• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

Card Range To Study

through

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/107

Click to flip

Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;

Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;

H to show hint;

A reads text to speech;

107 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
How long can each organ go without adequate -perfusion:
-heart
-kidneys
-skeletal muscles
-GI tract
-Heart requires constant perfusion or it will not function properly.
-Brain and spinal cord: 4 to 6 minutes.
-Kidneys: 45 minutes.
-Skeletal muscles: 2 hours.
-GI Tract: several hours.
______________ nervous system monitors the body’s needs and adjusts blood flow.
Autonomic
Perfusion is:
the circulation of blood within an organ or tissue to meet the cells’ needs for oxygen, nutrients, and waste removal.
Shock is
the system fails to provide sufficient circulation for every body part to perform its function.
Nontraumatic causes of bleeding include
Bleeding ulcers
Bleeding from colon
Ruptured ectopic pregnancy
Aneurysms
Frequent signs of internal bleeding
Abdominal tenderness
Guarding
Rigidity
Pain
Distention

Vomiting of blood
Bloody diarrhea or urine
Pain (most common)
Swelling in the area of bleeding
Distention
Bruising
Hematoma
Bleeding from any body opening
Hematemesis
Hemoptysis
Melena
Hematochezia
Referred Pain
Hypovolemic shock (hypoperfusion) Later signs include:
Tachycardia
Weakness, fainting, or dizziness at rest
Thirst
Nausea and vomiting
Cold, moist (clammy) skin
Shallow, rapid breathing
Altered LOC
Body will not tolerate blood loss greater than____ of blood volume.
20%
If adult loses more than ________L of blood, vital signs significantly change.
1 L
How well people compensate for blood loss is related to
how rapidly they bleed.
body's response to bleeding may fail do to;
Medications
Severe injury
Hemophilia
Primary Assessment - Circulation in bleeding emergencies should include:
Assess pulse rate and quality.
Determine skin condition, color, and temperature.
Check capillary refill time.
Control external bleeding.
Treat for shock.
Signs and symptoms of hypovolemic shock:
Rapid, weak pulse
Mental status changes
Cool, pale, clammy skin
Low blood pressure (late sign)
SAMPLE History in bleeding emergencies should include:
-Gather information on chief complaint (OPQRST).
-Any dizziness or syncope?
-Signs/symptoms of hypovolemic shock?
-Current blood-thinning medications or history of clotting insufficiency?
-Any pain, tenderness, bruising, guarding, deformity, distention, discoloration, or swelling?
Hypoperfusion: a systolic blood pressure of less than ______mm Hg with a weak, rapid pulse.
100
Tourniquet precautions
-Do not apply directly over joint.
-Tighten securely.
-Never use wire, rope, a belt, or any other narrow material.
benefits of Rigid splints, considerations
-Can help stabilize fractures
-Reduce pain
-Prevent further damage to soft-tissue injuries
-Once the splint is applied, monitor circulation in the distal extremity.
Traction splints considerations
-Designed to stabilize femur fractures
-When an AEMT pulls traction to the ankle, countertraction is applied to the ischium and groin.
-Once the splint is applied, monitor circulation in the distal extremity.
Pneumatic antishock garment (PASG) is for
-Stabilizing fractures of the pelvis and bilateral femurs
-Controlling significant internal bleeding associated with fractures of the pelvis and bilateral femurs
-Controlling massive soft-tissue bleeding of lower extremities when direct pressure is not effective
Pneumatic Antishock Garment contraindicated
Pulmonary edema

Relative contraindications include:
Pregnancy
Penetrating abdominal injuries or evisceration
Penetrating chest injuries
Groin injuries
Major head injuries
A transport time of less than 30 minutes
Control Epistaxis by
pinching the nostrils together
If skull fracture suspected Tx =
-Loosely cover the bleeding site with a sterile gauze pad.
-Apply light compression with a dressing.
Internal Hemorrhaging Tx
Provide rapid transport to the ED.
Control internal bleeding in the field by splinting the extremity.

Management of internal hemorrhaging:
Treat shock.
Minimize movement of injured or bleeding part or region.
Transport rapidly.
Signs of internal bleeding include
deformity,
tenderness,
bruised chest,
swelling,
distended abdomen,
guarding,
pain,
hematemesis,
melena,
hemoptysis, and
broken ribs
The methods to control bleeding include
direct, even pressure and elevation; pressure dressings and/or splints; and tourniquets.

If direct pressure fails to stop hemorrhaging, apply a tourniquet if protocol allows.
Which of the following is NOT a component of the cardiovascular system?
Heart
Lungs
Venules
Plasma
Lungs
Perfusion is MOST accurately defined as:
-the removal of adequate amounts of carbon dioxide during exhalation.
-the intake of adequate amounts of oxygen during the inhalation phase.
-circulation of blood within an organ with sufficient amounts of oxygen.
-the production of carbon dioxide, which accumulates at the cellular level.
circulation of blood within an organ with sufficient amounts of oxygen.
A man involved in a motorcycle crash has multiple abrasions and lacerations. Which of the following injuries has the HIGHEST treatment priority?
-Widespread abrasions to the back with pinkish ooze
-3" laceration to the forehead with dark red, flowing blood
-Laceration to the forearm with obvious debris in the wound
-1" laceration to the thigh with spurting, bright red blood
1" laceration to the thigh with spurting, bright red blood
Which of the following sets of vital signs is LEAST indicative of internal bleeding?
-BP, 140/90 mm Hg; pulse rate, 58 beats/min; respirations, 8 breaths/min
-BP, 100/50 mm Hg; pulse rate, 120 beats/min; respirations, 24 breaths/min
-BP, 98/60 mm Hg; pulse rate, 110 beats/min; respirations, 28 breaths/min
-BP, 102/48 mm Hg; pulse rate, 100 beats/min; respirations, 22 breaths/min
BP, 140/90 mm Hg; pulse rate, 58 beats/min; respirations, 8 breaths/min

Internal hemorrhage typically reveals vital signs that are consistent with shock: hypotension, tachycardia, and tachypnea. Hypertension, bradycardia, and bradypnea (choice “A”) is consistent with a closed head injury, not internal bleeding.
The quickest and MOST effective way to control external bleeding from an extremity is:
-a pressure bandage.
-direct pressure and elevation.
-a splint.
-a tourniquet.
direct pressure and elevation
When applying a tourniquet to an amputated arm, the AEMT should:
-use the narrowest bandage possible.
-avoid applying the tourniquet over a joint.
-cover the tourniquet with a sterile bandage.
-use rope to ensure that the tourniquet is tight.
avoid applying the tourniquet over a joint

You should use the widest bandage possible and make sure it is secured tightly. Never use wire, rope, a belt, or any other narrow material, as it could cut the skin. The tourniquet should never be covered with a bandage. Leave it open and in full view.
A 70-year-old man is experiencing a severe nosebleed. When you arrive, you find him leaning over a basin, which contains an impressive amount of blood. He has a history of coronary artery disease, diabetes, and migraine headaches. His BP is 180/100 and his heart rate is 100 beats/min. Which of the following is the MOST likely contributing factor to his nosebleed?
-His blood pressure
-His history of diabetes
-The fact that he is elderly
-His heart rate of 100 beats/min
His blood pressure

Several conditions can cause a nosebleed (epistaxis), including skull fractures, facial injuries, sinusitis (inflamed sinuses), high blood pressure, coagulation disorders (ie, hemophilia), and digital trauma (ie, nose picking). A BP of 180/100 indicates a significant amount of pressure on the arteries, which is no doubt the main contributing factor to this patient’s nosebleed.
The treatment of active internal bleeding includes:
-20 mL/kg of normal saline or lactated Ringer’s solution.
-a 250-mL bolus of normal saline or lactated Ringer’s solution.
-positioning the patient in the sitting position.
-providing slow and considerate transport.
20 mL/kg of normal saline or lactated Ringer’s solution.

Patients with active internal bleeding require IV fluid be given at 20 mL/kg, using either normal saline or lactated Ringer’s (provided the lungs are clear) while en route to the emergency room.
Describe the characteristics of arterial, venous and capillary bleeding.
Capillary vessels - Blood is dark red and oozes steadily but slowly.

Open artery - Bright red and spurts in time with the pulse.

Open vein - Darker and flows steadily
Characteristics of Stage 1 blood loss?
up to15% blood loss
compensated by constriction of vascular bed
BP maintained
tachycardia
skin pallor
normal pulse pressure, RR and renal output
Characteristics of Stage 2 blood loss?
15% to 25% blood loss
cardiac output not maintained by arteriolar constriction.
reflex tachcardia
BP maintained
increased diastolic pressure
increased RR
catecholamines increase peripheral resistance
narrow pulse pressures
diaphoresis from sympathetic stimulation
normal renal output.
Characteristics of Stage 3 blood loss?
25% to 35% blood loss

Classic signs of hypovolemic shock:
Marked tachycardia (increased heart rate) >120 bpm
Marked tachypnea (increased rate of respiration) >30 bpm
decreased BP
decreased renal output
altered LOC
diaphoresis with cool pale skin.
Characteristics of Stage 4 blood loss?
loss > 35%

extreme tachcardia
pronounced tachpenea
significantly decreased systolic BP
confusion and lethargy
skin is diaphoretic, cool and extremely pale
What is the most commonly effective method for controlling external hemorrhage?
direct pressure
Discuss how to make a tourniquet if a commercially manufactured one is not available.
fold triangular bandage until it is 4" wide and 6-8 layers thick

wrap around extremity twice

tie knot in bandage - place stick on top and tie over top of stick

twist to tighten

secure stick in place

write TK and time on adhesive tape on Pt forehead

(Also can use a BP cuff as a tourniquet)
A 1 year old has a total blood volume of how many mL?

significant symptoms occur with loss of ___ ml
800

100-200
adult blood volume
70 ml/kg or about 6 liters
an isolated femur fracture can result in a blood loss of
1 l or more
hemostasis
Hemostasis: platelets aggregate at site, plugging hole and sealing the vessel.
1. The LEAST desirable method of bleeding control in the prehospital setting is:
A) clamping a bleeding artery with hemostats.
B) applying a tourniquet proximal to the injury.
C) maintaining manual pressure over the injury.
D) applying a pressure dressing and bandage.
A) clamping a bleeding artery with hemostats.
2. Any injury at the nipple line should be considered a thoracic and abdominal injury because:
A) the liver, spleen, and stomach are completely protected by the ribs.
B) the diaphragm may elevate as high as the nipple line upon exhalation.
C) penetrating injuries to the upper chest often result in liver lacerations.
D) the diaphragm ascends into the chest cavity during the inspiration phase.
B) the diaphragm may elevate as high as the nipple line upon exhalation.
3. A patient has severe bleeding from a large laceration to the anterior forearm. Direct pressure and a pressure dressing are not immediately effective in controlling the bleeding. You should:
A) elevate the arm and apply ice to the injury.
B) apply additional dressings and elevate the arm.
C) apply a tourniquet above the level of the bleeding.
D) locate and apply digital pressure to the brachial artery.
C) apply a tourniquet above the level of the bleeding.
4. A trauma patient who presents with shock, jugular venous distention, and bilaterally equal breath sounds has MOST likely experienced a:
A) simple pneumothorax.
B) pericardial tamponade.
C) pulmonary contusion.
D) massive hemothorax.
B) pericardial tamponade.
5. In contrast to paradoxical chest motion, asymmetrical chest movement occurs when:
A) both sides of the chest move shallowly during normal breathing.
B) one side of the chest fails to move normally during inspiration.
C) both sides of the chest wall move in unison during deep inspiration.
D) one segment of the chest wall moves opposite the remainder of the chest.
B) one side of the chest fails to move normally during inspiration.
6. You are caring for a 59-year-old male involved in a motor-vehicle crash. During your assessment, you note that his pelvis is unstable, he is pale and diaphoretic, and his blood pressure is 80/50 mm Hg. Use of the pneumatic antishock garment (PASG) would be absolutely contraindicated if further assessment of this patient revealed:
A) bilateral femur fractures
B) coarse crackles in the lungs
C) a rigid, distended abdomen.
D) collapsed jugular veins.
B) coarse crackles in the lungs
7. Kehr sign is defined as:
A) the presence of flank bruising secondary to intraabdominal bleeding.
B) referred pain to the shoulder following injury to the liver or spleen.
C) bruising around the umbilicus secondary to intraabdominal bleeding.
D) pain that radiates from the flank to the groin following a kidney injury.
B) referred pain to the shoulder following injury to the liver or spleen.
JVD suggests
cardiac Tamponade

tension pneumothorax

volume overload

right side heart failure
8. A 29-year-old male has sustained a large laceration across the lower abdomen and has a loop of bowel protruding through the wound. To minimize the amount of body heat that radiates from the open wound, you should:
A) irrigate the wound with warm sterile water.
B) cover the wound with moist sterile dressings.
C) apply a pressure dressing to the open wound.
D) cover the wound with a dry sterile dressing.
B) cover the wound with moist sterile dressings.
9. During your rapid assessment of a semiconscious 44-year-old female with blunt thoracic trauma, you detect an area on the left anterior chest that bulges during exhalation. Your partner is assisting her ventilations with a bag-mask device and 100% oxygen. You should:
A) advise your partner to increase the rate and depth of ventilations.
B) stabilize the chest wall deformity and continue your assessment.
C) call for a paramedic crew to perform a needle chest decompression.
D) place a sandbag over the deformed area and auscultate breath sounds.
stabilize the chest wall deformity and continue your assessment.
10. During Stage 1 hemorrhage, the body compensates primarily by:
A) increasing systolic blood pressure.
B) constriction of the vascular bed.
C) increasing the respiratory rate.
D) narrowing the pulse pressure.
B) constriction of the vascular bed.
11. Significant vital signs changes, including increased heart and respiratory rates and a decreasing blood pressure, would likely occur if an 80-kg adult patient acutely loses as little as _____ L of blood.
A) 0.5
B) 1
C) 2
D) 2.5
B) 1
12. Just before striking a tree with her car, a 17-year-old female suddenly gasps and holds her breath. What type of injury will she MOST likely experience?
A) Disruption of the great vessels
B) Compression of the myocardium
C) Rupture of the lung parenchyma
D) Multiple pulmonary contusions
C) Rupture of the lung parenchyma
13. Hemostasis is a natural response of the body in which:
A) platelets lose their ability to aggregate due to severe internal bleeding.
B) blood is diverted away from the skin to areas where it is needed the most.
C) bleeding spontaneously clots through vasoconstriction and platelet aggregation.
D) all body systems work together to maintain stability of the internal environment.
bleeding spontaneously clots through vasoconstriction and platelet aggregation
14. During your rapid assessment of a patient with a gunshot wound to the chest, you located an open wound to the right anterior chest and sealed it with the appropriate dressing. A few minutes later, the patient's respirations are increasingly labored and his heart rate has significantly increased. You should:
A) request a paramedic to perform a needle decompression.
B) relieve pleural tension by lifting a corner of the dressing.
C) transport the patient to a trauma center for definitive care.
D) ensure that all sides of the dressing are adhered to the chest.
C) relieve pleural tension by lifting a corner of the dressing.
15. A 22-year-old male with blunt thoracic trauma presents with severely labored respirations. His level of consciousness is decreased and his heart rate is 140 beats/min and thready. Further assessment reveals absent breath sounds on the entire left side of his chest and jugular venous distention. After appropriately managing his airway and immobilizing his spine, you should:
A) perform a secondary assessment, transport immediately, and establish vascular access en route.
B) insert a multilumen airway device, start a large-bore IV, and transport to a trauma center.
C) transport immediately, start a large-bore IV en route, and request a paramedic rendezvous.
D) start a large-bore IV, administer a 20 mL/kg normal saline bolus, reassess his vital signs, and transport.
B) insert a multilumen airway device, start a large-bore IV, and transport to a trauma center.
16. Perfusion is MOST accurately defined as:
A) removal of carbon dioxide from the body.
B) circulation of blood within an organ or tissue.
C) adequate supplies of glucose within the brain.
D) oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange in the lungs.
B) circulation of blood within an organ or tissue.
17. A 1-year-old female sustained blunt abdominal trauma following a motor-vehicle crash in which she was not properly restrained. Significant signs and symptoms will MOST likely occur after as little as _____ of blood loss.
A) 50 mL
B) 100 mL
C) 250 mL
D) 300 mL
B) 100 mL
18. A 33-year-old male was shot in the abdomen during an altercation at a bar. He is semiconscious, his heart rate is 160 beats/min and thready, and his respirations are 38 breaths/min and shallow. On the basis of this patient's clinical presentation, you should suspect that he is experiencing stage ____ hemorrhage.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
C) 3
19. Fracture of the first and second ribs following severe blunt trauma would MOST likely result in a:
A) massive hemothorax.
B) myocardial contusion.
C) tracheobronchial injury.
D) pericardial tamponade.
C) tracheobronchial injury.
atelectasis
alveolar collapse
20. A 19-year-old male sustained major head trauma following a motorcycle crash. During your assessment, you note the presence of blood draining from his left ear. What is the MOST important reason for not attempting to control the flow of this bleeding?
A) An increase in intracranial pressure may occur.
B) The patient may develop a life-threatening infection.
C) Its origin is from a location that you cannot access.
D) It would likely skew the physician's assessment.
A) An increase in intracranial pressure may occur.
21. Commotio cordis is a condition in which:
A) immediate cardiac arrest occurs when the chest is impacted during the heart's repolarization period.
B) shearing forces tear the aorta from its point of attachment, resulting in profound intrathoracic hemorrhage.
C) a patient takes a deep breath just before blunt trauma to the chest, resulting in rupture of one or both lungs.
D) increased intrathoracic pressure causes the intercostal muscles to bulge from in between the ribs.
A) immediate cardiac arrest occurs when the chest is impacted during the heart's repolarization period.
22. In addition to controlling bleeding and immobilizing the spine as needed, appropriate care for a patient with a penetrating abdominal wound and signs of shock includes:
A) ensuring adequate ventilation, maintaining adequate perfusion with IV fluids, and transporting to the most appropriate facility.
B) assisting ventilations, infusing normal saline to increase the systolic blood pressure, and transporting to the closest hospital.
C) administering high-flow oxygen, limiting IV fluids to a maximum of 500 mL, and transporting to a regional trauma center.
D) starting two large-bore IV lines, running the IVs wide open, and promptly transporting to the closest, most appropriate facility.
B) assisting ventilations, infusing normal saline to increase the systolic blood pressure, and transporting to the closest hospital
23. Which of the following seatbelt positions will MOST likely result in severe intraabdominal injuries when a vehicle suddenly decelerates?
A) Shoulder harness and lap belt placed superior to the iliac crest
B) Use of the lap belt only with the shoulder harness behind the back
C) Shoulder harness used and lap belt across the anterior iliac crest
D) Shoulder harness not used and lap belt across the anterior iliac crest
D) Shoulder harness not used and lap belt across the anterior iliac crest
24. Patients with a tension pneumothorax experience a decreased cardiac output and shock secondary to:
A) myocardial compression and decreased preload.
B) massive blood accumulation in the pleural space.
C) decreased intrathoracic pressure and increased preload.
D) significant intrapulmonary shunting and severe hypoxia.
A) myocardial compression and decreased preload.
25. The presence of a scaphoid abdomen and bowel sounds in the lower hemithorax are MOST suggestive of a:
A) pneumothorax.
B) perforated lung.
C) perforated bowel.
D) ruptured diaphragm.
D) ruptured diaphragm.
Cullen sign
periumbilical bruising
grey turner sign
bruising in r upper, left upper or flank suggest injury to liver, spleenor kidney
26. Blunt abdominal trauma may result in tearing of the mesentery, which is/are:
A) multiple bands of thick muscle that protect the abdominal organs.
B) the main supporting structure of the descending abdominal aorta.
C) a vascular network that provides exclusive blood supply to the liver.
D) membranous folds that attach the intestines to the abdominal wall.
D) membranous folds that attach the intestines to the abdominal wall.
27. Which of the following injuries presents the greatest risk for severe internal bleeding?
A) Rib fractures
B) Pelvic fractures
C) Tibial fractures
D) Bilateral femur fractures
A) Rib fractures
hematochezia
passage of bloody stools (typically from hemrroids)
28. Increasing the blood pressure with IV crystalloids in a patient with intraabdominal bleeding would MOST likely:
A) result in clinical improvement.
B) exacerbate the internal bleeding.
C) facilitate the hemostatic process.
D) improve perfusion to vital organs
B) exacerbate the internal bleeding.
29. A construction worker is pinned in between a truck and a loading dock. He is conscious and in respiratory distress. Further assessment reveals upper torso and facial cyanosis and bilateral conjunctival hemorrhages. When treating this patient, you must:
A) suspect that he will experience metabolic alkalosis.
B) be prepared for severe hypotension once he is freed.
C) administer 3 liters of normal saline before he is freed.
D) avoid fluid boluses as this may cause pulmonary edema.
B) be prepared for severe hypotension once he is freed.
30. Which of the following medications would interfere with the body's hemostatic effect?
A) Antianginals
B) Antidepressants
C) Anticoagulants
D) Antihypertensives
C) Anticoagulants
31. When caring for a patient with significant thoracic trauma and signs of shock, it is MOST important to:
A) establish two large-bore IV lines.
B) transport promptly to a trauma center.
C) perform a detailed secondary assessment.
D) administer high-flow oxygen at all times.
B) transport promptly to a trauma center.
32. Which of the following is a LATE sign of a tension pneumothorax?
A) Contralateral tracheal shift
B) Bulging intercostal muscles
C) Narrowing pulse pressure
D) Profound shortness of breath
A) Contralateral tracheal shift
33. Shortly after arriving home from the airport, a 19-year-old male experienced an acute onset of sharp chest pain and difficulty breathing. He denies a history of trauma. Your assessment reveals that he is in moderate distress and is tachycardic. Breath sounds are diminished over the apex of the right lung. You should suspect a/an:
A) localized hemothorax.
B) spontaneous pneumothorax.
C) acute onset of pneumonia.
D) developing tension pneumothorax.
B) spontaneous pneumothorax.
34. Which of the following medications or medical devices may inhibit the body's tachycardic response during shock?
A) Aspirin
B) Anticoagulant
C) Beta-blocker
D) Implanted defibrillator
C) Beta-blocker
35. Which of the following organs or systems can survive the longest without oxygen?
A) Gastrointestinal system
B) Skeletal muscles
C) The myocardium
D) Central nervous system
A) Skeletal muscles
36. Which of the following injuries or conditions would MOST likely overwhelm the body's hemostatic response and result in death?
A) Ruptured aortic aneurysm
B) Laceration to the spleen
C) Bleeding within the brain
D) Laceration to the liver
A) Ruptured aortic aneurysm
37. What is the rationale for restricting IV fluid boluses in patients with a pulmonary contusion?
A) Pulmonary contusions rarely cause severe hypovolemia.
B) Fluids may cause pulmonary edema or increased bleeding.
C) Rapidly increasing the blood pressure may inhibit hemostasis.
D) Excessive fluid boluses may result in a tension pneumothorax.
B) Fluids may cause pulmonary edema or increased bleeding.
38. Diffuse (global) swelling of the abdomen is MOST suggestive of:
A) acute bowel obstruction.
B) intraabdominal bleeding.
C) peritoneal inflammation.
D) perforation of the liver.
B) intraabdominal bleeding.
39. Which of the following statements regarding trauma to the kidneys is correct?
A) Injuries confined to the kidneys are common following blunt force trauma.
B) You should suspect a ruptured aorta when the MOI suggests kidney injury.
C) Kidney injury is usually associated with injury to other abdominal organs.
D) The kidneys are well protected in the abdomen and rarely sustain injury.
Kidney injury is usually associated with injury to other abdominal organs.
40. When treating a patient with a suspected diaphragmatic rupture, you should:
A) apply 100% oxygen with a nonrebreathing mask.
B) avoid administering more than 500 mL of crystalloid.
C) avoid placing the patient in a Trendelenburg position.
D) assist ventilations with a bag-mask device if needed.
assist ventilations with a bag-mask device if needed.
41. Priority management for a patient with an amputated penis and stable vital signs includes:
A) locating the amputated part.
B) rapid transport to a trauma center.
C) controlling any active hemorrhage.
D) placing moist dressings on the wound.
C) controlling any active hemorrhage.
42. Patients with internal bleeding are in MOST need of:
A) high-flow oxygen.
B) IV fluid boluses.
C) surgical intervention.
D) thermal management.
C) surgical intervention.
43. You are dispatched to a local nightclub for a patient who has been stabbed. After arriving at the scene and ensuring you and your partner's safety, you find the patient sitting on the ground. He is conscious, screaming in pain, and attempting to control bright red blood that is spurting from his groin area. After taking standard precautions, you should:
A) ensure that the patient's airway is patent.
B) apply 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.
C) obtain baseline vital signs and treat for shock.
D) apply direct pressure to control the bleeding.
D) apply direct pressure to control the bleeding.
injuries associated with improper seat belt location
lumbar spine fractures; great vessel damage; damaged abdominal organs
what are the bony landmarks of the abdomen?
pubic symphysis;

costal arch;

ilac crests;

anterior superior ilac spines
pneumoperitonitis
air in peritoneal cavity causes inflammatory reaction
what muscles are used for guarding?
rectus abdominus (pubis to xiphiod)
what is a massive hemothorax?
>1500 ml blood in pleural space
why do you restrict fluids in pulmonary contusions?
to prevent pulmonary edema.
you might see bulging of intercostal muscles in what condition?
tension pheumothorax
beck triad
narrowing pulse pressures,

JVD,

muffled heart sounds
symptoms of traumatic asphyxiation
JVD
facial cuanosis
bulging eyes
hemorrage of conjunctiva
Define scaphoid abdomen
ruptured diaphram causes abdominal contents to shift into thoraic cavity
pulsus paradoxus
pulses drop > 10 mm during inspiration
nerves that enervate the diaphram
phrenic
where are peripheral chemo receptors located?
carotid and aortic bodies
where are central chemo receptors located
medulla
respiratory alkalosis does what to ph?
raises it