Air Traffic Basics - Block 1

Front 1

1. The Air Traffic Organization (ATO) is managed by a(n) ________.

A. Associate Administrator
B. Vice President
C. Chief Operating Officer
D. Administrator

Back 1

C. Chief Operating Officer

Front 2

2. According to their location, ATO air traffic control facilities are assigned to one of ________.
A. nine regions
B. three service areas
C. eleven FAA primary offices
D. four FAA Headquarters divisions

Back 2

B. three service areas

Front 3

3. The primary Navigational Aids (NAVAIDs) for the nation’s airways in the National Airspace System (NAS) are ________.
A. marker beacons
B. VORs/VORTACs
C. Non Directional Beacons (NDBs)
D. Instrument Landing Systems (ILSs)

Back 3

B. VORs/VORTACs

Front 4

4. The primary mission of the Traffic Management System (TMS) is to ________.
A. regulate air traffic procedures
B. balance system demand with system capacity
C. implement the use of state-of-the-art equipment
D. ascertain controller stress and workload

Back 4

B. balance system demand with system capacity

Front 5

5. The mission of the _______ is to balance air traffic demand with the system’s capacity to ensure that the maximum and most efficient utilization of the NAS is maintained.

A. Traffic Management System (TMS)
B. Air Route Traffic Control Center (ARTCC)
C. Automated Flight Service Station (AFSS)
D. FAA Headquarters

Back 5

A. Traffic Management System (TMS)

Front 6

6. The primary function of the Traffic Management Unit (TMU) is to ______.
A. monitor and balance traffic flows within their area of responsibility in accordance with traffic management directives
B. ensure maximum efficiency in the utilization of the total National Airspace System, thereby producing a safe, orderly, and expeditious flow of traffic
C. manage the flow of air traffic throughout the National Airspace System to achieve optimum use of the navigable airspace and minimize the effect of air traffic delays
D. manage the flow of tower traffic by ensuring that traffic demand does not exceed operationally minimal levels of traffic

Back 6

A. monitor and balance traffic flows within their area of responsibility in accordance with traffic management directives

Front 7

7. The primary purpose of the Air Traffic Control System is to ________.
A. prevent collision and organize and expedite the flow of traffic
B. provide traffic advisories
C. monitor holding patterns
D. advise pilots of altitude deviations of 300 feet or more

Back 7

A. prevent collision and organize and expedite the flow of traffic

Front 8

8. The air traffic facility that has no direct authority over Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) or Visual Flight Rules (VFR) traffic is the ________.

A. Airport Traffic Control Tower (ATCT)
B. Terminal Radar Approach Control (TRACON)
C. Automated Flight Service Station (AFSS)
D. Air Route Traffic Control Center (ARTCC)

Back 8

C. Automated Flight Service Station (AFSS)

Front 9

9. The facility primarily responsible for conducting pilot briefings is the ________.
A. ATCT
B. ARTCC
C. ATCSCC
D. AFSS

Back 9

D. AFSS

Front 10

10. Which position in the Automated Flight Service Station (AFSS) records and disseminates Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) summaries?
A. In Flight
B. Broadcast
C. Flight Data/NOTAM Coordinator
D. Preflight

Back 10

B. Broadcast

Front 11

11. Which of the following duties is not the function of the Clearance Delivery position in the tower?
A. Operating communication equipment
B. Processing and forwarding flight plan information
C. Compiling statistical data
D. Issuing clearances and ensuring accuracy of readback

Back 11

C. Compiling statistical data

Front 12

12. The ________ position in the ATC terminal option is normally responsible for issuing control instructions to aircraft and vehicles operating on the airport movement area (other than active runways).
A. Local Control
B. Ground Control
C. Clearance Delivery
D. Flight Data

Back 12

B. Ground Control

Front 13

13. In a Terminal Radar Approach Control (TRACON) facility, who has the responsibility for the safe and efficient operation of a sector?
A. Facility Manager
B. Radar Position
C. Radar Associate Position
D. Radar Team

Back 13

D. Radar Team

Front 14

14. The ATC facility that provides air traffic control services to aircraft on IFR flight plans during the en route phase of flight is ________.
A. ATCT
B. AFSS
C. TRACON
D. ARTCC

Back 14

D. ARTCC

Front 15

15. The only en route sector team member whose duties do not include accepting handoffs is the ________ position.
A. Radar Coordinator
B. Radar Associate
C. Radar
D. Radar Flight Data

Back 15

D. Radar Flight Data

Front 16

16. When considering the duty priority of an air traffic controller, first priority is given to ________.
A. coordinating
B. issuing traffic
C. separating aircraft
D. vectoring

Back 16

C. separating aircraft

Front 17

17. Nonradar separation is used in preference to radar separation when ________.
A. an operational advantage will be gained
B. the aircraft is not transponder equipped
C. secondary radar is out of service
D. controller is not radar qualified

Back 17

A. an operational advantage will be gained

Front 18

18. “Presidential aircraft have priority over Flight Check aircraft” is an example of ________.
A. Operational Priority
B. Procedural Preference
C. Duty Priority
D. Additional Services

Back 18

A. Operational Priority

Front 19

19. All of the following represent uses of a non-movement area EXCEPT:
A. Loading Passengers
B. Landing
C. Maintenance D Parking

Back 19

B. Landing

Front 20

20. A runway with a magnetic heading of 003 degrees should be designated Runway _______.
A. 0
B. 1
C. 3
D. 36

Back 20

D. 36

Front 21

21. An airport with three parallel runways with a magnetic heading of 216 degrees would have runway designations of ________.
A. 22R, 22C, 22L
B. 21R, 21C, 21L
C. 21R, 21L, 22C
D. 22R, 22L, 21

Back 21

A. 22R, 22C, 22L
(LP 3, p. 6)

Front 22

22. What runway marking extends the full-length runway pavement area?
A. Runway side stripes
B. Dashed side stripes
C. Runway centerlines
D. Dashed centerlines

Back 22

A. Runway side stripes
(LP 3, p. 12)

Front 23

23. A(n) _______ consists of white arrows which point in the direction of landing, replacing the runway centerline, and beginning at the non-landing portion to the threshold bar.
A. stabilized area
B. abandoned runway
C. relocated threshold
D. displaced threshold

Back 23

D. displaced threshold
(LP 3, p. 13)

Front 24

24. A _______ is identified by large chevrons pointing in the direction of the threshold.
A. blast pad
B. closed runway
C. relocated threshold
D. dislocated threshold

Back 24

A. blast pad
(LP 3, p. 17)

Front 25

25. Runway ________ provide alignment guidance during takeoffs and landings, and consist of a line of uniformly spaced stripes and gaps.
A. aiming points
B. centerlines
C. thresholds
D. touchdown zones

Back 25

B. centerlines
(LP 3, p. 7)

Front 26

26. What color are taxiway edge lights?
A. White
B. Amber
C. Blue
D. Red

Back 26

C. Blue
(LP 3, p. 33)

Front 27

27. Civil land airports have rotating beacons that _______.

A. flash white and green
B. flash two white and one green
C. flash white
D. flash green

Back 27

A. flash white and green
(LP 3, p. 29)

Front 28

28. Touchdown Zone Lighting (TDZL) and Runway Centerline Lights System (RCLS) are two types of _______.
A. Runway End Identifier Lights
B. Taxiway lights
C. In-runway lights
D. Runway edge lights

Back 28

C. In-runway lights
(LP 3, p. 32)

Front 29

29. Threshold lights are ________.
A. white/yellow
B. green/yellow
C. white/red
D. green/red

Back 29

D. green/red
(LP 3, p. 31)

Front 30

30. The two subsystems for disseminating aeronautical information are _______.
A. AIS and NOTAMs
B. NFDC and NOTAMs
C. NAS and NFDC
D. AIS and AFSS

Back 30

A. AIS and NOTAMs
(LP 5, p. 3)

Front 31

31. Who is responsible for originating a NOTAM concerning a navigational aid?
A. Facility responsible for monitoring or controlling the navigational aid
B. Center in whose area the outage occurs
C. Terminal in whose area the outage occurs
D. Automated Flight Service Station

Back 31

A. Facility responsible for monitoring or controlling the navigational aid
(LP, p. 11)

Front 32

32. A NOTAM that is widely disseminated and applies to civil components of the NAS is classified as a _______.
A. NOTAM D
B. Military NOTAM
C. Pointer NOTAM
D. FDC NOTAM

Back 32

A. NOTAM D
(LP 5, p. 6)

Front 33

33. A NOTAM that consists of information that is regulatory in nature pertaining to flight, such as changes to IFR charts, is classified as a/an:
A. NOTAM D
B. Military NOTAM
C. Pointer NOTAM
D. FDC NOTAM

Back 33

D. FDC NOTAM
(LP, p. 8)

Front 34

34. Responsibility for validating NOTAM data and operating the National NOTAM System belongs to _______.
A. National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA)
B. NFDC
C. ARTCCs
D. AFSSs

Back 34

B. NFDC
(LP, p. 13)

Front 35

35. Who is responsible for observing and reporting the conditions of the landing area of an airport?
A. Airport manager/operator
B. Tower controller
C. Pilot
D. Flight service specialist

Back 35

A. Airport manager/operator
(LP, p. 15)

Front 36

36. Types of Notices to Airmen (NOTAMs) are:
A. GENOT, RENOT and SERNOT
B. PIREP, ALNOT and INREQ
C. AIRMET, SIGMET and MIS
D. FDC, POINTER and MILITARY

Back 36

D. FDC, POINTER and MILITARY
(LP 5, p. 5)

Front 37

37. What information is contained in the FAA Order JO 7110.65?
A. Prescribes air traffic procedures used by Flight Service specialists
B. Prescribes air traffic procedures and phraseology used by air traffic controllers
C. Provides direction and guidance for operating and managing Air Traffic facilities
D. Contains approved words and phrase contractions used by the FAA

Back 37

B. Prescribes air traffic procedures and phraseology used by air traffic controllers
(LP 7, p. 8)

Front 38

38. What information is contained in the FAA Order JO 7210.3?
A. Prescribes air traffic procedures and phraseology used by Flight Service specialists
B. Prescribes air traffic procedures and phraseology used by air traffic controllers
C. Provides direction and guidance for operating and managing Air Traffic facilities
D. Contains approved words and phrase contractions used by the FAA

Back 38

C. Provides direction and guidance for operating and managing Air Traffic facilities
(LP 7, p. 11)

Front 39

39. Revised, reprinted, or new pages in FAA Orders JO 7110.10, JO 7110.65, and JO 7210.3 are indicated by bold ________.
A. asterisks
B. horizontal lines
C. vertical lines
D. stars

Back 39

C. vertical lines
(LP, p. 16)

Front 40

40. What information is contained in the FAA Order JO 7340.2?
A. Prescribes air traffic procedures and phraseology used by Flight Service specialists
B. Prescribes air traffic procedures and phraseology used by air traffic controllers
C. Provides direction and guidance for operating and managing Air Traffic facilities
D. Contains approved words and phrase contractions used by the FAA

Back 40

D. Contains approved words and phrase contractions used by the FAA
(LP 7, p.13)

Front 41

41. When used in FAA Orders JO 7110.10, JO 7110.65, and JO 7210.3, the word “may” means that the procedure is ________.
A. recommended
B. approved
C. optional
D. mandatory

Back 41

C. optional
(LP, p. 20)

Front 42

42. What information is contained in the FAA Order JO 7350.8?
A. Aeronautical Information Manual
B. Lists location identifiers authorized by the FAA
C. Provides direction and guidance for operating and managing Air Traffic facilities
D. Contains approved words and phrase contractions used by the FAA

Back 42

B. Lists location identifiers authorized by the FAA
(LP 7, p. 15)

Front 43

43. In FAA Order 7110.65, the word used to specify that a procedure is mandatory is ________.
A. shall
B. may
C. should
D. will

Back 43

A. shall
(LP 7, p. 20)

Front 44

44. Which contraction is used to identify General Notices issued by Washington Headquarters?
A. GANOT
B. GENOT
C. GENNOT
D. GNOT

Back 44

B. GENOT
(LP, p. 17)

Front 45

45. In FAA Order 7110.65, the word used to specify that a procedure is recommended is ________.
A. shall
B. may
C. should
D. will

Back 45

C.
(LP 7, p. 21)

Front 46

46. What document is used to consolidate instructions from different levels into a single directive to avoid having instructions scattered among several directives?
A. FAA Order JO 7110.65
B. Notices
C. Supplements
D. Changes

Back 46

C. Supplements
(LP, p. 18)

Front 47

47. Which document prescribes air traffic procedures and phraseology used by Flight Service specialists?
A. FAA Order JO 7210.3
B. FAA Order JO 7110.10
C. Aeronautical Information Manual
D. Terminal Phraseology Guide

Back 47

B. FAA Order JO 7110.10
(LP, p. 6)

Front 48

48. Which document provides the aviation community with basic flight information and ATC procedures?
A. FAA Order JO 7340.2
B. FAA Order JO 7110.65
C. Aeronautical Information Manual
D. FAA Order JO 7350.8

Back 48

C. Aeronautical Information Manual
(LP, p. 19)

Front 49

49. When used in FAA Orders JO 7110.10, JO 7110.65, and JO 7210.3, the word “will” means ________.
A. recommended
B. not a requirement for application of a procedure
C. optional
D. mandatory

Back 49

B. not a requirement for application of a procedure
(LP, p. 21)

Front 50

50. Many FAA orders are divided into chapters, sections, and ________.
A. groups
B. subsections
C. stanzas
D. paragraphs

Back 50

D. paragraphs
(LP, p. 6)

Front 51

203. Holding an aircraft is NOT used for ________.
A. en route traffic
B. position relief
C. flow control
D. spacing

Back 51

B. position relief
(LP 4, p. 41)

Front 52

204. The minimum vertical separation required for aircraft above FL600 is _______ feet.
A. 10,000
B. 5,000
C. 2,000
D. 1,000

Back 52

B. 5,000
(LP 4, p. 7)

Front 53

205. The minimum vertical separation for IFR flight at and below FL410 is _______ feet.
A. 5,000
B. 2,000
C. 1,000
D. 4,000

Back 53

C. 1,000
(LP 4, p. 7)

Front 54

206. Minimum vertical separation below an aircraft which is dumping fuel is ______ feet.
A. 4,000
B. 2,000
C. 1,000
D. 500

Back 54

B. 2,000
(LP 4, p. 11)

Front 55

207. To clear aircraft to hold over different fixes at the same altitude, you must ensure that all
A. aircraft are cleared to make right turns.
B. holding pattern airspace areas do not overlap.
C. leg lengths are specified in minutes.
D. aircraft are using the same NAVAID to hold from.

Back 55

B. holding pattern airspace areas do not overlap.
(LP 4, p. 45)

Front 56

208. What type of separation is defined as the spacing of aircraft at the same altitude by a minimum distance expressed in units of time or miles?
A. Lateral
B. Longitudinal
C. Vertical
D. Visual

Back 56

B. Longitudinal
( LP 4, p. 15)

Front 57

209. Standard radar separation provided by an en route facility between two aircraft at FL270 is ______ miles.
A. 3
B. 5
C. 10
D. 20

Back 57

B. 5 (LP 4, pp. 29, 30)

Front 58

210. Terminal radar separation minima require that when two aircraft are less than 40 miles from the antenna, ________ separation is required; when two aircraft are 40 miles or more from the antenna, ________ separation is required.
A. 3 miles; 5 miles
B. 3 miles; 6 miles
C. 5 miles; 3 miles
D. 5 miles; 10 miles

Back 58

A. 3 miles; 5 miles
(LP 4, p. 28)

Front 59

211. Controllers may use visual separation ________.
A. up to, but not including, FL180
B. at FL180 and below
C. up to and including 18,000 feet MSL
D. up to but not including 18,000 feet AGL

Back 59

A. up to, but not including, FL180
(LP 4, p. 35)

Front 60

215. The primary radar display depicts the ________ and ________ of objects that reflect radio energy.
A. position; altitude
B. position; movement
C. altitude; speed
D. movement; speed

Back 60

B. position; movement
(LP 6, p. 8)

Front 61

216. What are two types of radar jamming?
A. Position and passive
B. Action and active
C. Precise and passive
D. Passive and active

Back 61

D. Passive and active
(LP, p. 19)

Front 62

217. Which is not a component of a primary radar system?
A. Transmitter
B. Interrogator
C. Antenna
D. Receiver

Back 62

B. Interrogator
(LP 6, p. 6)

Front 63

218. Which radar feature reduces or eliminates echoes from precipitation?
A. Circular Polarization
B. Linear Polarization
C. Passive radar
D. Inversion

Back 63

A. Circular Polarization
(LP, p. 13)

Front 64

219. What causes Anomalous Propagation clutter on primary radar systems?
A. Particles in the air slowing the radar signal
B. Moisture in the air bending the radar signal
C. Warm air over cool air deflecting the radar signal
D. Cool air over warm air reflecting the radar signal

Back 64

B. Moisture in the air bending the radar signal
(LP, p. 16)

Front 65

220. What causes temperature inversion clutter on primary radar systems?
A. Particles in the air slowing the radar signal
B. Moisture in the air bending the radar signal
C. Warm air over cool air deflecting the radar signal
D. Cool air over warm air reflecting the radar signal

Back 65

C. Warm air over cool air deflecting the radar signal
(LP, p. 17)

Front 66

212. Runway separation is applied by ________ controllers.
A. Air Route Traffic Control Center (ARTCC)
B. Air Traffic Control Tower (ATCT)
C. Terminal Radar Approach Control (TRACON)
D. Automated Flight Service Station (AFSS)

Back 66

B. Air Traffic Control Tower (ATCT)
(LP 4, p. 37)

Front 67

213. Which radar system uses both a ground-based interrogator and an aircraft-based transponder?
A. Primary radar
B. Airport radar
C. Secondary radar
D. Global position radar

Back 67

C. Secondary radar
(LP, p. 22)

Front 68

214. What is a radio detection device which provides information on the range, azimuth, and/or elevation of objects?
A. Transponder
B. Radar
C. Nondirectional beacon
D. VORTAC

Back 68

B. Radar
(LP, p. 3)

Front 69

221. Secondary radar interference caused by a transponder replying excessively is called _______.
A. Ring around
B. Anomalous Propagation
C. Range interference
D. Inversion

Back 69

A. Ring around
(LP, p. 29)

Front 70

222.. Which of the following is an advantage of a secondary radar system?
A. It displays weather echoes.
B. It only displays aircraft with transponders.
C. Radar responses are not degraded by weather or ground clutter.
D. Signal strength is affected by aircraft orientation.

Back 70

C. Radar responses are not degraded by weather or ground clutter.
(LP, p. 30)

Front 71

223. Broadcasts interrogator transmission

Back 71

E. Antenna
(LP, p. 24)

Front 72

224. Processes transponder replies and forwards data to the radar

Back 72

C. Decoder
(LP, p. 27)

Front 73

225. Ground-based transmitter

Back 73

D. Interrogator
(LP, p. 24)

Front 74

226. Airborne receiver/transmitter

Back 74

A. Transponder
(LP, p. 26)

Front 75

227. Depicts an electronic presentation of radar-derived information.

Back 75

B. Radar display
(LP, p. 27)

Front 76

228. The purpose of an LOA is to supplement established operational procedures for ________ use.
A. regional
B. intrafacility
C. interfacility
D. military

Back 76

C. interfacility
(LP, p. 2)

Front 77

229. Which of the following is NOT an example of typical SOP content?
A. External Coordination
B. Position relief briefing
C. Equipment usage
D. Local stripmarking procedures

Back 77

A. External Coordination
(LP 8, p. 10)

Front 78

identify the content/procedures that would require the implementation of an LOA/SOP. Write A for LOA or B for SOP in the blanks provided.

230. Define coordination procedures between two air traffic facilities

Back 78

A
(LP, p. 2)

Front 79

identify the content/procedures that would require the implementation of an LOA/SOP. Write A for LOA or B for SOP in the blanks provided.

231. Define coordination procedures between internal operational positions

Back 79

B
(LP, p. 11)

Front 80

identify the content/procedures that would require the implementation of an LOA/SOP. Write A for LOA or B for SOP in the blanks provided.

232. Define coordination procedures between AFSS Inflight and ARTCC Radar Associate positions

Back 80

A
(LP, p. 3)

Front 81

identify the content/procedures that would require the implementation of an LOA/SOP. Write A for LOA or B for SOP in the blanks provided.

234. Describe operating position/sector

Back 81

B
(LP, p. 11)

Front 82

identify the content/procedures that would require the implementation of an LOA/SOP. Write A for LOA or B for SOP in the blanks provided.

235. Define coordination procedures between two control towers within the same approach control airspace

Back 82

A (
LP, p. 3)

Front 83

identify the content/procedures that would require the implementation of an LOA/SOP. Write A for LOA or B for SOP in the blanks provided.

236. Establish local stripmarking procedures

Back 83

B
(LP, p. 10)

Front 84

identify the content/procedures that would require the implementation of an LOA/SOP. Write A for LOA or B for SOP in the blanks provided.

237. Delegate the responsibility for ATC services to the tower, approach control, and the ARTCC

Back 84

A
(LP, p. 5)

Front 85

399. When used in FAA Orders JO 7110.10, JO 7110.65, and JO 7210.3, the word “should” means that the procedure is ________.

A. recommended
B. optional
C. approved
D. mandatory .

Back 85

A. recommended

Front 86

400. Letters of Agreement (LOA) are for ________ use and Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) are for ________ use.
A. intrafacility; extrafacility
B. interfacility; intrafacility
C. extrafacility; jurisdictional
D. intrafacility; interfacility

Back 86

B. interfacility; intrafacility

Front 87

401. Which of the following statements about the NAS is FALSE ?
A. NextGen is the NAS modernization program.
B. The NAS is entirely owned and operated by the FAA (
C. The NAS is continuously evolving.
D. The NAS includes ATCS, NAVAIDS, and FARs

Back 87

B. The NAS is entirely owned and operated by the FAA

Front 88

402. What information is contained in the FAA Order JO 7340.2?
A. Prescribes air traffic procedures and phraseology used by Flight Service specialists
B. Prescribes air traffic procedures and phraseology used by air traffic controllers
C. Provides direction and guidance for operating and managing Air Traffic facilities
D. Contains approved words and phrase contractions used by the FAA

Back 88

D. Contains approved words and phrase contractions used by the FAA

Front 89

403. Positive control is the ________ of all air traffic within designated airspace by ATC.
A. separation
B. observation
C. deviation
D. sequencing

Back 89

A. separation

Front 90

404. An ARTCC/TRACON is divided into areas of control jurisdiction called ________.
A. positions
B. regions
C. sectors
D. sections

Back 90

C. sectors

Front 91

405. In an ATCT, which 3 positions communicate directly with the pilots?
A. Flight Data, Local and Ground
B. Local, Clearance Delivery, and Tower Coordinator
C. Ground, Local and Clearance Delivery
D. Local, Tower Coordinator, and Flight Data

Back 91

C. Ground, Local and Clearance Delivery

Front 92

identify the content/procedures that would require the implementation of an LOA/SOP. Write A for LOA or B for SOP in the blanks provided.

233. Define responsibilities between an air traffic control facility and the Airport Manager

Back 92

A
(LP, p. 2)

Front 93

406. Traffic management programs are one of several processes administered by the Air Traffic Control System Command Center (ATCSCC) to achieve optimum use of the ________ and minimize ________ without increasing controller workload.
A. airspace, accidents
B. NAS, delays
C. ATC System, accidents
D. airports, delays

Back 93

B. NAS, delays

Front 94

407. Which document lists location identifiers authorized by the FAA?
A. FAA Order JO 7340.2
B. FAA Order JO 7110.65
C. Aeronautical Information Manual
D. FAA Order JO 7350.8

Back 94

D. FAA Order JO 7350.8

Front 95

408. Considering the operational priorities of an air traffic controller, ________ have priority over ________ aircraft.
A. VFR/IFR
B. aircraft in distress/lifeguard
C. presidential/lifeguard
D. diverted/aircraft in distress

Back 95

B. aircraft in distress/lifeguard

Front 96

409. “Automation procedures are used in preference to non-automation procedures” is an example of ATC:
A. Duty Priority
B. Procedural Preference
C. Operational Priority
D. Primary Purpose

Back 96

B. Procedural Preference

Front 97

410. The correct designation for a runway with a magnetic heading of 009 degrees is runway ________.
A. 9
B. 1
C. 01
D. 10

Back 97

B. 1

Front 98

411. Which of the following is not one of the uses of a movement area?
A. Air taxiing
B. Hover taxiing
C. Loading passengers
D. Takeoff and landing of aircraft

Back 98

C. Loading passengers

Front 99

412. Which of the following statements about airport beacons is FALSE?
A. They are turned on at night
B. They are turned on during restricted weather
C. They are turned on whenever the tower is operational
D. They identify the type of airport

Back 99

C. They are turned on whenever the tower is operational

Front 100

413. At an airport with no precision approach procedures, which of the following runway markings will NOT be present?
A. Touchdown zone
B. Runway designator
C. Runway centerline
D. Aiming point

Back 100

A. Touchdown zone

Front 101

414. “Separating aircraft and issuing safety alerts” represents an air traffic controller’s first ________.
A. Duty Priority
B. Procedural Preference
C. Operational Priority
D. Primary Purpose

Back 101

A. Duty Priority

Front 102

415. The addition, deletion, or modification of information or instructions within an order are made through a(n) ________.
A. change
B. notice
C. supplement
D. amendment

Back 102

A. change

Front 103

416. RVSM stands for ________
A. Required Visual Separation Minima
B. Reduced Vertical Separation Minima
C. Requested Visual Separation Minima
D. Required Vertical Separation Minima

Back 103

B. Reduced Vertical Separation Minima

Front 104

417. Minimum vertical separation between RVSM equipped IFR aircraft up to and including FL410 is ________ feet.
A. 1,000
B. 5,000
C. 4,000
D. 2,000

Back 104

A. 1,000

Front 105

418. Which of the following is not a method for establishing non-radar longitudinal separation?
A. Depart at a specified time
B. Arrive at a fix at a specified time
C. Clear aircraft to fly on airways which do not overlap
D. Hold at a fix until a specified time

Back 105

C. Clear aircraft to fly on airways which do not overlap

Front 106

419. When using non-radar departure divergence ___________.
A. the airport must have at least 2 runways that intersect
B. the ATCS must wait 10 minutes between successive departures
C. the ATCS must ensure visual separation exists
D. the ATCS must assign courses that diverge by at least 45 degrees

Back 106

D. the ATCS must assign courses that diverge by at least 45 degrees

Front 107

420. When using visual separation, what are the separation minima?
A. 5NM
B. 1,000 feet
C. 10 minutes
D. There are no specified minima.

Back 107

D. There are no specified minima.

Front 108

421. The minimum terminal radar separation for two IFR aircraft less than 40 miles from the antenna is ________ miles.
A. 3
B. 10
C. 5
D. 20

Back 108

A. 3

Front 109

422. A nonstandard holding pattern ________.
A. has leg lengths which must be measured in minutes
B. is one that is located at a navigational aid
C. uses left turns
D. uses right turns

Back 109

C. uses left turns

Front 110

423. Runway separation is applied by ________ controllers.
A. Air Route Traffic Control Center (ARTCC)
B. Air Traffic Control Tower (ATCT)
C. Terminal Radar Approach Control (TRACON)
D. Automated Flight Service Station (AFSS)

Back 110

B. Air Traffic Control Tower (ATCT)

Front 111

424. Who is responsible for observing and reporting the conditions of the landing area of an airport?
A. Airport manager/operator
B. Tower controller
C. Pilot
D. Flight service specialist

Back 111

A. Airport manager/operator

Front 112

425. What type of NOTAM consists of information that is regulatory in nature, pertaining to flight, including but not limited to changes to IFR charts, procedures, and airspace usage?
A. NOTAM D
B. FDC NOTAM
C. Military NOTAM
D. Pointer NOTAM

Back 112

B. FDC NOTAM

Front 113

426. A feature which improves a primary radar display is:
A. Moving target indicator
B. Anomalous propagation
C. Temperature inversion
D. Ring around

Back 113

A. Moving target indicator

Front 114

427. Which radar system relies on reflected radio signals and does NOT require equipment in aircraft?

A. Primary radar
B. Secondary radar
C. Airport radar
D. Positive radar

Back 114

A. Primary radar

Front 115

428. Which of the following is a component of a secondary radar system?
A. Moving Target Indicator
B. Circular polarization
C. Receiver
D. Transponder

Back 115

D. Transponder

Front 116

429. An advantage of secondary radar over primary radar is it's ______.
A. longer range
B. ability to switch from linear polarization to circular polarization
C. improved weather display
D. display of any object which reflects radio energy

Back 116

A. longer range

Front 117

430. Which document provides direction and guidance for operating and managing Air Traffic facilities?
A. FAA Order JO 7110.10
B. FAA Order JO 7210.3
C. Aeronautical Information Manual
D. Terminal Phraseology Guide

Back 117

B. FAA Order JO 7210.3

Front 118

431. Which document prescribes air traffic procedures and phraseology used by Flight Service specialists?
A. FAA Order JO 7210.3
B. FAA Order JO 7110.10
C. Aeronautical Information Manual
D. FAA Order JO 7110.65

Back 118

B. FAA Order JO 7110.10

Front 119

432. Advising the En Route Radar and Radar Associate positions of sector actions required to accomplish the safe and efficient operation of the sector is a responsibility of the En Route ________ position.
A. radar coordinator/handoff
B. radar flight data
C. clearance delivery
D. traffic management

Back 119

A. radar coordinator/handoff

Front 120

433. Which AFSS position uses the radio call sign "Flight Watch"
A. EFAS
B. Inflight
C. Broadcast
D. Preflight

Back 120

A. EFAS

Front 121

434. Airmen’s information can be disseminated via Aeronautical Charts and _______.
A. satellite communications
B. facility directives
C. flight information publications
D. FAA orders

Back 121

C. flight information publications

Front 122

435. Which document contains items concerning pilot’s health and medical facts, factors affecting flight safety, and accident reporting?
A. FAA Order JO 7110.10
B. FAA Order JO 7210.3
C. Aeronautical Information Manual
D. Terminal Phraseology Guide

Back 122

C. Aeronautical Information Manual

Front 123

436. The purpose of a “Supplement” is ________.
A. temporary direction for a situation requiring immediate action
B. to add, delete, or modify information or instructions within an order
C. to make one-time announcements
D. to consolidate instructions from different levels into a single directive

Back 123

D. to consolidate instructions from different levels into a single directive

Front 124

437. Which of the following is an example of a temporary directive?
A. Supplements
B. LOA
C. GENOT
D. Orders

Back 124

C. GENOT

Front 125

438. Taxiway centerline lights emit ______.
A. steady green lights
B. flashing green lights
C. alternating green and blue lights
D. steady blue lights

Back 125

A. steady green lights (LP 3, p. 33)

Front 126

564. Positive control is the ________ of all air traffic within designated airspace by ATC.

Back 126

separation
(7110.65; LP 1, p. 15)

Front 127

565. The first duty priority of an air traffic controller is ________.

Back 127

separating traffic and issuing safety alerts
(7110.65; LP 1, p. 16)

Front 128

566. Rotating airport beacons flashing white and green at regular intervals identifies what type of airport?

Back 128

Lighted land airport
(AIM; LP 3, p. 29)

Front 129

567. What type of separation is defined as the spacing of aircraft at the same altitude by a minimum distance expressed in units of time or miles?

Back 129

Longitudinal
(7110.65; LP 4, p. 15)

Front 130

568. Assigning departing aircraft headings which diverge by at least 45 degrees is an example of ________ separation.

Back 130

lateral
(7110.65; LP 4, p. 14)

Front 131

569. This NOTAM consists of information that requires wide dissemination and pertains to En route navigational aids, airports listed in the Airport Facility Directory (AFD), facilities and services.

Back 131

NOTAM D
(7930.2; LP 5, p. 6)

Front 132

570. Which of the following is not a component of a secondary radar system?

Back 132

Receiver
(ETM 12-0-1; LP 6, p. 23)

Front 133

571. Which of the following is a disadvantage of a secondary radar system?

Back 133

Only displays aircraft with transponders
(ETM 12-0-1; LP 6, p. 30)

Front 134

572. This document provides the aviation community with basic flight information and ATC procedures for use in the United States National Airspace System (NAS).

Back 134

Aeronautical Information Manual
(AIM) (AIM; LP 7, p. 18)

Front 135

613. The ________ position in the ATC terminal option is normally responsible for issuing control instructions to aircraft and vehicles operating in the airport movement area.
A. Local Control
B. Ground Control
C. Clearance Delivery
D. Flight Data

Back 135

B. Ground Control
(7110.65; LP 1, p. 34)

Front 136

614. Which is not a function of the Radar position in the ARTCC?
A. Maintain direct communication with aircraft
B. Scan radar display
C. Make weather observations
D. Ensure separation

Back 136

C. Make weather observations
(7110.65; LP 1, p. 44)

Front 137

615. An Automated Flight Service Station has the primary function of providing ________.
A. pilot briefings and receiving and processing flight plans
B. air traffic control services to aircraft operating in the vicinity of an airport or on the movement area
C. advisory service to VFR aircraft and control service to IFR aircraft
D. control service to aircraft on an IFR flight plan operating outside of controlled airspace

Back 137

A. pilot briefings and receiving and processing flight plans (7110.10; LP 1, p.24)

Front 138

616. The correct designation for a runway with a magnetic heading of 009 degrees is runway ________.
A. 36
B. 1
C. 01
D. 10

Back 138

B. 1
(AIM; LP 3, p. 5)

Front 139

617. Minimum radar separation between two aircraft at FL 200 in ARTCC airspace is ________ miles.
A. 3
B. 5
C. 10
D. 20

Back 139

B. 5
(7110.65; LP 4, p. 29)

Front 140

618. When applying vertical separation, RVSM status of an aircraft is a consideration between which altitudes?
A. FL 180, up to and including FL 450
B. FL 450, up to and including FL 600
C. FL 290, up to and including FL 410
D. FL 180, up to and including FL 290

Back 140

C. FL 290, up to and including FL 410
(7110.65; LP 4, p. 11)

Front 141

619. A/An _______ is a predetermined maneuver which keeps an aircraft within a specified airspace while awaiting further clearance from air traffic control.
A. holding procedure
B. approach procedure
C. procedure turn
D. auto-rotation

Back 141

A. holding procedure (7110.65; LP 4, p. 42)

Front 142

620. The two subsystems for disseminating aeronautical information are ________.
A. AIS and NOTAMs
B. NFDC and NOTAMs
C. NAS and NFDC
D. AIS and AFSS

Back 142

A. AIS and NOTAMs
(7930.2; LP 5, p. 3)

Front 143

621. The primary radar display depicts the ________ and ________ of objects that reflect radio energy.
A. position; altitude
B. position; movement
C. altitude; speed
D. movement; speed

Back 143

B. position; movement
(ETM 12-0-1; LP 6, p. 8)

Front 144

622. Which of the following is an example of a temporary directive, e.g., a notice that needs to be distributed immediately?
A. Supplements
B. LOA
C. GENOT
D. GETS

Back 144

C. GENOT
(1320.1; LP 7, p. 16)

Front 145

623. Letters of Agreement (LOA) are for ________ use and Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) are for ________ use.
A. intrafacility; extrafacility
B. interfacility; intrafacility
C. extrafacility; jurisdictional
D. intrafacility; interfacility

Back 145

B. interfacility; intrafacility (7210.3; LP 8, p. 2 and 9)

Front 146

664. Traffic management programs are one of several processes administered by the Air Traffic Control System Command Center (ATCSCC) to achieve optimum use of the ________ and minimize ________ without increasing controller workload.
A. airspace, accidents
B. NAS, delays
C. ATC System, accidents
D. airports, delays

Back 146

B. NAS, delays
(7210.3 and 7110.65; LP 1, p. 52)

Front 147

665. The facility that provides radar approach and departure control services to aircraft operating in the vicinity of one of more airports in a terminal area is a ________.
A. TRACON
B. ATCT
C. ARTCC
D. AFSS

Back 147

A. TRACON
(7110.65; LP 1, p. 37)

Front 148

666. Which of the following is not one of the uses of a movement area?
A. Air taxiing
B. Hover taxiing
C. Loading passengers
D. Takeoff and landing of aircraft

Back 148

C. Loading passengers (7110.65; LP 3, p. 2)

Front 149

667. Runway separation is applied by ________ controllers.
A. Air Route Traffic Control Center (ARTCC)
B. Air Traffic Control Tower (ATCT)
C. Terminal Radar Approach Control (TRACON)
D. Automated Flight Service Station (AFSS)

Back 149

B. Air Traffic Control Tower (ATCT)
(7110.65; LP 4, p. 37)

Front 150

668. Controllers may use visual separation ________.
A. up to, but not including, FL180
B. at FL180 and below
C. up to and including 18,000 feet MSL
D. up to but not including 18,000 feet AGL

Back 150

A. up to, but not including, FL180
(7110.65; LP 4, p. 35)

Front 151

669. The office/person responsible for reporting the conditions of the landing area of an airport is the ______.
A. Air Traffic Manager
B. airport manager/operator
C. tie-in AFSS
D. local controller

Back 151

B. airport manager/operator (7930.2; LP 5, p. 15)

Front 152

670. In FAA Order 7110.65, the word used to specify that a procedure is mandatory is ________.
A. shall
B. may
C. should
D. will

Back 152

A. shall
(7110.65; LP 7, p. 21)