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194 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
- 3rd side (hint)
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The MK-GRUEA-7 seat provides crewmembers with completely automatic escape at ground level at what minimum Knots?
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80 Knots.
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How many Martin-Baker MK-GRUEA-7 seats are on the EA-6B?
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4
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What difference, if any, do the MK-GRUEA-7 ejection seats have from each other?
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Seat color
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what component provides an automatic backup mode of separating the parachute from the crewmembers?
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SEAWARS
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What type of aircraft uses the Martin-Baker MK-GRUEA-7?
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EA-6B
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Which of the following seats ejects first during ejection?
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ECMO #3
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What color is the murphy-proof bracket for the ECMO#2 Seat?
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Orange
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Who is the primary person to initiate ejection?
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Pilot
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With the CMD EJECT SELECT handle in the NORM position, what individual(s) is/are able to initiate ejection?
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Pilot and ECMO #1
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The Lanyards for the ejectionseat safety pins are what color?
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RED
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Prior to entering an aircraft cockpit that has an ejection seat, personnel should ensure which of the following guidelines is met?
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1.Safety Pins are installed.
2.Proper Safety precautions are Followed |
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Who may work on ejection seats?
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Qualified personnel ONLY!!!
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How many tubes are attached to the center body of the rocket motor?
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TEN
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what precautions, if any, are used to ensure the correct rocket motor is installed on the proper seat?
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Varied size BOLTS.
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The Rocket Motor Initiator has how many Compartments?
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TWO
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What is the main structural frame on the MK-GRUEA-7 ejection Seat?
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Main beam assembly
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What component secures the seat in the aircraft?
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Top latch mechanism
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The time release Mechanism provides auto-matic harness release separation at what altitude range?
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11,500 To 14,500 feet.
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what component provides visual indication of a properly installed MK-GRUEA-7 ejection seat?
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Time-Release Mechanism
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The SEAWARS is designed to release the prarchute from the crewmember during sea water entry within how many seconds?
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2
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Which of the following is NOT a main assembly of the NACES?
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Rocket Motor Assembly
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Main Beam
Catapult assembly Parachute assembly Rocket Motor assembly |
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What component secures the NACES to the Aircraft?
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Catapult assembly
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Smooth movement of the seat bucket is provided by what component.
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Seat bucket slippers
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What component takes the full thrust of the catapult during ejection?
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Top Cross-Beam
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The seat structure is secured to the catapult by what component?
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Top Latch Assembly
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The drogue deployment catapult is mounted at what location?
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Outboard of the RH Main Beam.
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What controls the firing of the drogue catapult?
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Electronic sequencer
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what is the diameter of the drogue chute
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57"
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The PDRM is mounted at what location?
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Left side of the main beam
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Which of the following is NOT a component of the electronic sequencing system?
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Two Thermal Couples
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2 thermal couples
2 thermal batteries 2 pitot assmeblies 2 sequencer start switches |
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The sequencer controls which of the following ejection events?
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Man/seat separation
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What component(s) supplies/y gas pressure to operate the underseat rocket motor?
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Multy purpose initiator
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What component ensures the seat occupant is correctly positioned and locked in for ejection?
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Shoulder harness reel
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Due to aircraft installation requirements, what different characteristics, if any, do the SJU-17(V)1/a, 2/a and 9/a seat buckets have compared to the SJU-17(V)3/a thru 6/a assemblies?
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1 inch wider
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The underseat rocket motor has which of the following differences in features to prevent incorrect installation between forward and aft seats on the F-18 Aircraft?
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Mounting bolt size
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The safe arm handle shows what color when in the Armed position?
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yellow and black
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what difference, if any, do the canopy penetrators on the forward seats have between the aft seats?
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Length
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How many different NACES seat bucket survival kit variationsa are there?
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Three
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The Emergency oxygen system is automatically activated during ejectionby what component or event?
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Extension of a lanyard
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what color are the manual deployment handles on the survival kit?
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Yellow
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when the ejection control handle is pulled, the sears are withdrawn from the seat initiator firing mechanisms followed by what event?
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TWO (2) Impulse cartridges are fired
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During ejection, What component withdraws a piston from engagement in the lower operating link of the
Emergency Restraint Release Mechanism? |
RH Cartridge
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During Ejection, what feature provides an even increase in gas pressure to eliminate excessive g-forces?
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Staggered firing of the catapult cartridges
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During ejection, once the leg restraint lines are freed from the aircraft, what component or condition restrains the remaining lines, preventing forward movement of the legs?
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Snubbers
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During ejection, sequencer timing commences during what condition?
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Closure of the start switches
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When ejecting in Mode 3 between 500-600 keas, at what time interval does the sequencer fire the drogue deployment catapult?
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0.22 seconds
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When ejecting in Mode 1 between 0-300 keas, at what time interval does the sequencer fire the barostatic release unit cartridge and release harness locks?
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0.65 seconds
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When the ejection seat is fired, two onboard thermal batteries are immediatley energized, supplying usable electrical power to the sequencer within what time frame?
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0.27 milliseconds
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At approximately what distance of seat travel are the two pyrotechnic cartridges actuated?
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42 inches
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To Maintain a uniform vertical acceleration profile on the seat and occupant, what component begins to operate just as the seat separates from the catapult
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Underseat Rocket Motor
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On the F-14 aircraft, what force provides normal opening and closing of the canopy?
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Pneumatic
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The external serviced reservoirs that supply power for the different modes of canopy operation contain what type of pressure?
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Pneumatic
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How many acrylic panels make up the F-14 canopy
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2
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What locks the canopy in the closed position?
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Locking Hooks
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What component actuallyopens and closes the canopy?
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Hydraulic Actuator
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What is the function of the lock actuator restrictor?
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To Regulate the speed during locking and unlocking of the canopy.
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The canopy pneumatic control module contains how many pressure reducers?
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two
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The canopy pneumatic reservoir is serviced to what maximum pressure?
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3,000psi.
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what is the total cubic inch capacity of the canopy pneumatic reservoir?
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225 cubic inches
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The reservoir relief valve opens at what minimum pressure?
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4,500psi.
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The auxiliary pneumatic reservoir is serviced to what maximum pressure?
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3,000psi.
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What component reduces pneumatic pressure to the auxiliary unlock pneumatic release valve?
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Auxiliary pressure reducer.
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How many ports are there on the unlock shuttle valve?
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Three.
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What component prevents nitrogen from venting overboard?
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Lock actuator check valve
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How many control handles are there for use in canopy operation?
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three
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Which of the following is NOT a method of canopy operation.
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Emergency Mode
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Emergency Mode
Holding Mode Boost Closing Mode Normal Opening Mode |
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During normal opening mode, the shutoff valves in the open and close modules are vented to atmosphere through what port of the actuator?
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C5
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C5
C2 C3 C4 |
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During Normal opening mode, nitrogen on the opposite side of the piston is vented overboard through what valve of the control module?
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No. 4
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During the BOOST closing mode, valve No.4 in the control module is positioned to dirct what maximum pressure through the C2 Port?
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790psi.
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After 3 minutes in BOOST closing mode, the nitrogen pressure will decrease to what minimum pressure on a system serviced to 3,000psi?
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600psi.
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When should you use the auxiliary opening mode to unlock the canopy?
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Pneumatic system pressure drops below 225psi.
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What air source is used to inflate the canopy seal system?
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Cooled engine bleed air.
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Where is the canopy seal pressure regulator located?
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on the Turtledeck
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The canopy pressure seal receives cooled engine bleed air at approximately what pressure?
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80psi.
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How many types of pyrotechnic cords are used in the F-14 canopy emergency jettison system?
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Three
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The Term XSMDC stands for what type of pyrotechnic cord?
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Expanding shielded mild detonating cord.
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What component prevents the explosive signal provided by the canopy jettison initiator from entering the SMDC lines of the seat ejection system?
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One-way explosive transfer
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The S-3 Frangible escape system uses what type of explosives instead of hot gas?
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SMDC
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Instead of safety pins, the external jettison handle uses what item to protect from inadvertent firing.
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10 Foot lanyard
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The window-severance explosive charge is actuated by what crewmember(S)'s initiator.
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Pilot OR Co-Pilot
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Why is an SMDC explosive system more favorable than a hot gas system?
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More reliable
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Which of the following was a factor in the ordnance mishap onboard the USS ORISKANY?
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Lack of training
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Faulty Ordnance
Faulty Maintenance Lack of Training Fatigue |
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What instruction governs the Qual/Cert Program?
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OPNAVINST 8020
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What term refers to the physcial act of transporting or moving explosives/esplosive devices afloat or ashore?
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Storage/Stowage
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Which of the following individuals my NOT sign as board of chairman on the ordnance certificatoin form.
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Division Officer
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Which of the following is required on the ordnance certification form when an individual certification is revoked?
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Diagonal red line on Qual/Cert form
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The Qual/Cert program is NOT applicable to which of the following personnel?
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Security Force
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What is required when an explosive mishap is caused by an individual's failure to follow authorized procedures?
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Page 13 record entry.
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Qual/Cert is valid for how many years?
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1
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In the Qual/Cert program, which of the following individuals must the CO Certify in writing?
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Certification board members.
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The Qual/Cert board consists of which of the following individuals?
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Quality Assurance representative.
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If Seniority requirements cannot be met on the Qual/Cert board within a command, what activity may grant a waiver.
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NAVAIR
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Which of the following systems does NOT get its air from an auxiliary bleed air system?
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Liquid Oxygen
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A Bleed air system can reach up to what temperature?
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400F
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An S-3 Aircraft bleed air leak detection system consists of how many loops?
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4
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The sensing elements for a bleed air leak detection system are mounted between ducts and the aircraft structure for what reason
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The bleed air Temp is High
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In a bleed air leak detection system, what causes a chemical reaction in the sensing element?
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Heat
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An S-3 bleed air leak detection system is powered by what bus?
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Essential ac
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During a test of an S-3 bleed air leak detection system, a ground circuit is completed to turn on which of the following lights?
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2 BL Leak
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Which of the following is NOT a component of a bleed air leak detectionsystem.
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Flow Valves
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Leak Detector Control
Sensing Elements Flow Valves Enging Start Port Leak Detector |
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Bleed air sensing elements are mounted within what distance of ducts.
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2-5 inches
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The engine start port leak detector completes a ground circuit in excess of what temperature?
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225F
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What type of ice on aircraft surfaces is smooth and hard to detect visually.
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Glazed
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Frost is a result of which of the following factors?
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Water vapor is turned into a solid.
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What system is designed to remove ice after it has formed?
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Deice boot system
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A P-3 aircraft gets its air source for anti-icing from what stage of an engine compressor?
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14th stage
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A P-3 aircraft ice detector warning light is located where?
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Center instrument panel
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The shutoff valve for a wing deice system has an indicator to show valve position. Where is this indicator located.
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On top of the valve housing.
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What component controls the valve opening for an anti-ice modulating valve?
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Thermostat
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The Thermostats in the outboard leading edge plenum areas are set at what temperature?
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145F
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The wing inboard and center section thermostat are set at what temperature?
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120F
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The airfoil temperature sensor amplifier is powered by what component?
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LE HOT
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High Temperature within the leading edge is generally caused by which of the following conditions?
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Faulty modulator valve
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Which of the following positions is NOT a selection for the ice protection panel rotary switch?
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WING
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The OPEN light on the ice protection panel illuminates when what condition occurs?
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Bleed air valve opens
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The fuselage bleed air shutoff valves are normally in what position during normal deicing operation?
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Closed
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When performing a leak test on the anti-ice system, the time delay will illuminate the ACCEPT light after how many seconds?
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8 seconds
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The warm air temperature control valve for a windshield anti-ice system is modulated by what type of force?
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Muscle.
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The Flow/Temperature limiting anti-ice valve is what type of valve?
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Dual Function
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The warm air over temperature sensor opens if duct temperature reaches what temperature, ±25°F?
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375°F
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The windshield overheat temperature sensor closes when airflow drops to what temperature?
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280°F±5
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The windshield anti-ice/rain removal switch has how many positions?
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Three
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An EA-6B aircraft windshield washing system uses what percentage of methyl alcohol?
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50%
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The EA-6B windshield washing system has how many nozzles?
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5
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What component is NOT a part of the windshield washing shutoff valve?
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Temperature solenoid
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When the Windshield washing shutoff valve is energized, how much air pressure is regulated to the windshield washing tank?
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10 ±1 psig
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The windshield switch is what type of switch
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single-pole, three position
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Holding the WINDSHIELD switch to WASH routes what amount of voltage to open the Shutoff valve?
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28 Vdc
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The anti-g internal relief valve maintains what maximum pressure?
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11 psi
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Pressing the button on top of an anti-g valve performs which of the following functions?
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Manually operates the anti-g valve.
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Where is the vent suit temperature sensor located?
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Downstream of the vent suit regulating valve.
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The vent suit pressure regulating valve limits flow rate to how many cfm?
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14
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The vent suit pressure relief valve begins to open at what pressure?
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10psi
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The vent pressure relief valve is fully open at what pressure?
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18psi
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How is the radar liquid cooling system airflow valve operated?
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Pneumatically
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Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of CF3BR?
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Toxic
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Odorless
Tasteless Toxic Non-Corrosive |
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The ram air scoop for the radar liquid cooling system closes from a signal from what component
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ADC (Air Data Computer)
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The P-3 fire extinguishing container assembly is pressurized with what amount of nitrogen?
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600psi.
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A safety disc plug on the fire extinguisher container has a burst range of what pressure?
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1450psi-1800psi.
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When operating the APU TEST switch, which of the following is an indication that the system is working properly?
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Horn Sounds
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The avionics pressurization filter removes what percentage of particles larger then 10 microns?
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98%
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A waveguide air desiccator turns what color when moisture IS present?
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PINK
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The Missile cold air modulating valve receives electrical signals from what component?
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Missile controller
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A pressure switch on the missile coolant pump opens when the output pressure drops to which of the following pressures?
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62 psi.
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At 18,000 feet, the density of the earth's atmosphere is about what amount compared to that at sea level?
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one-half
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What is the atmospheric pressure at sea level?
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14.7psi
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What is the atmospheric pressure at 60,000 feet?
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1psi.
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At approximately 37,000feet, what is the outside air temperature?
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-55°C
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The lowest outside air temperature that an aircraft can encounter could occur at what height?
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37,000 feet
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An aircraft flying at supersonic speed at an altitude of 35,000 feet may generate what temperature on its skin?
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200°F
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Which of the following is not a heat source that will raise cabin/cockpit temperature
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Aileron Heat
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Experiments have proven that a person can withstand and maintain efficiency for extended periods at what maximum temperature?
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80°F
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How many requirements are there for the successful functioning of a pressurization and air conditioning system?
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5
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On all jet aircraft, the air used for an ECS is taken from what section of the jet engine?
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Compressor section
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The cooling of bleed air before it enters the cabin is provided by what component?
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Refrigeration unit
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The term air-to-air comes from the principle of cooling the air without the use of what component or additive?
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Refrigerants
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A P-3 air-conditioning system is comprised of how many independant air cycle cooling systems?
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TWO
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Which of the following components is a fresh air source for a P-3 ACS
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AMP
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EDCs are what type of compressor units?
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Single stage
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What component is the primary air source for the ACS during static ground operations?
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AMP
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The EDCs are adjusted for maximum power requirement of what horsepower?
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81hp
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The air volume in the APU/AMP divides at what section?
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ACS interconnection duct
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When the APU/AMP is the air supply source, what component is used to balance airflow?
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Flow-limiting venturi
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What component in the ACS removes moisture from the air prior to its entering the cabin?
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Water Seperator
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The flow-limiting venturi is sized to limit airflow to what amount per minute?
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67 pounds
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On a flow-limiting venturi, reverse EDC airflow is prevented by what component?
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Check valve
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Which of the following is NOT a component of a cabin temperature control system?
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Control temp sensor
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The temperature control system selector-incidator has how many sets of dot markings?
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THREE
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Rotating the push-pull knob counterclockwise on the selector-indicator performs what function?
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Provides cooler air
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The temperature controller is composed of what number of modules?
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four
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What component in the temperature controller controls the automatic mode control circuitry?
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Programming amplifier
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The cabin master temperature sensor is at what location?
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Above pilot
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Elimination of EDC Back-pressure is provided by what component?
|
Pressure ratio limiter
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The pressure ratio limiter is intended to function at what altitude?
|
Above 18,000 feet
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In order for aircrew personnel to operate at the same level of efficiency as at sea level, what solution was developed?
|
Pressurizing the cockpit/cabin area.
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The area of an aircraft that is pressurized must be free from which of the following things?
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Air leaks
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The S-3 Pressurization system regulates what type of air to control cabin pressure?
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Outflow
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The S-3 Pressurization system consist of how many modes of operation?
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FIVE
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Which of the following is NOT a mode of pressurization operation?
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Constant
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At a flight altitude of 15,000 feet, what is the minimum cabin pressure differential
|
3.94 psi.
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At a flight altitude of 25,000 feet, what is the maximum cabin pressure altitude?
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5,380 feet
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At a flight altitude of 40,000 feet, what is the minimum cabin pressure altitude?
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11,520 feet
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During flight operations between 5,000 and 24,000 feet, what mode of operation is in effect?
|
Isobaric
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The differential mode of operation overrides the isobaric mode when the aircraft is flying in excess of what altitude?
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24,000 feet
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During the dump mode of operation, the re-circulation valve is actuated to what position?
|
Full Open
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The pressurization mode of operation is used for what purpose?
|
When returning from the dump mode.
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The S-3 pressurization system will begin to pressurize whenever the ground elevation is above what altitude?
|
5,000 feet
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To ensure adequate cooling of the avionics system during ground operation at altitudes above 5,000 feet, which of the following is a step that must be adherred to?
|
Turn AUX VENT selector to ON
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How is the cabin pressure regulator valve actuated?
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Pneumatically
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How many ports lead into the pressure regulator valve diaphragm chamber?
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Three
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Which of the following is NOT a position on the cabin pressure regulator control?
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AUX
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The cabin pressure regulator control has how many pneumatic ports?
|
Four
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The cabin low-pressure switch closes at what altitude?
|
13,000 (±500) feet
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The cabin air pressure sensing filter traps dust particles greater than what minimum diameter?
|
10 microns
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