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192 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Starting with your OIC, name the different individuals in your chain of command, up to and including BUMED.
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CAPT James Norton, OIC NSTI
CAPT Lee Cornforth, CO NOMI CAPT Barton Welbourn, CO NMPT&E, RADM Vinci, CO NAVMED Support Command (NSC), VADM Adam M. Robinson, Jr., Surgeon General and CO, BUMED. |
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Who is the current Surgeon General of the Navy?
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VADM Adam M. Robinson, Jr.
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Who is the current CNO as of February, 2009?
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ADM Gary Roughead
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Who is the current SECNAV, as of February, 2009?
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SECNAV Donald Winter
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Who is the current SECDEF, as of February, 2009?
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SECDEF William Gates
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Who is the current Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy (MCPON) as of February, 2009?
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MCPON Rick West
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Who is the current Commandant of the United States Marine Corps, as of February, 2009?
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General James Conway
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Who is the current CO, MAG 26?
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COL Rudder
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Who is the current CO, MAG 14?
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COL Vest
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Who is the current CO, MAG 29?
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COL Haines
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Who is the current CO, MAG 31?
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COL Brinegar
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Who is the current CO, 2MAW?
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Major General Flock
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Name the squadrons attached to MAG 14.
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VMA-223, VMA-231, VMA-542, VMAQ-1, VMAQ-2, VMAQ-3, VMAQ-4, VMAT-203, VMGR-252, VMGRT-253
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Name the squadrons attached to MAG 26.
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HMM-264, VMM-261, VMM-266, VMM-204
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Name the squadrons attached to MAG 29.
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HMH-366, HMH-461, HMH-464, HMLA-167, HMLA-269, HMLA-467, HMM-264, HMM-365, HMT-302, VMM-162, VMM-261, VMM-266, VMM-263
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Name the squadrons attached to MAG 31.
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VMFA-115, VMFA-122, VMFA-251, VMFA-312, VMFA(AW)-224, VMFA(AW)-533
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Who is our current detailer (Feb 09)?
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CDR Eggert
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Who is our current specialty leader (Feb 09)?
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CAPT Syring
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What is the chain of command for MAG 26?
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CO, MAG 26
CO, 2MAW CO, MARFORCOM CMC SECNAV SECDEF Vice President President |
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Who is the Deputy Director, Medical Service Corps (Feb 09)?
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CAPT Boman
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Who is the current Director, Medical Service Corps (Feb 09)?
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RDML Mittleman
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Starting with the team, name the elements of command in the USMC
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Team, Squad, Platoon, Company (or Battery), Battalion, Regiment, Division
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What is the Marine "rule of three"?
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The Rule of Three in the United States Marine Corps refers to the numbers that a Marine should expect to see in their command element. For example, there are three men on a fire team, commanded by a Corporal, the team leader. There are three fire teams to a rifle squad, commanded by a sergeant. There are three rifle squads to a platoon, commanded by a Lt (O1-O2), three rifle platoons to a company (CPT-O3), three companies to a battalion (LtCol-O5), etc.
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What is the lowest USMC element of command that has its own HQ element?
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Company/Battery
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What is a MEU?
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Marine Expeditionary Unit
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What comprises a MEU?
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MEUs typically start with a reinforced battalion, a composite aircraft squadron, and a service support group.
MEUs are commanded by a COL (O6). |
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How is a MEU typically deployed?
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Naval Amphibious ships (up to 4)
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What elements comprise the MEU?
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Command Element (CE)
Ground Combat Element (GCE) Aviation Combat Element (ACE) MEU Logistics Group (MLG) |
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What assets may an ACE have on any given deployment?
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ACE is typically a Marine Medium Helicopter Squadron augmented with other types of helicopters and fixed wing aircraft.
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How are USMC aviation commands structured?
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Squadron, Group, Wing.
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Name some non-flying types of USMC squadrons.
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Marine Aviation Logistics Supply, Marine Wing Support, Marine Air Control, Marine Air Support (airfield specific), Marine Tactical Air Command, Marine Wing Communications, Marine Wing HQs (admin).
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Define HMLA, HMH, and HMM (REIN)
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HMLA = Marine Light Attack Helicopter Squadron
HMH = Marine Heavy Helicopter Squadron HMM (REIN) = Marine Medium Helicopter Squadron (reinforced) |
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What helicopter can be found in an HMM?
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CH-46 Sea Knight
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What aircraft is replacing the CH-46 Sea Knight?
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MV-22 Osprey
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What changes in an HMM when it is converted to an MV-22 Osprey squadron?
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Designation changes from HMM to VMM
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What helicopter can be found in an HMLA squadron?
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AH-1W Super Cobra
AH-1Z Viper UH-1 Huey UH-1Y Venom |
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What helicopter can be found in an HMH squadron?
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CH-53E Super Stallion
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What unit stationed at MCAS Cherry Point does not belong to MAG 14?
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HMH-366, "Hammerheads" - they are attached to MAG-29.
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In squadron designations, what is the difference between a "V" and an "H"? (For example, VMM versus HMM)
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V denotes a fixed-wing or tiltrotor squadron, while H denotes a rotary-wing squadron.
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Define MALS
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MALS stands for Marine Aviation Logistics Squadron. MAG-26 has MALS-26, MAG-29 has MALS-29, etc.
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What does the G in G-3 stand for?
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G stands for General, as in General Headquarters, or an organization commanded by a general officer.
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Define G-1, G-2, G-3, G-4, G-5, G-6, G-7, G-8, and G-9.
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1 = Personnel/Admin
2 = Intelligence/Security 3 = Operations 4 = Logistics 5 = Plans 6 = Signal/Communications 7 = Training 8 = Finance 9 = Civil Affairs G = staff commanded by a general |
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What elements in the USMC may have generals commanding them?
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Marine Expeditionary Force (MEF), Marine division (MARDIV), Marine Air Wing (MAW), Marine Expeditionary Brigade (MEB), Marine Force Service Support Group (FSSG)/Marine Logistics Group (MLG)
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Define MEF and MEB.
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Marine Expeditionary Force (MEF), Marine Expeditionary Brigade (MEB)
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Define CSSD.
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Combat Service Support Detachment (USMC). The MCCS School is located at Camp Johnson, in Jacksonville NC.
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What significant landmark is located at Camp Johnson, Jacksonville NC?
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The Beirut Memorial, constructed in remembrance of the 273 Marines, Soldiers and Sailors who lost their lived in Beirut and Grenada in 1983.
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What is the MEU designed to do?
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MEUs are the smallest air-ground task force in the USMC. They are designed to be deloyed and ready for immediate reaction to any crisis. Troop strength averages about 2,200. The MEU brings with is all supplies and logistical support needed to sustain itself for quick mission accomplishment.
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Describe the MEU cycle.
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The MEU cycle consists of a 15 month period, usually 9 months stateside and a 6 month deployment. MEUs returning from deployment remain "special operations capable" for one month, allowing quick reaction to world events. The next couple of months, all elements but the command element are released, personnel are rotated and planning commences. Six months from a deployment, build-up training commences. Training may include exercises, including Expeditionary Strike Group Exercises, and Special Operations Capable Certification exercises. Following certification, the MEU is considered prepared for deployment.
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Name the 3 East Coast MEUs.
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22nd MEU, 24th MEU, and 26th MEU. Based out of Camp Lejeune, NC. All three fall under II MEF command and control.
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Who is the II MEF Commander?
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Lt. Gen. Hejlik
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What do the numbers 1/2, or 2/3 represent?
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1/2 = 1st Battalion, 2nd Marines (Regiment)
2/3 = 2nd Battalion, 3rd Marines |
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List the six functions of USMC aviation.
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1) Offensive air support
2) Anti-aircraft warfare 3) Assault support 4) Air Recon 5) Electronic warfare 6) Control of aircraft/missiles |
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MCAS Cherry Point is the homeport for what MAW?
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2MAW
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How many MAWs are there, and what are their homeports (besides 2MAW)?
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1MAW (Okinawa, JP), 3MAW (Miramar, CA), 4MAW (New Orleans, LA)
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Name the fleets and their homeports. (hint: there are 6 now)
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2nd Fleet (Norfolk, VA), 3rd Fleet (San Diego, CA), 4th Fleet (Jacksonville, Fl), 5th Fleet (Manama, Bahrain), 6th Fleet (Naples, IT), 7th Fleet (Yokosuka JP)
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Name the phases of amphibious operations.
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Planning, Embarkation, Rehearsal, Movement, and Assault. (PERMA)
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What does (REIN) stand for?
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REIN stands for "reinforced". REIN indicates that they are part of a MEU and have included several other types of aircraft in their configuration.
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What are the three components of Sea Power 21?
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Sea Strike, Sea Shield, and Sea Basing
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What is the current version of OPNAVINST 3710.7 (Feb 09)?
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T
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What is the aeromedical and survival chapter in OPNAVINST 3710.7?
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Chapter 8
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How many square inches of nonwhite reflective tape is authorized on the HGU-64/P visor housing?
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65
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Temporary, non-reflective covers can be worn over helmet reflective tape during flight in CONUS. True or false?
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False - all covers are to be removed while in CONUS.
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The water temperature is 55 degrees F. However, operations are being conducted in a region that may take SAR up to 2 hours to reach. Are antiexposure suits required to be worn?
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Actually, this is a bit of a trick question. 3710.7 states only that antiexposure suits "shall be provided" when OAT <32 and water temp <50. Whether provided means required to be worn is probably a CO call, or squadron SOP.
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What OPNAVINST and/or MCO dictates proper wear and restrictions of Laser Eye Protection (LEP)?
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OPNAVINST 5100.7 or MCO 5104.1covers LEP wear, as required in applicable flight clearances and in scenarios with multiple aircraft.
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The LPU automatic inflation device has what designator?
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FLU-8/P
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The FLU-8/P automatic inflation device is designed for what aircraft only?
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ejection seat aircraft
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What aircraft fly with HEED/HABD/SEA bottles?
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All helicopter, tilt-rotor, E-2, and C-2 aircrew
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A question has come to your shop. A civilian passenger is getting a VIP ride in a helicopter, but their head is too enormous to fit in any helmet in the FE shop. Where would you direct a waiver for this requirement?
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Waivers for helmet wear may be granted by CMC/COMNAVAIRFOR only.
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In an unpressurized aircraft ascending above 10,000 feet, with the pilot on supplemental oxygen, what are the limits for other occupants (assuming oxgyen is not available)?
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When oygen is not available to other occupants, flight between 10,000 and 13,000 feet shall not exceed 3 hours duration, and flight above 13,000 feet is prohibited.
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Crew rest periods are absolute and can never be shortened. True or false?
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False - when conducting tactical operations, the senior aviation commander may exceed the guidelines set forth in paragraph 8.3, OPNAVINST 3710.7.
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Landing Signal Officers (LSOs) are exempt from the physiological standards required for aircrew. True or false?
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False - they shall meet the same standards. Minor injuries can be waived by a flight surgeon if it does not interfere with their duties.
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UAV flightcrews are exempt from OPNAVINST 3710.7 Chapter 8.3 guidelines. True or false?
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False - UAV flightcrews should comply with all sections of 8.3 and any other applicable sections.
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Over the counter medications are prohibited for aviators on flight status. True or false?
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True, unless specifically approved by a flight surgeon.
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Nude weight for the SJU-4/A ejection seat is what to what in lbs?
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136 to 213
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Nude weights for the SJU-17 and SJU-17(A)?
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136 to 213/245, respectively.
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What paragraph of Chapter 8 deals with the FAILSAFE program?
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8.5
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What is the instruction used to draft HAZREPs?
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OPNAVINST 3750.6
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What chapter in OPNAVINST 3750.6 deals with drafting a HAZREP?
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Chapter 4
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How are Hazard Reports typically submitted?
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Through the Web-Enabled Safety System (WESS).
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What does WESS stand for?
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Web-Enabled Safety System
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Define the following acronyms:
HUMFAC NMAC OOCF EMBLAND ATC PHYSEP BASH EMI FF |
HUMFAC = Human Factors
NMAC = Near-Midair Collision OOCF = Out of Control Flight EMBLAND = Embarked Landing ATC = Air Traffic Control PHYSEP = Physiological Episode BASH = Bird-Aircraft Strike Hazard EMI = Electromagnetic Interference FF = Friendly Fire |
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Name the four purposes of a Hazard Report.
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1. To report a hazard and the remedial action taken, so others may take similar action.
2. To report a hazard and recommend corrective action to others. 3. To report a hazard so another organization may determine and take appropriate corrective action. 4. To document a continuing hazard in order to establish risk severity and exposure. |
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What does the acronym SIR stand for?
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Safety Investigation Report
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List the 9 reasons why a PHYSEP might be generated.
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Hypoxia, proven or suspected.
CO poisoning or toxic exposure. DCS or incapacitation due to trapped gas. Hyperventilation. Spatial Disorientation. Loss of Consciousness. Unintentional rapid decompressions (to FL 250 or greater). Training devices or simulators that cause injury or fail to function as designed. Physiologic problems that manifest during or after flight in any aviation physiological or water-survival training device. |
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It must be proven that a pilot was hypoxic prior to generating a PHYSEP for hypoxia. True or false?
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False - suspected hypoxia in individuals is enough of a reason to generate a PHYSEP.
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What does the acronym AMB stand for?
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Aviation Mishap Board
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Can the senior member of an AMB request an AP be assigned to the AMB in complex or unusual cases?
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Yes.
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Hazard Reports are not privileged. True or False?
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True. Avoid identification of specific individuals, and do not give promises of confidentiality.
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NAVAIR 13-1-6.1 deals with?
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Liferafts and life preservers (-1 and -2, respectively)
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NAVAIR 13-1-6.4
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Oxygen equipment (masks -1, regulators -2, concentrators -3, converters -4)
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NAVAIR 13-1-6.2 deals with?
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Parachutes
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NAVAIR 13-1-6.3 deals with?
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Oxygen hoses and seat kits (non-SKU -1, SKU -2)
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NAVAIR 13-1-6.5 deals with?
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Rescue and survival equipment
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NAVAIR 13-1-6.7-1 deals with?
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Aircrew Personal Protective Equipment - Aircrew/Passenger Equipment
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NAVAIR 13-1-6.7-2 deals with?
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Aircrew Personal Protective Equipment - Clothing
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NAVAIR 13-1-6.7-3 deals with?
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Aircrew Personal Protective Equipment - Helmets and Masks
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NAVAIR 13-1-6.7-4 deals with?
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Aircrew Personal Protective Equipment - Armor
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NAVAIR 13-1-6.7-5 deals with?
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Aircrew Personal Protective Equipment - Joint Helmet System
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FAILSAFE stands for?
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Fleet Air Introduction/Liason of Survival Aircrew Flight Equipment
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Authority for NASTP comes from?
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CNO and Chief, BUMED
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Authority for OPNAVISNT 3710.7 comes from?
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CNO.
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Who is the NASTP Couse Curriculum Model Manager?
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NSTI
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Name the four NASTP inspections.
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Site Safety and Standardization,
Training Quality Assessment, Divers Operational Readiness Assessment, Quality Assurance and Revalidation Inspection. |
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The most up to date publications can be found where?
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NATEC
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IRAC stands for?
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Interim Rapid Action Change
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OPNAVINST 4790.2 is the instruction for?
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Regulation of the Naval Aviation Maintenance Program (NAMP)
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Define O-level, I-level, and D-level.
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O-level = organizational/squadron level.
I-level = intermediate/AIMD/MALS level. D-level = Depot level. All are levels of aviation maintenance. |
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What are the three most important factors of a FITREP that a promotion board looks at?
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1. Breakout - i.e., how the officer does against other competing officers. Generally the first item briefed and the most influential in how members vote. 2) Averages (Block 45) - both member trait and summary group. Along with breakout data, gives an "officer to officer comparison. 3) Where the officer falls in promotion recommendation (block 42).
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Define ODC, OSR and PSR
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ODC = Officer Data Card
OSR = Officer Sumary Record PSR = Performance Summary Record |
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What kind of information is on the ODC?
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Provides identifying information about the officer. Also used by BUPERS as the cover sheet for the PSR.
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What kind of information is on the OSR?
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TBD
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What kind of information is on the PSR?
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TBD
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What kind of information does a promotion board see?
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The board sits in front of a large projector screen and views three sets of information for each officer: Most recent photo, last five fitness reports, and two rows of awards; education, professional history, qualifications (designators), promotions and service status (active, reserve, line, staff, etc); and privileged information: med boards, adverse data (DUIs or criminal records), nonjudicial punishment letters, etc. This last grouping is known as the "Fiche 5", and almost any record in it will negatively affect an officer's chances for promotion.
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What does the LIF on a set of NVGs do?
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LIF = Light Interference Filter. The LIF serves as a protective barrier against LASER energy.
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Does use of the LIF degrade NVG performance?
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By definition, the LIF reduces the amount of energy that enters the objective lens, so it does degrade NVG performance.
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Are NVGs considered LASER eye protection?
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No; while the mechanics of the device will provide a physical barrier, the NVG distance from the eyes is enought to allow LASER energy to be transmitted under the goggles.
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What does the acronym LASER stand for?
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LASER = Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation
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What are the three ways to view a laser that are considered dangerous?
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Direct viewing (eyes are directly in the beam of the laser); indirect or specular reflection viewing (beam is reflected from a specular reflector into the eyes); and diffuse reflection (extended source, usually from powerful lasers)
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Define NOHD
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NOHD = Nominal Ocular Hazard Distance. NOHD is the distance at which a laser can be safely viewed.
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Define MPE
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MPE = Maximum Permissible Exposure. The MPE limit is a measure of how much a human can be exposed to a hazard without causing damage.
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A specular reflector changes the characteristics of a laser. True or false?
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False - specular reflectors only change the direction of the beam, not the beam characteristics.
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How many classes of lasers are there? Which class is the most powerful/potentially dangerous?
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4 / 4
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Which classes of lasers are typically called "eye safe"?
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Class 1 and Class 2 lasers and most Class 3a lasers, since the aversion response is typically enough to avert eye damage. Note that for invisible laser beams or lasers that are amplified by optics, the term "eye safe" may not apply.
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Which two parts of the body are susceptible to laser effects?
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The eyes and the skin
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List three possible laser biohazards associated with the eye.
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Thermal damage, photochemical damage, and thermo-acoustic (mechanical destruction, such as ripping or tearing due to bubbles, blisters, etc).
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A Marine comes to you and says that he looked into a laser of unknown power or wavelength, and that now he has a searing pain in his eye. He also complains of vision loss, like seeing through onion paper. What part of the eye has he damaged?
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The cornea - the cornea has many pain nerves, and denaturation of corneal protein causes a whitening to occur.
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Who determines medical surveillance requirements for laser exposure?
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ALSO - Administrator Laser Safety Officer
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Who needs medical monitoring for laser exposure?
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Those routinely involved with operating lasers, those who operate Class 3b and Class 4 lasers, and those who have been exposed or have potential to be exposed.
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What is the criteria for having military exempt status for laser medical monitoring?
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Operators who are behind a laser on a certified laser range with no spectral reflectors down range.
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When are military exempt personnel required to have a medical / eye exam?
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After an over-exposure incident
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When must an over-exposure incident be first reported, and when must the final report be filed?
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The first report must be filed within 24 hours; the final report is due 30 days from the incident.
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What are the two most critical factors in determining Laser Eye Protection (LEP)?
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Optical Density (OD) and wavelength of the laser
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How often should LEPs be inspected?
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Annually
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What are you looking for during an annual LEP inspection?
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Scratches, pits, bleaching, mechanical, proper labeling
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List some of the responsibilities of an ALSO in maintaining a local laser safety program.
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Establishing command support
determining safety budget obtaining references, such as SOPS, policies, regulations, etc. Identify risks and estabish a medical surveillance program implement training conduct annual facility inspections conduct annual staff briefs conduct annual review of safety program establish records and files report all Class 3b and Class 4 and Military Exempt Lasers to BUMED annually Coordinate laser range usage |
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How often are laser ranges recertified, and by whom?
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Every 3 years (triannual), by an RLSS (Range Laser Safety Specialist)
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What is the recommended class size for NITE Lab NVG components and preflight procedures training?
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six students per instructor
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What are some essential items for an eye lane?
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Appropriate illumination sources, for full moon, quarter moon, starlight, and overcast starlight conditions; high, medium and low contrast NVG resolution charts; lens cleaning material; pupilometer (for measuring the IPD); and demonstration aids such as light sticks, laser pointers, beacons, etc.
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After donning the helmet and mounting the binocular assembly, what 5 steps should be taken during preflight procedures, and in what order?
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Vertical Adjustment
Tilt Alignment Eye Relief Adjustment IPD Adjustment Evaluate Image (possible mnemonic: Very Tiny Eyes Indicate Easiness) |
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Briefly describe the order of focusing procedures
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Objective Focus, Diopter Adjustment, Objective Readjustment (Outer, Inner, Outer)
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The ANV-20/20 (Hoffman set) is used in the fleet for what purpose?
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The ANV-20/20 is a portable case that allow aircrew to adjust the NVG when viewing a resolution chart, and is the preferred method for focusing NVGs.
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The HUD should not be used to focus the NVGs. True or false?
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True
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In austere environments, what is the suggested distance an object should be when attempting to focus NVGs?
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200 feet distant with no adjacent lights that cause blooming
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Define fratenization.
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Fraternization is any personal relationship between officers or an officer and enlisted member which is unduly familiar and does not respect differences in rank and grade, or where a senior-subordinate supervisory relationship exists.
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Define sexual harassment.
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Sexual harassment is a form of sex discrimination that involves unwelcome sexual advances, requests for sexual favors, and other verbal or physical conduct of a sexual nature.
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What are the two types of grievance procedures for sexual harassment?
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Informal and formal resolution systems.
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What is the purpose of the Aeromedical Safety Program (AMSP)?
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The CNAF AMSP provides direction to, and defines the roles of, all AMSOs assigned to CNAF commands.
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List the four roles of the AMSP.
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Provide aeromedical consultation;
Identify and counteract aeromedical threats to aircrew; assist in increasing operator warfighting capabilities and combat effectiveness; play an integral role in ALSS and survivability for the Fleet. |
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Name some resources (other than another AMSO) that AMSOs can turn to for help, guidance and collaboration?
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ASTC personnel
AMSCs Flight surgeons Aerospace Experimental Psychologists Aerospace Optometrists Industrial Hygenists |
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List the responsibilities and functions of the Aeromedical Safety Corpsman (AMSC).
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AMSCs assist the AMSO with implementation and sustainment of all aspects of the AMSP, and may be required to support medical and high-risk training evolutions.
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A monthly AMSO report must be filed. What kind of information needs to be sent?
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Information on current test and evaluation (T&E) projects; any physiological episode (PHYSEP) Hazard reports or Safety Investigation Reports that contain physiologic factors that have been released (date of release, squadron, date of incident, etc);
OPNAVINST 3710.7 series issues; ALSS issues; Physiology related concerns. |
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How is training from a NITE lab recorded? How is squadron training recorded?
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MAWTS-1 has a website that NITE lab instructors have access to, where they can log in and record NITE lab training accomplished. Squadron training should include a roster; copies of rosters should be kept locally, and scans of rosters can be forwarded along with the monthly report, or sent for archiving by PMA-202.
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Define the acronym MIST.
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MIST = Mishap Investigation Support Team
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What is the difference between the new CWU-86/P and the existing CWU-62/P Antiexposure suits?
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The CWU-86/P incorporates fire retardant/flame resistant material, while the CWU-62/P requires that a flight suit be worn on top to provide such protection. Also, the CWU-86/P and CWU-87/P come in two different models for males and females.
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Define the acronym NAMDRP.
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NAMDRP = Naval Aviation Maintenance Discrepancy Reporting Program
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The Naval Aviation Maintenance Program is guided by what instruction?
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OPNAVINST 4790.2
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Define HMR, EI, and PQDR.
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HMR = Hazardous Material Report; EI = Engineering Investigation; PQDR = Product quality deficiency report.
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Define MAGTF.
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MAGTF = Marine Air-Ground Task Force. The MAGTF is the principal organization for all Marine missions. MAGTFs are balanced air-ground, combined arms task organizations of USMC forces structured to accomplish a specific mission.
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1.0 Summarize the primary and secondary duties of the BUMED (NASTP/Aero-Med) billet.
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BUMED established the NAPP in 1978 to comply with the CNO task to provide support to the Aircrew Survivability Enhancement Program. Aerospace physiologists and their assistants had historically participated in the aeromedical/survival training of naval aviation personnel, and in the development and introducation of aviation life support systems (ALSS) particularly aircrew personal protective equipment. In the late 1970s, the role of the AP expanded to provide support to the Naval Aviation Safety Program, primarily through the establishment of the AMSO Program. The NAOPP provided the central management necessary to support these diverse functions.
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1.1 Summarize the procedures establishing and canceling Hazardous Duty Incentive Pay (HDIP) per BUPERS guidelines.
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The DOD Pay and Allowances Entitlement Manual (NAVSOP-6084) and Naval Military Personnel Manual entitle APs and 8409s to collect HDIP once an Authorization Letter, signed by the OIC, is sent to PSD to activate Low-Pressure Chamber Pay. Anytime an inside observer does not fly for longer than 30 days, a letter will be sent to PSD discontinuing HDIP. According to MILPERSMAN 7220-080, quotas for hazardous duty incentive pay for inside instructor/observers in support of low pressure chamber operations for Bureau of Medicine and Surgery (BUMED) activities conducting training under the Naval Aviation Physiology Training Program are authorized by BUMED. Requests for changes in the authorized quotas should be forwarded with justification to BUMED (MED-231).
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1.2 Explain the pay scales and requirements of Aviation Career Incentive Pay (ACIP), "flight pay".
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Reference NAVINST 3710.7, Chapter 11, paragraph 11.2.1: Naval aviation officers receive aviation career incentive pay in addition to their regular salary. Pay scale: Student aviation officers receive $125 per month flight pay during flight training. The monthly amount of flight pay received depends on time in service and increases by hundreds of dollars within a few years to the current maximum of $840.00 per month. Requirements: Pay manual minimum requires 4 hours per month and it is encouraged to fly 4 hours every month. However, flight hours may be accumulated up to 5 months in advance, and you may go 3 months behind. The 3-month interval begins with the first month 4 hours are not achieved, at teh end of the third month all 12 hours must be accumulated. If you fail to accumulate 12 hours at the end of the third month you can request a 6-month waiver from your OIC which extends the 3-month interval to a 6-month interval (i.e., you have 6 months to obtain 24 hours of flight time). There is also an annual requirement of 48 hours per year.
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1.3 Identify the document used to record flight hours.
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Flight hours are normally recored by individual squadrons using the Naval viation Flight Log Information Record System (NAVFLIR-3). Clarification of this system is found in OPNAV 3710.7 paragraph 10.7. Aerospace physiologists should obtain a NAVFLIR for flight hour audit purposes.
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1.4 Name the document which authorizes member to receive ACIP.
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DOD 7000.14-R, OPNAVINST 3710.7 series, and BUPERSINST 7220.29A
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1.5 Define the term DIFOPS.
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Duty Involving Flying-Operation (DIFOPS). All aviation billets at units with aircraft attached are designated DIFOPS billets.
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1.7 Explain the importance as an intern to experience refresher training at the new ASTC.
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Unless they have prior flight experience, interns may arrive at an ASTC with only initial P'Cola curriculum as a reference, when outlying ASTCs mostly teach refresher courses. So it is good for a new intern to see how a refresher course is run from the student perspective. I (Dustin) am also of the opinion that going through a refresher course as a student gives a good overview of the current staff and their strengths and weaknesses in instruction, as well as picking up pointers on how to be a better instructor from the folks doing the instruction every day.
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1.8 List the two commands (or single command) giving authorization for the Naval Aviation Survival Training Program (NASTP).
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CNO tasked; BUMED responsibility.
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1.9 Explain the functions of the NASTP-Model Manager Directorate.
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The NASTP Model Manager Directorate is NSTI. NSTI is designated as the NASTP Course Curriculum Model Manager and is responsible for developing NASTP policies, procedures, and curricula and implementing the same as approved by higher authority. By CNO direction, the Naval Aviation Survival Training Program (NASTP) Model Manager (NSTI's OIC, CAPT Norton) conducts annual Site Safety and Standardization Inspections, Training Quality Assessments, and Quality Assurance & Revalidation (QA&R) Inspections at all eight ASTC's to ensure safety and standardization of operations. The Model Manager provides a central point of expertise for all NASTP issues.
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1.10 Identify (by name and code) the NASTP Training Agent.
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COMNAVAIRFOR via BUMED (NASTP Training Agent)
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1.11 List the instruction which identifies the approved training requirements for the NASTP.
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OPNAV 3710.7 series Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization (NATOPS)
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1.12 Identify the document which serves as an official means for estalishing NASTP training program safety, standarization, consistency and quality of training.
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The Job Qualifications Requirements (JQR) serves as an official means of establishing NASTP safety, standardization, consistency and quality of training.
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1.13 State the purpose of the OPNAVINST 3710.7 (General) Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization (NATOPS) instruction.
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The Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization (NATOPS) program is a positive approach towards improving combat readiness and achieving a substantial reduction in aircraft mishaps.
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1.14 Identify the items which need to be listed on the interim change summary page within the OPNAVINST 3710.7
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The items listed in the 3710.7 interim change summary include:
1. Changes that have been cancelled or previously incorporated into this manual 2. Changes that have been incorporated into this change/revision 3. Interim changes outstanding - to be maintained by the custodian of this manual 4. Record of Changes. |
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1.15 Identify the OPNAVINST 3710.7 section which defines abbreviations and commonly used terms in the aviation community.
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Glossary
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1.16 Identify who is responsible for all training of the day assigned at an Aviation Survival Training Center (ASTC).
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Officer Of the Day (OOD)
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1.17 List the requirements to become JQR qualified as the POD.
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The term POD was replaced with OOD in our JQR. OOD qualifications include:
E-7 or above Be in the NASTP for at least 6 months Read and understand the NASTP SOP Read and understand the site-specific Pre-Mishap (Emergency Action) Plan Read and understand Chapter 8 and Appendix E of the current OPNAVINST 3710.7 Observe NASTP indoctrination and all aspects of at least one refresher course, as well as site-specific courses (NP5 at Lemoore) Participate in one LPC EAP drill as the OOD Participate in one water survival training EAP drill as the OOD Perform the duties of OOD under supervision two times |
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1.18 List the instructions which discuss safety during high risk training.
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NASTP Standard Operating Procedures (SOP)
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1.19 Identify the instruction which regulates Personal Permanent Issue for all Aviation candidates.
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CNATRAINST 10126.1 lists Permanent Personal Issue (PPI). Also, a good reference for AMSOs is NAVAIR 00-35QH-2, the NAVAIR allowance list. This list shows what squadrons should have issued to all aircrew, and how much extra gear they should have on hand. Also good gouge for new AMSOs is the Supply Deficiency List, updated by PMA-202 Supply Support (currently Mr. Fred Gustafson, as of MAR 09). This list lets you know what supply deficiencies there are, so that when squadrons ask you why they can't get a piece of gear, you have a heads up as to at least one possible reason.
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1.20 List the flight gear which is distributed during initial outfitting.
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Helmet, Aviators (HGU 68), Flight Suit, Summer flying (CWU 27/P), Jacket, Leather flight (Type G-1, Intermediate), Jacket, Flyers summer (CWU-36/P), Boots, Flying Safety, Microphone boom/lip, gloves, summer flying (GS/FRP-2), Knee Board, sunglasses, helmet bag, kit bag flyers, sage green
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1.21 Explain the purpose and contents of the NASTP Training Jacket.
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Purpose: to provide a consolidated recored of the training status and readiness of flight personnel and serve as a repository for certain avaition recores accumlated by flight crewmembers during active aviation tours. Contents: A summulative history and concise summary of training and qualifications.
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1.22 State who maintains the NATOPS Flight Personnel Training and Qualification Jacket and where it is kept.
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The NATOPS jacket is delivered to the squadron that provides temporary custody of the jacket (NATOPS office)
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1.23 Describe the differences between "selected passenger" and "project specialist" training requirements.
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As per 3710.7T: Selected Passenger: A non-aeronautically designated individual embarked in a government aircraft equipped with ejection seats. Selected passengers are not responsible for normal aircrew duties and shall have flying requirements which require flight on a regular basis for mission accomplishment which extend beyond a 90-day flying period. This category is not appropriate for those completing orientation flights or for midshipmen. Project Specialist: A non-aeronautically designated individual embarked in a government aircraft not equipped with ejection seats for the purpose of operating aircraft systems, operating specially designed equipment, or observing aircraft or crew performance when required in connection with assigned duties or contractual responsibilities which will require flight on a regular basis for mission accomplishment which extend beyond a 90- day flying period. Project specialists are not responsible for normal aircrew duties....but in the new 3710.7U they would be Non-aircrew NASTP aircraft class 1-4
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1.24 State the training category a Midshipmen would receive prior to flying in Naval aircraft.
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As per 3710.7 T, the current category is N2/NP7. In the Uniform (U) version, the training will be called Non-aircrew, aircraft class 1-4.
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1.25 Define "pilot in command", "mission commander", and "formation leader" as delineated in the OPNAVINST 3710.7
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Pilot in Command: The pilot assigned responsibility for safe and orderly conduct of the flight. Mission Commander: Flight time during which an individual, designated as a qualified mission commander in the aircraft model being flown, is serving as the mission commander. Mission commander time is a measure of command experience rather than flight experience. Formation Leader: A flight of more than one aircraft operating by prior arrangement as a single aircraft with regard to altitude, navigation, and position reporting, and where separation between aircraft within the flight rests with the leader in that flight.
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1.26 Describe the learning objectives for Refresher Aviation Physiology brief at the ASTC.
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Briefing topics include the four types of Hypoxia, four areas in the body dealing with trapped gas, and two types of DCS.
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1.27 Define three scientific law which aviators should be aware of during flight.
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1. Dalton's Law (Partial Pressure Law which states that the total pressure exerted by a gaseous mixture is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of each individual component in a gas mixture) How does Dalton's Law relate to the atmosphere?
2. Boyle's Law: Discuss the physiological impact of Boyle's Law in a hypobaric environment (Use the balloon analogy here...The volume of gas is inversely proportional to the pressure placed upon it). 3. Henry's Law: Discuss the physical and physiological causes of DCS and Henry's Law (Similarly, inert gases are normally stored throughout the body, such as within tissues and liquids, in physical solution. When the body is exposed to decreased pressures, such as when flying an un-pressurized aircraft to altitude, the excess inert gas comes out of solution in a process called ""outgassing"" or ""offgassing"". Normally most offgassing occurs by gas exchange at the lungs during exhalation. If inert gas is forced to come out of solution too quickly, bubbles form inside the body and are unable to leave through the lungs causing DCS). |
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1.28 Describe the learning objectives for Refresher Sensory Physiology brief.
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The learning objections for refresher Sensory Briefs are to review the four senses which contribute to spatial orientation, discuss sensory illusions from each sense, discuss the three types of spatial disorientation, and end with ways of preventing or reacting to spatial disorientation.
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1.29 Explain the difference between sensory illusions and visual illusions.
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Sensory illusions include vestibular, proprioceptive, and auditory illusions, as well as visual illusions - essentially any sense that aircrew may use consciously or unconsciously. The visual sense, which accounts for up to 80% of the input for spatial orientation, is usually singled out individually when illusions are mentioned. It is important to think about visual illusions in terms of visual cues (primary and secondary), the importance of seeing the horizon, inadvertent VMC to IMC transitions (nighttime, flying into weather, collapse of scan due to task saturation), and the difference between outside visual cues and spatial cues derived from instruments (aka, control reversal error).
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What are the types of shops you might see at the MAG level?
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S-1 (Admin), S-2 (Intel), S-3 (Operations), S-4 (Logistics), S-5 (Safety, but usually always called the DOSS shop - where the AMSO will be located) and S-6 (Signal/Comms). Aside from the DOSS shop, these are very similar to G level shops. However, there are only 6 levels, instead of 9.
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Scenario: Your DOSS comes to you and says, "Doc, the CO hates the dunker and doesn't want to do his refresher qual. Can you take care of that?" What should be part of your reply?
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Regardless of position or rank, refresher training is required as per OPNAVINST 3710, and as such is a CNO directive. You can also jokingly tell your DOSS that you will "draft a waiver for refresher training to send to the CNO's desk", and they will probably get the hint.
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Scenario: You are entering a PR / Flight Equipment (Flight E) shop for the first time. What can you do to prepare yourself?
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Know the names of the NCOIC and OIC beforehand. Bring along a supply deficiency list or know (via AMSO gouge) what their current gripes are. Let them know who you are and what you can do for them. Let the PRs/Flight E's teach you about the gear, don't assume an air of superiority about their jobs. Assume an initial mistrust, until you have proven yourself worthy of their time and energy.
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What is the most important aeromedical causal factor in mishaps and hazreps?
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Tough question: if you consider CAPT Davenport's data from Approach Magazine, Oct 2007 (also found in our ASTC briefs - at least here at Cherry Point), when you look at all Class A, B, and C mishaps and hazreps, since 2002 FATIGUE is the number one aeromedical causal factor. However, if you look only at Class A mishaps (also may be referred to as "the most deadly aeromedical causal factor"), and combine Spatial Disorientation and Illusions together, then the correct answer is SPATIAL DISORIENTATION. Understand that there is room for debate, but ultimately you are trying to figure out what the Board Member is thinking.
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What is the most important operational item that an aviator uses/carries that we are responsible for?
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Another tough question. There are many answers, but the "most" correct one - at least the one my board all agreed upon - is RADIOS. It is clearly an item that we are spending an inordinate amount of time on as AMSOs, as far as all survival equipment goes.
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