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106 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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1. What is the approximate percentage of oxygen, nitrogen and other gases at 18,000 feet MSL?
a. 21 percent oxygen, 78 percent nitrogen and 1 percent other gases. b. 15 percent oxygen, 39 percent nitrogen and 0.015 other gases. c. 78 percent oxygen, 21 percent nitrogen and 3 percent other gases. |
1. a
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2. Which of the following is the best description of atmospheric pressure and its cause?
a. The combined weight of all the atmospheric gases which is caused by thermal and solar radiation. b. The combined weight of all the atmospheric gases which is caused by gravity pulling the gas molecules earthward and thermal and solar radiation expanding the gases outward toward space. c. The weight of gas around the Earth which is caused by thermal and solar radiation. |
2. b
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3. What are the common units used to measure atmospheric pressure?
a. Inches of mercury (inHg) b. Millimeters of mercury (mmHg) c. Pounds per square inch (psi) d. All the above are correct. |
3. d
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4. Which of the following represents the notation for the partial pressure of gases?
a. PPO2 partial pressure of oxygen, PPCO2 partial pressure of carbon dioxide, PPN2 partial pressure of nitrogen. b. PO2 partial pressure of oxygen, PCO2 partial pressure of carbon dioxide, PN2 partial pressure of nitrogen. c. psi O2 partial pressure of oxygen, psi CO2 partial pressure of carbon dioxide, psi N2 partial pressure of nitrogen. |
4. b
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5. PO2 increases and the percentage of oxygen decreases as the altitude increases.
a. True b. False |
5. b
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6. What is the temperature lapse rate up to approximately 35,000 feet?
a. About 2 °C per 1,000 feet b. 3.25 °C per 1,000 feet c. About 1 °C per 2,000 feet |
6. a
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7. The human body is adapted to which physiological division of the atmosphere?
a. Space equivalent zone b. Physiological deficient zone c. Physiological efficient zone d. Physiological zone |
7. d
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8. Match each gas law with its explanation
a. ____ Boyle’s law b. ____ Henry’s law c. ____ Dalton’s law d. ____ Charles’ law e. ____ Law of gaseous diffusion A. Explains why the temperature increases in a cylinder that is being pressurized. B. Explains why a balloon expands as it ascends and also why a volume of air expands when trapped in a body cavity when the pressure is reduced around it. C. Explains how oxygen moves out of the lungs into the bloodstream. D. Explains why a soda pop bubbles after it is opened. E. Explains how exposure to a high altitude can reduce the available oxygen |
8. a.B
b.D c.E d.A e.C |
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1. The purpose of respiration is to get __________________ into the body and remove excess
__________________ _____________. |
1. oxygen, carbon dioxide
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2. What is/are the site(s) of gas exchange in the lung between the atmosphere and the blood?
a. Trachea b. Bronchi c. Alveoli d. All the above are correct. |
2. c
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3. What is the normal breathing rate of an average adult?
a. 8-10 breaths per minute b. 10-12 breaths per minute c. 12-16 breaths per minute d. 20-22 breaths per minute |
3. c
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4. What is the most important factor in the control of ventilation under normal conditions?
a. PCO2 b. PO2 c. Red blood cells d. White blood cells |
4. a
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5. What is the main function of red blood cells?
a. Fight infections b. Carry oxygen c. Transport nutrients d. All the above are correct. |
5. b
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1. During ascent (as ambient pressure decreases), gases trapped within body cavities will __________________.
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1. expand
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2. The four areas of the body influenced by the mechanical effects of trapped gases are:
a. b. c. d. |
2. a.ears
b.sinuses c.G. I. tract d.teeth |
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3. What is the best method of preventing problems with the ears and sinuses in-flight?
a. Breathe 100 percent oxygen under positive pressure. b. Do not fly with a cold. c. Perform the Valsalva maneuver frequently on descent. |
3. b
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4. Enter the type of DCS (1-4) beside the following symptoms:
a. ______ Deep, dull boring pain in a joint b. ______ Deep, sharp pain centrally located under the sternum Figure 3-5 — Denitrogenation UNCLASSIFIED UNCLASSIFIED 26 c. ______ Difficulty with inspiration d. ______ Visual disturbance e. ______ Mottled and diffuse rash f. ______ Pain may involve the muscles g. ______ Itching sensation h. ______ Partial paralysis, loss of speech or hearing i. ______ Severe, persistent headache j. ______ Vertigo, loss of orientation. k. ______ Tingling of one arm, leg or side of the body l. ______ Usually occurs in shoulders, knees, elbows and ankles 1. Bends 2. Chokes 3. Skin manifestations 4. Central nervous system (neurological manifestations) |
4. a.1
b.2 c.2 d.4 e.3 f.1 g.3 h.4 i.4 j.4 k.4 l.1 |
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5. DCS is caused by _______________________ coming out of solution in the tissues and blood.
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5. nitrogen
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6. List, in order, the corrective actions for any suspected or observed DCS.
a. ________________ oxygen. b. ________________ the affected area. c. ________________ as soon as practical. d. Obtain ________________ ________________ (flight surgeon). e. ________________ therapy (if required). |
6. a.100% or maximum
b.immobilize c.land d. medical assistance e.hyperbaric |
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7. Adequate protection against DCS can be established by __________________ ________________ and or
_______________. |
7. cabin pressure, denitrogenation
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8. The USAF and USN forbid flight within _______________ hours of a compressed air exposure for all normal
flying operations. |
8. 24
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9. ________________ is a state of oxygen deficiency in the blood, cells or tissues sufficient to cause an impairment
of function. |
Hypoxia
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10. ________________ ________________ is usually caused by exposure to low barometric pressure.
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Hypoxic hypoxia
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11. Enter the type of hypoxia (1-4) resulting from the following causes:
a. ______ Loss of cabin pressurization b. ______ Cold temperatures c. ______ Shock d. ______ Alcohol e. ______ Drugs f. ______ Carbon monoxide UNCLASSIFIED UNCLASSIFIED 27 g. ______ Cyanide h. ______ Hyperventilation i. ______ Oxygen equipment malfunctions j. ______ Improper use of oxygen equipment k. ______ “G” forces l. ______ Blood donation 1. Hypoxic hypoxia 2. Stagnant hypoxia 3. Hypemic hypoxia 4. Histotoxic hypoxia |
a.1
b.2 c.2 d.4 e.4 f.3 g.4 h.2 i.1 j.1 k.2 l.3 |
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12. The most dangerous characteristic of hypoxia is its ________________ ________________.
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insidious onset
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13. Place a check mark beside the signs/symptoms normally associated with hypoxia.
a. ______ Bluing (cyanosis) b. ______ Impaired vision c. ______ Muscle ache d. ______ Hot or cold flashes e. ______ Dizziness f. ______ Light headedness g. ______ Loss of muscle coordination h. ______ Apprehension i. ______ Feeling of well being j. ______ Pain on inhalation k. ______ Tingling l. ______ Pain m. ______ Impaired judgment/confusion |
a, b, d, e, f, g, h, i, k, l, m
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14. The time of onset of hypoxia and the severity of symptoms are identical with all crewmembers from one day to
the next. a. True b. False |
b
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15. ________________ of ________________ ________________ is the period of time from the interruption of the
oxygen supply or exposure to an oxygen poor environment, to the time when useful function is lost. |
time, useful consciousness
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16. Which of the following factors decrease TUC?
a. Increased physical activity b. Stress c. Sufficient oxygen supplies d Hypoxia (histotoxic, hypemic, stagnant) e. Rapid decompression f. Anxiety g. Increased altitude |
a, b, d, e, f, g
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17. A________________ ________________ can reduce your TUC by as much as ________________ percent.
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rapid decompression, 50%
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18. Hyperventilation is a condition in which the ________________ and or ________________ of breathing is
abnormally increased. |
rate, depth
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19. Hyperventilation causes an excessive loss of ________________ ________________ from the lungs and blood
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carbon dioxide
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20. List five signs and five symptoms of hyperventilation.
Signs a. b. c. d. e. Symptoms a. b. c. d. e. |
signs
a.muscle tightness/spasms b.increased rate/depth of breathing c.paleness d.cold, clammy skin e.unconsciousness symptoms a.dizziness b.faintness c.slight nausea d. numbness e.tingling f.coolness g.muscle tremors |
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21. The most frequent cause of hyperventilation in flying training is stress.
a. True b. False |
a
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22. Hyperventilation can be voluntarily induced or corrected by consciously increasing or decreasing your rate and
depth of breathing. a. True b. False |
a
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23. Complete the crewmember’s emergency procedures for the treatment of hyperventilation and or hypoxia.
a. _____________ oxygen under _____________ b. Connections — c. Breathe at a _____________ and depth slightly less than normal until symptoms _____________. d. Descend below _____________ feet MSL and land as soon as _____________. |
23. a.maximum, pressure
b.Check security c.rate, disappear d.10,000, possible |
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1. The main reasons for aircraft pressurization are to
a. reduce/prevent and control trapped gas expansion. b. eliminate pressure breathing and 100 percent oxygen. c. reduce/prevent decompression sickness and hypoxia. |
1. c
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2. List additional advantages of aircraft pressurization.
a. b. c. d. |
2. a.reduced need for supplemental oxygen
b.reduced expansion of G.I. gas c.control temperature and humidity d. move with encumbrance of oxygen equipment e.minimize fatigue f.protect ears/sinuses from rapid pressure change |
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3. The primary, and most critical, disadvantage of aircraft pressurization is the potential for a ________________.
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3. decompression
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1. The retina is the innermost layer of tissue of the eye.
a. True b. False |
1. a
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2. The rods and cones are light sensitive cells distributed over the retina.
a. True b. False |
2. a
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3. Determine if the following are characteristics of (A) the rod cells or (B) the cone cells:
a. Most dense at the periphery of the retina b. Require high light levels to function c. Allow you to see gray tones under conditions of dim light d. Densest in the center of the retina e. Provide for peripheral vision f. Allow you to see detail under bright light conditions g. More sensitive to light |
3. a. A
b.B c.A d.B e.A f.B g.A |
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4. What is the primary function of focal vision?
a. To orient oneself to the environment b. Recognize and identify objects c. Monitor fluctuations in high-light levels d. Conscious perception of peripheral cues |
4. b
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5. What is the primary function of peripheral vision?
a. Conscious perception of peripheral cues b. Recognize and identify objects c. Monitor fluctuations in low-light levels d. To orient oneself relative to the environment |
5. d
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6. An object requires less motion to be seen in a clear blue sky than an object in a partly cloudy sky.
a. True b. False |
6. b
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7. In midair collisions, the primary peripheral visual cue of ________________ is not available. Therefore, you
must acquire the target aircraft with your ________________ vision, using the scanning technique |
7. motion, central
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8. Perception/reaction time is affected by physiological and perceptual limitations.
a. True b. False |
8. a
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9. Maximum scanning effectiveness is achieved by a series of short (long enough for the eye to focus), regularly
spaced eye fixations. a. True b. False |
9. a
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10. What is the acronym used for reporting laser exposures?
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10. LASER
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1. The retina contains two blind spots, the ___________ blind spot formed by the optic disk and the __________
blind spot caused by the concentration of cones in the fovea. a. Night, anatomical b. Day, night c. Anatomical, night d. Night, day |
1. c
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2. _____ are found outside the fovea and in the peripheral areas of the retina.
a. Rods b. Cones |
2. b
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1. Briefly describe the cues for recognizing a loss of situational awareness.
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1. b.
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2. Match each listed item to a CRM concept.
a. _____ is the interruption of conscious attention to a task by a non-task-related cue. You can be distracted by external cues (noise, lights, etc.) and internal cues (marital problems, financial problems, your desire to excel, etc.). b. ________ occurs when there is too much to attend to at one time. c. ______ is the adaptation and subsequent inattention to a cue. d. ________ is due to something learned so well that it’s performed at a subconscious level; however, in a new or different situation, the old response is inappropriate. e. ______ is the focusing of conscious attention on a limited number of environmental cues to the exclusion of others of higher or more immediate priority. It is the number one human performance factor causing a loss of situational awareness. 1. Channelized attention 2. Task saturation 3. Distraction 4. Habituation 5. Negative transfer |
2.
a.3 b.2 c.4 d.5 e.1 |
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3. Placing unnecessary demands on yourself or equipment beyond known limitations describes which inappropriate
motivation? a. Misdirected peer pressure b. Pressing c. Supervisory pressure d. Get-home-itis |
3. b
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4. Briefly describe the tools for preventing lost situational awareness
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4.
a. IM SAFE b pre and post flight briefings c while in flight, planning for the next phase of flight d. stay ahead of aircraft e. always have a way out f. delegating tasks |
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5. What are some techniques that can be used to recover from lost situational awareness?
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a. aviage, navegate, communicate
b. prioritize tasks: aviate; mission critical; noncritical c. communicate d. declary an emergency |
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1. Match the categories of spatial disorientation (SDO) to the correct characteristics.
a. Unrecognized SDO (Type I) b. Recognized SDO (Type II) c. Incapacitating SDO (Type III) 1. The least dangerous 2. Rarely experienced, but dangerous 3. The most dangerous |
1. a3
b.1 c.2 |
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2. List the 4 sensory systems enabling you to maintain orientation, equilibrium and balance.
a. b. c. d. |
2. a.visual
b.vestibular c.seat-of-the-pants d.auditory |
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3. The system primarily used for orientation is the ________________ system. In the absence of
________________cues, the ________________system becomes dominant. |
3. visual, visual, vestibular
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4. The primary means the visual system uses to collect orientation cues is ________________ ________________.
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4. peripheral vision
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5. The vestibular system’s two subsystems are the ________________ ________________ and the
________________ ________________. |
5. semicircular canals, otolith organs
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6. The ________________ ________________ detect angular accelerations and are responsible for
________________ illusions. |
6. semicircular canal, somatogyral
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7. The ________________ ________________ detect linear accelerations and are responsible for
________________ illusions. |
7. otolith organs, somatogravic
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8. The ________________ system is useless as an orientation system in the absence of accurate visual cues.
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8. somatosensory
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9. Match the following somatogyral illusions to the correct definitions.
a. ______ The Leans b. ______ The Graveyard Spin/Spiral c. ______ The Coriolis Illusion 1. Results when you move your head out of a plane of motion and perceive a tumbling sensation. 2. Set up by a roll rate below the threshold of 0.14°/sec2 to 0.5°/sec2 and then correcting with a roll in the opposite direction at a roll rate greater than the threshold. 3. Results when you correct for a spin or spiral and sense you have entered a spin in the opposite direction or are turning in the opposite direction. |
9. a.2
b.3 c.1 |
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10. Somatogravic illusions result from the stimulation of which organs?
a. Semicircular canals b. Eustachian tubes c. Otolith organs d. Tactile pressure receptors |
10. c
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11. The ________________ ________________ occurs when the aircraft is in a turn and you are head-up looking
towards the inside of the turn or head-down looking towards the outside of the turn. |
11. G-excess effect
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12. The interconnection of the vestibular system with the visual system causes _________________: a reflexive
response of the eyes to stimulation of the semicircular or otolith organs. |
12. nystagmus
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13. Like all other vestibular illusions, the elevator illusion is increased when external visual cues are limited or
absent. a. True b. False |
13. a
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14. Determine if the following statements refer to (A) environmental or (B) physiological factors influencing
susceptibility to spatial disorientation. a. ______ You have little or no control over b. ______ Mental and physical fatigue c. ______ Alcohol and self-medication d. ______ You have some control over e. ______ Flight weather f. ______ Type and duration of mission |
14. a. A
b. B c. B d. B e. A f. A |
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15. List three methods you can use to prevent or minimize the threat of spatial disorientation.
a. b. c. |
15. a. understand limitations
b. remedy correctable factors c. use capabilities properly d. recognize high-risk situations e. stay alert! |
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16. List four techniques you can use to overcome spatial disorientation.
a. b. c. d. |
16. a. transition to instruments
b. believe the instruments c. back-up the pilot flying on instruments d. minimize head movements e. fly straight and level f. be prepared to transfer/assume control g. egress |
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17. Motion sickness increases if good outside visual references exist.
a. True b. False |
17. b
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1. Noise is ________________ ________________.
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1. unwanted sound
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2. The primary characteristics of noise concerning crewmembers are ________________, ________________, and
________________. |
2. intensity, frequency, duration
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3. The number of times (each second) compression and rarification of air occurs is ________________.
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3. hertz
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4. Noise (sound) intensity perceived by the human ear is measured in ________________.
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4. decibels
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5. The two types of hearing loss you can suffer are ________________ hearing loss and ________________
hearing loss. |
5. conductive, sensorineural
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6. Crewmembers on the flightline are being exposed to 97 dB of noise. Their time of maximum unprotected
exposure to this noise before they must leave is ________________ minutes |
6. 30
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7. What is the most practical method of noise protection for you?
a. ANR headset b. Combination of protective devices c. Flight helmet d. Ear plugs |
7. b
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8. Select the statements describing vibration.
a. Approximate range hazardous to humans is 1 to 100 Hz. b. Relaxes the crewmember. c. Occurs throughout the frequency spectrum. d. Midfrequency and intensity are of most concern. |
8. a,c
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9. Select the effects of severe vibration on crewmember performance.
a. Low frequency vibrations can significantly impair horizontal tracking, increasing tracking error by up to 40 percent. b. Vibration reduces reaction time for those events/tasks executed at the conscious level. c. Vibration can cause blurred vision and degrade visual acuity. d. Vibration is a major contributor to fatigue |
9.c,d
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1. An F-15E crew is on takeoff roll. They accelerate to 165 KIAS in 10 seconds. They experience
________________ acceleration and ________________ G forces. |
1. linear, transverse
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2. An F-18 rolls into a dive toward a target, releases weapons, and begins a pullout. He is climbing, turning, and
increasing speed from 360 KIAS to 450 KIAS. This time the pilot experiences ________________ acceleration. |
2. angular
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3. A positive Gz force is defined as the force being applied from the ________________ toward the
________________. |
3. head, feet
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4. Define negative Gz force.
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4. force acting from feet to head
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5. An aircrew is having problems figuring out the attitude of their aircraft. As the pilot makes a control input, the
crew experiences congestion in their heads and lightweight feeling. What type of G force causes these symptoms? a. Transverse b. Negative c. Positive |
5. b
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6. List the five factors determining the physical effects of G forces.
a. b. c. d. e. |
6. a.magnitude
b.rate c.duration d.direction e.previous exposure |
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7. Why would it be unadvisable to give aircraft control back to a crewmember immediately after recovering
consciousness after a G-LOC incident? |
7. G-LOC victims may be disoriented for some
time after regaining consciousness |
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8. During a dual T-6A sortie, a student pulls 5 Gs in less than a second and experiences a G-LOC. When questioned
by an Aerospace and Operational Physiology Officer about symptoms, the student said grayout or blackout did not occur prior to the G-LOC. Why would the student not experience any visual cues prior to G-LOC? |
8. Rapid G-onset rate gives little or no visual
warning prior to G-LOC |
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9. The elements of the AGSM are
a. ________________ ________________ tensing. b. ________________ breathing. |
9. a. skeletal muscle
b.cyclic |
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10. The most common cause of G-LOC is an improperly performed AGSM. What do the most common errors
involve? a. ________________ ________________ b. ________________of the ________________ c. Insufficient ________________ ________________ muscle ________________. |
10. a.breathing cycle
b.timing, strain c.lower body, tensing |
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11. A properly performed AGSM can increase your +Gz tolerance by as much as 4 Gs.
a. True b. False |
11. a
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12. Differentiate between blackout and G-LOC.
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12. G-LOC results in unconsciousness whereas
blackout results in vision loss only |
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13. You can decrease your overall G tolerance by not eating properly and/or getting insufficient rest.
a. True b. False |
13. a
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14. Determine if the following effects of acceleration are caused by (A) +Gz or (B) -Gz.
a. ______ Visual loss (grayout) b. ______ Headache c. ______ Mental confusion d. ______ Blood pooling in lower extremities e. ______ Extreme feeling of congestion in the head f. ______ Feeling of increased weight with resultant loss of mobility g. ______ Blackout and possible unconsciousness |
14. a. A.
b. B c. B d. A e. B f. A g. A |
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1. Match the type of OTC drug with its undesirable side effects.
a. ______ Decongestants b. ______ Antihistamines c. ______ Vasoconstrictors d. ______ Pain killers e. ______ Diet pills 1. Stomach irritation, dizziness, skin rashes, heartburn, blurred vision 2. Nervousness, tremors, increased blood pressure and heart rate, dehydration due to increased sweating, sleep disturbances 3. Shakiness, increased heart rate, blurred vision, increased dehydration, dizziness, nausea, headaches 4. Dizziness, blurred vision, tremors, headaches 5. Drowsiness, diminished alertness, increased reaction times |
1. a.3
b.5 c.4 d.1 e.2 |
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2a. Air Force policy does not allow crewmembers to fly within _________ hours after consuming alcoholic
beverages. Furthermore, you must not act as a crewmember of an aircraft while under the influence of alcohol or its __________________. |
2a. 12, aftereffects
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2b. Navy Policy is _________ hours from bottle to ___________.
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2b. 12, mission plan (brief)
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3. What is the best way to avoid the effects alcohol has on your performance as a crewmember?
a. Do not fly within 24 hours after consuming alcoholic beverages. b. Drink only beer; it has lower alcohol content. c. Practice abstinence. d. Eat plenty of food before you drink alcohol and drink plenty of coffee the next day. |
3. c
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4. What is the immediate danger of carbon monoxide from cigarette smoke?
a. It inhibits the body’s ability to remove nitrogen during denitrogenation. b. It inhibits the blood’s oxygen carrying capacity. c. It increases your chance of mouth and gum cancer. d. It acts as a depressant on the central nervous system. |
4. b
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5. Bagels, pretzels, granola bars, fresh fruits, vegetables, etc. are recommended snacks containing complex
carbohydrates. What is the advantage of these foods over a coke and a candy bar? |
5. avoids hypoglycemia
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6. List five signs and symptoms of dehydration.
a. b. c. d. e. |
6. a. thirst
b.sleepiness c.nausea d.mental impairment e.fatigue |
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7. Chronic fatigue is caused by the normal daily activities of a crewmember and is remedied with a good night’s
sleep and rest. a. True b. False |
7. b
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8. Caffeinated beverages can increase your dehydration rate. As a result, your _________ and _________ fatigue
increases and your _________ decreases as you become dehydrated. |
8. mental, physical, performance
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9. Identify four methods of combating stress in the flying environment.
a. b. c. d. |
9. a. place demands into perspective
b. maintain a healthy diversity in your life c. eliminate self-imposed stress d. exercise |
