Aircrew Fundamentals 1Ax5X

Front 1

1. (001) What category does the 1 in the 1AXXX enlisted aircrew specialty code identify?

Back 1

a. Skill level.
b. Career group.
c. Specific career field.
d. Operations category.

Hint 1

d. Operations category.

Front 2

2. (001) How does the Air Force benefit from identifying similarities across all enlisted aircrew career
fields?
a. It only benefits on time savings.
b. It only benefits on dollar savings.
c. It can emphasize these items over career field specific items.
d. It can develop a specialty training standard for all enlisted aircrew members.

Back 2

d. It can develop a specialty training standard for all enlisted aircrew members.

Front 3

3. (002) When would the flight engineer be responsible for weight and balance of the aircraft?
a. When he’s qualified.
b. When directed by the aircraft commander.
c. When there is no loadmaster or boom operator onboard.
d. When there are two flight engineers assigned to a mission.

Back 3

c. When there is no loadmaster or boom operator onboard.

Front 4

4. (002) What aircraft loadmaster qualification includes preflighting of aircraft drop equipment and
inspecting equipment parachutes, aerial delivery containers, and the rigging on cargo platforms?
a. Airdrop.
b. Paratrooper.
c. Jumpmaster.
d. Troop deployment.

Back 4

a. Airdrop.

Front 5

5. (002) Since airborne mission system specialists inspect, maintain, operate, and repair airborne
computer equipment, including processing, display, testing, and ancillary systems, what are they
considered to be?
a. Hardware maintenance.
b. Professional troubleshooters.
c. Computer repair professionals.
d. Computer display maintenance technicians.

Back 5

d. Computer display maintenance technicians.

Front 6

6. (002) What does the aerial gunner place special emphasis on when performing all pre-strike
requirements?
a. The target.
b. Weapon limitations.
c. Weapon accountability.
d. Malfunction analysis and repair.

Back 6

d. Malfunction analysis and repair.

Front 7

7. (003) What office works closely with the scheduling and squadron standardization and evaluation
offices?
a. Flight safety.
b. Element leaders.
c. Aircrew training.
d. Flight superintendent.

Back 7

c. Aircrew training.

Front 8

8. (003) Who is responsible for the daily management of all individuals assigned under them?
a. Flight safety.
b. Element leaders.
c. Aircrew training.
d. Flight superintendents.

Back 8

d. Flight superintendents.

Front 9

9. (004) What is Air Mobility Command’s centralized command and control center for planning and
execution of the Global Reach mission?
a. Center of Excellence.
b. MAJCOM functional office.
c. Special Air Missions Center.
d. Tanker Airlift Control Center.

Back 9

d. Tanker Airlift Control Center.

Front 10

10. (004) Why is it recommended that you, as an aircrew member, take positions of leadership,
volunteer for various assignments, and get experience on multiple aircraft?
a. To get promoted faster.
b. To handle more responsibilities.
c. To get an assignment location you want.
d. To help build your foundation as an aircrew member.

Back 10

d. To help build your foundation as an aircrew member.

Front 11

11. (005) Who does the commander of the United States Central Command report directly to?
a. Secretary of Defense.
b. Secretary of the Air Force.
c. President of the United States.
d. Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff.

Back 11

a. Secretary of Defense.

Front 12

12. (005) What organization does United States European Command receive support from in
enhancing transatlantic security?
a. United Nations.
b. Pacific Airlift Command.
c. North Atlantic Treaty Organization.
d. Combined Forces Command Korea.

Back 12

c. North Atlantic Treaty Organization.

Front 13

13. (005) The Department of Defense appointed United States Joint Forces Command to enhance the
unified commanders’ capabilities to implement what plan?
a. Total Force.
b. European Union Plan.
c. Unified Command Plan.
d. Allied Command Europe.

Back 13

c. Unified Command Plan.

Front 14

14. (005) What is one of the areas of United States Pacific Command’s mission?
a. Delegate global security authority.
b. Reduce regional security cooperation.
c. Advance regional security cooperation.
d. Develop understanding of the Asian culture.

Back 14

c. Advance regional security cooperation.

Front 15

15. (005) What is United States Special Operations Command in high gear to plan, direct, and
execute?
a. Total Force.
b. Global Attack.
c. Special Airlift Missions.
d. The Global War on Terror.

Back 15

d. The Global War on Terror.

Front 16

16. (005) What is United States Transportation Command’s number one priority?
a. Always providing the best customer service.
b. Keeping the Air Force’s vehicles serviceable and ready.
c. Ensuring funding is available for global transportation requirements.
d. Responding to the needs of the Department of Defense’s warfighting commanders.

Back 16

d. Responding to the needs of the Department of Defense’s warfighting commanders.

Front 17

17. (006) Who is the United States joined with in the North American Aerospace Defense Command?
a. Alaska.
b. Canada..
c. Mexico.
d. Canada and Mexico.

Back 17

b. Canada..

Front 18

18. (007) When did the Air National Guard begin playing significant roles in all of America’s wars
and most of its major contingencies?
a. Beginning of the 19th century.
b. Beginning of the 20th century.
c. Mid 19th century.
d. Mid 20th century.

Back 18

b. Beginning of the 20th century.

Front 19

19. (008) In addition to United States Strategic Command, what command does Air Combat
Command provide forces to?
a. Pacific Air Forces.
b. Air Force Materiel Command.
c. United States Atlantic Command.
d. Air Education and Training Command.

Back 19

c. United States Atlantic Command.

Front 20

20. (008) What is Air Force Materiel Command’s vision for providing war-winning capabilities?
a. Shelf-ready.
b. Bulk production.
c. Rigorous testing.
d. On time and on cost.

Back 20

d. On time and on cost.

Front 21

21. (008) What type of forces does Air Force Special Operations Command organize, train, and
equip?
a. Civil.
b. Security.
c. International.
d. Special Operations.

Back 21

d. Special Operations.

Front 22

22. (008) How long ago did Air Force Space Command’s “silent sentinels” begin their continuous,
around-the-clock alert?
a. 1947.
b. 1959.
c. 1972.
d. 1991.

Back 22

b. 1959.

Front 23

23. (008) In addition to working with our Asia-Pacific partners to ensure peace, what other goal does
Pacific Air Command share with the Asia-Pacific partners?
a. Ending drug abuse.
b. Advancing freedom.
c. Preventing natural disasters.
d. Expanding transportation routes.

Back 23

b. Advancing freedom.

Front 24

24. (009) What is a chain of events that occurs after a series of errors in judgment?
a. Error chain.
b. Team effort.
c. Repeated devastation.
d. Day-to-day operations.

Back 24

a. Error chain.

Front 25

25. (009) What is the first of the four steps to breaking the error chain process?
a. Check for stress.
b. Review original error.
c. Search for other poor decisions.
d. Recognize poor judgment and get feedback.

Back 25

a. Check for stress.

Front 26

26. (010) What are the three factors to apply to maintaining situational awareness in order to self
improve?
a. Ability, influence, motivation.
b. Attitude, skills, and knowledge.
c. Enthusiasm, influence, response.
d. Agility, aptitude, and motivation.

Back 26

b. Attitude, skills, and knowledge.

Front 27

27. (010) What is an example of a mind trap?
a. Disobeying orders.
b. Sitting behind a desk all day.
c. Not listening to subordinates.
d. Habitual disregard for silly rules.

Back 27

d. Habitual disregard for silly rules.

Front 28

28. (010) What is the leading cause of aircraft mishaps?
a. Sky traffic.
b. Human error.
c. An ageing fleet.
d. Insufficient training.

Back 28

b. Human error.

Front 29

29. (011) In addition to the Category III flight physical, what is one other item that will always exist
as a currency item?
a. M–9 training.
b. M–16 training.
c. Flightline driving.
d. Physiological training.

Back 29

d. Physiological training.

Front 30

30. (011) Why do you receive training on the way flying affects your body?
a. You must often fly long, hard hours.
b. So you can avoid the affects of flying on your body.
c. To encourage you to be put on duties not including flying.
d. Do discourage you from being put on duties not including flying.

Back 30

a. You must often fly long, hard hours.

Front 31

31. (012) What is your qualification after completing initial qualification training?
a. Aircrew member.
b. Mission qualified.
c. Basic aircraft qualified.
d. Basic mission qualified.

Back 31

c. Basic aircraft qualified.

Front 32

32. (012) What qualification do you receive to become a fully qualified aircrew member?
a. Initial qualification.
b. Mission qualification.
c. Instructor qualification.
d. Special mission qualification.

Back 32

b. Mission qualification.

Front 33

33. (012) After becoming mission qualified, what training is conducted by keeping all of your
individual currency requirements up to date.
a. Difference training.
b. Conversion training.
c. Continuation training.
d. Multiple aircraft training.

Back 33

c. Continuation training.

Front 34

34. (013) What type of training normally requires initial cadre?
a. Difference training.
b. Conversion training.
c. Continuation training.
d. Multiple aircraft training.

Back 34

b. Conversion training.

Front 35

35. (014) What do squadron commanders, operations officers, and flight commanders make sure of
on the AF Form 4023?
a. Comments are not specific.
b. Comments are standardized.
c. Comments reflect personal opinions and biases.
d. Comments do not reflect personal opinions or biases.

Back 35

d. Comments do not reflect personal opinions or biases.

Front 36

36. (014) Which form is completed by the instructor after each training period to provide a brief
summary of the event, to document strengths and weaknesses, and make recommendations?
a. AF Form 4022, Aircrew Training Folder.
b. AF Form 4023, Aircrew Training Progress Report.
c. AF Form 4025, Aircrew Summary and Close-Out Report.
d. AF Form 4024, Aircrew Training Accomplishment Report.

Back 36

b. AF Form 4023, Aircrew Training Progress Report.

Front 37

37. (014) What is the desired grade to achieve on the AF Form 4024, Aircrew Training
Accomplishment Report?
a. Proficient.
b. Acceptable.
c. Satisfactory.
d. Outstanding.

Back 37

a. Proficient.

Front 38

38. (015) What status is an enlisted aircrew, 3-level graduate in when they first arrive at a flying unit?
a. Unqualified.
b. Difference qualified.
c. Basic mission capable.
d. Basic aircraft qualified.

Back 38

a. Unqualified.

Front 39

39. (016) What status is assigned when an aircrew member is not yet qualified in their assigned
aircraft?
a. Mission ready.
b. Non-mission ready.
c. Basic mission capable.
d. Basic aircraft qualified.

Back 39

b. Non-mission ready.

Front 40

40. (016) What status is assigned when an aircrew member has satisfactorily completed mission
qualification training and maintains qualification and proficiency in the unit operational mission?
a. Mission ready.
b. Non-mission ready.
c. Basic mission capable.
d. Basic aircraft qualified.

Back 40

a. Mission ready.

Front 41

41. (016) What status is assigned when an aircrew member has satisfactorily completed initial
qualification training and qualification to perform duties in the unit aircraft?
a. Mission ready.
b. Non-mission ready.
c. Basic mission capable.
d. Basic aircraft qualified.

Back 41

d. Basic aircraft qualified.

Front 42

42. (016) How do you regain currency if you are overdue a flight physical?
a. Simply accomplish the flight physical.
b. Accomplish the flight physical and an in-flight evaluation.
c. Accomplish the flight physical and a flight with an instructor.
d. You do not lose currency if you are overdue a flight physical.

Back 42

a. Simply accomplish the flight physical.

Front 43

43. (017) In addition to the flight phase, what is the other phase of aircrew qualification evaluations?
a. Initial.
b. Ground.
c. Individual.
d. Emergency.

Back 43

b. Ground.

Front 44

44. (017) When does the eligibility period for your evaluation begin?
a. Six months prior to the expiration date of an evaluation.
b. One month prior to the expiration date of an evaluation.
c. After you complete your open and closed book examinations.
d. After your AF Form 8, Certificate of Aircrew Qualification is completed.

Back 44

a. Six months prior to the expiration date of an evaluation.

Front 45

45. (018) What is the first evaluation of any type for an aircrew position or instructor qualification in
an aircraft mission design series?
a. Initial.
b. Mission.
c. Periodic.
d. Prerequisite.

Back 45

a. Initial.

Front 46

46. (018) What are supplementary evaluations known as?
a. No fault.
b. No threat.
c. No record.
d. No problem.

Back 46

b. No threat.

Front 47

47. (019) What does a qualification level of 2 indicate about an evaluatee’s performance?
a. Demonstrated exceptional skill and knowledge in all phases.
b. Demonstrated ability to perform duties safely with minor errors.
c. Demonstrated desired performance and knowledge of procedures.
d. Demonstrated an unacceptable level of safety, performance, or knowledge.

Back 47

b. Demonstrated ability to perform duties safely with minor errors.

Front 48

48. (019) What does a qualification level of 3 indicate about an evaluatee’s performance?
a. Demonstrated exceptional skill and knowledge in all phases.
b. Demonstrated ability to perform duties safely with minor errors.
c. Demonstrated desired performance and knowledge of procedures.
d. Demonstrated an unacceptable level of safety, performance, or knowledge.

Back 48

d. Demonstrated an unacceptable level of safety, performance, or knowledge.

Front 49

49. (020) What is one of the things that squadron commanders look for in potential evaluators?
a. An ability to work well with others.
b. Error free open and closed book test scores.
c. An ability to correct senior ranking officers.
d. Satisfactory knowledge of MAJCOM training and evaluation policies and procedures.

Back 49

d. Satisfactory knowledge of MAJCOM training and evaluation policies and procedures.

Front 50

50. (020) What program is used to ensure aircrew members meet all requirements before flight?
a. Trends.
b. Go/No-Go.
c. Self-inspection.
d. Flight crew information file.

Back 50

b. Go/No-Go.

Front 51

51. (021) What contains the basic source documents that provide a current history of each
individual’s flying qualification?
a. Flight evaluation folder.
b. Aircrew training records.
c. Flight crew information file.
d. Aviation Resource Management System.

Back 51

a. Flight evaluation folder.

Front 52

52. (021) What, if anything, would be used to record special training or any certifications,
qualifications, and/or authorizations that do not require a periodic evaluation?
a. Permanent Memos for Record.
b. The AF Form 942, Record of Evaluation.
c. The AF Form 8, Certificate of Aircrew Qualification.
d. AF Form 1381, USAF Certification of Aircrew Training.

Back 52

d. AF Form 1381, USAF Certification of Aircrew Training.

Front 53

53. (022) What Headquarters Air Force position establishes and monitors the Air Force aviation and
parachutist service program?
a. Career Field Manager.
b. Director of Air Operations.
c. Chief of Staff of the Air Force.
d. Chief of Operational Training Division.

Back 53

d. Chief of Operational Training Division.

Front 54

54. (022) What Headquarters Air Force position is responsible for all enlisted aircrew career fields
and oversees the operations of all enlisted aircrew specialties?
a. Career Field Manager.
b. Director of Air Operations.
c. Chief of Staff of the Air Force.
d. Chief of Operational Training Division.

Back 54

a. Career Field Manager.

Front 55

55. (023) What positions are standing and voting members of the Aircrew Management Executive
Council?
a. Air Force Personnel Center.
b. Directorate of Assignments.
c. Host Aviation Resource Management.
d. MAJCOM Chiefs, Career Enlisted Aviators.

Back 55

d. MAJCOM Chiefs, Career Enlisted Aviators.

Front 56

56. (023) What position is the designated office of primary responsibility of aircrew management
decisions for the Air National Guard?
a. Division Chief of Air Operations.
b. Division Chief of Personnel Management.
c. Division Chief of Operations and Training Division.
d. Division Chief of Manpower and Training Directorate.

Back 56

c. Division Chief of Operations and Training Division.

Front 57

57. (023) What position is the designated office of primary responsibility of aircrew management
decisions for the Air Force Reserves?
a. Directorate of Air Operations.
b. Directorate of Personnel Management.
c. Directorate of Manpower and Training.
d. Directorate of Operations and Requirements.

Back 57

d. Directorate of Operations and Requirements.

Front 58

58. (024) How long are flight record folders kept for disqualified aircrew members and parachutists?
a. 1 year.
b. 2 years.
c. 5 years.
d. 30 days.

Back 58

c. 5 years.

Front 59

59. (025) What is the official source document for determining incentive entitlement, current flying
status, and total aircrew experience?
a. Aircrew orders.
b. Aeronautical orders.
c. Flight records folder.
d. Flight evaluation folder.

Back 59

c. Flight records folder.

Front 60

60. (025) What is the source document for each of your flight times?
a. Aeronautical orders.
b. Flying History Report.
c. Individual Training Summary.
d. Individual Flight Record Report.

Back 60

d. Individual Flight Record Report.

Front 61

61. (025) What document provides a listing of the total flying hours you have logged in your flying
career?
a. Aeronautical orders.
b. Flying History Report.
c. Individual Training Summary.
d. Individual Flight Record Report.

Back 61

b. Flying History Report.

Front 62

62. (025) What document is used to notify aircrew members of upcoming expiration dates for ground
and flight currency events?
a. Aeronautical orders.
b. Flying History Report.
c. Individual Training Summary.
d. Individual Flight Record Report.

Back 62

c. Individual Training Summary.

Front 63

63. (026) How much are you paid in career enlisted flyer incentive pay once you reach over four
years but less than eight years of aviation service?
a. $150.00.
b. $225.00.
c. $350.00.
d. $400.00.

Back 63

b. $225.00.

Front 64

64. (026) How much are you paid in Career Enlisted Flyer Incentive Pay once you reach over 14
years of aviation service?
a. $150.00.
b. $225.00.
c. $350.00.
d. $400.00.

Back 64

d. $400.00.

Front 65

65. (026) At what point in your flying career are you placed into conditional pay status?
a. Once you reach 25 years of aviation service.
b. On the date your initial aeronautical orders are published.
c. On the date you complete your initial qualification evaluation.
d. Once you have met 108 months of occupational flying duty accumulator requirements.

Back 65

a. Once you reach 25 years of aviation service.

Front 66

66. (027) What code is used to identify your specific function in your flying career?
a. Flying status code.
b. Aviation service code.
c. Entitlement status code.
d. Aircrew position indicator code.

Back 66

d. Aircrew position indicator code.

Front 67

67. (028) When does AFI 11–204, Aviation and Parachutist Service, Aeronautical Ratings, and
Badges, say wear of the basic aircrew member badge is allowed?
a. Upon completion of 3-level training.
b. Upon completion of 5-level training.
c. Upon completion of life support training.
d. Upon completion of USAF flying training that qualifies them for the badge.

Back 67

d. Upon completion of USAF flying training that qualifies them for the badge.

Front 68

68. (028) What skill level is required to earn the senior aircrew member badge?
a. 3-level.
b. 5-level.
c. 7-level.
d. 9-level.

Back 68

b. 5-level.

Front 69

69. (028) What skill level is required to earn the chief aircrew member badge?
a. 3-level.
b. 5-level.
c. 7-level.
d. 9-level.

Back 69

c. 7-level.

Front 70

70. (028) What type of flight time is logged by an aircrew member occupying a designated duty
station and actively performing the duty associated with their aircrew specialty?
a. Other.
b. Primary.
c. Instructor.
d. Secondary.

Back 70

b. Primary.

Front 71

71. (029) What status are you in if you can perform your daily duties on the ground but not in the air?
a. Quarters.
b. Duties not including flying.
c. Pre-mission crew rest.
d. Post-mission crew rest.

Back 71

b. Duties not including flying.

Front 72

72. (030) What is required by all aircrew members prior to preflight, load, start, and taxi of an
aircraft?
a. Crew rest.
b. Hydration.
c. Crew alert.
d. Complete checklist.

Back 72

a. Crew rest.

Front 73

73. (030) What is the normal amount of post mission crew rest aircrew members receive?
a. 12 hours.
b. 24 hours.
c. 72 hours.
d. 96 hours.

Back 73

a. 12 hours.

Front 74

74. (030) What does the aircraft commander do if the safety of a mission or mission leg may be
compromised by fatigue factors, regardless of authorized flight duty period?
a. Terminate the mission.
b. Provide extra crew rest at the end of the mission.
c. Reward the crew for making the mission happen.
d. Remind the crew of the importance of the mission.

Back 74

a. Terminate the mission.

Front 75

75. (031) What publication prescribes the mission, area of responsibility, organization, and
relationships of MAJCOMs, forward operating agencies, and direct reporting units with their
respective units?
a. Air Force instructions.
b. Operating instructions.
c. Air Force mission directives.
d. Air Force guidance memorandums.

Back 75

c. Air Force mission directives.

Front 76

76. (032) Whose responsibility is it to update publications?
a. STAN/EVAL
b. Aircrew members.
c. Publications monitor.
d. Squadron commander.

Back 76

b. Aircrew members.

Front 77

77. (033) What does the C in the technical order 1C–135 indicate?
a. Basic aircraft mission.
b. Aircraft model number.
c. Technical order category.
d. Modified aircraft mission.

Back 77

a. Basic aircraft mission.

Front 78

78. (034) Which type of time compliance technical order is issued when the identified uncorrected
safety conditions could result in fatality or serious injury to personnel, extensive damage to, or
destruction of valuable property?
a. Urgent action.
b. Routine action.
c. Immediate action.
d. As soon as possible action.

Back 78

c. Immediate action.

Front 79

79. (034) Which type of time compliance technical order is issued under the governing factors of
combat necessity or potentially hazardous conditions which could result in injury to personnel,
damage to property, or unacceptable reductions in combat efficiency?
a. Urgent action.
b. Routine action.
c. Immediate action.
d. As soon as possible action.

Back 79

a. Urgent action.

Front 80

80. (034) What type of technical order change recommendation is used when a condition could
become hazardous when used for extended period of time, results in poor operating efficiency, or
reduces the operating life of equipment?
a. Serious.
b. Priority.
c. Routine.
d. Emergency.

Back 80

c. Routine.

Front 81

81. (034) What type of technical order change recommendation is used when a condition could cause
severe injury or death, cause extensive damage to, or destruction of equipment or property or
prevent a unit from completing its assigned mission?
a. Serious.
b. Priority.
c. Routine.
d. Emergency.

Back 81

d. Emergency.

Front 82

82. (035) Which technical order provides policy and guidance for the use and operation of the
maintenance data documentation process?
a. TO 00–5–1, AF Technical Order System.
b. TO 00–20–2, Maintenance Data Documentation.
c. TO 00–5–3, AF Technical Order Life Cycle Management.
d. TO 00–20–1, Aerospace Equipment Maintenance Inspection, Documentation, Policies, and
Procedures.

Back 82

b. TO 00–20–2, Maintenance Data Documentation.

Front 83

83. (036) Who is ultimately responsible for ensuring that the AFTO Form 781, AFORMS
Aircrew/Mission Flight Data Document, entries are accurate?
a. Aircraft commander.
b. Squadron commander.
c. Ground support agencies.
d. The aircrew member filling out the form.

Back 83

a. Aircraft commander.

Front 84

84. (036) What symbol indicates an unsatisfactory condition exists on the aircraft; but the condition is
not serious enough to ground the aircraft?
a. Red X.
b. Red dash.
c. Red diagonal.
d. Circled red X.

Back 84

c. Red diagonal.

Front 85

85. (037) What Flight Crew Information File entries must you read prior to each home station mission
departure?
a. All entries.
b. All new entries.
c. Only ones pertinent to enlisted aircrew.
d. Only ones pertinent to your crew position.

Back 85

d. Only ones pertinent to your crew position.

Front 86

86. (037) Which volume in the flight crew information file is optional?
a. Volume 1 – Table of Contents/Current Read File.
b. Volume 2 – Publications – Air Force Directives/MAJCOM Supplements.
c. Volume 4 – Flight Manuals – Checklists/Aircrew Aids/Technical Orders.
d. Volume 5 – Flight Safety Information.

Back 86

d. Volume 5 – Flight Safety Information.

Front 87

87. (038) What Air Force instruction would instructors need to be very familiar with?
a. AFI 11–202, volume 1 – Aircrew Training.
b. AFI 11–202, volume 3 – General Flight Rules.
c. AFI 11–202, volume 4 – Instructor Evaluator Program.
d. AFI 11–202, volume 2 – Aircrew Standardization Evaluation Program.

Back 87

a. AFI 11–202, volume 1 – Aircrew Training.

Front 88

88. (038) What Air Force Instruction would evaluators need to be very familiar with?
a. AFI 11–202, volume 1 – Aircrew Training.
b. AFI 11–202, volume 3 – General Flight Rules.
c. AFI 11–202, volume 4 – Instructor Evaluator Program.
d. AFI 11–202, volume 2 – Aircrew Standardization Evaluation Program.

Back 88

d. AFI 11–202, volume 2 – Aircrew Standardization Evaluation Program.

Front 89

89. (039) How often are aircrew members required to receive altitude chamber training?
a. Annually.
b. One initial time.
c. Every five years.
d. Every three years.

Back 89

c. Every five years.

Front 90

90. (039) If an individual on your aircraft appears to be suffering from decompression sickness, what
should you do?
a. Provide water and compress.
b. Immediately land the aircraft.
c. Administer 100 percent oxygen.
d. Check with the other passengers.

Back 90

c. Administer 100 percent oxygen.

Front 91

91. (040) What is recommended when symptoms of hypoxia are noted?
a. Provide oxygen immediately.
b. Provide water and compress.
c. Land the aircraft immediately.
d. Watch the individual for signs of shock.

Back 91

a. Provide oxygen immediately.

Front 92

92. (041) Who will prescribe wear and use of personal equipment, including helmets, oxygen masks,
anti-G equipment, flight clothing, and flight gloves?
a. MAJCOMs.
b. Aircraft commanders.
c. Squadron commanders.
d. Operations group commanders.

Back 92

a. MAJCOMs.

Front 93

93. (041) Who will prescribe wear and use of seatbelts, harnesses, or safety belts?
a. MAJCOMs.
b. Aircraft commanders.
c. Squadron commanders.
d. Operations group commanders.

Back 93

a. MAJCOMs.

Front 94

94. (042) What is the restriction for aircrew members on wearing eye glasses while performing
aircrew duties?
a. They must have clear lenses.
b. They must have a safety strap.
c. They must have a silver frame.
d. They must be provided by the Air Force.

Back 94

d. They must be provided by the Air Force.

Front 95

95. (042) What must aircrew members carry with them when they wear corrective spectacles or
contact lenses?
a. Eye drops.
b. A spare set of contact lenses.
c. A spare set of clear prescription spectacles.
d. A spare set of shaded prescription spectacles.

Back 95

c. A spare set of clear prescription spectacles.

Front 96

96. (043) Two of the R’s to remember for individual responsibility are recognize and report. What is
the third R?
a. Regret.
b. Reduce.
c. Request.
d. Remember.

Back 96

b. Reduce.

Front 97

97. (044) There are things you can see that may cause safety hazards. What is the other type of thing
that may cause safety hazards that you should be aware of?
a. Things you can feel.
b. Things you can’t see.
c. Things others can see.
d. Things you have seen.

Back 97

b. Things you can’t see.

Front 98

98. (044) As a general rule, how far should you stay away from engine intakes to stay out of harms
way?
a. 5 feet.
b. 10 feet.
c. 35 feet.
d. 50 feet.

Back 98

c. 35 feet.

Front 99

99. (044) How far in front of a C–130 does the propeller danger area extend?
a. 5 feet.
b. 10 feet.
c. 35 feet.
d. 50 feet.

Back 99

b. 10 feet.

Front 100

100. (045) What hearing protection is required to provide protection near noise areas of 130 to 140
decibels?
a. Helmet.
b. Headsets.
c. Ear plugs.
d. Both ear plugs and headsets.

Back 100

d. Both ear plugs and headsets.

Front 101

101. (046) What is the term for a reduction or total loss of visibility, such as that produced by an
intense light source, such as oncoming headlights, in the central field of vision?
a. Glare.
b. Blindness.
c. Afterimage.
d. Flash-blindness.

Back 101

a. Glare.

Front 102

102. (047) What does radio frequency radiation look like when emitted from an aircraft?
a. Heat waves.
b. Discoloration.
c. You can not see it.
d. The appearance is inconsistent.

Back 102

c. You can not see it.

Front 103

103. (047) How do you avoid radio frequency radiation danger?
a. Wear a protective vest.
b. Wear a protective flight suit.
c. Stay away from any antennas.
d. You can’t avoid it – it comes with the job.

Back 103

c. Stay away from any antennas.

Front 104

104. (047) What do you do if a fuel truck arrives and you are making radio transmissions?
a. Notify the fire department.
b. Continue radio transmissions.
c. Terminate radio transmissions.
d. Have the fuel truck wait outside the entry control point.

Back 104

c. Terminate radio transmissions.

Front 105

105. (048) How many finger rings are authorized when working on the flightline or aircraft?
a. Three rings total.
b. No rings are authorized.
c. Only one ring on each hand.
d. Engagement or wedding ring only.

Back 105

b. No rings are authorized.

Front 106

106. (049) When are wigs allowed on the flightline?
a. They are not authorized.
b. During the winter months.
c. When authorized by a flight surgeon.
d. When outside the entry control point.

Back 106

a. They are not authorized.

Front 107

107. (049) What is considered non-preventable foreign object damage causes?
a. Birds.
b. Hair pins.
c. Government pens.
d. Maintenance tools.

Back 107

a. Birds.

Front 108

108. (050) How long is a person most likely to be able to endure concentrations of carbon dioxide
(CO2) at 3.0 percent?
a. Up to two hours.
b. Five to ten minutes.
c. One half to one hour.
d. Less than five minutes.

Back 108

c. One half to one hour.

Front 109

109. (051) What is your goal when it comes to biomedical hazards?
a. To protect our aircraft from biomedical hazards.
b. To eliminate the potential for biomedical hazards.
c. To keep aircrew members from becoming infected.
d. To prevent the cause of biomedical hazards in-flight.

Back 109

c. To keep aircrew members from becoming infected.

Front 110

110. (052) What varies as local conditions change from crop selection, land use choices, or creation
of a wildlife refuge?
a. Runway use.
b. Airport activity.
c. Wildlife activity.
d. Recreation activity.

Back 110

c. Wildlife activity.

Front 111

111. (053) What bird watch condition applies to bird activity on or immediately above the active
runway or other specific location representing high potential for strikes?
a. Low.
b. Severe.
c. Moderate.
d. Unknown.

Back 111

b. Severe.

Front 112

112. (053) Which bird watch condition requires increased vigilance by all agencies and supervisors
and caution by aircrews?
a. Low.
b. Severe.
c. Moderate.
d. Unknown.

Back 112

c. Moderate.

Front 113

113. (054) What element of communications security concerns properly using technically sound
cryptographic equipment?
a. Physical security.
b. Operations security.
c. Transmission security.
d. Cryptological security.

Back 113

d. Cryptological security.

Front 114

114. (054) What element of communications security includes all measures, except physical
protection, designed to protect transmissions from interception and exploitation by means other
than cryptographic analysis?
a. Physical security.
b. Operations security.
c. Transmission security.
d. Cryptological security.

Back 114

c. Transmission security.

Front 115

115. (054) What element of communications security results from all physical measures necessary for
safeguarding classified equipment, material, and documents from unauthorized persons?
a. Physical security.
b. Operations security.
c. Transmission security.
d. Cryptological security.

Back 115

a. Physical security.

Front 116

116. (055) What type of secured area would consist of any specifically designated building, area, or
structure containing USAF resources that are targets for theft, compromise, or destruction?
a. No-lone zone.
b. Restricted area.
c. Controlled area.
d. Physical proximity.

Back 116

c. Controlled area.

Front 117

117. (055) What does a commander authorize aircrew members to wear if they must regularly go into
a restricted area?
a. Military ID Card.
b. Air Force Flight suit.
c. Restricted Area Badge.
d. Air Force visitor’s badge.

Back 117

c. Restricted Area Badge.

Front 118

118. (056) What classification designation is applied to information or material that could be expected
to cause exceptionally grave damage to national security if disclosed without authorizations?
a. Secret.
b. Top secret.
c. Controlled.
d. Confidential.

Back 118

b. Top secret.

Front 119

119. (056) What classification designation is applied to information or materials that the unauthorized
disclosure of which reasonably could be expected to cause serious damage to national security?
a. Secret.
b. Top secret.
c. Controlled.
d. Confidential.

Back 119

a. Secret.

Front 120

120. (057) What is safeguarding classified information in the interest of?
a. Secret squirrel.
b. Keeping secrets.
c. National Defense.
d. Eliminating questions.

Back 120

c. National Defense.

Front 121

121. (058) What type of information warfare includes psychological operations, electronic warfare,
deception, and physical attacks?
a. Intensive.
b. Offensive.
c. Defensive.
d. Subjective.

Back 121

b. Offensive.

Front 122

122. (058) What type of information warfare uses anti-virus software?
a. Intensive.
b. Offensive.
c. Defensive.
d. Subjective.

Back 122

c. Defensive.

Front 123

123. (059) What type of security measure is applied when a person asks to see your identification
card before granting access to a restricted area?
a. Emissions security.
b. Operations security.
c. Transportation security.
d. Communications security.

Back 123

b. Operations security.

Front 124

124. (060) Military orders are an example of what type of security indicator?
a. Operations.
b. Administrative.
c. Communications.
d. Logistics and maintenance support.

Back 124

b. Administrative.