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194 Cards in this Set

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The MK-GRUEA-7 seat provides crewmembers with completely automatic escape at ground level at what minimum Knots?
80 Knots.
How many Martin-Baker MK-GRUEA-7 seats are on the EA-6B?
What difference, if any, do the MK-GRUEA-7 ejection seats have from each other?
Seat color
what component provides an automatic backup mode of separating the parachute from the crewmembers?
What type of aircraft uses the Martin-Baker MK-GRUEA-7?
Which of the following seats ejects first during ejection?
What color is the murphy-proof bracket for the ECMO#2 Seat?
Who is the primary person to initiate ejection?
With the CMD EJECT SELECT handle in the NORM position, what individual(s) is/are able to initiate ejection?
Pilot and ECMO #1
The Lanyards for the ejectionseat safety pins are what color?
Prior to entering an aircraft cockpit that has an ejection seat, personnel should ensure which of the following guidelines is met?
1.Safety Pins are installed.
2.Proper Safety precautions are Followed
Who may work on ejection seats?
Qualified personnel ONLY!!!
How many tubes are attached to the center body of the rocket motor?
what precautions, if any, are used to ensure the correct rocket motor is installed on the proper seat?
Varied size BOLTS.
The Rocket Motor Initiator has how many Compartments?
What is the main structural frame on the MK-GRUEA-7 ejection Seat?
Main beam assembly
What component secures the seat in the aircraft?
Top latch mechanism
The time release Mechanism provides auto-matic harness release separation at what altitude range?
11,500 To 14,500 feet.
what component provides visual indication of a properly installed MK-GRUEA-7 ejection seat?
Time-Release Mechanism
The SEAWARS is designed to release the prarchute from the crewmember during sea water entry within how many seconds?
Which of the following is NOT a main assembly of the NACES?
Rocket Motor Assembly
Main Beam
Catapult assembly
Parachute assembly
Rocket Motor assembly
What component secures the NACES to the Aircraft?
Catapult assembly
Smooth movement of the seat bucket is provided by what component.
Seat bucket slippers
What component takes the full thrust of the catapult during ejection?
Top Cross-Beam
The seat structure is secured to the catapult by what component?
Top Latch Assembly
The drogue deployment catapult is mounted at what location?
Outboard of the RH Main Beam.
What controls the firing of the drogue catapult?
Electronic sequencer
what is the diameter of the drogue chute
The PDRM is mounted at what location?
Left side of the main beam
Which of the following is NOT a component of the electronic sequencing system?
Two Thermal Couples
2 thermal couples
2 thermal batteries
2 pitot assmeblies
2 sequencer start switches
The sequencer controls which of the following ejection events?
Man/seat separation
What component(s) supplies/y gas pressure to operate the underseat rocket motor?
Multy purpose initiator
What component ensures the seat occupant is correctly positioned and locked in for ejection?
Shoulder harness reel
Due to aircraft installation requirements, what different characteristics, if any, do the SJU-17(V)1/a, 2/a and 9/a seat buckets have compared to the SJU-17(V)3/a thru 6/a assemblies?
1 inch wider
The underseat rocket motor has which of the following differences in features to prevent incorrect installation between forward and aft seats on the F-18 Aircraft?
Mounting bolt size
The safe arm handle shows what color when in the Armed position?
yellow and black
what difference, if any, do the canopy penetrators on the forward seats have between the aft seats?
How many different NACES seat bucket survival kit variationsa are there?
The Emergency oxygen system is automatically activated during ejectionby what component or event?
Extension of a lanyard
what color are the manual deployment handles on the survival kit?
when the ejection control handle is pulled, the sears are withdrawn from the seat initiator firing mechanisms followed by what event?
TWO (2) Impulse cartridges are fired
During ejection, What component withdraws a piston from engagement in the lower operating link of the
Emergency Restraint Release Mechanism?
RH Cartridge
During Ejection, what feature provides an even increase in gas pressure to eliminate excessive g-forces?
Staggered firing of the catapult cartridges
During ejection, once the leg restraint lines are freed from the aircraft, what component or condition restrains the remaining lines, preventing forward movement of the legs?
During ejection, sequencer timing commences during what condition?
Closure of the start switches
When ejecting in Mode 3 between 500-600 keas, at what time interval does the sequencer fire the drogue deployment catapult?
0.22 seconds
When ejecting in Mode 1 between 0-300 keas, at what time interval does the sequencer fire the barostatic release unit cartridge and release harness locks?
0.65 seconds
When the ejection seat is fired, two onboard thermal batteries are immediatley energized, supplying usable electrical power to the sequencer within what time frame?
0.27 milliseconds
At approximately what distance of seat travel are the two pyrotechnic cartridges actuated?
42 inches
To Maintain a uniform vertical acceleration profile on the seat and occupant, what component begins to operate just as the seat separates from the catapult
Underseat Rocket Motor
On the F-14 aircraft, what force provides normal opening and closing of the canopy?
The external serviced reservoirs that supply power for the different modes of canopy operation contain what type of pressure?
How many acrylic panels make up the F-14 canopy
What locks the canopy in the closed position?
Locking Hooks
What component actuallyopens and closes the canopy?
Hydraulic Actuator
What is the function of the lock actuator restrictor?
To Regulate the speed during locking and unlocking of the canopy.
The canopy pneumatic control module contains how many pressure reducers?
The canopy pneumatic reservoir is serviced to what maximum pressure?
what is the total cubic inch capacity of the canopy pneumatic reservoir?
225 cubic inches
The reservoir relief valve opens at what minimum pressure?
The auxiliary pneumatic reservoir is serviced to what maximum pressure?
What component reduces pneumatic pressure to the auxiliary unlock pneumatic release valve?
Auxiliary pressure reducer.
How many ports are there on the unlock shuttle valve?
What component prevents nitrogen from venting overboard?
Lock actuator check valve
How many control handles are there for use in canopy operation?
Which of the following is NOT a method of canopy operation.
Emergency Mode
Emergency Mode
Holding Mode
Boost Closing Mode
Normal Opening Mode
During normal opening mode, the shutoff valves in the open and close modules are vented to atmosphere through what port of the actuator?
During Normal opening mode, nitrogen on the opposite side of the piston is vented overboard through what valve of the control module?
No. 4
During the BOOST closing mode, valve No.4 in the control module is positioned to dirct what maximum pressure through the C2 Port?
After 3 minutes in BOOST closing mode, the nitrogen pressure will decrease to what minimum pressure on a system serviced to 3,000psi?
When should you use the auxiliary opening mode to unlock the canopy?
Pneumatic system pressure drops below 225psi.
What air source is used to inflate the canopy seal system?
Cooled engine bleed air.
Where is the canopy seal pressure regulator located?
on the Turtledeck
The canopy pressure seal receives cooled engine bleed air at approximately what pressure?
How many types of pyrotechnic cords are used in the F-14 canopy emergency jettison system?
The Term XSMDC stands for what type of pyrotechnic cord?
Expanding shielded mild detonating cord.
What component prevents the explosive signal provided by the canopy jettison initiator from entering the SMDC lines of the seat ejection system?
One-way explosive transfer
The S-3 Frangible escape system uses what type of explosives instead of hot gas?
Instead of safety pins, the external jettison handle uses what item to protect from inadvertent firing.
10 Foot lanyard
The window-severance explosive charge is actuated by what crewmember(S)'s initiator.
Pilot OR Co-Pilot
Why is an SMDC explosive system more favorable than a hot gas system?
More reliable
Which of the following was a factor in the ordnance mishap onboard the USS ORISKANY?
Lack of training
Faulty Ordnance
Faulty Maintenance
Lack of Training
What instruction governs the Qual/Cert Program?
What term refers to the physcial act of transporting or moving explosives/esplosive devices afloat or ashore?
Which of the following individuals my NOT sign as board of chairman on the ordnance certificatoin form.
Division Officer
Which of the following is required on the ordnance certification form when an individual certification is revoked?
Diagonal red line on Qual/Cert form
The Qual/Cert program is NOT applicable to which of the following personnel?
Security Force
What is required when an explosive mishap is caused by an individual's failure to follow authorized procedures?
Page 13 record entry.
Qual/Cert is valid for how many years?
In the Qual/Cert program, which of the following individuals must the CO Certify in writing?
Certification board members.
The Qual/Cert board consists of which of the following individuals?
Quality Assurance representative.
If Seniority requirements cannot be met on the Qual/Cert board within a command, what activity may grant a waiver.
Which of the following systems does NOT get its air from an auxiliary bleed air system?
Liquid Oxygen
A Bleed air system can reach up to what temperature?
An S-3 Aircraft bleed air leak detection system consists of how many loops?
The sensing elements for a bleed air leak detection system are mounted between ducts and the aircraft structure for what reason
The bleed air Temp is High
In a bleed air leak detection system, what causes a chemical reaction in the sensing element?
An S-3 bleed air leak detection system is powered by what bus?
Essential ac
During a test of an S-3 bleed air leak detection system, a ground circuit is completed to turn on which of the following lights?
2 BL Leak
Which of the following is NOT a component of a bleed air leak detectionsystem.
Flow Valves
Leak Detector Control
Sensing Elements
Flow Valves
Enging Start Port Leak Detector
Bleed air sensing elements are mounted within what distance of ducts.
2-5 inches
The engine start port leak detector completes a ground circuit in excess of what temperature?
What type of ice on aircraft surfaces is smooth and hard to detect visually.
Frost is a result of which of the following factors?
Water vapor is turned into a solid.
What system is designed to remove ice after it has formed?
Deice boot system
A P-3 aircraft gets its air source for anti-icing from what stage of an engine compressor?
14th stage
A P-3 aircraft ice detector warning light is located where?
Center instrument panel
The shutoff valve for a wing deice system has an indicator to show valve position. Where is this indicator located.
On top of the valve housing.
What component controls the valve opening for an anti-ice modulating valve?
The Thermostats in the outboard leading edge plenum areas are set at what temperature?
The wing inboard and center section thermostat are set at what temperature?
The airfoil temperature sensor amplifier is powered by what component?
High Temperature within the leading edge is generally caused by which of the following conditions?
Faulty modulator valve
Which of the following positions is NOT a selection for the ice protection panel rotary switch?
The OPEN light on the ice protection panel illuminates when what condition occurs?
Bleed air valve opens
The fuselage bleed air shutoff valves are normally in what position during normal deicing operation?
When performing a leak test on the anti-ice system, the time delay will illuminate the ACCEPT light after how many seconds?
8 seconds
The warm air temperature control valve for a windshield anti-ice system is modulated by what type of force?
The Flow/Temperature limiting anti-ice valve is what type of valve?
Dual Function
The warm air over temperature sensor opens if duct temperature reaches what temperature, ±25°F?
The windshield overheat temperature sensor closes when airflow drops to what temperature?
The windshield anti-ice/rain removal switch has how many positions?
An EA-6B aircraft windshield washing system uses what percentage of methyl alcohol?
The EA-6B windshield washing system has how many nozzles?
What component is NOT a part of the windshield washing shutoff valve?
Temperature solenoid
When the Windshield washing shutoff valve is energized, how much air pressure is regulated to the windshield washing tank?
10 ±1 psig
The windshield switch is what type of switch
single-pole, three position
Holding the WINDSHIELD switch to WASH routes what amount of voltage to open the Shutoff valve?
28 Vdc
The anti-g internal relief valve maintains what maximum pressure?
11 psi
Pressing the button on top of an anti-g valve performs which of the following functions?
Manually operates the anti-g valve.
Where is the vent suit temperature sensor located?
Downstream of the vent suit regulating valve.
The vent suit pressure regulating valve limits flow rate to how many cfm?
The vent suit pressure relief valve begins to open at what pressure?
The vent pressure relief valve is fully open at what pressure?
How is the radar liquid cooling system airflow valve operated?
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of CF3BR?
The ram air scoop for the radar liquid cooling system closes from a signal from what component
ADC (Air Data Computer)
The P-3 fire extinguishing container assembly is pressurized with what amount of nitrogen?
A safety disc plug on the fire extinguisher container has a burst range of what pressure?
When operating the APU TEST switch, which of the following is an indication that the system is working properly?
Horn Sounds
The avionics pressurization filter removes what percentage of particles larger then 10 microns?
A waveguide air desiccator turns what color when moisture IS present?
The Missile cold air modulating valve receives electrical signals from what component?
Missile controller
A pressure switch on the missile coolant pump opens when the output pressure drops to which of the following pressures?
62 psi.
At 18,000 feet, the density of the earth's atmosphere is about what amount compared to that at sea level?
What is the atmospheric pressure at sea level?
What is the atmospheric pressure at 60,000 feet?
At approximately 37,000feet, what is the outside air temperature?
The lowest outside air temperature that an aircraft can encounter could occur at what height?
37,000 feet
An aircraft flying at supersonic speed at an altitude of 35,000 feet may generate what temperature on its skin?
Which of the following is not a heat source that will raise cabin/cockpit temperature
Aileron Heat
Experiments have proven that a person can withstand and maintain efficiency for extended periods at what maximum temperature?
How many requirements are there for the successful functioning of a pressurization and air conditioning system?
On all jet aircraft, the air used for an ECS is taken from what section of the jet engine?
Compressor section
The cooling of bleed air before it enters the cabin is provided by what component?
Refrigeration unit
The term air-to-air comes from the principle of cooling the air without the use of what component or additive?
A P-3 air-conditioning system is comprised of how many independant air cycle cooling systems?
Which of the following components is a fresh air source for a P-3 ACS
EDCs are what type of compressor units?
Single stage
What component is the primary air source for the ACS during static ground operations?
The EDCs are adjusted for maximum power requirement of what horsepower?
The air volume in the APU/AMP divides at what section?
ACS interconnection duct
When the APU/AMP is the air supply source, what component is used to balance airflow?
Flow-limiting venturi
What component in the ACS removes moisture from the air prior to its entering the cabin?
Water Seperator
The flow-limiting venturi is sized to limit airflow to what amount per minute?
67 pounds
On a flow-limiting venturi, reverse EDC airflow is prevented by what component?
Check valve
Which of the following is NOT a component of a cabin temperature control system?
Control temp sensor
The temperature control system selector-incidator has how many sets of dot markings?
Rotating the push-pull knob counterclockwise on the selector-indicator performs what function?
Provides cooler air
The temperature controller is composed of what number of modules?
What component in the temperature controller controls the automatic mode control circuitry?
Programming amplifier
The cabin master temperature sensor is at what location?
Above pilot
Elimination of EDC Back-pressure is provided by what component?
Pressure ratio limiter
The pressure ratio limiter is intended to function at what altitude?
Above 18,000 feet
In order for aircrew personnel to operate at the same level of efficiency as at sea level, what solution was developed?
Pressurizing the cockpit/cabin area.
The area of an aircraft that is pressurized must be free from which of the following things?
Air leaks
The S-3 Pressurization system regulates what type of air to control cabin pressure?
The S-3 Pressurization system consist of how many modes of operation?
Which of the following is NOT a mode of pressurization operation?
At a flight altitude of 15,000 feet, what is the minimum cabin pressure differential
3.94 psi.
At a flight altitude of 25,000 feet, what is the maximum cabin pressure altitude?
5,380 feet
At a flight altitude of 40,000 feet, what is the minimum cabin pressure altitude?
11,520 feet
During flight operations between 5,000 and 24,000 feet, what mode of operation is in effect?
The differential mode of operation overrides the isobaric mode when the aircraft is flying in excess of what altitude?
24,000 feet
During the dump mode of operation, the re-circulation valve is actuated to what position?
Full Open
The pressurization mode of operation is used for what purpose?
When returning from the dump mode.
The S-3 pressurization system will begin to pressurize whenever the ground elevation is above what altitude?
5,000 feet
To ensure adequate cooling of the avionics system during ground operation at altitudes above 5,000 feet, which of the following is a step that must be adherred to?
Turn AUX VENT selector to ON
How is the cabin pressure regulator valve actuated?
How many ports lead into the pressure regulator valve diaphragm chamber?
Which of the following is NOT a position on the cabin pressure regulator control?
The cabin pressure regulator control has how many pneumatic ports?
The cabin low-pressure switch closes at what altitude?
13,000 (±500) feet
The cabin air pressure sensing filter traps dust particles greater than what minimum diameter?
10 microns