 of root of canine formed b. age 16 c. none d. age 6	a. 2/3 of root of canine formed
556. In Rickett’s analysis what is most parallel to FH? a. Zygomatic arch b. Key ridge c. Palatal plane d. Occlusal plane	c. Palatal plane
557. What effects penetration of XR’s? a. KVp b. mAmps c. Exposure time	a. KVp
558. Where does part of temporal bone cross orbit on PA ceph? a. Bisect orbit ? b. Upper 1/3 of orbit c. Lower 1/3 of orbit d. Floor of orbit	c. Lower 1/3 of orbit
559. What is the minimum amount of force needed to cause disintegration of bone around and implant? a. 50g b. 100g c. 200g d. 400g e. none of the above	e. none of the above
561. If Standard deviation is ±1, and mean is 10, 35% of people would be included in range from 11 to ___? a. 11.5 b. 12 c. 10 d. 9	c. 10. -->68% within 1 sd (9-11) so 35% between 10-11
562. What foramen does V2 pass through? a. Ovale b. Rotundum c. Spinosum d. magnum	b. Rotundum
563. When do you not have to level the curve of spee pre-surgically? a. Brachyfacial b. Short lower facial height c. Deep bite d. all of the above	a. Brachyfacial
566. Which bone is partially endochondral formation? a. Sphenoid b. Frontal c. Parietal	a. Sphenoid Greater wings are intramembranous.
567. Calcification of what is associated with Eagle’s syndrome? a. Stylohyoid b. Sphenomandibular c. Lateral pterygoid d. Digastric	a. Stylohyoid
573. Hypothyroidism in a growing child exhibits? a. Retardation of growth of long bones b. Mental retardation c. Late in eruption of dentition d. All of the above	d. All of the above
574. Incidence of clefts in population is:	a. 1:700
575. How does one differentiate between dental and skeletal crossbite? a. Decrease palatal width b. Lingual crown torque of upper molars c. Distal crown torque of upper molars d. Buccal crown torque of upper molars e. Lingual crown torque of lower molars and buccal crown torque of upper molars	e. Lingual crown torque of lower molars and buccal crown torque of upper molars
583. In order to produce a counterclockwise rotation of the maxilla with a high pull headgear the force must be _______ to the center of resistance? a. Mesial b. Distal c. Occlusal d. Gingival	a. Mesial
584. When we use a double fill package of XR what should we adjust to ensure quality XR’s? a. KVP b. MAmps c. Exposure time d. Do nothing	d. Do nothing
587. A tooth has a sulcus depth of 5mm and uneven gingival margins on the adjacent teeth, how do you treat? a. Gingival grafts on the adjacent teeth b. Gingivectomy on the tooth in question c. No treatment d. Extrude and restore	b. Gingivectomy on the tooth in question
588. The most predictable site to get a bone graft from is? a. Hip b. Knee c. Skull d. Cadaver	a. Hip
591. Which microorganism is most commonly associated with bone loss during ortho treatment? a. P. gingivalis b. Bacterodes gingivalis c. A. mycosis	b. Bacterodes gingivalis
595. Ectodermal dysplasia has which of the following clinical manifestations? a. Blue sclera b. No teeth c. No sweat glands d. All of the above	d. All of the above
604. After RPE, the midpalatal suture reorganizes in: a. 1-2 months b. 2-3 months c. 4-6 months d. 6-9 months	c. 4-6 months
606. Which is the most stable surgical procedure? a. Mandibular advancement b. Maxillary impaction c. Maxillary downfracture d. Mandibular setback	b. Maxillary impaction
608. Most anamolies that survive and manifest themselves occur during? a. The embryonic stage b. The fetal stage c. The blastula stage d. None of the above	b. The fetal stage
607. The temporal bone on a PA ceph appears as a line on? a. Superior 1/3 of the orbit b. Middle 1/3 of the orbit ? c. Inferior 1/3 of the orbit d. None of the above	c. Inferior 1/3 of the orbit
609. In order to distalize a maxillary right molar with an asymmetric headgear you must? a. Cut the left side short b. Cut the right side short	a. Cut the left side short
610. Functional appliances cause: a. Proclination of lower incisors b. Retroclination of upper incisors c. Both d. Neither	c. Both
617. Which organ is responsible for calcium conservation ? a. Liver b. Kidney c. Spleen d. Brain	b. Kidney
618. The tension side of tooth movement has what components histologically? a. Woven bone b. Fibrous tissue c. Both	a. Woven bone
619. Intramembranous bone formation comes from: a. Condensation of mesenchyme b. Endoderm c. Ectoderm	a. Condensation of mesenchyme
622. What is the result of a distal step relationship in the primary dentition with no mandibular growth? a. Class I b. Class II c. Class III d. None of the above	b. Class II
625. Bones resulting from intramembranous formation are: a. Frontal b. Parietal c. Nasal d. Maxillae e. Mandible f. all of the above	f. all of the above
628. The midpoint between the anterior and posterior clenoid process is the : a. Sella turcica b. Ethmoid point c. Basion d. Pterygoid point	a. Sella turcica
629. If two bicuspids are extracted in a Class II Div 1 non-growing patient, what functional cusp lies in an embrasure? a. DL cusp of maxillary first molar b. ML cusp of maxillary first molar c. ML cusp of maxillary second molar d. L cusp of mandibular premolar	b. ML cusp of maxillary first molar
630. From a line from Bolton’s Point to Nasion, the perpendicular from sella intersects ½ way up and the point is known as: a. Bolton’s point b. Broadbent’s registration point c. Posterior clenoid process	b. Broadbent’s registration point
633. In an .022 slot size system, the maximal slot size measurements are: a. 18 x 25 b. 22 x 22 c. 22 x 28 d. 22 x 25 e. 25 x 22	c. 22 x 28
637. The most likely HG type to be used in a patient with upper 4 extractions and low angle would be: a. Cervical b. High-pull c. Combination d. J-hook	a. Cervical
638. The activation phase of a superelastic NiTi involves what state? a. Austenitic b. Martensetic c. Crystalline to amorphous d. Amorphous to crystalline	b. Martensetic
639. If both parents have no cleft but one sibling does, what are the chances that a cleft will occur in a new sibling? a. 100 b. 50 c. 5 d. 0	b. 50
640. The point furthest away from glabella is: a. A point b. B Point c. Subspinale d. Pogonion	d. Pogonion
641. The facial nerve (VII) has how many braches? a. One b. Three c. Five d. Ten	c. Five
642. Decrease in cell number is: a. Metaplasia b. Hypertrophy c. Hyperplasia d. Atrophy e. Hypoplasia	e. Hypoplasia
645. If an RPE is used, it is necessary to take radiographs to check that the midpalatal suture has split: a. True b. False	b. False
646. A helix is placed in the wire when leveling: a. Where wire will easily bend b. Where wire will not easily bend c. In the center of the wire	b. Where wire will not easily bend
647. A newly employed personnel should have Hep. B shots made available to him/her: a. After six months of work b. As soon as possible c. Never	b. As soon as possible
648. For superimposition, the mandibular landmarks which are most consistent are: a. 3 rd molar crypts b. mandibular canal c. inner part of symphysis d. all of the above	d. all of the above
649. The orthognathic surgical procedure most likely to cause post-operative TMJ sounds such as popping or crepitation is: a. Lefort I osteotomy b. Mandibular subapical osteotomy c. Mandibular advancement d. Mandibular set-back e. Mandibular alveolar advancement	c. Mandibular advancement
650. During post orthodontics treatment one might expect the following to occur: a. Reduction in root length b. Reduced alveolar bone support c. Crowding d. Rotation e. All of the above	e. All of the above
651. The assessment of mandibular movements as a diagnostic procedure in evaluating TMJ disorders: a. Has no bearing on the functional capacity of the stomatognathic system b. Is necessary to determine whether the TMD is muscular or intracapsular or a combination of both c. Is critical for the evaluation of mandibular dysfunction d. Is unreliable	c. Is critical for the evaluation of mandibular dysfunction
652. When considering the option whether to band or bond the permanent molars, which of the following statements is true? a. The gingival attachments are severely damaged by judicious banding b. He plaque index in banded permanent second molars is the same as bonded second molars c. Bonded second permanent molars exhibit the same gingival reactions as banded permanent second molars d. In the long run there is no difference in the gingival health of banded or bonded permanent second molars	d. In the long run there is no difference in the gingival health of banded or bonded permanent second molars
653. The impaction of mandibular third molars after orthodontic treatment is associated with: a. The vertical component of growth b. Higher than usual mandibular plane angles c. Excessively large ascending rami d. Short mandibular bodies e. All of the above	e. All of the above
654. Intrusion of incisors in adult patient’s with marginal bone loss should be avoided due to increase risk of bone loss: a. True b. False	b. False
655. Teeth that have been treated endodontically, prior to the start of orthodontic treatment will diplay: a. A greater tendency for root resorption b. A lesser tendency for root resorption c. No predictable pattern of root resorption	c. No predictable pattern of root resorption
656. Which of the following effects does the lip bumper have on the mandibular teeth? a. Minimal tipping with the predominant changes being the encouragement of normal upward and forward eruption of the incisors b. Controlled incisor tipping with the center of rotation at the CEJ c. Controlled incisor tipping with the center of rotation at the apex	c. Controlled incisor tipping with the center of rotation at the apex
657. Stability of deep overbite correction is: a. More favorable in growing individuals b. More favorable in nongrowers c. Not related to whether the deep bite was corrected during the growth phase	c. Not related to whether the deep bite was corrected during the growth phase
658. Relapse of overjet and sagittal molar relationship following the use of the Herbst appliance can be attributed to: a. A neuromuscular mandibular position b. Anterior movement of the maxillary molars and incisors c. The variability of posttreatment maxillary and mandibular growth	b. Anterior movement of the maxillary molars and incisors
659. When asymptomatic non-ectopic impacted mandibular third molars are followed from a mean age of 20 to 24 years, what percentage of the molars are expected to erupt into a normal position? a. 70 % b. 57 % c. 45 % d. 33 % e. 20 %	d. 33 %
660. Which of the following describes gingival recession when it occurs in adults? a. It occurs approximately 68% of the time b. It occurs in the mandibular teeth more than in the maxillary c. It occurs more symmetrically than asymmetrically d. All of the above	d. All of the above
661. When 300 grams of force is applied for 3 months to titanium implants used for orthodontic anchorage in experimental animals, they are successful approximately what % of the time? a. 99 % b. 94 % c. 72 % d. 58 % e. 30 %	b. 94 %
662. Most TMJ problems are induced by: a. Poor occlusion or malocclusion b. Orthodontic treatment c. Orthodontic treatment with 4 first premolar extraction d. All of the above e. None of the above	e. None of the above
663. TMJ problems in the general population: a. Occur the same or more than in the orthodontically treated population b. Occur more in females than males c. Are often stress related with accompanying muscle spasms and trismus d. Are usually due to pathology or derangements e. All of the above	e. All of the above
664. Recent research shows that the mean shear bond strength of bracket adhesive using Fluoride-releasing etching gel is significantly higher than when using a non-fluoridated gel? a. True b. False	b. False
665. A study evaluating serial extraction cases at least 10 years out of retention indicated that: a. A more stable result achieved in the serial extraction cases than in cases that had premolars extracted after they fully erupted b. No decrease in post retention intercanine width c. That only 23% of the sample demonstrated clinically unsatisfactory mandibular alignment by the post-retention stage d. All of the above e. None of the above	e. None of the above
666. What affects the penetration to the patient the most? a. KVp b. Distance c. Intensifying screens d. Exposure time	a. KVp
667. What did not originate from ectoderm? a. Enamel b. Dentin c. Cementum d. Hair e. Nails i. a and b ii. b and c iii. d and e	ii. b and c
668. In reality, how far is the CEJ from the alveolar crest? a. 1 mm b. 2 mm c. 3 mm d. 4 mm	b. 2 mm
669. A patient wants longer crowns of the upper incisors, labial sulcus is 4 mm, what will you do? a. Gingivectomy b. Gingivectomy and osseous surgery c. Extrude incisors	a. Gingivectomy
670. ACTH is from what gland? a. Pituitary b. Adrenal c. Thyroid d. Mammary	b. Adrenal
671. What is the tooth that occludes with a posterior and anterior antagonist? a. Maxillary canine b. Mandibular canine c. Maxillary lateral incisor d. Mandibular lateral incisor e. None of the above	a. Maxillary canine
672. What relapses the most? a. Maxillary downgraft b. Mandibular advancement c. Maxillary advancement d. Mandibular set-back	a. Maxillary downgraft
673. Maryland bridge, how much overbite do you need? a. 1 mm or less b. 1-2 mm c. 2-3 mm d. 4-5 mm	a. 1 mm or less
674. What are correlated the most? a. Sexual age, skeletal age, and PVH b. Skeletal age, dental age, and PVH	a. Sexual age, skeletal age, and PVH
675. What is the peak height velocity? a. 12 for girls b. 14 for boys c. both	c. both
677. Effect of RPE? a. A-P anterior is expanded more than posterior b. A-P, posterior is expanded more than anterior c. Pryramid effect, inferior is expanded more than superior d. a and c e. b and c	d. a and c
678. What are the symptoms of a Hep B infection? a. None b. Juandice c. Fever d. b and c	a. None
679. You do an experiment with two kinds of cements, you count the number of carious lesions from each patient. What stat will you use to compare the mean number of carious lesions between the two groups? a. Chi-square test b. T-test c. ANOVA d. P-value	b. T-test
680. You want to predict the ceph measurement with mandibular rotation, what stat will you use? a. Correlation b. ANOVA c. T-test d. P-value	a. Correlation
681. Mean score is 100, Variance is 64. How many SD’s will 116 fall? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4	b. 2	Sd = sq rt of variance
682. How to activate assymetrical HG? a. Longer outer bow on Class II side b. Wider angle of the outer bow of the Class II side c. Longer outer bow on the Class I side d. Wider angle of the outer bow on the Class I side	a. Longer outer bow on Class II side
683. Sensitivity is: a. Positive if disease present b. Positive if disease absent	a. Positive if disease present
684. How is superelastic NiTi deactivated? a. From martensitic to austenetic b. From austenstic to martensetic	a. From martensitic to austenetic
685. First molar is rotated, mesiolingually relative to 2nd PM. If you put straight wire in, what will happen? a. Premolar extrusion b. Molar moves buccally c. Molar moves lingually	b. Molar moves buccally
686. Effect of cervical HG: a. Mandible rotates backward b. Palatal plane tipping c. Both	c. Both
687. Patient said that pain started from right TMJ down to masetter area then across midline to left angle of the mandible. What do you suspect? a. Psychogenic pain b. Myosistitis c. Internal derangement	a. Psychogenic pain
688. Internal root resorption what should you do? a. Root canal therapy b. Observe 6-12 months with XR and pulp tests c. Nothing	a. Root canal therapy
689. Functional appliance: a. Increase mandibular length more than fixed appliance b. Upright lower incisors c. Procline lower incisors d. a and b e. a, b, and c	e. a, b, and c
690. Statistics. If there is no correlation, what is the value? a. 0 b. .25 c. .5 d. .75	a. 0
691. ± 1 standard deviation is how much? a. ½ b. 1/3 c. 2/3	c. 2/3
692. What will be affected the most if you have a larger sample? a. Mean b. Median c. Mode	b. Median
694. How does fluoride prevent dental caries? a. Increases remineralization of enamel b. Increase hardness of enamel c. Decreases solubility of enamel	c. Decreases solubility of enamel
698. Trauma to incisors and tooth fracture down to alveolar crest, you want to extrude it. What factors should be considered? a. Root length b. Root shape c. Root canal width d. Inclination of root relative to crown e. Amount of alveolar crest f. All the above	f. All the above
699. Statistics. Mean is 10, SD= 1, 34% of the patients will fall between 11 and ______ ? a. 8 b. 9 c. 10 d. 13	c. 10
700. How to adjust cervical pull HG to get translation? a. Bend outer bow up b. Bend outer bow down	a. Bend outer bow up
701. RPE. What happens to A-point? a. Stays the same b. Moves forward slightly c. Moves backward slightly	b. Moves forward slightly
702. RPE. Which sutures are affected? a. Circumzygomatic b. Midpalatal c. Circummaxillary d. All the above	d. All the above
703. The temporalis muscle acts as: a. Periosteal b. Capsular c. Neurocranial d. Orofacial e. Genetic matrix upon the coronoid process	a. Periosteal
704. According to the functional matrix thesis, “primary growth sites” such as the condyle and sutures: a. Cause expansion and growth b. Respond by compensating for translational forces c. Are the primary genetic basis for all growth and development d. In addition to the bony skull are the major influences in growth	b. Respond by compensating for translational forces
705. Movement of bony segments in space, without any internal or localized changes, is called: a. Translation b. Conduction c. Transformation d. Does not occur	A. Translation From functional matrix theory
706. The major growth in the body of the mandible: a. Depends on the condyle b. Occurs in the symphysis c. Is appositional d. Is endochondral e. Depends on Meckel’s cartilage	c. Is appositional
707. The growth of the lower face occurs most parallel to: a. The neural growth curve b. The lymphoid growth curve c. The general growth curve d. All of the above e. None of the above	c. The general growth curve
708. The hand bone most closely associated with the onset of puberty is: a. Hammate b. Radius c. Ulna d. Sessamoid e. Lunate	d. Sessamoid
709. Cepalometric analysis is: a. Used as an aid in the total diagnosis of an orthodontic case b. Used for longitudinal growth studies c. Used for orthodontic treatment planning d. Used for evaluating results of therapy e. All of the above	e. All of the above
710. Osteomyelitis is most commonly caused by: a. Actinomyces bovis b. Borrelia vincenti c. Nocardia asteroids d. Staphyloccus aureus e. Mycobacterium tuberculosis	d. Staphyloccus aureus
711. As a result of dental prophylaxis, microorganisms around teeth enter the bloodstream. This condition is an example of: a. Pyeria b. Toxemia c. Bacteremia d. Septicemia e. Focal infection	c. Bacteremia
712. Which of the following are the most common post-operative occlusal problems noted in patients who have combined surgical and orthodontic treatment for mandibular excess: a. Posterior open bite, bilaterally, immediately after removing fixation b. Appearance of Class II malocclusion or mandibular asymmetry soon after functions have resumed c. Condyles are located posteriorly in the fossa creating and anterior open bite	c. Condyles are located posteriorly in the fossa creating and anterior open bite
713. Lefort I osteotomy in combination with orthodontic treatment is usually used for the following maxillofacial corrections: a. Maxillary intrusion b. Widening of the palate c. Correction of facial asymmetry d. Closing an anterior open bite e. All of the above	e. All of the above
714. The sagittal split osteotomy is the procedure of choice for the advancement of the mandible. The following complications are often associated with this surgical procedure: a. Relapse, posterior open bite and numbness of the tongue b. Numbness of the lower lip, laterognathia and Class III relations c. Condylar sagging and post-surgical trismus d. Numbness of the lower lip, facial paralysis and anterior open bite	a. Relapse, posterior open bite and numbness of the tongue
715. In the adult skeletal Class III open bite malocclusion, occlusal, functional and esthetic results can be obtained with a combination of orthodontics and surgery. The most likely surgical procedures applied are: a. Maxillary advancement, posterior intrusion of the maxilla and mandibular advancement b. Mandibular set-back reduction genioplasty c. Maxillary advancement, posterior maxillary intrusion and mandibular set-back d. Mandibular set-back, reduction genioplasty and mandibular anterior segmental osteotomy	c. Maxillary advancement, posterior maxillary intrusion and mandibular set-back
716. Movement of the upper synovial cavity of the TMJ occurs between the : a. Condyle and articular capsule b. Articular fossa-eminence and articulating disc c. Condyle and mandibular fossa d. Condyle and articular disc e. Coronoid process and articular tubercle	b. Articular fossa-eminence and articulating disc
717. The parotid duct enters the oral cavity by penetrating through the: a. Orbicularis oris b. Zygomaticus major c. Buccinator d. Risorius e. Masseter	c. Buccinator
718. Surgical removal of tonsil and adenoid tissue in a 13 YO female with long face syndrome: a. Is excellent timing b. Is too late to aid in correction c. Is too early d. None of the above	b. Is too late to aid in correction
719. As a cause of root resorption: a. Type of treatment is most important b. Duration of treatmet is more important than type c. Can be prevented with straight wire appliances d. None of the above	d. None of the above
720. Histochemically basal bone and alveolar bone: a. Are vastly different b. Basal bone is more resistant to resorption c. Are no different d. Alveolar bone is less cancellous	c. Are no different
721. Cleft palate develops: a. During the first trimester of pregnancy b. During the second trimester of pregnancy c. During the third trimester of pregnancy d. At birth	a. During the first trimester of pregnancy
722. Infants with repaired clefts of lip and palate: a. Have normal development of hard and soft tissue b. Have normal development of the soft palate c. Have a deficiency of the soft palate d. None of the above	c. Have a deficiency of the soft palate
723. The most effective time to surgically close a cleft palate is: a. 6 months after birth b. at birth c. one year after birth d. two years after birth	c. one year after birth
724. The following statements are not correct: a. Final facial size is attained earlier in females than males b. Male facial growth continues into the second decade c. Facial growth is likely to be at the time final height was attained in females and continues after in male d. All of the above e. None of the above	e. None of the above
725. The best genetic prototype for predicting facial growth of a child is: a. The mother b. The father c. The grandparents d. The same sex sibling	d. The same sex sibling
726. Children with which of the following conditions have the greatest tendency toward delayed eruption of teeth: a. Autism b. Down’s syndrome c. Cerebral palsy d. A seizure disorder e. Mental retardation	e. Mental retardation
727. A patient with achondroplasia in which midfacial structures are most affected is likely to have which of the following malocclusions: a. Class I b. Class II c. Class III d. None of the above	c. Class III
28. Examination of a mixed dentition malocclusion reveals an abnormal resorption pattern of the primary teeth, delayed eruption of permanent teeth, incompletely formed roots of the permanent teeth and a large tongue. Which of the following etiological factors is the probable cause of the condition: a. Addision’s disease b. Hypothyroidism c. Hypoparathyroidism d. Von Recklinghausen’s disease e. History of severe febrile disease	b. Hypothyroidism
729. Panoramic radiographs are least useful in demonstrating which of the following: a. Supernumerary teeth b. Arch perimeter deficiencies c. Congentially missing teeth d. Axial inclination of teeth e. Apical development of permanent teeth	b. Arch perimeter deficiencies
730. The usual incubation period for Hepatitis B virus infection is: a. 1-2 days b. 1-2 weeks c. 1-6 months d. 1 year e. 5 years	c. 1-6 months
731. Cervical posture may affect mandibular position as described by several studies. It is generally related to the concepts that: a. Alterations antero-posterior head and neck posture appear to have an effect on the trajectory of the mandibular closure b. Gravitational effects can affect mandibular posture c. Positions of sleep and work may effect mandibular posture d. All of the above	d. All of the above
732. Treatment of muscle dysfunction usually requires a combination of: a. Flat appliances for muscle relaxation b. Stress management c. Physical therapy d. All of the above	d. All of the above
733. Myofacial Pain dysfunction syndrome has at it’s base etiologies of: a. Anatomy and occlusion b. Occlusion, physiological factors and trauma c. Malocclusion and structure d. None of the above	b. Occlusion, physiological factors and trauma
734. Treatment of joint dysfunction usually requires: a. Condylar repositioning b. Mandibular appliance which is flat or indented for position c. Maxillary appliance which is flat or indented for position d. All of the above	d. All of the above
735. One millimeter (1mm) increase in intermolar width results in approximately: a. 1 mm increase in arch perimeter b. 2 mm increase in arch perimeter c. 0.25 mm increase in arch perimeter d. none of the above	c. 0.25 mm increase in arch perimeter
736. The narrower the arch width, (versus a patient with a wider arch width) the arch perimeter increase is : a. Greater for the narrow arch b. Less for the narrow arch c. No difference	c. No difference
737. The greatest increase in arch perimeter is achieved by: a. Canine expansion b. Incisor advancement c. Molar expansion d. A combination of a and c	b. Incisor advancement
738. Increased bond strength of ceramic bracket was achieved by: a. 30% adhesive filler concentration b. 55% adhesive filler concentration c. 80% adhesive filler concentration d. all of the above	c. 80% adhesive filler concentration
739. Fluoride applied to the teeth prior to bonding: a. Increases bond strength b. Decreases bond strength c. Increases caries susceptibility d. None of the above	b. Decreases bond strength
740. Untoward effects of antibiotic therapy may be the following: a. Allergy b. Shock c. Decrease effectiveness through the development of resistant strains d. None of the above e. All of the above	e. All of the above
741. Sensitivity in the orthodontic office may be due to: a. Bonding materials b. Latex and vinyl gloves c. Excess monomer in acrylic d. All of the above	d. All of the above
742. The cranial vault increases rapidly in size the first few years postnatally and completes approximately 90% of its growth by age 6. This growth is typically of the following tissues: a. Neural b. Dental c. Genital d. Lymphoid e. Somatic	a. Neural
743. Which of the following is least likely to influence the anteroposterior position of the maxillary incisors? a. Size of the apical base b. Tongue-buccinator mechanism c. Being a concert clarinetist d. Congenital absence of third molars e. Continuing growth of the anterior cranial base	d. Congenital absence of third molars
744. The normal downward and forward direction of facial growth results from: a. Upward and backward growth of the maxillary sutures and the mandibular condyle b. Vertical eruption and mesial drift of the dentition c. Interstitial growth in the maxilla and mandible d. Epithelial induction at the growth centers i. a and b ii. a and c iii. a and d iv. b and c v. b and d	i. a and b
745. A comparison of changes from the teens to the adult indicates: a. Changes in the facial skeleton equal those in the facial soft tissue profile b. Changes in the facial skeleton are greater than those in the facial soft tissue profile c. Changes in the soft tissue profile are greater than those in the facial skeleton d. There is very minimal change in the soft tissue or facial skeleton	c. Changes in the soft tissue profile are greater than those in the facial skeleton
746. The mechanism of tooth eruption is best explained on the basis of: a. Hormonal stimulation b. Primary tooth exfoliation c. Programmed cell death at the base of the crypt d. Proliferation of cells at the base of the crypt	d. Proliferation of cells at the base of the crypt
747. In open bite malocclusions, surgery is usually performed: a. Only in the maxillary arch b. Only in the mandibular arch c. In both arches d. In the premaxillae	a. Only in the maxillary arch
748. The stainless steel wires currently used in orthodontics are: a. 18% chromium, 8% nickel b. 50-60% chromium, 40% nickel c. 25-35% cobalt, 40% titanium d. 50% nickel, 50% titanium	a. 18% chromium, 8% nickel
749. In 18/8 Stainless Steel wires: a. Chromium prevents corrosion b. Cobalt adds stiffness c. Titanium adds strength d. Nickel adds flexibility i. a and b ii. b and c iii. c and d iv. a and d	iv. a and d
750. Bone tissue grows by: a. Interstitial growth b. Osteoclastic activity c. Proliferation of endodermal tissues d. Differentiation of cartilaginous tissue	d. Differentiation of cartilaginous tissue
751. In orthodontic tooth movement, the sites of greatest pressure in the periodontal ligament are characterized by: a. Hyalinization b. Infiltration of osteoclasts c. Infiltration of macrophages d. Infiltration of neutrophiles i. a, b and c ii. a, b and d iii. a, c and d iv. b, c and d v. all of the above	i. a, b and c High pressure will lead to hyalinization and necrosis, but neutrophils are not part of the process, as the inflammation is not a result of infection.
752. In patients with tight anterior occlusion, when late mandibular growth occurs the contact relationship of the incisors may cause: a. Distal displacement of the mandible b. Flaring of the maxillary incisors c. Crowding of the mandibular incisors d. Marked mesial movement of the maxillary incisors i. a, b and c ii. b, c and d iii. a, b and d	i. a, b and c Proffitt p125. Tight anterior occlusion: 1. Mandible is displaced distally and accompanied with distortion of TMJ function and displacement of the articular disc. 2. Upper incisors flare forward opening space between the teeth. 3. Lower incisors displaced distally and become crowded.
753. Post-treatment studies of malocclusions treated with extraction of teeth by Little et al found: a. 20% relapse of mandibular incisors b. 1/3 relapse of mandibular incisors c. 50% relapse of mandibular incisors d. 2/3 relapse of mandibular incisors	d. 2/3 relapse of mandibular incisors Study noted that long term stability is variable and unpredictable. 10 yr stability of lower incisors is 30% 10% will stay stable after 20 yrs.
754. Recent studies according to Profitt indicate that late mandibular incisor crowding is due to: a. Pressure from erupting third molars b. Failure to extract third molars c. Late mandibular growth d. All of the above	c. Late mandibular growth
755. Studies by Behrents from participants in the Bolton study indicate: a. Facial growth ceases at age 21 b. No antero-posterior changes or vertical changes in adult life c. There is no increase in facial dimensions in adults d. There is an increase in all facial dimensions in adults	d. There is an increase in all facial dimensions in adults
756. The alterations in the adult facial skeleton indicate: a. Little changes from age 21 b. Deceleration of growth in females continued in the 20’s c. The cumulative effect over time was small d. The cumulative effect over time was large	d. The cumulative effect over time was large
757. In the adult Class II Div 1 malocclusion with an ANB of 8 degrees and a favorable nasolabial angle surgery is usually performed: a. In the maxillary arch b. In the mandibular arch c. In both arches d. At pogonion	b. In the mandibular arch
758. When are the growth peaks? a. First two years of life b. Early infancy and adolescence c. Early Childhood	b. Early infancy and adolescence
759. What is peak velocity age (PVH) ? a. Highest growth rate at any age b. Growth rate in infancy c. Growth rate in adolescence	a. Highest growth rate at any age
760. Indicators of maturity? a. Dental age, chronological age, skeletal age b. Dental age, peak velocity age, skeletal age c. Dental age, chronological age, peak velocity age d. Skeletal age, chronological age, peak velocity age	d. Skeletal age, chronological age, peak velocity age
761. Best time for an implant: a. When growth has ceased b. Boys after 18-19 years of age c. Girls after 16 years	a. When growth has ceased
763. Molar has pocket on buccal surface up to furcation, treatment of choice would be? a. Extract b. Tissue regeneration c. Hemisection tooth d. Orthodontically intrude tooth to eliminate pocket	b. Tissue regeneration
764. If Chromium-Cobalt alloys are not heat treated, they have? a. Same stiffness as SS b. 1/3 stiffness of SS c. 2/3 stiffness of SS	a. Same stiffness as SS
766. Downs anaylsis use as reference plane: a. S-N b. FH c. N-Ba	b. FH
768. Presence of Hepatitis B antigen indicates? a. Patient is infected b. Patient is contagious	a. Patient is infected
769. If you know the value of X, with which test can you determine the value of Y? a. Coefficient of varience b. Regression	b. Regression
770. If a person has a positive TB test what does that mean? a. Patient is contagious b. Patient is active c. Patient has been exposed	c. Patient has been exposed
772. In a straight wire bracket what happens to the root of a canine when the slot is engaged? a. Goes mesially b. Goes distally c. Nothing	b. Goes distally
773. A molar with a periodontal condition and Class III furcation involvement, you intend to upright and intrude, what will happen to the furcation? a. Decrease b. Increase c. Same or not changed d. Gums recede	c. Same or not changed
776. Where are adenocorticosteroids produced? a. Thalamus b. Pituitary c. Thyroid d. Adrenal gland	d. Adrenal gland
778. 13 YO patient needs implant from trauma to maxillary incisor, when to treat? a. Immediately b. Once growth is completed c. In two years d. Never	b. Once growth is completed
779. Increase KVP causes? a. Increase in contrast b. Decrease in contrast c. Increase in brightness	b. Decrease in contrast
780. A person drinks a lot of soda, he/she will get? a. Alkalosis b. Acidosis c. Hypocalcification of teeth	c. Hypocalcification of teeth
781. What statistical find analysis would you use to find the relation between brushing and gum disease? a. Regression analysis b. Correlation analysis c. T-test d. Chi-square test	781. What statistical find analysis would you use to find the relation between brushing and gum disease? a. Regression analysis b. Correlation analysis c. T-test d. Chi-square test
782. When does the nose stop growing in males? a. Age 18 b. Age 30 c. Never d. Age 12	c. Never
784. In an 11 YO male, in a two year period the mandibular molars are expected to erupt? a. 3 mm b. 4 mm c. 1.5 mm d. 2.5 mm	c. 1.5 mm
785. In an 11 YO male, the lower facial height is expected to increase? a. 3 mm/ year b. 1 mm/ year c. 2 mm/ year d. 2.5 mm/ year	b. 1 mm/ year
786. The muscle to protrude the mandible is? a. The internal pterygoid b. The lateral pterygoid c. The hyoglossus d. All of the above	b. The lateral pterygoid
787. The muscle to protrude the tongue is? a. The temporalis b. The internal pterygoid c. The hyoglossus d. The genioglossus	d. The genioglossus Temporalis elevates mandible. Lateral pterygoid is the only muscle that opens and protrudes. Medial pterygoid closes. Hyoglossus depresses and retracts tongue.
788. The average force necessary to intrude a maxillary central incisors is? a. 250 grams b. 300 grams c. 25 grams d. 40 grams	d. 40 grams Proffitt: Intrude: 10-20. Extrude: 35-60 Rotation: 35-60 Root uprighting: 50-100 Bodily: 70-120 Tipping: 35-60
789. The average force necessary to intrude a mandibular central incisor is? a. 250 grams b. 200 grams c. 20 grams d. 50 grams	c. 20 grams
790. The normal eruptive force of a tooth has been estimated at? a. 75-100 grams b. 50-75 grams c. 25-30 grams d. 2-10 grams	d. 2-10 grams
791. The fifth cranial nerve or branch thereof passes through all the foramen listed below except: a. Ovale b. Rotundum c. Spinosum d. Mandibular e. Lacerum	e. Lacerum Superior orbital fissure: V1 Ovale: V3 Rotundum: V2 Spinosum: Recurrent branch of V3 Lacerum: Carotid artery
792. If a patient has a loss of taste sensation from the anterior 2/3 of the tongue, but with general sensation unimpaired, it might indicate that there is a lesion of? a. Lingual nerve b. Glossopharyngeal nerve c. Hypoglossal nerve d. Chordae tympani	d. Chordae tympani Lingual is branch of V3. Sensory. Hypoglossal: Motor. If damaged, tongue will deviate to affected side. Glossopharyngeal: Taste for posterior 1/3 Chorda tympani: Branch of facial nerve. Taste for anterior 2/3
793. A muscle which inserts on the mandible is the : a. Anterior belly of the digastric b. Posterior belly of the digastric c. Hyoglossus d. Thyrohyoid e. Superior belly of the omohyoid	a. Anterior belly of the digastric No good answer really: Anterior belly: Origin mandible, insertion hyoid. Post belly: Origin temporal bone, insertion anterior belly. Mylohyoid: Origin mandibular symphysis, insertion hyoid. Geniohyoid: Origin symphysis, insertion hyoid. Omohyoid: Origin scapula, insertion hyoid.
794. Inability to close the eyelids indicates a possible lesion of which nerve? a. Trochlear b. Abducens c. Occulomotor d. Facial e. Ophthalmic	d. Facial
795. A patient presents with an asymmetrical face with sunken areas over the left side of the ramus of the mandible and a prominent left zygomatic arch caused by muscle atrophy superior to the arch. Which of the following diagnoses would be most consistent with the symptoms? a. Lesion of the great auricular and lesser occipital nerves b. Lesion of the motor nucleus of the facial nerve c. Lesion of the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve d. Lesion of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve e. Lesion of the accessory nerv	d. Lesion of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve
796. The paranasal sinus which lies directly beneath the sella turcica is the? a. Sphenoid b. Maxillary c. Posterior ethmoidal d. Frontal e. Mastoid	a. Sphenoid
797. The oral tissues most sensitive to x-radiation are? a. Muscles of mastication b. Gingival c. Fifth nerve d. Developing tooth buds and salivary glands	d. Developing tooth buds and salivary glands
798. What is the minimum total filtration that is required by an XR machine that can operate in ranges greater than 70 KVP? a. 1.5 mm of aluminum equivalent b. 5/8 (16 mm) of gypsum c. 2.5 mm of aluminum equivalent d. 1/32 in. (0.8mm) of lead	c. 2.5 mm of aluminum equivalent
799. Filters are used in the XR beam to? a. Reduce film density b. Correct the XR beam size c. Reduce the exposure time d. Remove low energy XR’s e. Increase contrast	d. Remove low energy XR’s
800. The radiation protection guide advocates that the XR dose to operators of the dental machines should not exceed? a. 100 milliroentgens per week b. 10 roentgens per week c. 100 roentgens per week d. 300 roentgens per week	a. 100 milliroentgens per week
801. A latent image is: a. An image that is very late in its development b. A very light radiographic image c. Produced after exposure but before development d. A very dark radiographic image	c. Produced after exposure but before development
802. Which of the following is mandatory in radiation protection for the patient? a. Gonadal shields b. High-speed film c. Collimator d. Use of long, lead-lined cones	c. Collimator
803. Radiographic film emulsion is : a. Cellulose acetate b. Sodium thiosulfate c. Hydroquinone d. Gelatin and silver bromide e. Calcium tungstate	d. Gelatin and silver bromide
804. What metal is used for the target in the XR tube? a. Copper b. Tungsten c. Aluminum d. Molybdenum	b. Tungsten
805. For the lateral skull view, the patient is placed in a vertical position. The patient’s head is then positioned with Frankfort Horizontal parallel to the floor. For this procedure, the XR source is positioned on the right side of the patient at a distance of? a. 10 feet from midsagittal plane b. 15 feet from midsagittal plane c. 5 feet from midsagittal plane d. 18 feet from midsagittal plane	c. 5 feet from midsagittal plane
806. Which term describes the area of the dental anatomy that is reproduced distinctly on the panoramic radiograph? a. Rotation center b. Focal trough c. Sagittal plane d. Laminograph	b. Focal trough
807. When evaluated radiographically, which of the following teeth shows the greatest variation relative to the onset of mineralization of the crowns of permanent teeth? a. Maxillary canines b. Mandibular second molars c. Mandibular second premolars d. Maxillary lateral incisors e. Maxillary first molars	c. Mandibular second premolars
808. Factors that contribute to optimal detail sharpness include: a. A small focal spot area b. Increase kilovoltage c. A long focal-spot film distance d. A short object film distance i. a and b ii. a and c iii. b and c iv. c and d v. a,c and d	v. a,c and d
809. Which of the following is the correct description of intensifying screens? a. Thinner phosphor layer result in faster screens b. Thinner phosphor layer result in more unsharpness c. Thinner phosphor layer result in faster screens d. Thinner phosphor layer result in less unsharpness	d. Thinner phosphor layer result in less unsharpness
810. In the surgical treatment of Class II open bite via bilateral posterior maxillary intrusion procedure, relapse is minimized by: a. Widening of the palate (midsagittal split) b. Overcorrection of the freed segments during surgery c. Skeletal wire fixation through the buttresses d. Passive repositioning of the segments during surgery e. Allowing the segments to be driven into position by the forces of mastication	c. Skeletal wire fixation through the buttresses
811. The presurgical orthodontics preparation of an 18 YO male with Class III mandibular prognathism requires: a. Alignment and leveling of the arches b. Expansion of the upper and lower arches c. Decompensation of the dental arches d. Lingual tipping of the lower incisor teeth i. a and b ii. c and d iii. a and c iv. a and d	iii. a and c
812. Long term stable results of a transverse 9 mm palatal deficiency in a 22 YO female is best achieve when treated by: a. Palatal expansion device b. Surgical expansion and orthodontics c. Lefort osteotomy and orthodontics d. Corticotomies and anterior maxillary segmentalization e. Bone grafting of the posterior maxilla and vomer bone	b. Surgical expansion and orthodontics
813. A 28 YO female presents with skeletal Class III open bite, maxillary deficiency, and mandibular prognathism. After appropriate orthodontic treatment with leveling and aligning, the skeletal condition remained the same. The hand articulated models occlude well. The surgical treatment of choice is: a. Lefort osteotomy for maxillary intrusion b. Mandibular set-back c. Maxillary osteotomy for maxillary advancement d. Anterior maxillary segmental osteotomy e. Reduction genioplasty f. Mandibular osteotomy for autorotation i. b, d, and e ii. b, c and e iii. a, b, c, and e iv. a, b, and e	iii. a, b, c, and e
815. Parathyroid hormone acts by: a. Increasing calcium ion concentration in bone b. Decreasing calcium ion concentration in blood c. Increasing calcium ion concentration in extracellular fluids d. None of the above	c. Increasing calcium ion concentration in extracellular fluids
814. Orthodontic presurgical treatment or Class III malocclusions often consist of: a. Labial movement of the mandibular incisors b. Lingual movement of the maxillary incisors c. Rapid palatal expansion d. a and b e. a and c	d. a and b
816. Elevation of alkaline phosphatase occurs during growth of bone in children: a. Following major bone fractures b. During diseases followed by bone destruction c. Increases in osteoblastic activity d. All of the above	d. All of the above
817. Rate of bone remodeling: a. Increases with age b. Decreases with age c. Remains the same d. None of the above	b. Decreases with age
818. Excessive wear of the incisal edge of a lower left cuspid indicates: a. Interference on the left side b. Incisal interference c. Interference on the right side d. All of the above	a. Interference on the left side
819. The percentage of growth completed at 10 years of age is : a. 20 % b. 35 % c. 65 % d. 96 %	c. 65 %
820. Skeletal open bite malocclusions usually have: a. Decreased height of incisors b. Decreased height of maxillary molars c. Increased height of maxillary molars d. None of the above	c. Increased height of maxillary molars
821. Post-natal incremental changes in the face are: a. Most in height b. Least in height c. Greatest in width d. Least in width i. a and b ii. b and c iii. c and d iv. a and d	iv. a and d
822. The cranium consists of: a. 12 bones b. 8 bones c. 22 bones d. none of the above	b. 8 bones 1 Frontal 2 Temporal 2 Parietal 1 Occipital 1 Sphenoid 1 Ethmoid
823. Three pairs of large salivary glands pour their secretions into the oral cavity: a. Parotid is the smallest b. Sublingual is the largest c. Parotid is the largest d. Submandibular is the largest	c. Parotid is the largest
824. Calcification of the upper and lower third molars a. Occurs at the same time b. Varies greatly c. Is related to calcification of the other teeth	b. Varies greatly
825. Correlation between tooth size and dental arch form is: a. Very close b. Very poor c. Off by one year	b. Very poor
826. The muscles of facial expression develop from: a. First brachial arch b. Second brachial arch c. Both arches d. None of the above	b. Second brachial arch
827. Ideal situations for serial extraction: a. Class I molars b. Moderate OJ/OB c. Severe crowding d. Slight protrusion e. All of the above	e. All of the above
828. The facial growth curve parallels most closely: a. The neural growth curve b. The somatic growth curve c. The fatty growth curve d. The lymphoid growth curve e. The pubertal growth curve	b. The somatic growth curve
829. Pierre-Robin Syndrome is associated with the following condition: a. Cleidocranial dysplasia b. Basal cell nevus c. Mandibular micrognathia d. Down’s syndrome e. Gardner’s syndrome	c. Mandibular micrognathia
830. The peak height velocity curve indicates: a. Number of centimeters (inches) grown per year b. Height in centimeters (inches) per year c. Growth in the neurocranium d. Weight in grams per year e. Calcification of the epiphyseal plates	a. Number of centimeters (inches) grown per year
831. On the PHV curve, the onset of puberty correlates best with the maximum growth spurt at the following age: b. 12 years for girls c. 14 years for boys d. none of the above e. all of the above	e. all of the above
832. In a 16 YO female, the normal ratio of upper facial height (nasion to ANS) to lower facial height (ANS to menton) is: a. 63:35 b. 30:79 c. 50:50 d. 43:57	d. 43:57
833. Soft tissue thickness in females: a. Increases the same as in males b. Increases less than in males c. Increases more than in males d. None of the above	c. Increases more than in males
834. The incidence of open bite malocclusions in post-pubertal age groups: a. Increases b. Decreases c. Stays the same d. All of the above	b. Decreases
835. A patient complains that food accumulates in the vestibule of the mouth during chewing. This symptom is consistent with the diagnosis of a lesion in: a. The mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve b. A branch of the facial nerve c. The glossopharyngeal nerve d. The accessory nerve e. The hypoglossal nerve	b. A branch of the facial nerve
836. When a patient attempts protrusion of the mandible, the jaw deviates markedly to the right. This would indicate that which of the following muscles is unable to contract? a. Left medial pterygoid b. Right medial pterygoid c. Left lateral pterygoid d. Right lateral pterygoid	d. Right lateral pterygoid
837. Perception of pain in the TMJ usually is accociated with which of the following nerves? a. Lesser occipital b. Transverse cervical c. Auriculotemporal d. Buccal e. Great auricular	c. Auriculotemporal
838. Dislocation of the mandible can occur only in which of the following directions? a. Laterally b. Medially c. Anteriorly d. Posteriorly e. Superiorly	c. Anteriorly
839. The relationship of a bacteremia to infective endocarditis depends on: a. The magnitude of the bacteremia b. The virulence of the organism c. The resistance of the host d. All of the above e. None of the above	d. All of the above
840. The etiologic agent of the majority of Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis cases is: a. Streptococcus Aureus b. Staphylococcus Aureus c. Staphylococcus epedemitis d. All of the above	b. Staphylococcus Aureus
41. The portal of entry to the bloodstream of bacteria in SBE is: a. Mucosal of gingival bleeding b. Salivary glands c. Lymphatics d. a and c e. a, b, and c	e. a, b, and c
842. The American heart association currently recommends antibiotic prophylaxis in cardiac patients: a. In all orthodontic procedures b. In patients undergoing simple orthodontic procedures c. In patients undergoing extensive orthodontic procedures d. None of the above	c. In patients undergoing extensive orthodontic procedures
43. Post surgical alterations in the position of the hyoid bone following correction of mandibular prognathism include: a. No significant changes in A-P position of the hyoid bone in relation to the anterior pharyngeal wall b. Hyoid bone was directed downward but not backward c. Physiologic adaptations occurred to insure maintenance of the airway d. All of the above e. None of the above	d. All of the above
844. Karposi’s sarcoma in HIV patient’s is: a. A transitory condition b. Caused by the papilloma virus c. Multifocal in orgin d. The result of a staph infection	c. Multifocal in orgin
845. The most common oral manifestation of HIV infection is: a. Loss of alveolar bone b. Loosening of teeth c. Candidiasis d. Hairy leukoplakia	c. Candidiasis
846. Which of the following medications has been shown to cause gingival enlargement? a. Aspirin b. Epinephrine c. Procardia (nifedipin) d. Motrin (ibuprofen) e. Aldomet (methydopa)	c. Procardia (nifedipin)
847. Impacted and/or supernumerary teeth are often found in: a. Down’s syndrome b. Kaposi’s syndrome c. Gardner’s syndrome d. Cleidocranial dysostosis e. Ectodermal dysplasia i. a, b, and c ii. b and c iii. c and d iv. d and e v. b, c and e	iii. c and d
848. A 5 YO child has symmetric bilateral enlargement in the posterior areas of the mandible. Radiographs reveal large, multilocular radiolucencies. The most likely diagnosis is: a. Cysts b. Osteopetrosis c. Familial fibrous dysplasia (cherubism) d. Osteitis deformans	c. Familial fibrous dysplasia (cherubism)
849. Which of the following has the potential of undergoing “spontaneous” malignant transformation? a. Osteomalacia b. Albright’s syndrome c. Paget’s disease of bone d. Osteogenesis imperfecta e. Von Recklinghausen’s disease of bone	c. Paget’s disease of bone
850. The characteristic oral clinical features of Peutz-Jegher’s syndrome is: a. Macrognathia b. Supernumerary teeth c. Melanin pigmentation of the lips d. Macroglossia e. Constricted palate	c. Melanin pigmentation of the lips
851. Therapeutic radiation for cancer of the oral region may result in which of the following side effects: a. Abnormal growth of the mandible b. Early exfoliation of the primary teeth c. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction d. Osteoradionecrosis e. High palatal vault	d. Osteoradionecrosis
852. A 21 YO female presents with complete absence of the clavicles, and hypoplastic maxilla a. Osteopetrosis b. Achondroplasia c. Marfan’s syndrome d. Pierre-Robin’s syndrome e. Cleidocranial dysostosis	e. Cleidocranial dysostosis
853. Children with which of the following conditions have the greatest tendency towards delayed eruption of the teeth? a. Hypothyroidism b. Hyperthyroidism c. Hypoparathyroidism d. Hyperparathyroidism e. None of the above	a. Hypothyroidism
854. The first clinically observable reaction to radiation is: a. Loss of hair b. Erythema of the skin c. Agenesis of the blood cells d. Loss of elementary epithelium	b. Erythema of the skin
855. When taking lateral cephalograms, double intensifying screens and screen films are used to reduce: a. Density b. Contrast c. Exposure times d. Secondary radiation e. Target-skin distance	c. Exposure times
856. Micrognathia is a common feature in which of the following syndromes: a. Paget’s disease of bone b. Ectodermal dysplasia c. Fibrous dysplasia d. Craniofacial dysostosis i. a and b ii. a and c iii. a and d iv. b and c	ii. a and c
857. Osteomyelitis is most commonly caused by: a. Actinomyces bovis b. Borrelia vincenti c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Mycobacterium tuberculosis	c. Staphylococcus aureus
858. As a result of dental prophylaxia, microorganisms around teeth enter the bloodstream. This condition is an example of: a. Pyeria b. Toxemia c. Bacteremia d. Septicemia e. Focal infection	c. Bacteremia
859. Which of the following permanent posterior teeth has a mesial marginal ridge that is located more cervical that its distal marginal ridge? a. Maxillary first premolar b. Maxillary second molar c. Mandibular first premolar d. Mandibular second molar	c. Mandibular first premolar
860. A patient with a paralyzed right lateral pterygoid muscle is instructed to open his mouth wide. Which direction will the mandible deviate on opening? a. To the left b. To the right c. Straight (no deviation) d. None of the above	b. To the right
861. Under normal conditions, the presence of mamelons in a 14 YO patient is indicative of: a. Fluorosis b. Malnutrition c. Malformation d. Malocclusion e. Enamel composition	d. Malocclusion
862. Development of the body of the mandible involves: a. Reichert’s cartilage b. A complete cartilage model c. Intramembranous bone formation d. All of the above e. None of the above	c. Intramembranous bone formation Reichert's is 2nd pharyngeal arch, develops into stapes, hyoid, styloid process and stylohyoid ligament.
863. Cleft Lip results in failure of merging of: a. Maxillary with mandibular processes b. Maxillary processes with one another c. Maxillary and median nasal processes d. Medial and lateral nasal processes e. Palatine processes with nasal septum	c. Maxillary and median nasal processes
864. Doubling the length of a cantilever beam changes strength, springiness, and range as follows: A. 1/2 strength, 4x Springiness, 4x Range B. 1/4 strength, 4x springiness, 2x Range C. 2x strength, 1/4 springiness, 2x Range D. 1/2 strength, 8x springiness, 4x Range	D. Doubling the length gives 1/2 strength, 8x springiness, and 4x range.
865. For an 8mm wire rigidly attached at both ends, what are its comparative properties to a 4mm cantilever wire? A. 4x strength, 1/4 springiness, 1/2 range B. 4x strength, 1/2 springiness, 1/2 range C. 2x strength, 1/4 springiness, 2x Range D. 1/2 strength, 8x springiness, 4x Range"	A. 4x strength, 1/4 springiness, 1/2 range
866. Doubling the diameter of a cantilever beam makes it ___ times as strong, ___ times as springy, and has ____ the range A. 4, 1/2, 1/2 B. 8, 1/4, 1/4 C. 8, 1/16, 1/2 D. 4, 1/8, 1/4"	C. Doubling the diameter makes the wire 8x as strong (2^3), 1/16th as springy (1/2^4), and range is decreased by 1/2 (inversely proportional).
867. A flush terminal plane occlusion at age 5 will likely develop into _____ occlusion by age 12 A: End-on Class 2 B. Class I C. Class 3 D. Full step Class 2"	B. Class I
868. How many degrees can the lower incisors be flared to resolve 2mm crowding? A. 4 B. 5 C. 7 D. 9	B. 5 degrees 5 degrees of incisal flare = incisal tip advances 1mm = 2mm arch length gained Or, 2.5 degrees per 1 mm of AL

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