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393 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
- 3rd side (hint)
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In blood pressure 120/80 what does each number represent? |
120 is the systole and 80 is the diastole
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Which 4 movements are in the saggital plane?
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flexion, extension, dorsiflexion, plantar flexion
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Which 6 movements are in the frontal plane?
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Abduction/adduction, elevation/depression, inversion/eversion
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Which 3 movements are in the transverse plane?
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rotation, pronation, supination
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Which part of the body is capable of multiplanar movement?
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The thumb
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What is a multiplanar movement?
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a movement in circumduction and opposistion
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What is the best way to avoid the stretch reflex?
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use slow controlled static stretching techniques and hold for at least 15 seconds
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Define 'inferior'?
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Located at the bottom or further from the head
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Define supine/supination?
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The position of a part of the body that is facing upwards.
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Which way does blood flow through an artery?
Which way does blood flow through a vein? |
Arteries carry blood away from the heart
Veins carry blood to the heart. |
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In which part of the heart is the right and left atrium located?
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The atriums are in the upper chambers of the heart
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In which part of the heart are the right and left ventricles located?
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The ventricles are in the lower chambers of the heart |
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What is kyphosis?
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Convex curvature of the thoracic region of the spine (humpback)
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Name the 5 sections of the spine from top to bottom
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Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacrum, coccyx
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Carbohydrate when eaten is broken down into what?
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Glucose
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Fats when eaten is broken down into what?
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Fatty acids
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Proteins when eaten are broken down into what?
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Amino Acids
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Carbohydrates, fats and proteins are converted then broken down to be absorbed by the ...
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blood
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What does blood do?
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It carries oxygen and nutrients around the body
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What is abduction?
What plane is it in? |
A movement in the frontal plane that takes a part of the body away from the median plane
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How many planes can a uniplanar joint move in?
What type of joint is it? |
One.
Hinge joint. |
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What is a joint?
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A point where two or more bones connect
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What is posterior?
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Facing toward or located at the back of the body
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What is lateral flexion?
What plane is it in? |
Movement in the frontal plane going away from the median plane (side bending)
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name the 4 functions of the skeleton?
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a. levers and points of attachment for muscles.
b. They support the weight of the body. c..They protect the vital organs (heart,brain, spinal cord) d. they produce blood cells and store cacium and minerals |
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The 2 halves the transverse plane divide the body into are the?
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Superior and inferior
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What halves does the median plane divide the body into?
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symetrical right and left
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Define prone/pronation?
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rotation of an anatomical part towards the midline: as a : rotation of the hand and forearm so that the palm faces backwards or downwards b : rotation of the medial bones in the midtarsal region of the foot inward and downward so that in walking the foot tends to come down on its inner margin
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What plane is an 'extension' movement in?
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Saggital
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When you bend your knee is that flexion or extension?
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Extension
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What are the 4 different kinds of stretching?
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Ballistic, dynamic, PNF, static
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What are the 5 components of fitness?
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muscular strength
muscular endurance body composition flexibility cardiovascular endurance |
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What is the difference between type 1 and type 2 diabetes?
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Type 1: Juvenile onset - results from LOW blood sugar or hypoglycemia.
Typ 2: Adulthood onset - results from HIGH blood sugar or hyperglycemia |
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Name 2 ball and socket joints?
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shoulder, hip
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Name a saddle joint (biplanar movement)
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Thumb
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Define medial?
Define lateral? |
Towards the midline of the body.
Away from the midline of the body |
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Name 4 flat bones?
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Skull
sternum ribs shoulder blades |
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Where can you find irregular bones?
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vertebrae
ilium/ischium, pubis (hip bones) |
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Name 5 long bones?
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Radius
ulna femur tibia fibula humerus |
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Define 'proximal/?
Define 'distal? |
Towards the attached end of a limb (the origin).
DIstal: further from the attached end of a limb. |
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Where is the thoracic vertebrae situated?
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Between the neck and the abdomen (also known as the thorax).
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Where is the lumbar vertebrae situated?
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In the lower back between the abdomen and the pelvis.
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What is superficial?
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externally on or near the outside surface of the body/organ/bone
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what is distal?
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located further from the trunk of a major joint. SItuated furthest from the point of attachment or origin.
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What is a tendon?
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Connective tissue that connects muscle to bone
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Give 2 examples of hinge joints (uniplanar movement)?
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Knee, elbows, fingers
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Define plantar (plantarflexion)?
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the sole or bottom of the feet or hands
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define dorsiflexion?
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flexion of the foot in an upward direction
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What is intercostal or 3D breathing?
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Ribcage breathing.
Intercostal defines as: situated or extending between the ribs |
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What is respiration?
What 3 gases are used during it? |
The exchange of oxygen, CO2 and nitrogen gases between the atmosphere, blood and cells of the body.
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What plane is lateral rotation in? What dance movement is it?
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Transverse plane. Turn out.
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Name the 4 most important muscles for hip flexion?
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Illiopsoas
rectus femoris sartorius tensor fascia latae |
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What is lordosis?
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A convex curvature of the lumbar region.
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What plane is medial rotation in?
What dance movement is it? |
Transverse plane. Turn in.
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What plane is flexion in?
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Saggital
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Name a sesamoid bone. They are usually found embedded in tendons. (seed like)
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kneecap
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What is diaphragmic breathing?
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Belly breathing
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What is circumduction?
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A multiplanar movement. consisting of abduction, extension and adduction in sequence to make a cone-like movement
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What plane is depression and elevation in?
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frontal (eg moving the scapula to an inferior/superior position)
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What plane is pronation in?
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Transverse plane. (eg rotation the hand and hand medially from the elbow)
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What plane is plantar/dorsi flexion in?
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Sagittal. (eg moving the sole of the foot downwards and pointing the toes)
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What plane is inversion/eversion in?
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Frontal
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What is osteoporosis?
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A disease that drains the bones of its mineral content. Bones then become brittle and snap easily.
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What must you do before you give someone with osteoporosis exercise?
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Get approval from their Dr first.
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What spine afflication is usually associated with people with osteoporosis?
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Kyphosis of the cervical vertebrae (Dowagers Hump)
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What kind of training should you start people who have osteoporosis with?
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strengthening, resistance , aerobic (plyometrics) , and flexibility training
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What is plyometrics training?
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High intensity movements like jumping that have high force loading of bodyweight in the landing phase of the movement .
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What is a fitness appraisal for?
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A thorough test to determine your level of fitness.
The info is used to plan a fitness program. Height, weight, blood pressure, girth, resting heart rate, body composition, muscular strength, muscular endurance, flexibility, and cardiorespiratory endurance are measured |
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What is the function of a ligament?
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To strengthen and stabilze a joint.
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Can ligaments stretch?
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No
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name the 3 systems of somasensation?
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Eyes - visual system
inner ear - vestibular system body - isometric system |
Think the blind/deaf/dumb monkey in the ads
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A sensory receptor located in muscles, tendons, skin and joints, which conveys information to the CNS about the physical state and position of skeletal muscles and joints. Prop____tors provide essential information for smooth coordinated movements and the maintenance of body posture.
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proprioceptors
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Main Entry: re·cep·tor
Pronunciation: ri-sep-tr Function: noun 1 : a cell or group of cells that receives stimuli : SENSE ORGAN. 3 : a cellular entity (as a beta-receptor or alpha-receptor) that is a postulated intermediary between a chemical agent (as a neurohormone) acting on nervous tissue and the physiological or pharmacological response |
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What is a synergist?
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A muscle that aids another muscle to create movement.
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biomechanics is the science of what?
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The science of movement of the body, including how muscles, bones, tendons and ligaments all work together to produce movement.
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Bio definition -
Function: combining form : life : living organisms or tissue <biochemistry>n: |
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What is Wolfs law (think:werewolfs)?
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It says that bone can change size and strength according to the amount of stress put on it
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(like a werewolfs change in the moonlight)
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What is isotonic exercise?
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Exercises done against a fixed resistance by using fre weights, dumbells/barballs or fixed equipment.
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How long should static stretches be held during a warm up?
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5-10 seconds
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What is the principle of specificity training?
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It states that the body adapts specifically to whatever demands are placed on it
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What is hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
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A congenital heart defect (thickend heart muscle) in teens who drop dead out of nowhere.
any structural or functional disease of heart muscle that is marked especially by hypertrophy of cardiac muscle, by enlargement of the heart, by rigidity and loss of flexibility of the heart walls, or by narrowing of the ventricles |
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What is an echocardiography test? What equipment is used for testing?
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the use of ultrasound to examine and measure the structure and functioning of the heart and to diagnose abnormalities and disease
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What checks do all high school students need before starting a workout program?
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cardiovascular screening
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Monosaccharides and disaccharides are simple...?
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Sugars
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Fats, proteins and carbohydrates are known together as.....nutrients?
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Macro
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What 3 things provide the body with calories
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Carbohydrate
fats protein |
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What are the 4 goals of a group exercise program?
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a. Better flexibility
b. Better body composition c. more muscular strength and endurance d. to enhance caridovascular endurance |
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If a client has a bolld pressure reading of 144/94 what does this mean?
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They have high blood pressure
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Name 4 polysaccharide complex carboydrate foods
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bread
cereal legume vegetables |
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What is a polysaccharide?
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A complex carbohydrate made of starch and fiber.(bread, cereals, legumes, vegetables). They are full fo vitamins, minerals and proteins.
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The carbohydrates we eat are stored by hte body in the form of gly____n. This helps us perform better during endurance exercises.
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glycogen
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What does the body use ATP for?
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to create energy with creatine phosphate
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How many Kilo Grams =1 pound of weight?
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0.45kg + 1lb
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How many (kilo)calories = 1lb of weight?
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10 calories = 1lb of weight
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What is an isometric contraction?
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When the muscles are stimulated to generate tension but no joint movement occurs
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What is glycogen?
Where is it stored? What is it broker down into? |
The stored body fuel.
Stored in the liver broken down into glucose when needed by the body |
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Where is glycogen found?
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In the liver and muscles
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What is the glycemic index?
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This index measures how much your blood glucose increases in the two or three hours after eating. (carbs).
Food with a higher index score will raise the blood glucose levels quicker than those with a lower score. |
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Glucose is also know as ..... sugar, the main energy for body, brain and CNS functions.
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blood sugar
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Which sugar is used to create ATP for energy?
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Glucose
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What is a phytochemical?
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A compound found in plants that have anti cancer and anti heart disease properties when eaten
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What kind of foods are amino acids found in?
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Animal derived. Fsh, poultry, red meat.
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What are amino acids
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the building blocks of proteins in our bodies
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What s another word for dietary fat?
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lipids
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What is the function of fat?
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heat insulation
It absorbs and transports fat solubale vitamins(A,D,E,K) and essential fatty acids around the body. It helps protect vital organs (heart, kidneys,, liver) source of energy |
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Fat is of ....and.....?
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Carbon
Hydrogen |
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Corn, sunflower, Saffower, olive, sesami, canola, avocado and nut oils are all kinds of which fats?
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Unsaturated
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....unsaturated and ...unsaturated and two typed of unsatureated fats?
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polyunsaturated
monounsaturated |
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name the 2 places where cholesterol is found?
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in the liver and foods of animal origin.
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Is lethicin water or fat soluble?
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Both
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What vitamins are fat soluble?
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Vitamins A,D,E,K
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What is linoleic acid?
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A fatty acid found in vegetable oils, nuts, seeds what germ and other polyunsacharated fats.
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.... nutrients are also known a vitamins and minerals
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Micro
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Which vitamins are water soluble?
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B vitamins and vitamin C
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Peas and beans are a part of the .....(food) family
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legume
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What is a megadose
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When someone over doses on the reccomended RDA levels of micro nutrients.
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...........ion is a process in which liquid fats are amde ot become solid.
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Hydrogenation
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What happens if you break the carbon/carbon double bonds in fat and add hydrogen to it?
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It becomes solid.
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A carbon/carbon double bonds in fat means that the fat is in liquid or solid form?
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Liquid
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Name the 2 types of fiber
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water soluble (viscous) insoluble (incompletely fermented).
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If you have hyponatremia what's wrong with you (sin marathon runners)?
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•abnormally low level of sodium in the blood; associated with dehydration
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What are the symptoms of hyponatremia (not enough
sodium in the body fluids outside the cells)? |
confusion
drowsiness / tiredness dry mouth increased thirst •lack of energy not passing much urine (if very severe) convulsions (seizures) (if very severe) coma death |
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What kinds of people suffer from hyponatremia the most?
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triathletes
Marathon runners people with kidney disease and cancer |
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Name 4 things that eating a diet rich in fiber will do for the body?
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a. Helps lower blood cholesterol
b. Normalizes blood sugar c.Helps prevent type 2 diabetes d. Makes you fuller faster |
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What is the maximum decibals music should be at during a class?
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90 decibals and under
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How many decibals below your voice should class music be set to so you can be heard?
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10 decibals
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What illnesses can you get from a lack of fiber?
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hemorroids
colon cancer |
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What is an ergogenic (think air-as in making you high) acid and where can you find it?
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Ergogenic aids are dietary supplements intended to enhance athletic performance
Caffeine., steroids |
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What does it mean if you have a CONGENITALheart disease?
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It means you were born with it
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What is preparticipation screening?
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Pre exercise screeening.
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The physical activity reaidness questionaire is also known as the ....?
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PARQ questionaire.
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What is the PARQ questionaire for?
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To assess risk of starting in a fitness program. It's a health screening tool for clients.
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Who should take the PARQ test?
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All new clients.
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Which major muscle is used in the action of breathing?
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The diaphragm
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What is dyspnea (sin can you pronounce the word properly)?
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Difficulty in breathing or shortness of breath.
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What is the dyspinea scale used for?
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It's a test that measures exercise intensity in people who have pulmanary conditions such as asthma, emphysema and other types of breathlessness
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What kind of moves should you do during a warm ups ession?
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Rehearsal moves
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4 ways ot monitor exercise intensity are:
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a. talk test
b. dyspnea test c. HR heart rate test d. RPE ratings of percieved exersion |
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What is the equation 22- your age is used to find your maximum heart rate. What is your heart rate if you are 38 years old?
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182
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What do the letters DMOS stand for?
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Delayed onset muscle soreness
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the function of muscles are to?
To supply h__t, mantain p___re and stabilze the j___s |
To supply heat, mantain posture and stabilze the joints
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A healthy woman should have how much body fat?
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14-21%
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A healthy man should have how much body fat?
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10-17%
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m______ism is the process by which your body breaks down food to release energy
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metabolism
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Why warm up?
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It prevents injuries
Gets heart/blood pumping |
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What is a BMI
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body mass index
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If your BMI is over 25 are you:
A; Underweight B. Avenrage C. Obese |
C
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3 ways to determine your BMI are:
W___st to h_p ratio Use of a cal___r Y be fit |
Waist to hip ratio
Use of a caliper Y be fit |
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Name the 6 things your body needs to create energy?
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water
fiber/carbs minerals vitamens protein fat |
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Name 7 Causes of Aerobics Dance injury
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poor surface
poor footwear poor posture poor strength poor flexibility poor body mechanics |
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What are 5 common Aerobics Dance injuries
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blisters
shin splints dizziness cramps sore/stiff muscles |
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Name 2 types of exercise related soreness
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1. Immediate (Lactic Acid)
2. Delayed onset muscle soreness (DOMS); 1-3 days later; due to small tears in connective tissue |
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What are the 3 Cardiovascular responses to exercise
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1. Stroke volume increases
2. New capillaries are produced 3. Mitochondrial density increases |
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Name 3 pathways to replenish ATP
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1. Aerobic
2. Ananrobic 3. Creatine phosphate |
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Name 3 primary types of muscle and locations of each
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1. Cardiac - Heart
2. Smooth - Arteries/Intestines 3. Skeletal |
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Name 3 types of connective tissue
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1. Cartilage (padding b/w bones)
2. Ligaments (connect bone/bone) 3. Tendons (connect muscle/bone) |
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4 factors that limit flexibility are?
1. Li____ts and t____dons 2. Muscle t______ 3. B_ne_/J____t structure 4. Skin |
1. Ligaments and tendons
2. Muscle tissue 3. Bone/Joint structure 4. Skin |
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What is ATP?
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Body's energy source
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What is the Borg Scale? What is the recommneded exercise intensity range on this scale?
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Rating of Perceived Exertion;
12 to 15 on scale of 6-20 or 3 to 5 on scale of 0-10 |
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What is Cardiac Output (Q)
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Amount of blood that flows from each ventricle in one minute.
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Cardiac Output (Q) = ____ x ____
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Heart Rate x Stroke Volume
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Define cardiorespiratory Fitness
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Ability to deliver adequate supply of oxygen to exercising muscles.
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Causes of Muscle Fatigue at:
0-30 sec.? 40-60 min.;? 60-180 min ? |
0-30 sec.; 40-60 min.; 60-180 min. 0-30 sec. - Active cells run out of ATP
40-60 min. - Lactic Acid 60-180 min. - Glycogen depleted |
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Cool down until heart rate reaches ___ to ___ bpm to reverse blood shunt
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108 - 120 bpm
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Coronary Arteries supply the body with what gas?
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Co2
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What is Diastolic blood pressure?
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Pressure remaining when heart relaxes b/w beats
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During exercise, systolic BP should _____
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Increase
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During exercise, systolic BP should _____
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Increase
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Define exercise physiology
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Ways cells and tissues function during exercise.
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What is Glycogen and where is it stored?
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Chains of glucose stored in liver and muscles
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What does Hemoglobin do
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Protein that carries O2 in red blood cells.
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What is Ischemia
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Insufficient O2 supply
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Kilocalorie (Kcal) is the Amount of heat required to raise temperature of ... Kg of water.... degree C.
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1
1 |
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What is Lactic Acid
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By product of anaerobic ATP production
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What is your MET?
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Resting VO2 = 3.5mL/kg/min
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What is the absolute inimum daily Aerobic activity = ____ min
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10 minutes a day
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Minimum Days per Week to exercise = ____
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3
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What is Mitochondria
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Site of aerobic energy (ATP) production
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What are Muscle Spindles
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Fibers in muscle tissue that protect against too much stretch
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Name 4 chambers of heart
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Right and Left Atria and Right and Left Ventricles
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the 2 phases of cardiac cycle are sys_______ and dia_______
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Systole and Diastole
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The optimum exercise intensity is
Maximum O2 consumption of ___ to ___% or ___ to ____ % of the Maximum heart rate |
Max. O2 Consumption 50 - 85% or 60 - 90% Max. HR
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What is the Overload principle
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System must be made to work harder to improve
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What is Performance Interval Training
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Very High Intensity; Competitive Performance
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What is the Principle of Specificity of Training
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Aerobic exercise needs to be rhythmic, continuous, and involve large muscle groups
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What is the Stroke Volume (SV)
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Amount of blood pumped from each ventricle each time heart beats
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What is Systolic Blood pressure
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Pressure from contraction of left ventricle
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Define VO2 Max
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Total capacity to consume O2 at cellular level; i.e. maximal O2 consumption or maximum aerobic capacity
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VO2 Max depends on 2 factors
VO2 Max = _____ x _____ |
Cardiac output (delivery of O2 to working muscles by blood) and Oxygen extraction (ability to extract O2 from blood for use in mitochondria)
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What is the benefit of having a high level of cardiopulmonary fitness?
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Heart spends more time resting (in diastole) in submaximal exercise intensity.
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what are the 5 Major Human Body Systems
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1. Cardiovascular
2. Respiratory 3. Nervous 4. Skeletal 5. Muscular |
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the 3 Phases of respiration are:
1. Ext_____l 2. Int______l 3. Cellular |
1. External
2. Internal 3. Cellular |
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What are the 2 parts of Nervous System according to location
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Central and Peripheral
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The aquatic exercises used during aquatic fitness are designed to do what 4 things?
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1. lose weight 2. provide resistance (muscle tone) 3. move joints more freely (flexibility) 4. raise the heart rate
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What are some health benefits of an aquatics class?
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1. lowers blood lipids
2. lowers BP 3. decreases risk of diabetes 4. decreases stress |
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What is a desirable fat range for women? men?
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women-17-26%; men 12-21%
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How do we increase aerobic intensity?
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1. add more weight
2. more intensity 3. duration 4. change depth of water |
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What should you do for a muscle cramp?
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stretch the muscle
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What are the 6 basic nutrients?
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carbs, vitamins, protein, minerals, water, fats
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The sit and reach test is to test
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Flexibility
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Push-ups help to increase.....?
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muscle strength and endurance
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The three minute/ step test is to test
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cardiorespiratory endurance
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The ability of muscles to generate force is also called (2 words)
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muscle strength
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The amount of lean mass to adipose tissue (2 words)
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body composition
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capacity of a joint to move freely (one word)
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Flexibity
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The ability of the heart and lungs to supply oxygen? (one word)
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cardiorespiratory
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Walking, running, swimming and aquatics are all kind of what type of exercise?
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cardio
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Where are the biceps
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Front of the arm
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Where is the Gastrocnemius
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Calf muscle
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Where are the hamstrings
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Back of the upper leg
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Where is the Latissimus dorsi
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largest/widest muscle in the back
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What are the pectoralis major
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The chest muscles
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Where are the Quadriceps
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front of upper leg
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WHere is the Rectus adominus
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front of the body/ ribs to pubic bone
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Where is the Trapezius
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upper back
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Where are the triceps
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back of the upper arm
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20 yo man w/ resting heart rate of 80. What is his target heart rate at 60% to 85% training intensities?
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1. Maximum hr=220 minus age=200
2. Resting Hr=80 3. Heart rate Reserve=200 minus 80=120 3. Training intensity x .50 and .85 120X 4.add rh=152 and 182 |
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WHat results from a lack of Cardiovascular endurance
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chronic and hypokinetic diseases
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Muscular flexibility does what 2 things?
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Full rom, allows joints to move freely
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For muscular strength what do we need?
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2-3 times a week, need resistance
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How many adults exercise enough
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10-20%;
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Definition of a sprain?
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A sprain is the stretching or tearing of ligaments.
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Treatment for sprains?
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1st/2nd (24-48HR) Rest Ice Compression Elevation, joint
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Definition of tendonitis?
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Irritation due to repetitive muscle activity.
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Symptoms of tendonitis?
treatment? |
Redness, swelling, pain & crackle sounds.
Rest. No improvement? Medical care. |
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What are some muscle endurance excercises?
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sit ups, push ups, etc.
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what does eccentric mean?
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muscle elongation
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During a _______contraction, the muscle shortens as it contracts, as in the upward motion of a biceps curl or the extension of the arms during kickbacks.
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concentric contraction
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_______ stretching consists of controlled leg and arm swings that take you (gently!) to the limits of your range of motion
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Dynamic
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Muscular _______ is the ability of a muscle or group of muscles to sustain repeated contractions against a resistance for an extended period of time.
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endurance
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A_________muscle contraction is a type of muscle activation that increases tension on a muscle as it lengthens.
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Eccentric
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_______stretching involves reaching forward to a point of tension and holding the stretch.
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static
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What is flexibility?
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The range of motion at a joint or serios of joints.
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What is body composition?
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ratio of fat to muscle and bones
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What % of fat is obese?
What % is morbidly obese? |
30%...40%
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What are the health risks for excessive weight?
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incr. risk of lifestyle related disease ex. heart diseases, stroke, diabetes, elected blood press, elevated heart rate, constipation
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How do you assess BMI?
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weight (kg) / ht (m³)
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How does excercise influence long term weight management?
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Increases metabolism
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What are the 3 principles of training
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specificity, overload, progression
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principles of training - specificity
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selecting specific exercises to develop specific exercise results
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principles of training - overload
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doing more than you normally do (frequency,iintensity, time0
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principles of training - progression
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increasing overload as your body adapts to it
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Normal blood pressure is .../...? High blood pressure is anything above this number.
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120/80
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Hig blood pressure is also known as ......?(one word)
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hypertension
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Poepl with diabetes and kidney disease are at a higher risk for.....and.......?
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Heart attakc
strokes |
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What actions can you do to lower your blood pressure if it's high?
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Losing weight
exercising regularly limit sodium and alcohol intake take medication |
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If you suffer from osteoporosis what are the results of doing exercise give you
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It will increase your bone mass
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Vigorous ______exercise will condition the cardiopulmonary system and increases efficiency of oxygen intake, build the cardiovascular system and increase metabolic activity
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aerobic
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_____ tissue is a bodily connective tissue that contains stored cellular fat.
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Adipose
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______ ______are the essential components of protein. and the building blocks of the all the cells in the body. There are about 20 different ____ _____ in the human body.
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Amino acids
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______ endurance is the ability of the body's circulatory and respiratory systems to supply fuel and oxygen during sustained physical activity.
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cardioresperatory
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______ is a disease caused by a severe deficiency of insulin production by the pancreas. Mild cases can be regulated through diet while others require an injection.
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diabetes
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There are 8 essential _____ ______ which are not capable of being produced by the body and must be obtained through dietary protein.
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amino acids
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____ is one of the elongated, thick-walled cells giving strength and support to plant tissue. An important part of the diet for regulation of digestion and elimination of digestive waste.
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fiber
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_____ is a sweet sugar that is found in many fruits and honey. Is prone to being stored as body fat.
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fructose
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_____ is the combination of simple sugars that is formed by the digestion of food and is released into the bloodstream to be used for energy, converted into muscle glycogen or stored as body fat.
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glucose
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The _____ _____ _____ is a group of sensory receptors in the muscle that fire when the tendon is stretched too far and shuts down the muscle.
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golgi tendon organ
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What does the Golgi Tendon Reflex do?
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It shuts down of the muscle by the golgi tendon organ during exercise
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A ______ is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of water 1° C. Kilocalorie is the ordinary calorie discussed in food or exercise energy-expenditure tables and food labels.
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kilocalorie
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______ ______ is produced by anaerobic metabolism of carbohydrates in the muscle. It is what gives the muscles a burning sensation during and after strenuous work.
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lactic acid
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_______ is a simple sugar found in greatest quantities in milk products.
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lactose
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What is Lipolysis?
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The breakdown of fat for energy.
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______ is a microscopic body occurring in the cells of nearly all living organisms and containing enzymes responsible for the conversion of food for usable energy.
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Mitochondria
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____ is a tissue made up of fibers that can contract and relax to effect body movement. It is the most metabolically active tissue in the body.
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muscle
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What are Myofibrils ?
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muscle fibers
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(RDA) is a group of standards put forth by the National Research Council indicating the minimum amount of nutrients that should be eaten daily.
What does it stand for? |
Recommended Daily Allowance
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____ is 75% of the maximal aerobic capacity. This measure is used to determine the intensity of exercise.
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VO2max
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The 4 parts from begining to end that your class should include starting with the warm up are:
a) Warm up b) C____________ing c) C______ D_______ d) S___________ing C |
Warm up
conditioning Cool down Stretching |
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The intensity and duration of each class component varies depending on:
a) the general skills and abilities of the class participants b) The best performer in the class c) beginners who are new to the class |
A
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What are the manifestations of overtraining?
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You plateau or decrease in performance
Decrease body weight Loss of Appetite Sleep disturbances Muscle tear Increased Risk for infection |
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What are the proprioceptors?
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Golgi tendons, and muscle spindles
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What is Static Stretching?
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Slow and Controlled
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What is dynamic stretching?
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Used by athletes to mimic movements in competition. Bouncing but more controlled than Ballistic.
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statically stretching a muscle immediately after contracting it against a resistance icalled Proprioceptive Facilitation Stretching or (abbreviation)?
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PNF
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What is the normal spine curvatures for the 3 areas.
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Cervical is Concave, Thoracic is convex or kyphotic, lumbar is concave or lordotic.
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What fat distribution body type is most likely to have central obesity?
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Apple shaped
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How do you determine Calorie needs?
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RMR men=BWx11 kcal/lb
RMR women=BWx10 kcal/lb |
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Give the three different types of strength training
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Isometric
Isotonic Isokinetic |
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Isometric exercise can be called, no-motion, or static exercise but what do the original words is and metric translate to?
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Same - distance
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Fatty acids that are not immediately used for ATP production by the body are stored as:
A. Glycogen B. Adipose tissue C. Glucose D. ADP |
B
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Essential body fat is best defined as the amount of fat that is ideal for:
A. Health and fitness B. Sports and performance C. Living and reproduction D. Blood sugar and fatty acid regulation |
C
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How many seconds of all-out exertion is equivalent to the amount of energy immediately available from phosphagens?
A. 1 B. 10 C. 30 D. 60 |
B
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Which metabolic pathway for ATP production is used when running across a busy street?
A. Aerobic glycolysis B. Oxidative glycolysis C. Anaerobic glycolysis D. Fatty acid oxidation |
C
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Slow twitch muscle fibers are best designed for use during:
A. Aerobic glycolysis B. Oxidative glycolysis C. Anaerobic glycolysis D. Beta oxidation |
A
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Fitness gains that are achieved during a training program and will decline if not maintained regularly are consistent with the principle of:
A. Adaptation B. Specificity C. Reversibility D. All-or-none |
C
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Cardiac output is the product of:
A. Blood pressure and ventilation B. Heart rate and stroke volume C. Ventilation and stroke volume D. Blood pressure and heart rate |
B
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Anaerobic threshold occurs when:
A. There is excess build-up of lactic acid in the blood B. Respiration and CO2 production increases C. Exercise intensity exceeds 75% VO2max D. Respiration and oxygen demands increase |
A
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Exercise intensity for most healthy adults should be approximately:
A. 30-65% HRR B. 40-75% HRR C. 40-85% HRR D. 60-95% HRR |
C
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Which of the following BEST prepares a participant for exercising at a high altitude?
A. Prolonging warm-up and gradually increasing intensity B. Replacing body fluids at the onset of thirst C. Cutting regular exercise duration in half D. Allowing 24 hours to acclimate |
A
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Muscle action that involves lengthening as tension is created is described as
A. Concentric B. Eccentric C. Isometric D. Isotonic |
B
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Which involuntary motor response, when stimulated, causes a suddenly stretched muscle to respond with a corresponding contraction?
A. Golgi tendon organ B. Muscle spindle C. Stretch reflex D. Range of motion |
C
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The wrist is classified as what type of joint?
A. Condyloid B. Synovial C. Cartilaginous D. Hinge |
B
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Flexion and extension occur in which plane?
A. Transverse B. Frontal C. Multiplanar D. Sagittal |
D
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Flexion, lateral flexion, and rotation of the trunk are all characteristics of which abdominal muscle(s)?
A. Rectus abdominus B. Erector spinae C. Internal and external obliques D. Transverse abdominus |
C
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The rotator cuff muscles are comprised of which of the following?
A. Serratus anterior, infraspinatus, trapezius, and subscapularis B. Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, and subscapularis C. Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres major, and subscapularis D. Serratus anterior, infraspinatus, teres minor, and subscapularis |
B
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The middle deltoid functions as the prime mover for shoulder:
A. Adduction B. Extension C. Abduction D. Internal rotation |
C
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Which blood vessel contains valves to prevent blood from flowing backward?
A. Arteries B. Veins C. Capillaries D. Arterials |
B
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A condition marked by protruding buttocks and weak abdominal muscles is referred to as
A. Kyphosis B. Lordosis C. Scoliosis D. Neutral Spine |
B
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Which of the following are primary hip extensors?
A. rectus femoris, semitendonosous, semimembranosous B. biceps femoris, rectus femoris, semitendonosous C. biceps femoris, semitendonosous, semimembranosous D. rectus femoris, biceps femoris, semimembranosous |
C
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The Erector Spinae can be strengthened by performing
A. Prone trunk hyperextension B. Abdominal curls C. Side plank D. Lying supine leg lifts |
A
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Which muscle does NOT act concentrically during the up phase of a push up?
A. Serratus anterior B. Bicep C. Pectoralis Major D. Tricep |
B
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Which of the following is immediately available as an energy source?
A. Glycogen B. Fat C. Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) D. Calories |
C
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The four "energy nutrients" are:
A. Carbohydrates, fatty acids, phosphocreatine, and protein B. Macronutrients, complex carbohydrates, vitamins, and fat C. Carbohydrates, protein, fat, and alcohol D. Nutrients, vitamins, phosphocreatine, and ATP |
C
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The energy content for carbohydrates, protein, fat, and alcohol, respectively, is:
A. 4 kcal/g, 4kcal/g, 9kcal/g, 7 kcal/g B. 4 kcal/g, 4 kcal/g, 7 kcal/g, 9 kcal/g C. 9 kcal/g, 4 kcal/g, 7 kcal/g, 4 kcal/g D. 9 kcal/g, 7 kcal/g, 4 kcal/g, 4 kcal/g |
A
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Complete proteins containing all nine essential amino acids are found in:
A. Seafood, poultry, dairy products, and red meats B. Legumes, nuts, and seeds C. Green leafy vegetables D. All of the above |
A
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Which of the following falls within the recommended range for carbohydrate intake as a percentage of your total kilocalorie intake?
A. 10% B. 30% C. 55% D. 80% |
C
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What are the fat-soluble vitamins?
A. Thiamin, riboflavin, niacin B. Vitamins C and B complex C. Vitamins A, C, D, E D. Vitamins A, D, E, K |
D
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How many additional kcals are required for pregnant women?
A. 300 kcals per day B. 300 kcals per week C. 500 kcals per week D. 200 kcals per day |
A
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Which of the following is a function of the health-appraisal questionnaire?
A. It informs potential participants about the risks of exercise B. It informs potential participants about the benefits of exercise C. It classifies a potential exercise participant according to disease risk D. It assesses the potential a participant has for the improvement of their fitness |
C
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Congenital cardiovascular disease is caused by:
A. A sudden and vigorous exercise bout B. A birth defect in the cardiovascular system C. High levels of LDL cholesterol D. Low levels of HDL cholesterol |
B
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The PAR-Q functions to:
A. Offer a safe pre-exercise screening measure for vigorous exercise B. Stratify individuals according to their disease risk C. Offer a safe pre-exercise screening measure for low-to-moderate intensity exercise D. Provide recommendations for safe exercise programs |
C
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Cardiovascular screening for competitive athletes is encouraged because it can identify cardiovascular problems known to cause:
A. Sudden death B. Myocardial infarction C. Ischemia D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy |
A
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According to the current ACSM guidelines, what is the minimum recommended time to be spent in the cardiorespiratory segment of a class?
A. 5 minutes B. 10 minutes C. 15 minutes D. 20 minutes |
D
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According to the current ACSM guidelines, what is the recommended cardivasuclar exercise frequency for a healthy adult?
A. 2-3 days per week B. 2-4 days per week C. 3-5 days per week D. 5-7days per week |
C
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Which fitness assessment is considered the "gold standard" of body composition?
A. Near-infrared light interactance B. Skinfold caliper measurements C. Bioelectrical impedance D. Hydrostatic weighing |
D
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What is the typical order of these segments for a group exercise class?
A. Pre-class preparation, flexibility, muscular strength and endurance, cardiorespiratory, and warm-up B. Pre-class preparation, warm-up, cardiorespiratory, muscular strength and endurance, and flexibility C. Pre-class preparation, cardiorespiratory, warm-up, muscular strength and endurance, and flexibility D. Pre-class preparation, warm-up, cardiorespiratory, flexibility, muscular strength and endurance |
B
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Which of the following sites is recommended for taking a pulse?
A. Femoral B. Carotid C. Popliteal D. Humeral |
B
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What type of instructor strives to establish independence, encouragement, attainable goals, and realism?
A. Student-centered B. Goal-centered C. Teacher-centered D. Process-centered |
A
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The new participant is most likely in which stage of learning?
A. Cognitive B. Autonomous C. Associative D. Motor |
A
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Which is the BEST strategy to help this new participant?
A. Spend extra time with the participant since the regulars require minimal instruction B. Simplify the routine for the class so the required skill level is closer to the participant's ability C. Provide specific cues and feedback on how to perform the exercises correctly D. Increase the level of motivation for the new participant to ensure adherence |
C
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What is the recommended level for music volume?
A. Below 85 decibels B. Below 75 decibels C.Below 65 decibels D. Below 55 decibels |
A
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What type of teaching allows participants to perform exercises at their own pace and receive individual feedback from the instructor?
A. Self-check B. Reciprocal C. Command D. Practice |
D
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What teaching strategy is MOST appropriate when teaching a movement or exercise pattern that requires many skill components to be linked together?
A. Repetition reduction B. Slow-to-fast C. Simple-to-complex D. Part-to-whole |
D
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Syncopation means the accent of the music:
A. Occurs double time, then single time, then double time B. Occurs every two beats instead of every beat C. Is temporarily displaced from the naturally occurring accent D. Remains consistent throughout the selection |
C
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What type of statement provides the participant with the necessary information to improve their performance?
A. Corrective B. Specific C. Value D. Informational |
A
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Which individual would MOST likely to drop out of a group fitness class?
A. An individual with prior participation in exercise programs B. An ex-smoker C. A high-risk participant exercising at a moderate pace D. An overweight individual |
D
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Which of the following is LEAST likely to prevent instructor burnout?
A. Acquiring certifications in other group exercise disciplines B. Teaching the same class at the same time every week C. Switching classes with another instructor D. Scheduling regular breaks and vacations |
B
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Which of the following classes BEST promotes exercise adherence for new participants?
A. A 45-minute class that includes variety and some coordination B. A 60-minute high-intensity circuit training class C. A 30-minute class of low-intensity cardio offered once a week D. A 30-minute class that requires physical coordination and agility |
A
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The LEAST realistic short-term exercise goal is:
A. Dropping one-half pound per week B. Attending three classes per week C. Dropping three dress sizes in one month D. Reaching a predetermined target heart rate in an exercise session |
C
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To minimize overexertion, new participants should monitor the intensity of their workout through:
A. Heart rate reserve B. METs C. Rating of perceived exertion D. Percent of VO2 max |
C
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Which of the following signs may be an indication of exercise dependence/addiction?
A. A low body-fat percentage B. Exercising four days or more per week C. Irritability during an exercise session D. Exercising when injured or during an illness |
D
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What is the most prevalent health disorder in the United States?
A. Arthritis B. Osteoporosis C. Obesity D. Low back pain |
C
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The MOST important aspect of an exercise program for persons with diabetes is:
A. Continuous heart-rate monitoring B. Stretching before and after each exercise session C. Frequent rest and nutrition breaks D. Balancing food and insulin with activity |
D
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Which of the following is an EARLY symptom of insulin reaction?
A. Thirst B. Double vision C. Confusion D. Nausea |
C
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Which indicator of exercise intensity is MOST reliable in clients with bronchitis and emphysema?
A. Heart rate B. RPE C. Blood pressure D. Heart-rate reserve |
B
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Which of these diseases shows no symptoms in its early stages?
A. Osteoporosis B. Arthritis C. Asthma D. Diabetes |
A
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Which type of stroke is MOST common?
A. Acute B. Ischemic C. Hemorrhagic D. Chronic |
B
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A condition in which blood glucose levels are less than 60 mg/dL is called:
A. Hyperglycemia B. Insulin resistance C. Hypoglycemia D. Diabetes |
C
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Most clients with quadriplegia and high-level paraplegia will not be able to achieve a heart rate higher than:
A. 90 to 100 bpm B. 135 to 145 bpm C. 80 to 90 bpm D. 120 to 130 bpm |
D
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An adult with a BMI greater or equal to ___ is considered overweight.
A. 25 B. 23.7 C. 24.3 D. 27.3 |
A
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The recommended water temperature for participants with Multiple Sclerosis is below:
A. 95 ºF B. 90 ºF C. 85 ºF D. 80ºF |
D
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Exercise in the supine position is discouraged during pregnancy due to the increased weight of the uterus pressing against the:
A. Liver B. Diaphragm C. Superior vena cava D. Inferior vena cava |
D
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Which of the following is LEAST likely to contribute to diastasis recti?
A. Hormones B. Mechanical stress within the abdominal cavity C. Weak abdominal muscles D. Weak inguinal ligaments |
D
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Which of the following is a contraindication to exercise during pregnancy?
A. Incompetent cervix B. Lactation C. Symphasis pubis D. Gestational diabetes |
A
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Pelvic tilts and stretching the gluteal and hamstring muscles will help relieve which of the follow pregnancy-related conditions?
A. Sciatica B. Pubic pain C. Diastasis recti D. Carpal tunnel syndrome |
A
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Which of the following muscle groups are commonly tight in the pregnant student?
A. Hip flexors, hamstrings, and low back B. Hip flexors, quadriceps, and low back C. Hip extensors, hip adductors, and quadriceps D. Hip flexors, hip adductors, and hamstrings |
D
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The first exercises recommended for women post-partum are:
A. Kegels B. Squats C. Walking D. Abdominal exercises |
A
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Which of the following program modifications for pregnant participants should be avoided?
A. Extended warm-ups B. Utilizing semi-recumbent and "all-fours" positions C. Deep stretching and flexibility D. Cueing to emphasize proper alignment |
C
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With respect to injuries, the primary responsibility of group fitness instructors is to:
A. Prevent injuries though careful preparation B. Provide modifications for participants with injury limitations C. Properly handle injuries that may occur in class D. Document the injury properly to minimize liability |
A
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What should you recommend for a participant complaining of chronic pain in the front, lower part of her leg?
A. Advise her to see her primary healthcare provider B. Recommend R.I.C.E procedures for the next 48 hours C. Make modifications to the class to accommodate her injury D. Provide therapeutic exercises to increase the muscular strength of the affected area |
A
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A student returns to your class following physical therapy for ACL reconstruction. What is the MOST important consideration for exercise?
A. Allow participation only if a medical release is provided B. Return to the pre-surgery range of motion and loading C. Structure low-impact type classes to minimize loading on joint D. Emphasize further strengthening of the muscles around the knee |
A
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Which of the following factors creates the greatest risk for injury in a group exercise class?
A. Flooring B. Movement execution C. Class intensity D. Environment |
B
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Which injury is MOST likely caused by overexertion?
A. Strain B. Sprain C. Tendonitis D. Fracture |
A
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Failure to act as a reasonable and prudent person would act under similar circumstances is generally known as:
A. Omission B. Commission C. Negligence D. Liability |
C
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Which of the following definitions BEST describes standard of care?
A. The care that the group fitness instructor takes in executing his or her duties B. The quality of group fitness instruction services provided is commensurate with current professional standards C. The standards that a group fitness instructor utilizes in caring for the participants D. The responsibilities that arise from the relationship between the participants and the group fitness instructor |
B
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Risk management encompasses which of the following?
A. An examination of risk areas for the fitness professional B. A method to minimize the risk of litigation C. The management of risk factors to create a safe exercise environment D. Lessening of the risk of injury for both the instructor and the participants |
A
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The primary purpose of an informed consent is to:
A. Make the dangers of an exercise program or test procedures known B. Inform the participant of the billing and cancellation procedures C. Obtain permission of the participant to proceed with an exercise program D. Obtain a waiver of liability from the participant in the event of an accident |
A
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Professional Liability Insurance is designed to cover which of the following?
A. Slipping on a wet floor in the locker room and spraining an ankle B. Straining the muscles of the low back during a squat C. Becoming injured after following the instructor's directions and demonstrations D. Receiving medical care for an accident or acute injury |
C
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Which of the following is NOT included in a comprehensive risk-management review?
A. Identification of risk areas and evaluation of specific risks in each area B. Selection of appropriate treatment for each risk C. Implementation of a risk-management system and evaluation of its success D. Demonstration of risk areas and possible ways to avoid risk |
D
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Is the ratings of Percieved Exersion scale
A. A Karvonian formula B. A Borg formula C. A form of measuring VO2 max |
B
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What does ACSM's principle for FITT stand for?
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frequency - days
intensity - how hard time - duration type - mode of activity |
4 different words
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Cardio should be done by the average person how many days a wee?
A. 2-3 B. 3-5 C. 5-7 |
B
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On the RPE scale (ratings of percieved exersion) a score of 7-9 is:
A. Very light B. Somewhat hard C. Very hard D. MAximal exersion |
A
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On the RPE scale (ratings of percieved exersion) a top score of 20 is:
A. Very light B. Maximal exersion |
B
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On the RPE scale (ratings of percieved exersion) a score of 6 is:
A. No exersion at all B. Very light C. Somewhat hard D. Maximal exersion |
A
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perceived exertion ratings between 12 to 14 on the Borg Scale suggests that physical activity is being performed at a:
A. Strenuous level of intensity B. moderate level of intensity C. Light level of intensity |
B
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9 on the RPE Borg Scale =
very light medium very hard |
Very light
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19 on the Borg Scale +
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Extremely hard
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a person's Borg RPE exertion rating may provide a fairly good estimate of the actual heart rate during activity. For example, if a person's rating of perceived exertion (RPE) is 12, then 12 x 10 = 120; so the heart rate should be approximately 120 beats per minute.
What would the approximate heart rate bpm be if the RPE is 8? |
80 bpm
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You use numbers from 6-20 to measure exersion on the RPE on the Borg scale by:
A. Calculating the heart rate B. Multiplying your heart rate by VO2 max C. By guessing your number on the scale during activity |
C
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VO2 max is measured as milliliters of oxygen used in one minute per kilogram of body weight.. True or false?
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True
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The Bruce Treadmill Test is one way to measure:
A. Maximum heart rate B. Borgs RPE value C. V02max |
C
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An athlete's oxygen consumption rises in a linear relationship with exercise intensity -- up to a point. There is a specific point at which oxygen consumption plateaus even if the exercise intensity increases. This plateau marks the:
A. V02max B. Maximum heart rate reserve C. Borgs RPE |
A
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The two methods for increasing VO2 max include increases in both training v_____ and i________
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volume, intensity
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Aside from genetic factors, three other components have a large influence on VO2 max. These are:
A______ (years) G_________male/female) A___________(Heights) |
Age
Gender Altitude |
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The average VO2 max for a sedentary individual is close to 35 ml/kg/min. True or false?
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True
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Elite endurance athletes often average 70 ml/kg/min V02max. True or false?
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True
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___ ____is the maximal oxygen uptake or the maximum volume of oxygen that can be utilized in one minute during maximal or exhaustive exercise. It is measured as milliliters of oxygen used in one minute per kilogram of body weight
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V02max
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Target heart rate describes the pulse rate (in beats per minute) that allows you to exercise safely while getting the maximum benefits from your workout. This range is usually between ___% to 85% of your maximum heart rate
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50%
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The Karvonen Formula is a mathematical formula that helps you determine your target heart rate zone. The formula involves using your maximum heart rate (MHR) minus your age to come up with a target heart rate range (which is a percentage of your MHR). True of false?
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True
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How do you find your resting heart rate?
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By taking your pulse for 1 full minute beofre exercise
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iThe Karvonen Formula is a mathematical formula that helps you determine your target heart rate zone. The formula involves using your maximum heart rate (MHR) minus your age to come up with a target heart rate range (which is a percentage of your MHR).
True or false> |
True
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maximal oxygen uptake decreases (harder to breathe) as altitude:
A. Increases B. Decreases |
A
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Cardiac output is the product of heart rate (HR) and stroke volume (SV). True of false?
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True
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A test for measuring V02max are the
A. Rockport walking test B. 12 minute walk/run test C. Step test D. Bicycle ergometer test E. All of the above |
E
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A field test for measuring group fitness participants body composition (relative to fat) are
A. Waist-to-hip circumfernence B. BMI (boy mass index) C. Both of these |
C
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BMI + weight in kg divided by height in meters squared. True or false?
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True
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A waist to hip ration of >1.0 is:
A. High risk B. Low risk |
A
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A waist to hip ration of <0.90 in males is:
A. High risk B. Low risk |
B
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Maximal and submaximal exercise tests using the treadmill or bicycle ergometer are well-suited for measuring cardiorespiratory fitness of groups. True or false?
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False.
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The YMCA submaximal Step Test is a good way to measure cardiorespiratory fitness in groups. True or false?
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True
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A good muscular strength and endurance test for groups is the p____ u__ test
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Push up test.
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During the Push Up Test flex the ______ and lower the body to 3 inches above the _______
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elbows
mat |
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The Sit and Reach Test test for f_________y.
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flexibility
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PArticipants with a history of shoulder dysfunctions and/or pain should avoid performing the s________-flexibilty test
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shoulder
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