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424 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Arrest means
a. the act of restraining the liberty of a person with the intent to detain. b. the act of restraining the freedom of a person with the intent to detain. c. the act of restraining the liberty of a accused with the intent to detain. d. the act of restraining the liberty of a person with the serious intent to detain. |
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Reasonable Grounds
a) means facts that would lead a person of ordinary care and judgement to have a strong belief beyond mere suspicion. b) means a set of facts or circumstances that would lead a person of ordinary care and intuition to have a strong belief beyond mere suspicion. c) means a set of many facts or circumstances that would lead a person of ordinary care to have a belief beyond mere suspicion. d) means a set of facts or circumstances that would lead a person of ordinary care and judgement to have a strong belief beyond mere suspicion. |
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Criminal Offence
a) means a criminal offence punishable by indictment. b) means any offence against an Act of Parliament. c) means any criminal offence punishable by indictment only. d)means any criminal offence against a Federal Statute. |
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Chief’s SIU Liaison Officer means p185
a) means a member of the Service designated by the Deputy Chief to act as the main liaison with the SIU in all matters relating to SIU investigations. The Chief’s SIU Liaison Officer must be a uniform senior officer. d main liaison with the SIU in all matters relating to SIU investigations. The Chief’s SIU Liaison Officer must be a uniform senior officer. c) means any member of the Service designated by the Chief of Police to act as the main go between with the SIU in all matters relating to SIU investigations. The Chief’s SIU Liaison Officer must be a senior officer. d) means a member of the Service designated by the Chief of Police to act as the main liaison with the SIU in all matters relating to SIU investigations. The Chief’s SIU Liaison Officer must be a uniform senior officer. |
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Serious Injury p186
means injuries that are a) -likely to interfere with the health or ability of the injured party -more than merely transient or trifling in nature -resulting from aggravated assault b) -likely to interfere with the health or comfort of the injured person -more than merely transient in nature -resulting from sexual assault c ) - likely to interfere with the health or comfort of the injured party - more than merely transient or trifling in nature -resulting from sexual assault d) -likely to interfere with the comfort of the injured person -more than merely trifling in nature -resulting from sex assault |
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Supervisory Officer p191
When attending an incident where the SIU mandate may be invoked shall a) immediately notify the Supervisory Officer – Duty Desk b) notify the unit commander of the units involved c) immediately e-mail the Supervisory Officer – Duty Desk d) ensure the supervisory officer – Duty Desk is notified |
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Supervisory Officer p191
When attending an incident where the SIU mandate may be invoked shall a) allow officers access to legal counsel b) allow officers access to a TPB representative c) brief the Chief’s SIU Designate with the details of the incident d) restrict contact with the involved officers to authorized personnel only |
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Supervisory Officer p191
When attending an incident where the SIU mandate may be invoked shall a) ensure the Inspector notified and updated on a regular basis b) ensure each of the involved officers are transported separately to a designated unit, if Practicable d) notify the unit commander of the units involved c) provide ongoing assistance to the members at the scene |
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Officer in Charge p191
When the involved officers arrive at the unit shall a) allow officers access to Senior personnel b) allow investigators access to TPS facility c) separate each officer by placing them in single rooms apart from others d) restrict contact with the involved officers to authorized personnel only Officer in Charge p191 |
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When the involved officers arrive at the unit shall
a) allow officers access to legal counsel b) allow officers access to a PSB representative c) segregate each officer by placing them in separate offices, where practicable d) restrict contact with the involved officers to senior personnel only e) brief the attending Unit Commander with the details of the incident |
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Officer in Charge p191
11) When notified of an incident where the SIU mandate may be invoked shall a) ensure the inspector – Duty Desk is notified b) ensure the all evidence has been protected and preserved c notify the unit commander of the units involved d) provide ongoing assistance to the members at the scene |
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Officer in Charge p191
12) When notified of an incident where the SIU mandate may be invoked shall When the involved officers arrive at the unit a) allow officers access to legal counsel b) allow officers access to SIU investigators c) not segregate each officer and placing them in separate offices d) ensure the Unit Commander is notified and updated on a regular basis |
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13 – 08 Suspension from Duty – Police Officer
13) Which of the following is the most correct statement p169 a) If a Chief of Police, Deputy Chief or other police officer is convicted of a criminal offence and sentenced to a term of imprisonment, the Chief of Police or Police Services Board, as the case may be, may suspend her without pay, even if the conviction or sentence is under appeal. b) If a Chief of Police, Deputy Chief is convicted of an offence and sentenced to a term of imprisonment, the Chief of Police or Police Services Board, as the case may be, may suspend him or her without pay, even if the conviction or sentence is under appeal. c) If a Chief of Police, Deputy Chief or other police officer is convicted of an offence and sentenced to a term of imprisonment, the Chief of Police or Police Services Board, as the matter may be, may suspend him or her without pay, even if the conviction or sentence is under appeal. d) If a Chief of Police, Deputy Chief or other police officer is convicted of an offence and sentenced to a term of imprisonment, the Chief of Police or Police Services Board, as the case may be, may suspend him or her without pay, even if the conviction or sentence is under appeal. |
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The Chief of Police hereby authorizes the following personnel the power of suspension granted to the Chief of Police under the PSA p170
a) the Duty Deputy Chief of Police b) Senior Officers c) all permanently assigned investigators to Professional Standards (PRS) – Investigative Unit d) Homicide -Unit Commander |
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The Chief of Police hereby authorizes the following personnel the power of suspension granted to the Chief of Police under the PSA p170
a) the Deputy Chief of Police b) all Uniform Senior personnel c) all officers permanently assigned to Homicide – Investigative Unit d) the officer in charge (OIC) |
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When a charge is laid, suspension shall be initiated for, but not limited to, which one of the following offence p170
a) murder in the 3rd degree b) Homicidal assault c) sexual bodily assault d) robbery |
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) When a charge is laid, suspension shall be initiated for, but not limited to, the following offences, which is not correct p170
a) assault b) breach of trust c) corrupt practice d) breach of confidentiality |
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) When a charge is laid, suspension shall be initiated for, but not limited to, the following offences, which is not correct p170
a) aggravated assault b) sexual assault c) Assault bodily harm d) breach of trust |
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) Officer in Charge p170
Upon considering the suspension of a police officer in accordance with the PSA, and in the absence of the unit commander shall a) ensure an immediate investigation is conducted b) consult with the Inspector – Front Desk, or other senior officer c) ensure an immediate and thorough investigation is conducted d) consult with the Duty Inspector, and other uniform senior officer |
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Officer in Charge p170
5. Upon considering the suspension of a police officer in accordance with the PSA, and in the absence of the unit commander shall a) ensure an immediate and thorough investigation is completed by Detectives b) consult with the Duty Inspector – Duty Desk, c) consult with the Duty Inspector – Duty Desk, and other uniform senior officer d) consult with the Duty Inspector – Duty Desk, or other uniform senior officer |
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Officer in Charge p170
If circumstances warrant suspension shall verbally advise the officer that they are immediately suspended from duty relieve the officer of their a) Service Glock kit b) all other issued use of force choices c) wallet and badge d) e Token |
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Officer in Charge p170
22) If circumstances warrant suspension shall a) date and sign the officer's memorandum book b) advise the suspended officer that he has access to only the public areas of any police facility (excluding collecting personal property at the unit immediately after being suspended) c) instruct the officer to report to the unit commander PRS at a specified time on the next business day d) submit a detailed report, including supporting documents to the unit commander on a TPS 659 regarding the suspension, and deliver a copy of the report to the Unit Commander – PRS – Homicide Unit (to arrive no later than 0800 hours the next business day) |
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Officer in Charge p170
23) If circumstances warrant suspension shall a) submit a detailed report, including supporting documents to the unit commander on a TPS 649 regarding the suspension, and deliver a copy of the report to the Unit Commander – PRS – Investigative Unit (to arrive no later than 0900 hours the next business day) b) submit a detailed report, including supporting documents to the unit commander on a TPS 649 regarding the suspension, and deliver a copy of the report to the Unit Commander – PRS – Investigative Unit (to arrive no later than 0800 hours the next business day) c)submit a detailed report, including supporting documents to the unit commander on a TPS 649 regarding the suspension, and deliver a copy of the report to the Unit Commander – PRS – Investigative Unit (to arrive no later than 0830 hours the next business day) d) submit a detailed report, including supporting documents to the unit commander on a TPS 649 regarding the suspension, and deliver a copy of the report to the Unit Commander – PRS – Investigative Unit (to arrive no later than 0600 hours the next business day) |
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11 – 03 Police Response at Labour Disputes
24) Which of the following is correct p164 a) The role of the police at a labour dispute is to preserve the peace, prevent offences, maintain crowd control, and enforce the criminal code including offences against persons and property, b) The role of the police at a labour dispute is to preserve the peace, prevent offences, maintain crowd control, and enforce the criminal code including offences against persons and property, c) The role of the police at a dispute is to preserve the peace, prevent offences, maintain crowd control, and enforce the criminal code including offences against persons and property, d) The role of the police at a labour dispute is to preserve the peace, prevent offences, maintain crowd control, and enforce the law including offences against persons and property, |
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25) Who maintains a permanent Industrial Liaison section for support when dealing with labour disputes. p165
a) Public Safety & Emergency Management and TAVIS b) Public Safety & Emergency Supervisors c) Public Safety & Emergency Management Unit Commander d) Public Safety & Emergency Management |
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01 – 01 Arrest
26) In addition to the authorities to arrest without warrant given to any person in section 494 of the Criminal Code (CC), a peace officer is given additional authorities under s. 495(1), 524(2), 525(6) and 31(1) CC.A peace officer may arrest any person who p5 a) has committed an indictable offence, or a person the officer believes on reasonable grounds is about to commit an indictable offence b) the officer finds committing an indictable offence c) the officer believes is wanted on a warrant of arrest or committal, which is in force within the territorial jurisdiction where the person is found, or d) on grounds, the officer believes has committed a criminal offence, and 495(1) is escaping from and freshly pursued by persons who have a lawful authority to arrest that person |
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27) In addition to the authorities to arrest without warrant given to any person in section 494 of the Criminal Code (CC), a peace officer is given additional authorities under s. 495(1), 524(2), 525(6) and 31(1) CC.A peace officer may arrest any person who
a) has committed a criminal offence, or a person the officer believes on reasonable grounds is about to commit an indictable offence b) the officer finds committing an indictable offence c) the officer believes is wanted on a warrant of arrest or committal, which is in force within the territorial jurisdiction where the person is found, d) on reasonable grounds, the officer believes has committed a criminal offence, and is escaping from and freshly pursued by persons who have a lawful authority to arrest that person |
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28) In addition to the authorities to arrest without warrant given to any person in section 494 of the Criminal Code (CC), a peace officer is given additional authorities under s. 495(1), 524(2), 525(6) and 31(1) CC.A peace officer may arrest any person who
a) has committed a criminal offence, or a person the officer believes on reasonable grounds is about to commit an indictable offence b) the officer finds committing a criminal offence c) the officer believes is wanted on a warrant of arrest or committal, which is in force within the territorial jurisdiction where the person is found, d) on reasonable grounds, the officer believes has committed a criminal offence, and 495(1) is escaping from and is being pursued by persons who have a lawful authority to arrest that person |
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Continuation of Arrest p5
29) A police officer shall not arrest a person without warrant for summary conviction, dual procedure or 553 indictable offences where there are reasonable grounds to believe the public interest has been satisfied having regard to all the circumstances including the need to a) establish the identity of the person b) preserve evidence only c) prevent the escalation of an offence d) ensure that the accused will appear in District court |
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Continuation of Arrest p5
30) A police officer shall not arrest a person without warrant for summary conviction, dual procedure or 553 indictable offences where there are reasonable grounds to believe the public interest has been satisfied having regard to all the circumstances including the need to a) secure evidence b) prevent the continuation or repetition of an Indictable offence c) ensure that the accused will appear in Provincial court d) ensure the safety and security of any victim of or witness to the offence. |
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Continuation of Arrest p5
31) A police officer shall not arrest a person without warrant for summary conviction, dual procedure or 553 indictable offences where there are reasonable grounds to believe the public interest has been satisfied having regard to all the circumstances including the need to a) establish the identity of the male b) prevent the continuation or repetition of an offence c) ensure that the person will appear in District court d) ensure the safety and security of any victim of the offence. |
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Continuation of Arrest p5
32) A police officer shall not arrest a person without warrant for summary conviction, dual procedure or 553 indictable offences where there are reasonable grounds to believe the public interest has been satisfied having regard to all the circumstances including the need to a) preserve evidence b) prevent the repetition of an offence c) ensure that the accused will appear in court d) ensure the security of any victim of or witness to the offence. |
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Continuation of Arrest p5
33) In circumstances where the public interest is satisfied, an offender must be released a conditionally with no intent to proceed to court b unconditionally with intent to seek a Provincial summons, c by way of an Appearance Notice (Form 9). d) by way of a criminal release |
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Continuation of Arrest p5
34) In circumstances where the public interest is satisfied, an offender must be released a) conditionally with no intent to proceed to court b) unconditionally with intent to seek a criminal summons. c) by way of an Appearance Notice (Form 10). d) by way of Undertaking F 11.1 |
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Chapter 10 – Appendix A p142 Incident Management System Organizational Chart
35)Incident Management System Organizational Chart Which of the following falls under logistics a) Supply b) Staging c) Cost d) Team specialist |
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36)Incident Management System Organizational Chart
Which of the following falls under Administration and Finance a) Perimeter b) Access and Egress c) Feeding d) Claims |
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37) Incident Management System Organizational Chart
Which of the following falls under operations a) MIRRT b) Traffic c) Prisoner Co-ordination d) Communications |
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38) Incident Management System Organizational Chart
Which of the following falls under logistics a) Transportation b) Crowd control c) Documentation d) Team Specialist |
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39) Incident Management System Organizational Chart
Which of the following falls under Investigative a) Search b) Divisional c) Procurement d) Staging |
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40) Incident Management System Organizational Chart
Which of the following falls under Operartions a) Resource b) Feeding c) Crowd Control d) Situation Reports |
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42) Incident Management System Organizational Chart
Which of the following falls under planning a) Traffic b) Claims c) Feeding d) Situation Reports |
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43) Incident Management System Organizational Chart
Which of the following falls under Administration and Finance a) Traffic b) Claims c) Feeding d) Cost |
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44) Incident Management System Organizational Chart
Which of the following falls under logistics a) Traffic b) Claims c) Evacuations d) Transportation |
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45)Incident Management System Organizational Chart
Which of the following falls under Logistics a) Facilities b) Staging c) Cost d) Team specialist |
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46) Incident Management System Organizational Chart
Which of the following falls under operations a) Resource b) Feeding c) Perimeter d) Situation Reports |
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47) Incident Management System Organizational Chart
Which of the following falls under planning a) Traffic b) Claims c) Feeding d) Situation Reports |
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48) Incident Management System Organizational Chart
Which of the following falls under operations a) Resource b) Feeding c) Crowd Control d) Situation Reports |
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49) Incident Management System Organizational Chart
Which of the following falls under logistics a) Feeding b) Staging c) Cost d) Team specialist |
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50) Incident Management System Organizational Chart
Which of the following falls under planning a) Traffic b) Claims c) Feeding d) Resource |
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51)Incident Management System Organizational Chart
Which of the following falls under operations a) Resource b) Feeding c) Search d) Situation Reports |
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10 – 02 Incidents Involving Hazardous Materials p143
52) a) Inner Perimeter means a further division made to refine the isolation of the actual hazard. b) Inner Perimeter means a further subdivision made to define the isolation of the hazard or emergency site. c) Inner Perimeter means a further subdivision made to refine the isolation of the actual hazard sites. d) Inner Perimeter means a further subdivision made to refine the isolation of the actual hazard or emergency site. |
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53) First Supervisory Officer When responding to an emergency incident shall exercise caution when approaching the site, particularly if hazardous materials are indicated or suspected. After being briefed by the first officer on scene shall assess the need to assume the role of Incident Commander and if necessary, shall assume the role until relieved of this function
a) reassess the situation b) advise the OIC Communications Operator – Communications Centre of the status of Incident. c) consider expanding the Incident Management Control System as necessary by assigning members new details. to complete necessary functions d) ensure the following are established, co-ordinated and supervised if necessary, secure inner and outer perimeter in compliance with Chapter |
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54) p138
a) Officer in Charge When notified of an emergency incident may advise the unit commander if appropriate. b) Officer in Charge When notified of an emergency shall advise the unit commander if appropriate. c) Officer in Charge When notified of an emergency event shall advise the unit commander if appropriate. d) Officer in Charge When notified of an emergency incident shall advise the unit commander if appropriate. |
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55) Who is responsible to notify the OIC Duty Desk when responding to a level 2- Major Incident p139
a) OIC b) Incident Commander c) First Supervisory Officer d) First Responding Officer |
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56) When responding to a Level 2 – Major Incident who shall ensure that the duties listed for the First Supervisory Officer are completed p140
a) OIC b) Unit Commander c) Incident commander d) Detective Sergeant |
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57) What is Staging p135
a) Staging means a determined off-site location where responding personnel and appropriate equipment initially report to await details before standing by the emergency site itself. b) Staging means a determined on-site location where responding personnel and appropriate equipment initially report to await details before entering the emergency site itself. c) Staging means a determined on-site location where personnel and appropriate leaders initially report to await details before entering the emergency site itself. d) Staging means a determined off-site location where responding personnel and appropriate equipment initially report to await details before entering the emergency site itself. |
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09 – 06 Property of Persons in Custody
58) Which is correct p 131 a) Valuable Property means money, jewellery that may make a prisoner the target of theft or robbery. b) Valuable Property means money, and other items that might make a prisoner the target of theft or robbery. c) Valuable Property means money, jewellery and other items that may make a prisoner the target of theft or robbery. d) Valuable Property jewellery and other items that may make a prisoner the target of theft or robbery. |
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59) Which statement is correct p132
Officer In Charge or Designated Supervisor When property of a person in custody is held for safety reasons or seized for evidence shall a) examine the property and ensure they belong to accused. b) ensure some documents submitted are complete, c) sign the documents at the end of the officers shift d) ensure any plastic tamper–proof property bag(s) is properly sealed and the appropriate sections of the property bag(s) are completed |
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09 – 04 Narcotics and Drugs p128
60) Reverse Undercover Operation correct definition a) means the importation, production, or offering to perform any of these actions where “state drugs” are the subject of the action. b) means the importation, production, provision, sale or offering to perform any of these actions where “state drugs” are the subject of the action. c) means the importation, production, provision, sale or offering to perform any of these actions where “state drugs” are the subject of the action. d) means the production, provision, sale or offering to perform all of these actions where “state drugs” are the subject. |
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61) State Drug defined is.
a) means a substance included on Schedule I, II, III, or V of the CASA that has been ordered forfeited by a competent authority to Her Majesty. b) means a substance included in Schedule I, II, III, IV or V of the CDSA that has been ordered forfeited by a competent authority to Her Majesty. c) means a substance not included in Schedule I, II, III, IV V, V1 of the CDSA that has been ordered forfeited by a competent authority to Her Majesty. d) means a substance included in Schedule I, II, III, IV or V of the CDSA that has been ordered forfeited by a competent authority to Her Majesty. |
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62) Drug Analysis p129
a) Inquiries pertaining to the analysis of exhibits shall be directed to the Drug Repository during normal business hours, Monday to Friday from 0700 to 1930 hours. b) Inquiries pertaining to the analysis of exhibits shall be directed to the Drug Repository during normal business hours, Monday to Friday from 0800 to 1930 hours, c) Inquiries pertaining to the analysis of exhibits shall be directed to the Drug Repository during normal business hours, Monday to Friday from 0800 to 1630 hours, d) Inquiries pertaining to the analysis of exhibits shall be directed to the Drug Repository during normal business hours, Monday to Friday from 0700 to 1630 hours, |
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63) Sample Limit which is correct p130
a) When submitting drugs to be analyzed by Health Canada – Sample Control Division, the maximum allowable sample size is (30) grams. When submitting the drug known as Cathinone (Khat), the minimum weight to be submitted shall be two hundred (200) grams. Upon removal of the sample, any remaining drugs shall be processed as a bulk item. b) When submitting drugs to be analyzed by Health Canada – Sample Control Division, the maximum allowable sample size is (20) grams. When submitting the drug known as Cathinone (Khat), the minimum weight to be submitted shall be two hundred (200) grams. Upon removal of the sample, any remaining drugs shall be processed as a bulk item. c) When submitting drugs to be analyzed by Health Canada – Sample Control Division, the maximum allowable sample size is (10) grams. When submitting the drug known as Cathinone (Khat), the minimum weight to be submitted shall be two hundred (200) grams. Upon removal of the sample, any remaining drugs shall be processed as a bulk item. d) When submitting drugs to be analyzed by Health Canada – Sample Control Division, the maximum allowable sample size is (10) grams. When submitting the drug known as Cathinone (Khat), the minimum weight to be submitted shall be two hundred (300) grams. Upon removal of the sample, any remaining drugs shall be processed as a bulk item. |
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09 – 01 Property – General
64) All fuel or oil contained in motorized equipment, gas can or other container must be drained prior to submitting it to the PEMU. P126 then Members shall take any such item to the nearest _______________________to have the combustible material safely removed a) Contract Pound b) Traffic Unit c) Fleet and Materials Management Garage d) The contracted garage |
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65) Videotapes seized for copyright infringements or production videotapes which contain pornographic material. These tapes shall be processed through the
a) Sex Crimes Unit b) Youth and Family Services Unit Divisional c) Video Bins d DLMS |
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Large Seizures p126
66) When seizing a large quantity of property, members should notify __________________ during normal business hours to arrange for the use of a truck to transport large seizures of property directly to the PEMU. a) Duty Desk b) Property Unit on Call person c) Fleet & Materials Management d) Duty Desk Inspector |
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67) Which is correct p126
a) A supervisor from the PEMU may be contacted during the following business hours General Warehouse Monday through Friday 0800 to 2300 hours b) A supervisor from the PEMU may be contacted during the following business hours General Warehouse Monday through Friday 0700 to 2300 hours c) A supervisor from the PEMU may be contacted during the following business hours General Warehouse Monday through Friday 0700 to 2330 hours d) A supervisor from the PEMU may be contacted during the following business hours General Warehouse Monday through Friday 0700 to 2400 hours |
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68) Which is correct p126
a) A supervisor from the PEMU may be contacted during the following business hours Firearms Storage Vault Monday through Friday 0600 to 1700 hours b) A supervisor from the PEMU may be contacted during the following business hours Firearms Storage Vault Monday through Friday 0730 to 1630 hours c) A supervisor from the PEMU may be contacted during the following business hours Firearms Storage Vault Monday through Friday 0800 to 1600 hours d) A supervisor from the PEMU may be contacted during the following business hours Firearms Storage Vault Monday through Friday 0700 to 1600 hours |
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69) Which is correct p126
a) A supervisor from the PEMU may be contacted during the following business hours Drug Repository Monday through Friday 0800 to 1600 hours b)A supervisor from the PEMU may be contacted during the following business hours Drug Repository Monday through Friday 0800 to 1630 hours c)A supervisor from the PEMU may be contacted during the following business hours Drug Repository Monday through Friday 0700 to 1730 hours d)A supervisor from the PEMU may be contacted during the following business hours Drug Repository Monday through Friday 0700 to 1630 hours |
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70) p 127 All monies in Canadian and U.S. funds and, foreign currency must be recorded on _______________________ and sealed inside a separate plastic property bag if submitted in conjunction with any other type of property.
a) same TPS 405 b) separate TPS 405 c) recorded in officers memo book d) on separate TPS 405 for change and bills |
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71) When arranging the delivery of property from the PEMU for court or release purposes through the DLMS, _____________ hours notice must be given to ensure delivery (excluding weekends and statutory holidays). P127
a) 72 hrs b) 3 days c) 48 hrs d) 24 hrs |
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72) The requesting member shall ensure the property is removed from the DLMS within _______days of the delivery date.
a) less than 7 days b) 7 days c) 10 days d) 72 hrs |
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Divisional Locker Management System Hardware Failure
73) The DLMS is a computer generated tracking system for property. From time to time, a system failure may occur. If a system failure occurs, members shall adhere to the following procedure Local System/Hardware Failure Members shall process property through the a) DLMS at Duty desk b) DLMS Property Unit c) DLMS at the nearest division. d) DLMS at any division. |
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Officer in Charge
74) Upon receipt of a DLMS Refusal Notice shall ensure the submitting officer is made aware of the deficiencies outlined and receives instruction in properly correcting the areas of concern corrects the submission within _________ of the date the refusal transaction was processed a) 48 hrs b) 24 hrs c) seven (7) days d) less than 7 days |
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08 – 10 External Threats Against Service Members p124
75) The _____________________ maintains the following Intranet publications for the information and safety of all Service members Member Personal Safety Issues Bulletin Intelligence Information Bulletins Intelligence Reports Street Gang Database a) Guns and Gang Unit b) Corp. Comm c) Quality Control Detective d) Intelligence Division |
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76) _______________________ is responsible for ensuring that all Service facilities are safe.
a) The Unit Commander b) The Chief of Police c) Occupational Health & Safety d) Occupational Health & Safety Unit Commander |
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77) A threat by telephone may be considered a ______________________________
a) High Risk Threat b) Low Risk Threat c) Medium Risk Threat d) No Threat |
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78) Repeated and numerous threats, may be considered ____________________ a
a) High Risk Threat b) Low Risk Threat c) Medium Risk Threat d) No Threat |
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08 – 09 Workplace Safety p122
79 _______________________ means any person who performs work or supplies services for monetary compensation and includes a contractor or a volunteer such as an Auxiliary member. a) Employee b) Minister c) Inspector d) Worker |
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80) The Service’s Health and Safety Program consists of _________ major components
a) four b) seven c) five d) six |
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81) __________________ shall ensure that all members maintain safe and healthy conditions in their assigned work area
a) Supervisor b) OIC c) C) Unit Commander d) Inspector |
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08 – 07 Communicable Diseases
82)Who is responsible to ensure all protective equipment is replenished a) OIC b) Unit Commander c) Inspector d) D) Supervisor |
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83) Which statement is correct p121
a) Only vehicles with a presence of blood, or other bodily fluids, will be disinfected at the operations locations b vehicles with an obvious presence of blood, c) Only vehicles with an obvious presence of blood, or other bodily fluids, will be disinfected at one f the following Shop Operations locations d) Only vehicles with an obvious presence of blood, and other bodily fluids, will be disinfected at one of the following Shop Operations locations |
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08 – 05 Substance Abuse p119
84) Which statement is correct p119 ______________________________ means a disability that is not work-related but, which prevents a member from working or completing a tour of duty. a) Modified Duties b) Restricted Duties c) Sickness d) Illness |
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85)Supervisor When approached by a member who voluntarily seeks help for a substance abuse problem, where work performance or safety is not affected shall
a) advise the member of options available for assistance (including MAS and EFAP) b) follow up to provide the member with support and to resolve the issue c) discuss performance concerns and expectations with the member d) follow up to provide the member with proper support and encouragement to resolve the problem |
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86) Supervisor upon observing that a member is unfit for duty shall
a) encourage the member to seek assistance, where appropriate b) discuss performance concerns and expectations with the member c) advise the member of options available for assistance (including MAS and EFAP) d) ensure the member is given immediate medical treatment, if required |
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87) Supervisor when it is determined that there are fitness for duty or safety concerns shall
a) provide heightened performance monitoring and management b) encourage the member to seek assistance, where appropriate c) follow up to provide the member with proper support and encouragement to resolve the problem d) report the circumstances on an internal correspondence to the unit commander |
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88) Supervisor p119
When approached by a member who voluntarily seeks help for a substance abuse problem, where work performance or safety is not affected shall a) commence an immediate investigation b) ensure the member is given immediate medical treatment, if required c) encourage the member to seek assistance, where appropriate d) follow up to provide the member with appropriate support and encouragement to resolve the problem |
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08 – 04 Critical Incident Stress p116
89) __________________________ means physical and psychological symptoms experienced by a member as a result of being involved in a critical incident. a) Critical Incident b) serious injury c) Critical Incident Stress d) Critical Incident syndrome |
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90) Critical Incident Debriefing Team (CIDT) Which statement is correct
a) CIDT members are volunteer members who are not trained in trauma response measures b) CIDT members are volunteer Service members who are trained in trauma response measures for IMS. c) CIDT members are volunteer Service members who are trained in trauma response measures d) CIDT members are volunteer Service members who are trained in Serious incident response measures |
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91) Debriefing Session, which statement is correct p117
a) The debriefing session takes place a few days after the conclusion of the critical incident, in a secure room where disruptions can be eliminated, and lasts for approximately (2.0) hours. Attendance is mandatory but active participation in the discussion is voluntary. b) The debriefing session takes place a few days after the conclusion of the critical incident, in a secure room where disruptions can be eliminated, and lasts for approximately (4.5) hours. Attendance is mandatory but active participation in the discussion is voluntary. c) The debriefing session takes place a few days after the conclusion of the critical incident, in a secure room where disruptions can be eliminated, and lasts for approximately (3.5) hours. Attendance is mandatory but active participation in the discussion is voluntary. d) The debriefing session takes place a few days after the conclusion of the critical incident, in a secure room where disruptions can be eliminated, and lasts for approximately two and one half (2.5) hours. Attendance is mandatory but active participation in the discussion is voluntary. |
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Supervisor
92) Upon becoming aware that a member has been involved in an incident where critical incident stress may occur, or appears to be suffering from such a reaction a) advise the unit commander b) shall immediately notify the officer in charge (OIC) of the affected member’s unit, or civilian equivalent c) shall refrain from making any diagnosis d) notify the OIC – Duty Desk |
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93) Officer in Charge or Civilian Equivalent p118
Upon becoming aware of a critical incident taking place shall a) notify the OIC – Duty Desk b) shall refrain from making any diagnosis c) shall refrain from making any diagnosis about the member d) should provide support and ongoing encouragement to assist the member |
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Officer in Charge – Duty Desk
Upon becoming aware of a critical incident taking place shall a) advise the unit commander b) shall immediately notify the officer in charge (OIC) of the affected member’s unit, c) immediately notify the Duty Inspector – Duty Desk d) shall refrain from making any diagnosis |
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08 – 03 Injury Reporting p113
95) ___________________________ means a provincial corporation that administers the WSIA and its operational policies. a) Workplace Safety and Insurance Act (WSIA) b) Workplace Safety and Insurance Unit (WSIU) c) Workplace Safety and Insurance Division (WSID) d) Workplace Safety and Insurance Board (WSIB) |
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96) _________________________ means situations, which would typically include doctor’s appointments, picking up food or medication, etc. It does not include activities that are inconsistent with the professed level of disability or for the purposes of secondary employment. P113
a) Routine Matters b) Modified Work c) Material Change d) Functional Abilities |
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97) __________________________ means a set of circumstances or conditions resulting from a previous workplace accident that prevents a member from attending work (e.g. scheduled surgical procedure).
a) Material Change b) Modified Work c) Recurrence d) Graduated Hours |
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98) ___________________________ means an injury or disease incurred during the performance of duty.
a) Critical Injury Incident b) Functional Abilities c) Critical Injury d) Accident |
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Reporting p115
99) An IOD Report (TPS 765) is mandatory in circumstances where a member a) has been or may have been exposed to a hazardous chemical or biological substance only b) sustains a work-related injury that results in or may result in first aid c) experiences a recurrence of a previous injury from an on duty incident d) A member comes into contact with a person who has come into to contact with chemical agents |
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100) Officer-in-Charge Upon being notified that a member has sustained a work-related injury shall ensure
a) appropriate medical attention is provided b) a senior officer conducts an investigation of the circumstances of the event and completes a Chief’s report c) a copy of the TPS 765 is faxed to Workplace Health and Safety – Workers’ Compensation Services as soon as practicable and in any case before the completion of the current tour of duty e) the member obtains a medical note from a health care professional pursuant to the applicable Collective Agreement |
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101) Officer-in-Charge Upon being notified that a member will be unable to attend court while off due to an injury shall ensure
a) the TPS 765 is faxed to Occupational Health and Safety b) appropriate medical attention is provided a supervisor conducts an investigation of the circumstances of the event and completes a TPS 765 c) the appropriate Case Manager, if applicable, and appropriate member of Court Services is notified d) a TPS 765 is completed detailing the absence |
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102) Officer-in-Charge Upon being notified that a member is unable to complete a tour of duty or report for duty as a result of a recurrence of a work-related injury shall ensure
a) appropriate medical attention is provided the appropriate Case Manager, if applicable, and appropriate member of Court Services is notified b) a supervisor conducts an investigation of the circumstances of the event c) a TPS 765 is completed detailing the absence d) the member obtains a medical note from a health care professional |
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103) Supervisor Upon being notified by a member that he/she has been involved in a workplace accident shall
a) immediately complete a TPS 765 reporting the circumstances of the event b) fax a copy of the TPS 765 to Occupational Health and Safety c) ensure the member obtains a medical note and initiate an immediate investigation into the occurrence and record all the pertinent facts. d) ensure the member receives appropriate medical attention immediately |
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104) Supervisor Upon being notified by a member that they are unable to complete a tour of duty or report for duty due to the recurrence of a work-related injury shall
a) ensure the member receives appropriate medical attention immediately b) initiate an immediate investigation immediately complete a TPS 765 reporting the circumstances of the event and make whatever comment is required in the narrative section c) fax a copy of the TPS 765 to Occupational Health and Safety d) initiate an immediate investigation into the occurrence and record all the pertinent facts |
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105) Supervisor Upon being notified by a member that they have experienced a material change in circumstances with respect to their work-related injury shall immediately notify the
a) Unit Commander verbally and on a 649 b) Unit Commander on a 649 c) Unit Commander Occupational Health on a 649 d) Unit Commander Health and Safety Unit on a 649 |
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106) Supervisor Upon receipt of a MED 1 from Occupational Health and Safety – MAS, shall ensure compliance with the restrictions described on the form and report any deviation from the restriction to the
a) OIC b) Duty Inspector c) Medical Bureau d) Unit Commander |
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08 – 02 Sickness Reporting p110
107) Members who are off work sick for ______________________ working days as a result of a transient illness do not need to consult with Medical Advisory Services prior to returning to work, a) 10 days b) More than 10 days c) Less than 10 days d) 14 Working Days |
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108) Members who are absent ________________ working days or who may require periods of restricted duties shall consult with MAS before returning to work.
a) less than 10 days b) 10 c) 14 d) More than ten |
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109) _________________________________ means sick leave accrued in accordance with the applicable Collective Agreement.
a) Sickness b) Restricted Duties c) Routine Matters d) Sick Benefits |
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110) Which statement is correct
a) The Service will endeavour to accommodate all members with temporary and permanent disabilities in accordance with the provisions of the Human Rights Code and the Police Services. b) The Service will endeavour to accommodate all members with temporary and permanent disabilities in accordance with the provisions of the Ontario Rights Code and the Police Services Act. c) The Service will endeavour to accommodate all members with temporary and permanent disabilities in accordance with the provisions of the Ontario Human Rights Code and the Police Services Act. d) The Service will endeavour to accommodate all members with temporary and permanent disabilities in accordance with the provisions of the Canadian Human Rights Code and the Police Services Act. |
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111) Member
When unable to report for duty or complete a tour of duty due to sickness shall immediately notify the officer in charge (OIC) of the following a) nature of sickness b) anticipated length of absence c) their name, rank/position, only d) telephone number where member is recuperating |
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112) Member upon receipt of a MED 2, shall complete the form as required and return it within ______________ hours of receipt to MAS.
a) 48 b) 96 c) 24 d) 72 |
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113) Supervisor
Unless otherwise directed by the Chief of Police, shall notify the ____________________________ when it is apparent that a member has a medical condition that is affecting, or may reasonably be expected to affect the member’s performance of duty. a) OIC b) Inspector c) Duty Inspector d) Unit Commander |
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114) Officer in Charge
When a member is unable to report for duty or complete a tour of duty due to sickness, shall a) record the pertinent information b) ensure MAS is advised via telephone, c) inquire as to the nature of the sickness d) Court Services is notified accordingly. |
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08 – 01 Employee and Family Assistance
115) Program (EFAP) Which statement is correct? a) All Service members may apply to become an Agent or a member of the CIBT b) Only Senior members may apply to become a Referral Agent or a member of the CIDT c) Any members may apply to become a Referral Agent or a member of the CIDT d) All Service members may apply to become a Referral Agent or a member of the CIDT |
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116) Complete the statement
The EFAP is required by law to break confidentiality and release confidential information relating to a client when a criminal offence has been committed, in the event of child abuse, and…. a) when it is believed that the member poses an imminent danger to themselves or others as defined within the Mental Health Act (MHA) b) when it is believed that the client poses an imminent danger to themselves or others as defined within the Mental Health Act (MHA) c) when it isbelieved that the client poses an imminent danger to themselves or others as defined within the Occupational Health Act (OHA) d) when it is believed that the member poses an imminent danger to themselves or others as defined within the Mental Health Act (MHA) |
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117) The EFAP supplies only the following information to the Service, Association and Senior Officers’ Organization on an annual basis
a) number of clients b) method of recommendation c) type of trouble d) total inquiries |
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118) The EFAP will only breach confidentiality in releasing a client‘s name when required by law, such as
a) when advised of child pornography b) when advised of an indictable offence offence c) when a client is a danger to themselves or others, as defined by the MHA d) when advised of a criminal offence that may occur |
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119) EFAP Committee
The EFAP Committee is a joint Management/Association body, which is responsible for a) overseeing the intake of officers b) ongoing planning and development of the program c) approving program activities d) addressing concerns raised by community members |
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120) Member
When voluntarily seeking assistance for a problem may seek assistance by contacting a) a Senior Officer b) The OIC c) a Referral Agent d) The Association |
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121) Supervisor
Upon becoming aware of a member who requests assistance for a problem shall a) advise the member of any assistance, including EFAB b) allow the member the opportunity to attend the Medical Services on duty, subject to operational requirements c) follow–up to provide the member with the necessary support and encouragement d) protect the member’s rehabilitation from being positively affected by co–workers’ inappropriate talk |
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07 – 05 Collisions Involving Service Vehicles p104
TRAFFIC MANAGEMENT AUDIT 122) Which statement is correct a) The investigating traffic officer/marine unit officer is directed to complete and submit a SRLD402 or MAR 6, with copies of the memorandum book and field notes to the investigating supervisory officer prior to reporting off duty, b) The investigating traffic officer/marine unit officer is directed to complete and submit a SRLD401 or MAR 8, with copies of the memorandum book and field notes to the investigating supervisory officer prior to reporting off duty, c) The investigating traffic officer/marine unit officer is directed to complete and submit a SRLD401 or MAR 9, with copies of the memorandum book and field notes to the investigating supervisory officer prior to reporting off duty, d) The investigating traffic officer/marine unit officer is directed to complete and submit a SRLD402 or MAR 9, with copies of the memorandum book and field notes to the investigating supervisory officer prior to reporting off duty, |
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123) _____________________________________ means when a Service vehicle operated by a member intentionally comes into contact with another vehicle thus using the vehicle as a tool to stop a threat.
a) Collision b) Pinning c) Blocking d) Intentional Contact |
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124) Member
1. When involved in a collision involving a Service vehicle shall a) immediately notify the communications operator b) immediately request a supervisory officer and a traffic officer. c) record the details outlining the circumstances of the collision on a report d) Check for injuries with other involved persons |
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125) When required to investigate a Service vehicle collision shall
determine if any of the following apply in relation to the involved member a) Indictable offence b) Highway offence c) conduct issue d) Driver Ed issue |
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01 – 01 Arrest yes again p5 a lot of tricks are played on exam in this area.
126) In addition to the authorities to arrest without warrant given to any person in section 494 of the Criminal Code (CC), a peace officer is given additional authorities under s. 495(1), 524(2), 525(6) and 31(1) CC. A peace officer may arrest any person who a) has contravened or is about to violate the terms of a criminal release b) has contravened and is about to contravene the terms of a criminal summons c) has contravened or is about to contravene a criminal release d) has contravened or is about to contravene the terms of a criminal release |
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127) In addition to the authorities to arrest without warrant given to any person in section 494 of the Criminal Code (CC), a peace officer is given additional authorities under s. 495(1), 524(2), 525(6) and 31(1) CC. A peace officer may arrest any person who
a) the officer finds committing an Indictable offence b) the officer finds committing a criminal offence c) the officer finds committing a dual procedure offence d) the officer finds taking part in a criminal offence |
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128) In addition to the authorities to arrest without warrant given to any person in section 494 of the Criminal Code (CC), a peace officer is given additional authorities under s. 495(1), 524(2), 525(6) and 31(1) CC. A peace officer may arrest any person who
a) is found committing or it is believed on reasonable grounds has committed a breach of the peace b) is found committing or it is believed on rational grounds is about to commit a breach of the peace c) is found committing or it is believed on respectful grounds is about to commit a breach of the peace d) is found committing or it is believed on reasonable grounds is about to commit a breach of the peace |
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Arrest in a Dwelling–House (Feeney Warrants)
129) As a general rule, police officers are required to obtain a warrant prior to entering a dwelling–house to arrest a person. Entry to a dwelling–house to effect an arrest is prohibited unless a) the arrest warrant is endorsed with an authorization to enter under s. 529(1) CC, b) the arrest warrant is accompanied by an entry authorization warrant issued under. 529.1 CC, c) when there are rational grounds to suspect that entry into the dwelling–house is necessary to prevent imminent bodily harm or death to any person, or d) when there are reasonable grounds to believe that evidence relating to the commission of an summary conviction offence is present in the dwelling–house and that entry into the dwelling– house is necessary to prevent the imminent loss or imminent destruction of evidence, |
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01 – 02 Search of Persons p12
Search Authorities 130) A police officer may search a person a) without a person's consent b) by statute c) after an arrest has been made (common law – incident to an arrest) d) by statutory regulation |
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Search Incident to Arrest
131) Which statement is correct a) The right to search as an incident to a lawful arrest is found in common law, and has been upheld by the Supreme Court, as long as the search is conducted for a valid objective and is not conducted in an abusive fashion. (Cloutier v. Landlois, 1990) b) The right to search as an incident to a lawful arrest is found in common law, and has been upheld by the Supreme Court, as long as the search is conducted for a valid objective and is not conducted in an abusive fashion. (Clotiery v. Langlois, 1990) c) The right to search as an incident to a lawful arrest is found in common law, and has been upheld by the Supreme Court, as long as the search is conducted for a valid objective and is not conducted in an abusive fashion. (Cloutier v. Langlois, 1990) d) The right to search as an incident to a lawful arrest is found in common law, and has been upheld by the Supreme Court, as long as the search is conducted for a valid objective and is not conducted in an abusive fashion. (Clouter v. Langley, 1990) |
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01 – 03 Persons in Custody p13
132) ______________ means any central lock–up and/or booking hall. a) Court Cells b) Divisional Cells c) Detention Facility d) Lock–Up |
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133) Valuable Property, which is correct
a) means money, jewelry and other items that might make a prisoner the target of theft or robbery. b) means money, jewelry and other items that may make an accused the target of theft. c) means money, and other items that may make a prisoner the target of theft or robbery. d) means money, jewelry and other items that may make a prisoner the target of theft or robbery. |
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134) ________________________________means cells that may be used for short term detention of a person in custody when being processed, or waiting to be processed, or to ensure the safety of the person and/or members awaiting transportation to a central lock–up being held for return by an outside agency.
a) Lock-up b) Detention facility c) Divisional cells d) Court cells |
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135) Accused Young Persons
Accused young persons shall be properly segregated from any adult prisoner when detention in a divisional cell is required pending release or transport to a young persons lock–up. A young person under eighteen (18) years of age may be lodged in a divisional cell only a) to prevent injury if violent b) when the youth is violent c) when there is no females present in the cells d) when there is an adult present in the cells and there is adequate space to isolate the young person from the adult. |
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136) Prisoner’s Property
In order to maximize the safety of prisoners held in police custody and the Service members assigned to their care, it is the practice of the Toronto Police Service that the following property be removed from every prisoner, which one do not remove. a) valuable property b property bag receipt c) implements of escape d) tobacco products. |
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137) Police Officer
When transporting a person in custody to a police station or another location shall which statement is correct a) advise the sergeant prior to departure of the destination, the sex and age of the person, and the odometer reading b) advise the communications operator prior to departure of the destination, the sex and age of the person, and the odometer reading, and location of vehicle. c) advise the communications operator prior to departure of the destination, the sex and age of the person, and the odometer reading d) advise the communications operator prior to departure of the destination, the sex of the person, and the reading |
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138) Officer in Charge which is correct p17
a) when notified about a prisoner who, depending on mental, physical or emotional condition, requires priority in booking and processing to decrease the likelihood of a confrontation or safety risk shall process the prisoner as soon as is necessary. b) when notified about a prisoner who, depending on mental, physical or emotional condition, requires priority in booking and processing to decrease the likelihood of a confrontation or safety risk shall process the prisoner as soon as practicable. c) when notified about a prisoner who, depending on mental, physical or emotional condition, requires priority in booking and processing to decrease the likelihood of a confrontation or safety risk shall process the prisoner as soon as possible. d)when notified about a prisoner who, depending on mental, physical or emotional condition, requires priority in booking and processing to decrease the likelihood of a confrontation or safety risk shall process the prisoner as soon as can be. |
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139) OIC are to only permit the following individuals to interview a person in custody
a) police officers involved in the investigation which is not correct b) members of law enforcement or government agencies involved in the investigation, at the request of the investigating officer c) an uncle d) defence counsel |
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140) OIC which statement is correct
a) the cell area is checked in a timely manner, persons in custody are viewed and the results of the checks are recorded on the UCMR b) the cell area is checked every hour, persons in custody are viewed and the results of the checks are recorded on the UCMR c)the cell area is checked periodically, persons in custody are viewed and the results of the checks are recorded on the UCMR d) the cell area is checked regularly, persons in custody are viewed and the results of the checks are recorded on the UCMR |
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141) OIC When in charge of a unit with audio/video equipment in the detention facility shall ensure
a) persons are booked timely b) equipment is operated by an officer. c) the DAAMS is operating d) requests for repairs or adjustments to the equipment are reported to the Help Desk (local 8-4357) |
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Procedure 01–03 – Appendix A Medical Advisory Notes p21
142) Which statement is correct a) Ontario provides quick easy access to a qualified health professional (registered nurse) who can assess the symptoms of the prisoner and offer advice as to whether the individual is in need of immediate hospital care. b) Health Ontario provides quick easy access to a qualified health professional (registered nurse) who can assess the symptoms of the prisoner and offer advice as to whether the individual is in need of immediate hospital care. c) Government health Ontario provides quick easy access to a qualified health professional (registered nurse) who can assess the symptoms of the prisoner and offer advice as to whether the individual is in need of immediate hospital care. d) Telehealth Ontario provides quick easy access to a qualified health professional (registered nurse) who can assess the symptoms of the prisoner and offer advice as to whether the individual is in need of immediate hospital care. |
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Alcohol Withdrawal Syndrome (AWS) is characterized by physical and mental symptoms that can occur after a person discontinues consuming high doses of alcohol. Symptoms of AWS may appear within six (6) to twelve (12) hours after a person’s last consumption of alcohol. AWS more commonly affects those with a history of alcoholism and/or those who have experienced problems with alcohol withdrawal in the past. Fill in the blanks
143) ________________________________ is a Mild symptom a) sweating (diaphoresis) b) intensified Mild Symptoms c) rapid breathing (tachypnea) d) racing heart rate (tachycardia) |
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144) ________________________________ is a Moderate symptom
a) agitation b) nausea/vomiting c) sweating (diaphoresis) d) anxiety |
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145) ________________________________ is a Mild symptom
a) racing heart rate (tachycardia) b) agitation c) seizures d) disorientation |
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146) ________________________________ is a Severe symptom
a) disorientation b) racing heart rate (tachycardia) c) over responsive reflexes (hyperreflexia) d) intensified Mild Symptoms |
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147) ________________________________ is a Mild symptom
a) seizures b) intensified Mild Symptoms c) racing heart rate (tachycardia) d) tremors (trembling or quivering) |
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148) ________________________________ is a Moderate symptom
a) rapid breathing (tachypnea) b) anxiety c) over responsive reflexes (hyperreflexia) d) hallucinations |
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149) ________________________________ is a Severe symptom
a) rapid breathing (tachypnea) b) racing heart rate (tachycardia) c) agitation d) abnormally high fever (hyperthermia) |
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150) ________________________________ is a Moderate symptom
a) intensified Mild Symptoms b) severely intensified Mild and/or Moderate Symptoms c) hallucinations d) seizures |
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151) ________________________________ is a Mild symptom
a) tremors (trembling or quivering) b) intensified Mild Symptoms c) rapid breathing (tachypnea) d) racing heart rate (tachycardia) |
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152) ________________________________ is a severe symptom
a) intensified Mild Symptoms b) rapid breathing (tachypnea) c) severely intensified Mild and/or Moderate Symptoms d) racing heart rate (tachycardia) |
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153) ________________________________ is a Mild symptom
a) intensified Mild Symptoms b) rapid breathing (tachypnea) c) racing heart rate (tachycardia) d) sweating (diaphoresis) |
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154) Which is not a condition of excited delirium
a) sweating, fever, heat intolerance b) sudden calm after frenzied activity c) bizarre or aggressive behaviour d) impaired thoughts |
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155) Which is not a condition of excited delirium
a) disorientation b) acute onset of paranoia c) hallucinations d) normal tolerance to pain |
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156) Which is not a condition of excited delirium
a) laughing uncontrollably b) abnormal tolerance to pain c) abnormal tolerance to pepper spray c) unexpected physical strength |
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01 – 08 Criminal Code Release p26
Officer in Charge 157) Where a person has been arrested and brought into a police station and is to be charged with….. a) any offence punishable by imprisonment for five (5) years or less b) criminal procedure c) Dual offence d) District Court Offence shall consider the issue of public interest, as well as attendance in court, |
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158) Officer in Charge which is correct
a) When releasing a person shall make every effort to ensure the safety of that person given the sex, gender or condition of the person and the time and location of release. b) When releasing a person shall make every effort to ensure the safety of that person given the age, gender or condition of the person and the time and location of release. c) When releasing a person shall make every effort to ensure the safety of that person given the age, gender or race of the person and the time and location of release. d) When releasing a person shall make every effort to ensure the safety of that person given the age, gender or nationality of the person and the time and location of release. |
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159) Promise To Appear (Form 10) p27
Officer in Charge Upon deciding that it is appropriate to release a person on a Form 10 shall a) ensure the appropriate charge are entered in CIPS b) ensure the Form 100 is properly prepared c) ensure the first court appearance has been established as six (6) weeks from the date of release d) ensure the accused is satisfied with the charges |
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160) Which statement is correct
a) A refusal to sign does invalidate the release. b) A refusal to sign does not invalidate the release. c) A refusal to initial does not validate the release. d) A refusal to write name does not invalidate release. |
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161) Recognizance Entered Into Before an Officer in Charge (Form 11)
Which statement is correct a) A person may be released on a Form 11 without sureties and, with or without deposit. Under normal circumstances, the person will be released without deposit. Where the person resides outside Ontario, or more than 100 kilometers from the place of custody, the release may be with deposit. In any event, the value of the deposit shall not exceed $400. b) A person may be released on a Form 11 without sureties and, with or without deposit. Under normal circumstances, the person will be released without deposit. Where the person resides outside Ontario, or more than 300 kilometers from the place of custody, the release may be with deposit. In any event, the value of the deposit shall not exceed $600. c) A person may be released on a Form 11 without sureties and, with or without deposit. Under normal circumstances, the person will be released without deposit. Where the person resides outside Ontario, or more than 200 kilometers from the place of custody, the release may be with deposit. In any event, the value of the deposit shall not exceed $500. d) A person may be released on a Form 11 without sureties and, with or without deposit. Under normal circumstances, the person will be released without deposit. Where the person resides outside Ontario, or more than 200 kilometers from the place of custody, the release may be with deposit. In any event, the value of the deposit shall not exceed $1000. |
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162) Undertaking Given to an Officer in Charge (Form 11.1)
An Officer in Charge (OIC) may compel an accused person being released from custody to enter into an Undertaking (Form 11.1) and to agree to do one or more of the following things which one is not correct a) surrender any authorization, license or registration certificate or other document enabling the person to acquire or possess a firearm b) deliver their passport to a peace officer or other person c) comply with any other condition specified in the undertaking that the OIC considers necessary to ensure the safety and security of any victim of or witness to the offence. d) abstain from being in territorial criminal districts |
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163) Undertaking Given to an Officer in Charge (Form 11.1)
An Officer in Charge (OIC) may compel an accused person being released from custody to enter into an Undertaking (Form 11.1) and to agree to do one or more of the following things which one is not correct a) abstain from the consumption of alcohol b) abstain from the consumption of drugs except in accordance with a medical prescription c) remain in a territorial jurisdiction; notify a peace officer or another person of any change ofaddress, employment or occupation d) get a job |
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164) 01 – 10 Provincial Offences Act Releases
Rationale which statement is correct a) The Highway Offences Act (HOA) establishes the authority and describes the process for releasing persons arrested for a warrant, or under another power of arrest contained within a provincial statute. This procedure describes the best practices for POA releases in accordance with the Act. b) The Ontario Offences Act (OOA) establishes the authority and describes the process for releasing persons arrested for a warrant, or under another power of arrest contained within a provincial statute. This procedure describes the best practices for POA releases in accordance with the Act. c) The Ontario Offences Act (OOA) establishes the authority and describes the process for releasing persons arrested for a warrant, or under another power of arrest contained within a provincial statute. This procedure describes the best practices for POA releases in accordance with the Act. d) The Provincial Offences Act (POA) establishes the authority and describes the process for releasing persons arrested for a warrant, or under another power of arrest contained within a provincial statute. This procedure describes the best practices for POA releases in accordance with the Act. |
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165) Suspension
What is the correct statement? P170 a) An authorized officer of equal or superior rank shall commence the suspension of an officer. b) An authorized officer of superior rank shall commence the suspension of an officer. c) An authorized officer of equal or superior status shall commence the suspension of an officer. d) An authorized investigator of equal or superior rank shall begin the suspension of an officer . |
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01 – 15 Bail Hearings and Detention Orders p32
166) Judicial Interim Release means a judicial release, entered into before a Judge or Justice, that may be by way of which is correct a) an Undertaking (Form 12) with or without conditions b) a Recognizance (Form 24) c) an Undertaking (Form 32) with or without conditions d) a Recognizance (Form32) |
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167) Officer in Charge
When informed that an arrested person should be held for a bail hearing shall ensure a) compliance with criminal code b) that the crown envelope is completed in compliance with the Act c) that the brief clearly outlines that bail is being opposed or that conditions of release are appropriate to the circumstances d) The victim is notified and has approved the course of action. |
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168) Officer in Charge – Central Lock–up
When receiving a prisoner to be held pending transportation to Bail Court shall ensure a) compliance with Act b) crown envelope and YC 1955 arrive at court for the second appearance c) that the crown envelope is completed in accordance with the criminal code d) the accused person is fingerprinted prior to transport to court |
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04 – 02 Death Investigations p36
169) HEALTH AND SAFETY PRACTICES DURING POST- MORTEM EXAMINATIONS Which statement is correct a) Members are advised that the Office of the Chief Coroner and Ontario Forensic Pathology Service have amended its health and safety practices at the Provincial Forensic Pathology Unit. b) Members are advised that the Office of the Deputy Chief Coroner and Ontario Forensic Pathology Service have amended its health practices at the Provincial Forensic Pathology Unit. c) Members are advised that the Office of the Chief Coroner and Ontario Forensic Pathology Service have changed its health and safety protocol at the Provincial Forensic Pathology Unit. e) Members are advised that the Office of the Chief Coroner and Toronto Forensic Pathology Service has amended its health and safety protocol at the Provincial Forensic Pathology Unit. |
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Definitions
170) Child means any a) means any person under the age of eighteen (18) years as defined by the Child and Family Services Act. b) means any person under the age of eighteen (18) years as defined by the Family Services Act. c) means any person under the age of sixteen (16) years as defined by the Child and Family Act. d) means any person under the age of sixteen (16) years as defined by the Child and Family Services Act. |
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Definitions HOMICIDES
171) Homicide Investigation means an investigation led by the Homicide Squad into the circumstances surrounding a sudden death where there is a) foul play b) cause of death can be explained c) found human remains d) peculiar circumstances |
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172) Supervisory Officer which statement is correct p45
a) The first supervisory officer will be responsible for the neatness and thoroughness of the uniform response. b) The first supervisory officer shall be responsible for the quality and timely response of the uniform response. c) The first supervisory officer shall be responsible for the quality and thoroughness of the uniform response. e) The supervisory officer shall be responsible for the thoroughness of the uniform response. |
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173) Officer in Charge which is correct
a) The OIC is responsible for ensuring an appropriate uniform response and, in the absence of the duty inspector, an appropriate investigative response. b) The OIC is responsible for ensuring an appropriate uniform response and, in the absence of the detective sergeant, an appropriate investigative response. c) The OIC is responsible for ensuring an appropriate police response and, in the absence of the detective, an appropriate investigative response. d) The OIC is responsible for ensuring an appropriate uniform response and, in the absence of the sergeant, an appropriate investigative response. |
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04 – 05 Missing Persons p47
174) Which statement is correct a) An AMBER Alert will have a duration of ten (10) hours following activation, unless cancelled or extended. b) An AMBER Alert will have a duration of five (5) hours following activation, unless cancelled or extended. c) An AMBER Alert will have a duration of five (5) minutes following activation, unless cancelled or extended. d) An AMBER Alert will have a duration of six (6) hours following activation, unless cancelled or extended. |
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175) Which statement is correct
a-Search Manager means the police officer in charge of Public Safety & Emergenc –Search Management Team. b-Search Manager means the police officer in charge of Safety & Emergency Management –Search Management Team. c-Search Manager means the first officer in charge of Public Safety & Emergency Management –Search Management Team. d-Search Manager means the police officer in charge of Public Safety & Emergency Management –Search Management Team. |
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Level 2 Search
176) This level will be implemented when a missing person is a) (16) years and judged likely to be incapable of caring for themselves b) mentally disoriented c) over seventy (70) years of age or infirm d) there is evidence of a missing person |
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177) AMBER Alert
An AMBER Alert shall be requested when a) the person is under eighteen (18) years of age b) the investigator has reasonable belief that the person has been missing for hours c) the abducted person is in danger of bodily harm or death d) descriptive information cannot be determined |
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Reporting
178) Missing Person (A) which is correct When the complainant is situated in the City of Toronto, and is reporting a person missing who is a resident of the City of Toronto The division receiving the report of a missing person shall a) be responsible for the secondary investigation b) be responsible for completing the eCOPS report c) not be responsible for completing the eCOPS report d) be responsible for completing the ViClas report |
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179) Missing Person (C)
When the complainant is situated in the City of Toronto, and is reporting a person missing who is not a resident of the City of Toronto, and the area where the person is missing from is unknown The division receiving the report of a missing person shall be required to a) transfer the complainant to the division where the missing person resides b) transfer the complaint to the division responsible for the area where the person is missing from c) transfer the complainant to the Duty Desk d) conduct a follow-up investigation |
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Missing Person (B)
180) When the complainant is situated in the City of Toronto, and is reporting a person missing who is not a resident of the City of Toronto, and the area where the person is missing from is known The division receiving the report of a missing person shall a) immediately forward a copy of the eCOPS report by facsimile to the Inspector- Intelligence Division – International Assistance b) immediately forward a copy of the eCOPS report by facsimile to the Unit Commander - Intelligence Division –Foreign Assistance c) immediately forward a copy of the eCOPS report by facsimile to the Unit Commander - Intelligence Division – International Assistance d) immediately forward a copy of the eCOPS report by facsimile to the Officer in Charge - Intelligence Division – International Assistance |
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Child Apprehension Warrant p53
181) Which statement is correct a) If a missing person is under 16 years of age and circumstances warrant, the police officer shall advise the parent, guardian or the approved agency that has custody of the child, that they may apply to a Justice of the Peace (Ontario Court of Justice, Family Court) for an apprehension warrant under the Child and Family Services Act (CFSA). b) If a missing person is under 18 years of age and circumstances warrant, the police officer shall advise the parent, guardian or the approved agency that has custody of the child, that they may apply to a Justice of the Peace (Ontario Court of Justice, Family Division) for an apprehension warrant under the Family Services Act (CFSA). c) If a missing person is under 16 years of age and circumstances warrant, the police officer shall advise the parent, guardian or the approved agency that has custody of the child, that they may apply to a Justice of the Peace (Ontario Court of Justice, Family Division) for an apprehension warrant under the Child and Family Services Act (CFSA). d) If a missing person is under 16 years of age and circumstances warrant, the police officer shall advise the parent, guardian or the approved agency that has custody of the child, that they may apply to a Justice of the Peace (Provincial Court of Justice, Youth Division) for an apprehension warrant under the Child and Family Services Act (CFSA). |
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Level 2
182) Officer in Charge The OIC is responsible for ensuring an appropriate uniform response, and in the absence of the Detective Sergeant, an appropriate investigative response. When becoming involved in a Level 2 investigation shall a) ensure sergeants are assigned to the investigation, for the grid search b) ensure a supervisory officer takes charge of the investigation. c) notify the Officer in Charge - Duty Desk d) notify the Unit Commander - Duty Desk |
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04 – 16 Death in Police Custody p57
183) Who is responsible to notify Duty Desk when there is a death in custody. a) Unit Commander b) OIC c) Supervisory Officer d) Booker |
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184) Who ensures the duty Desk is notified p58
a) Supervisory Officer b) Inspector c) OIC d) Unit Commander |
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185) Who is responsible in notifying the Chief’s SIU Designate and the
appropriate Deputy Chief of Police, p59 a) Inspector b) Unit Commander-Duty Desk c) OIC Duty Desk d) Staff Inspector |
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04 – 30 Scenes of Crime Officer (SOCO) p59
185) SOCOs may attend the following only when approved by FIS a) homicides b) aggravated sexual assaults c) home invasions which are minor in nature d) home invasions which areserious in nature |
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04 – 35 Source Management – Confidential Source p59
¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬186) ________________ means a person who acts on behalf of the police and under their direction, which may result in them becoming a material and compellable witness. The identity of the agent is subject to disclosure. a) Confidential Source b) Handler c) Restricted Source d) Agent |
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187) _____________________ means any police officer from the Service who can handle level 1 sources only.
a) Handler b) Handler – Level 2 c) Handler – Level 1 d) Controller |
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188) ______________________________ primary concerns shall be considered by all officers when establishing a relationship with a source
a) Cost b) Public liability c) Source integrity d) integrity of Service |
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189) 05 – 01 Preliminary Homicide Investigation
Who shall attend all Death of a Child Under Five (5) Years of Age incidents and consult with the Coroner prior to leaving the scene a) Duty Inspector b) Officer in Charge c) Homicide Detective d) Divisional Detective |
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190) First Police Officer
When assigned to attend the scene of a suspicious death or suspected homicide shall attend promptly. a) take charge of the scene until the arrival of a supervisory officer b) check for witnesses c) start a preliminary report d) after arrival set up a major criminal investigation perimeter |
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191) Supervisory Officer
The first supervisory officer to arrive at the scene of a suspicious death or suspected homicide shall be responsible for the quality and thoroughness of the uniform response. When advised of a suspicious death or suspected homicide shall a) note all conversation with the suspect b) treat the death as suspicious c) ensure sufficient personnel are dispatched to the scene d) ensure divisional detective personnel attend the scene |
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192) Officer in Charge
The OIC is responsible for ensuring an appropriate uniform response, and in the absence of the detective sergeant, an appropriate investigative response. Upon being notified of a suspicious death or possible homicide shall a) take charge of all uniformed police officers b) ensure sufficient personnel are dispatched to the scene c) provide assistance and direction to the police officers at the scene d) ensure the Homicide Squad and FIS are notified if homicide is suspected |
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193) The OIC is responsible for ensuring an appropriate uniform response, and in the absence of the detective sergeant, an appropriate investigative response.
Upon being notified of a suspicious death or possible homicide shall a) ensure sufficient personnel are dispatched to the scene b) ensure a police officer accompanies the deceased to the hospital or morgue c) notify the OIC – Duty Desk d) treat the death as suspicious |
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194) 10 – 02 Incidents Involving Hazardous Materials p143
a) Warm Zone means an area where toxic material may still exist, but levels are not immediately dangerous to life and health. Only members equipped with the appropriate level of clothing may enter the Hot Zone. b) Warm Zone means an area where toxic material may still exist, but levels are not immediately dangerous to life and health. c) Warm Zone means an area where contamination may still exist, but levels are not immediately dangerous to life and health. d) Warm Zone means an area where contamination may still exist, but levels are not dangerous to life and health. Only members equipped with the appropriate level of PPE and clothing may enter the Cold Zone. |
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05 – 02 Robberies/Hold–Ups p67
195) Financial Institution means a) Financial Institution means any bank, stock company or credit union. b) Financial Institution means any bank, investment company or credit union. c) Financial Institution means any bank, trust company or credit union. d) Financial Institution means any bank, trust company or employee union. |
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Procedure
196) HUS shall be contacted immediately in all instances of robbery involving a) home invasions involving firearms or weapons b) home invasions involving weapons c) home invasions involving firearms d) home invasions involving firearms or offensive items |
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197) Second Officer
The second police officer is responsible for locating the first officer, assisting to secure the crime scene and interviewing witnesses when required. Which is not correct a) remain outside the premises and maintain communication b) locate the first officer c) take direction from the first officer until the arrival of a supervisory officer d) request back–up officers, if not already on scene |
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198) First Police Officer
The first police officer is responsible for the safety and well being of the victim, offender management, and the preservation of the crime scene while awaiting the arrival of an appropriate investigator and completing and submitting all required reports. Upon arrival at the scene of a hold–up alarm shall, which is not correct a) notify the communications operator b) request back–up officers, if not already on scene c) cover appropriate entrances and exits d) observe the entrances and exits of the premises from a safe location while awaiting the arrival of a second officer |
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199) Supervisory Officer
The supervisory officer shall attend at the scene of a confirmed hold-up and be responsible for the quality and thoroughness of the uniform response. When notified of a confirmed hold–up shall which is not correct a) attend at the scene forthwith b) take charge of all uniformed police officers c) ensure the officer in charge is notified of all particulars d) ensure incorrect or incomplete reports are corrected by the author |
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200) ________________________________ shall also notify the Duty Desk of all confirmed hold-ups.
a) First Officer b) The OIC c) Sergeant d) Divisional Detective |
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05 – 03 Break and Enter 73
201) _______________________ when advised of a break and enter shall ensure the keyholder is contacted and requested to attend the scene. a) report officer b) sergeant c) detective d) oic |
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05 – 04 Domestic Violence p74
202) _________________means any incident between persons involved in an “intimate relationship” where, although no criminal offence has occurred, police have been called to the scene. a) Domestic Violence b) Dominant Aggressor c) Domestic Incident d) Domestic |
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203) Threshold Offences which is not correct
a) all homicides and attempts b) most sexual assaults and attempts c) all child sexual offences, d) all aggravated assaults |
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204) VWAP means which is correct
a) means the Victim/Witness Assistance Program operated by the Province at Ontario Courts of Justice locations. b) means the Victim/Witness Assistance Program operated by the Province at Provincial Courts of Justice locations. c) means the Victim/Witness Assistance Program operated by the Province at District Courts of Justice locations. d) means the Victim/Witness Assistance Program operated by the Province |
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205) Which is correct
A minimum of two (2) officers plus a sergeant shall be dispatched to all domestic related calls for service. A minimum of two (4) officers shall be dispatched to all domestic related calls for service. A minimum of two (3) officers shall be dispatched to all domestic related calls for service. d) A minimum of two (2) officers shall be dispatched to all domestic related calls for service. |
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206) Incidents Involving a Member of a Police Service p77
All allegations arising from a domestic situation in which the suspect/accused is a member of another Police Service, shall be reported in a timely manner to the Duty Officer of that Police Service by the unit commander of the Service division handling the investigation, or by the __________________________ a) OIC b) OIC PRS c) Inspector d) Duty Inpector |
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207) Occurrences of Service member–involved domestic violence outside of Canada shall be treated as allegations of _______________________ in accordance with the relevant sections of Chapter 13 of the Policy and Procedure Manual.
a) a criminal offence b) insubordination c) discreditable conduct d) not investigated |
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208) Supervisory Officer p78
The supervisory officer shall be responsible for the quality and thoroughness of the uniform response. When notified of a domestic situation shall a) attend the scene whenever possible, to provide guidance and assistance in the course of the investigation b)notify the divisional investigative office, and obtain further instructions from a DVI cconduct a search d) notify the divisional investigative office, |
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209) Who is responsible for ensuring all domestic violence investigations are undertaken with expediency.
a) Inspector b) Communications supervisor c) Sergeant d) OIC |
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05 – 05 Sexual Assault p80
210) Divisinal Investigator means a) means an investigator assigned to a divisional investigative unit who is not accredited to investigate complaints of sexual assault. b) means an officer assigned to a divisional investigative unit who is an accredited to investigate complaints of sexual assault. c) means an officer assigned to a divisional investigative unit who is not accredited to investigate complaints of sexual assault. d) means an sex crimes officer assigned to a divisional investigative unit who is not accredited to investigate complaints of sexual assault. |
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211) Primary Investigator which is correct
a) means an investigator as defined in the Ontario Major Case Management Manual. b) means a senior officer as defined in the Ontario Case Management Manual. c) means an officer as defined in the Ontario Major Case Management Manual. d) means a detective as defined in the Provincial Major Case Management Manual. |
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212) Violent Crime Linkage Analysis System (ViCLAS) means which of the following is correct
a) means the national database operated by the RCMP and the OPP for the purpose of linking occurrences of designated offences across Canada. b) means the national database operated by the RCMP for the purpose of linking criminal offences of designated offences across Canada. c)means the provincial database operated by the OPP for the purpose of linking occurrences of designated offences across Canada. d) means the national database operated by the RCMP for the purpose of linking occurrences of designated offences across Canada. |
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213) A divisional sexual assault investigator shall be assigned as the lead investigator in all sexual assault cases except
a) where the victim is under fourteen(14) years of age, a child sexual abuse investigator shall conduct the investigation in compliance with Procedure 05-06 b) where the victim is under sixteen (16) years of age, a child sexual abuse investigator shall conduct the investigation in compliance with Procedure 05-06 c) where the victim is under eighteen (18) years of age, a child sexual abuse investigator shall conduct the investigation in compliance with Procedure 05-06 d) where the victim is sixteen (16) years of age, a child sexual abuse investigator shall conduct the investigation in compliance with Procedure 05-06 |
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Victim Interview
214) Which statement is correct a) Only accredited sex crimes Investigators shall conduct detailed interviews with the victim. b) Only an sexual assault Investigator shall conduct detailed interviews with the victim. c) Only an accredited sexual assault Investigator shall conduct detailed interviews with the suspect. d) Only an accredited sexual assault Investigator shall conduct detailed interviews with the victim |
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215) Sexual Assault Care Centres (SACC) Scarborough Hospital (Grace Division)
How old does the victim have to be? To be seen at this hospital a) 12 and under b) 16 and older c) 12 and older d) 16 and older |
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216) Police Officer Upon arrival at the scene of a sexual assault shall
a) conduct a preliminary investigation by obtaining brief details from the victim b) conduct an investigation by obtaining detailed information from the victim c) conduct a preliminary investigation by obtaining a statement from the victim d)conduct an investigation by obtaining concise details from the victim |
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217) Supervisory Officer
The first supervisory officer shall be responsible for the quality and thoroughness of the uniform response. Upon being notified of a sexual assault shall a) ensure sufficient resources are assigned and all necessary action has been taken by responding uniform officers b) ensure a preliminary investigation has been commenced by a divisional sexual assault investigator or a divisional investigator before contacting the SCU c) ensure incorrect, incomplete or inappropriate occurrences or reports are corrected by the author d) ensure the SCU is notified, via telephone, facsimile or any other method as seen appropriate, given the circumstances of the investigation |
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218) Officer in Charge
The OIC is responsible for ensuring an appropriate uniform response, and in the absence of the detective sergeant, an appropriate investigative response. Upon receiving information concerning a sexual assault shall a) request that a supervisory officer attend the scene b) request additional assistance as required c) attend at the scene of the offence, where the victim is located d) ensure a supervisory officer attends at the scene of the offence, where the victim is located |
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05 – 06 Child Abuse p86
Responsibility for Investigations 219) The abuse took place inside the city of Toronto, What unit is responsible for the investigation a) Division where the incident occurred b) Division where child resides c) Division where child goes to school d) Division where child assigned to CAS |
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220) Supervisory Officer
The supervisory officer shall be responsible for the quality and thoroughness of the uniform response. Upon receiving a complaint of a suspected child physical or sexual abuse shall a)forward a copy of the eCOPS report to the divisional detective office where the offence took place, if applicable b)await further instructions from the designated investigator c) request that a supervisory officer attend the scene of the offence where the victim is located or any additional location deemed necessary d) ensure their attendance or reason for non–attendance is recorded in the memorandum book and in the eCOPS report |
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221) Officer in Charge
The officer in charge is responsible for ensuring an appropriate uniform response, and in the absence of the detective sergeant, an appropriate investigative response. Upon receiving notification of a case of suspected child physical or sexual abuse, or circumstances where child abuse cannot be ruled out, shall contact a designated investigator from the division in which the incident occurred, or if unavailable, a designated investigator from another division within the same _______________________area. a) District b) Field District c) Command d) Field command |
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05 – 16 Hate/Bias Crime p88
222) Which area of the criminal code has the provision for increased sentencing a)Section 618 b)Section 218 c)Section 318 d)Section 718 |
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Definitions
223) Hate/Bias Crime means which is correct a)a criminal offence committed against a person or property that is motivated by the victim’s race, national or ethnic origin, language, colour, religion, age, mental or physical disability, sexual orientation or other similar factor. b)a criminal offence committed against a person or property that is motivated by the victim’s race, national or ethnic origin, language, colour, religion, sex, age, mental or physical disability, sexual orientation or other similar factor. c)a criminal offence committed against a person or property that is motivated by the victim’s race, national or ethnic origin, language, colour, religion, sex, mental or physical disability, sexual orientation or other similar factor. d)a criminal offence committed against a person or property that is motivated by the victim’s race, national or ethnic origin, language, colour, religion, mental or physical disability, sexual orientation or other similar factor. |
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05 – 21 Firearms p89
224) Smuggled Firearm a)means a firearm, previously registered in Canada, which comes into police custody b)means a registered firearm, not previously registered in Canada, which comes into police custody c)means a firearm, not previously registered in Ontario, which comes into police custody d)means a firearm, not previously registered in Canada, which comes into police custody |
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225) Supervisory Officer
When attending an incident relating to a firearm offence shall a) ensure compliance with Procedure 09–03 regarding the submission of the firearm to the PEMU b ) all required information is noted on the report c) assume responsibility for the safe and efficient search of the premises d) ensure the GGTF has been notified |
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05 – 22 Abuse of Elderly or Vulnerable Persons
226) __________________means physical abuse (includes sexual abuse), psychological abuse, financial abuse, neglect or any combination thereof. a) Incompetent b) Elderly Person c) Harm d) Vulnerable Person |
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05 – 28 Gang–Related Investigations p92
227) ___________________means any group, association or other body consisting of five (5) or more persons, whether formally or informally organized a) Criminal Organization Offence b) Criminal Street Gang c) Criminal Organization d) Criminal Gang |
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Supervisory Officer
228) When notified of a Gang–Related incident shall, which statement is correct. a) a thorough investigation is conducted b) the Gun & Gang Task Force is notified, as required c) attend the scene whenever possible to provide assistance and guidance in the investigation d) mark “Gang–Related” in red ink on the face of the crown envelope |
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05 – 32 Kidnapping p95
229) Supervisory Officer The supervisory officer shall attend at the scene of a confirmed/suspected kidnapping and be responsible for the quality and thoroughness of the uniform response. When notified of a confirmed/suspected kidnapping shall a) communications broadcast all pertinent information b) the DOC has been notified c) that all divisional personnel are made aware of incident and any suspect information d) take control of the scene and take charge of all uniform police officers |
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230) Officer in Charge
The OIC is responsible for ensuring an appropriate uniform response, and in the absence of the detective sergeant, an appropriate investigative response. Upon being notified of a kidnapping or suspected kidnapping shall ensure a) a divisional detective attends the scene b) organize a thorough search of the area utilizing all available resources c) assess the situation d) ensure any witnesses are isolated and assign an officer(s) to interview, |
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06 – 04 Emotionally Disturbed Persons p96
231) Form 1 MHA means an ’Application by Physician for Psychiatric Assessment’ signed by a doctor within ___________________days of examining the person, giving any person authority to take the person named on the application to a psychiatric facility. a) seven (7) b) six (6) c) less than seven (7) d) five (5) |
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232) _________________________ means a person who suffers a temporary breakdown of coping skills but often reaches out for help, demonstrating that they are in touch with reality. Once a person in crisis receives the needed help, there is often a rapid return to normalcy.
a) Mental Disorder b) Person in Crisis c) Mental Crisis d) Emotionally Disturbed |
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Arriving at a Psychiatric Facility with the apprehended EDP
233) )fficer in Charge Upon receipt of an eCOPS report and/or TPS 228 shall a) ensure every effort has been made to locate a next of kin b) ensure the Form – MHA is still in effect c) ensure divisional detective investigates d) conduct a unified search, including a CPIC check |
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06 – 10 Landlord and Tenant Disputes
234) The_______________ establishes the rights and obligations of landlords and tenants who have entered into a tenancy agreement (written, oral or implied) for a residential premises. a) Tenancy Act b) Ontario Tenancy Act c) Residential Tenancies Act d) Provincial Tenancy Act |
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235)
The __________________________establishes the rights and obligations of landlords and tenants who have entered into a tenancy agreement (written, oral or implied) for a commercial premises. a) Business tenancy Act b) Commercial Act c) Commercial Tenancy Act d) Commercial Business Act |
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Office of Independent Police Review Directorate – Overview
236) The new legislation has mandated that there will be a Liaison Officer appointed to liaise with OIPRD investigators and case managers. For the Toronto Police Service (Service) the Liaison Officer is ___________________________ a) Det. Sgt Peter YUEN, PRS – Investigative. b) Staff Inspector Peter YUEN, PRS – Investigative. c) Inspector Peter YUEN, PRS – Investigative. d) Staff sergeant Peter YUEN, PRS – Investigative. |
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237) At the conclusion of an investigation it is the responsibility of the Service Liaison Officer to determine if the complaint is on reasonable grounds: which statement is correct
a) Not serious b) very serious c) substantiated or unsubstantiated d) Report determination to Deputy Chief |
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238) PSA – Part V Changes:
The OIPRD will review and classify all complaints received to determine whether it is a _____________, __________________ or conduct complaint. a) procedure, administration b) procedure, facility c) policy, organization d) policy, service |
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239) The OIPRD Director will have discretion to deal with complaints beyond the current deadline of _________________________
a) five (5) months b) six (6) months c) eight (8) months. d ten(10) months. |
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240) The OIPRD will screen all complaints and they may be dismissed under section __________ if the complaint is: frivolous, vexatious or in bad faith, or the complaint could be dealt with more appropriately under a different act or law, or it is not in the public interest to deal with the complaint
a) 60 b) 40 c) 80 d) 20 |
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241) Which statement is correct:
All policy/service complaints shall be recorded on the ________________ form and forwarded to the OIPRD. a) TPS forms b) Provincial Complaints forms c) Siu forms d) OIPRD Complaint |
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242) Conduct Complaints:
There will be an emphasis on mediation and trying to settle less serious complaints through a process called ‘________________________. a) focus resolution b) neighbourhood resolution c) Local resolution d) Mediated resolution |
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243) Before accepting a complaint for a local resolution a supervisor must: which statement is correct
a) Provide the complainant with the information/brochure concerning the OIPRD b) Ensure complaint is minor in nature c) advise complainant of process d) contact the OIPRD |
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244) Offences for Local Resolution
Local resolution is permitted for less serious incidents relating to the following: a) Acting in a orderly manner b) Neglect of duty c) Insubordation d) swearing |
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245) How to Resolve a Local Complaint
A supervisor may resolve a local complaint by utilizing one or more of the following options: which is not correct a) Discuss the matter with the complainant b) Facilitate a discussion between the officer and the complainant c) Facilitate an apology from the officer d) Refer the matter to Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR) |
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246) Local Resolution Form
A local resolution shall be documented on the OIPRD form and the form shall include the following: which is not correct a) The complainant’s name and address b) The respondent officer’s name c) A summary of the complaint d) A description of the resolution desired by the complainant |
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247) How the Public can make a complaint
Members of the public can make a complaint: which is not correct a) By telephone b) In person to a supervisor c) At a police station to a supervisor d) letter |
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248) Upon request, a member shall direct a person wanting to file a public complaint to: which is not correct
a) Attend any police station to pick up a Part V complaint form b) Access the Services’ website c) Access the OIPRD website d) contact the director of the OIPRD |
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249) The OIPRD will screen out complaints they determine are made in bad faith or are vexatious in nature or over ____________ months from the date of the incident.
a) 10 months b) 8 months c) 6 months d) 2 months |
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250) Timeline
An investigation is required to be completed ________________. In addition, there is a requirement to submit an interim report to PRS – Complaint Administration within 35 days. a) 30 days b) 60 days c) 90 days e) 120 days |
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251) Report of Investigation – Appeals
A complainant may request a review: Within thirty (30) days of a Chief’s decision that the complaint is unsubstantiated or not of a serious nature a) within sixty (60) days b) within thirty (30) days c) within ninety (90) days d) within forty five (45) days |
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252) Publications of Disciplinary Hearing Decisions
Under the new section _______, the Chief and the Board will be required to provide copies of all hearing decisions to the OIPRD. The OIPRD will post these decisions on the internet. The OIPRD website will become a repository for disciplinary hearing decisions issued throughout Ontario. a) 96 b) 46 c) 76 d) 86 |
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From the Chief p250
253) The importance of maintaining public trust Which statement is correct from the article a) We keep our own home clean. No cover-ups. No code of silence. Hollow justifications. No excuses. b) We keep our own home clean. valid cover-ups. No code of silence. No hollow justifications. No excuses. c) We keep our own house sanitary. No cover-ups. No code of silence. No hollow justifications. No excuses. b) We keep our own house clean. No cover-ups. No code of silence. No hollow justifications. No excuses. |
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Chief’s Message p251
Members Involved in Criminal Driving Offences 254) From CPKN - Drinking & Driving e-learning which statement is correct a) We must all proactively work to reduce drinking and driving offences. b) We must all proactively work to eliminate drinking and driving offences. c) We must all proactively work to reduce drinking and driving offences. d) We must all proactively toil to eliminate drinking and driving offences. |
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From the Chief
255) Recent changes to Suspect Apprehension Pursuit Procedure (15-10) a) Section 25 of the Criminal Code provides protection to officers involved in administering and enforcing the law and any subsequent use of force. b) Section 45 of the Criminal Code provides protection to officers involved in administering and enforcing the law and any subsequent use of force. c) Section 225 of the Criminal Code provides protection to officers involved in administering and enforcing the law and any subsequent use of force. e) Section 255 of the Criminal Code provides protection to officers involved in administering and enforcing the law and any subsequent use of force. |
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10 – 03 Bomb Threats and Explosions p147
BOMB THREATS 256) Police Officer In addition to complying with the direction contained in Procedure 10-01 shall further comply with the direction contained in this Procedure. When attending the scene of a suspected explosive package/device or bomb threat shall, which is not correct a) refrain from touching or handling the package/device b) interview the complainant c) use stairs to go from one level to another d) use a cellular telephone for communication rather than a radio to avoid possibility of detonation |
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EXPLOSIONS
257) At a minimum, explosions shall be treated as a ________________________ Incident. a) Level 4 – Major b) Level 3 – Major c) Level 2 – Major d) Level 1 – Major |
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10 – 05 Incidents Requiring the Emergency Task
Force p 150 258) Incident Commander means the ________________________ who has taken charge of the incident and who is in charge at the Command Post and, in conjunction with other emergency services commanders, is responsible for co–ordinating and managing police response at an incident. a) Inspector b) DutyInspector c) OIC d) Police officer |
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259) ______________________________ means the criminal use of violence, intimidation or coercion, or the threat of such violence to influence the behaviour of others by a terrorist activity.
a) Threatening b) Fear c) Terrorism d) Behavioural threats |
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260) The _______________________________ of the ETF consists of Special Weapons Teams (SWT), the Explosive Disposal Unit (EDU) and trained crisis negotiators. In addition, the ETF can initiate tactical paramedic and psychiatric support when necessary.
a) Special weapons section b) operational section c) operational team d) Special operations |
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First Police Officer
261) When responding to an incident potentially requiring the attendance of the ETF shall which is not correct a) refrain from using the siren near the scene, if appropriate b) position the vehicle a safe distance from the scene c) attempt to verify the situation d) assess the need to assume the role of Incident Commander |
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10 – 09 Evacuations p152
262) _____________ means the movement of people from a place of danger to stay elsewhere for the duration of the danger. a) secure zone b) safety area c) evacuation d) perimeter safety zone |
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263) The decision to evacuate may also involve consultation with members from other emergency response teams, outside experts, or, in the case of a Level 3 – Disaster Incident, the Mayor of Toronto. In particular, at an incident involving hazardous materials, the ___________________________ will recommend the appropriate evacuation distance.
a) IMS commander b) Unit Commander ETF c) Toronto Fire Service d) Jointly TPS & TFS |
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Evacuations
264) Responsibility for traffic control and security may be assigned to a _________________________ p156 a) Divisional Sergeant b) IMS Commander c) Traffic Supervisor d) Traffic Officer |
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10 – 10 Emergencies and Pursuits on TTC Property
265) It is imperative that officers contact the _____________________ and cut the power to the high voltage power rails prior to entering onto the track level. As an additional precaution, officers must always treat any power rail as if it were live. a) Track Control Centre b) Track Control Operations c) Transit Control Centre d) Transit Management Centre |
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Surface Vehicles - Alarms
266) All TTC vehicles are equipped with driver-activated alarms, as described below, to indicate on-board emergencies. four-way lights flash on and off, and the horn sounds continuously would be indicative of which of the following. a) TTC emergency vehicle b) Bus c) Light rail vehicle d) Streetcar |
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Surface Vehicles - Alarms
267) All TTC vehicles are equipped with driver-activated alarms, as described below, to indicate on-board emergencies. stop lights flash on and off, and the horn sounds continuously would be indicative of which of the following. a) Street car b) Bus c) TTC emergency mode d) Light rail vehicle |
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Subway and SRT On-Board Emergencies
268) A ____________________________ located on the outside rear of the operator’s cab on subway and SRT vehicles. This emergency stop can be used if it becomes necessary to stop a train in motion. a) A orange handled emergency brake is b) A blue handled emergency brake is c) A yellow handled emergency brake is d) A red handled emergency brake is |
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10 - 13 Threats to School Safety
269) There are three categories of movement restriction that may be implemented, which is not correct a) Lockdown b) Hold and Secure c) Shelter in Place d) Hold Shelter |
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Arrest
270 - According to the procedure entitled Arrest, the definition of arrest is which of the following ? a) the act identifying yourself as a police officer b) the act of taking physical control of a person c) the act of restraining the liberty of a person with the intent to investigate d) the act of restraining the liberty of a person with the intent to detain Page 05 |
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272- According to the procedure entitled Arrest, a police officer may also arrest a person under the general authorities for contravention of a Provincial Statute.
a) True b) False |
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273. According to procedure entitled Search of Person, when a Level 3 search is deemed necessary, the searching officers shall,
a) consult with the booking officer and advise of the grounds and circumstances c) be of the same sex as the person being searched, except in exigent circumstances d) ensure only one (1) members of the same sex as the person being searched are present during the search, unless additional officers are required to assist e) where appropriate, ask the person to remove all clothing one article at same time |
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274- According to the procedure entitled Persons in Custody, whose responsibility is it to evaluate the physical and mental state of the person in custody?
a) the arresting officer b) the designated officer c) the booking officer d) the Officer in Charge page 17 |
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275 – According to the procedure entitled Persons in Custody, which one is listed as one of the duties of the OIC when a person in custody is brought into the station?
a) consider whether the circumstances of the arrest and continued detention is reasonable and justifiable b) ensure the person has been informed of the nature of the investigation c) make the necessary notations in the memo book d) ensure the booking/ release process is recorded in compliance with Appendix D Page 17 |
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276.According to the Procedure entitled Emergency Management, in a Level Two – Major incident the first supervisory officer is responsible for which of the following
a) notify the OIC and the Duty Inspector b) request the Communications Operator – Communications Centre to notify the on-call member of Public Safety & Emergency Management Unit c) obtain the assistance of additional members from neighbouring Services d) Notify occupational Health & Safety e) when in the role of Incident Commander, continue in the role until the conclusion of the incident page 139 |
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277) According to the Toronto Police Service Incident Command System Organizational Chart Which of the falls under Planning...
a) Traffic b) Facilities c) Documentation d) Feeding Page 142 |
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278) According to the Toronto Police Service Incident Command System Organizational Chart which off the following does not fall under Operations...
a) Staging b) Access and Egress c) Crowd Control d) Demobilization e) Evacuations Page 142 |
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279) According to the Toronto Police Service Incident Command System Organizational Chart which off the following does not does report directly to the Incident Commander
a) Incident Specialist b) Health and Safety c) Team Specialist d) Public Information e) Liaison Page 142 |
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280) According to procedure 10-02 entitled Incidents Involving Hazardous Materials the secure line established by the police to define and isolate the emergency site as a closed, controlled area.
a) Warm Zone b) Inner Perimeter c) Hot Zone d) Outer Perimeter e) Cold Zone Page 143 |
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281) According to procedure 10-02 entitled Incidents Involving Hazardous Materials a request for the attendance of TFS at a hazardous materials incident means the “Haz One” unit has been automatically dispatched.
a) True b) False Page 144 |
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282) According to procedure 10-02 entitled Incidents Involving Hazardous Materials additional officers when attending the scene of an incident involving hazardous materials shall
a) look for the placard and/or symbol label warnings of the nature of the cargo b) take directions from the first officer at the site until a supervisory officer assumes command c) ensure access is restricted to necessary emergency services personnel d) advise the communications operator of the updated status of the incident page 145 |
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283) According to procedure 10-02 entitled Incidents Involving Hazardous Materials the first officer on the scene when the presence of hazardous or unknown materials is confirmed or suspected shall not do which of the following.
a) assess the situation and advise the communications operator of the b) location and extent of hazard c) need for additional personnel d) need for additional equipment e) expand the Incident Management System as required page 146 |
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284) Procedure 10-3 entitled Bomb Threats and Explosions is an extension of which procedure
a) 10-2 b) 10-4 c) 10-0 d) 10-1 |
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285) According to Procedure 10-3 entitled Bomb Threats and Explosions when attending the scene of a suspected explosive package/device or bomb threat shall
a) touch or handle the package/device b) interview the complainant c) use elevator to go from one level to another d) use a cellular telephone for communication rather than a radio to avoid possibility of detonation. Page 147 |
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286) According to Procedure 10-3 entitled Bomb Threats and Explosions after the area is evacuated shall
a) take further action concerning the suspected explosive package/device, upon the arrival of a Police Explosive Technician b) establish the most direct route to remove the suspected explosive package/device from the premises c) establish a command post located near from the scene and at a safe distance away other emergency services d) ensure all doors and windows in the building are closed, if possible, to minimize damage if the suspected explosive package/device detonates Page 148 |
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287) According to Procedure 10-4 entitled Incidence Requiring the Emergency Task Force, which of the following is not an operational section of the ETF.
a) Special Weapons Teams (SWT), b) Explosive Disposal Unit (EDU) c) Crisis negotiators. d) Haz One Response unit e) Tactical paramedic and psychiatric support. Page 150 |
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288) According to Procedure 10-4 entitled Incidence Requiring the Emergency Task Force, the Incident Commander shall
a) attempt to verify the situation b) maintain control and containment of the scene c) assess the need to assume the role of Incident Commander d) ensure detective office personnel attend e) obtain the number and the location of any telephone in the premises |
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289) According to procedure 10-9 entitled Evacuations who is responsible for ordering the evacuation in an incident involving hazardous materials?
a) Incident Commander b) Evacuation Officer c) Toronto Fire Service d) Mayor of the city of Toronto e) Deputy Chief Page 152 |
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290) According to procedure 10-9 entitled Evacuations the Incident Commander once the decision has been made to evacuate or shelter in place shall
a) ensure a communication strategy is developed in accordance with the guidelines contained in the “ Corporate Communication ” b) Responsibility for the communication strategy may be assigned to a representative of Public Information. c) assign a member to act as the Incident Officer, if necessary d) ensure the Evacuation Officer has taken the appropriate steps to identify all persons refusing to leave the evacuation area and has added the appropriate information to the original Field Investigation report page 154 |
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291) According to procedure 10-9 entitled Evacuations An officer cannot forcibly remove persons from their residence even under an order pursuant to the emergency management and civil protection act. Officers shall continue to encourage residents to leave when sufficient
danger exists. a) True b) false |
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292) There is a limited authority for police to evacuate persons under the fire protection and prevention act (fppa). Which of the following is correct
a) Section 15(1) of the fppa authorizes a fire marshal, an assistant fire marshal or a deputy chief to remove persons from land or premises where the fire poses an immediate threat tolife. b) Under s. 15(5) and s.16 of the fppa, a fire marshal, an assistant fire marshal or fire chief may call on the military to assist in carrying out their duties under the fppa. c) This is a very limited authority and the authority would only derive from a request of a fire marshal, an assistant fire marshal or fire chief under these sections. d) Section 15(5) of the fppa states: A person who enters on land or premises under this section may call on police officers as necessary and may use force as necessary to make the entry. Page 154 |
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293) According to Procedure 10-10 entitled Emergencies and Pursuits on TTC Property It is imperative that officers contact the ..................... and cut the power to the high voltage power rails prior to entering onto the track level.
a) The Duty Desk b) Traffic Services c) TTC Inspector d) Transit Control Centre e) Transit Patrol Officer |
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294) According to Procedure 10-13 entitled Threats to Schools a Hold and Secure is defined as
a) means that all movement in and out of the school and within the school is restricted as the danger is inside the school or is on school property and poses an immediate threat to the students or staff. b) requires that people enter and remain in a building with the doors and windows closed due to an external environmental threat. Fans, including heating and air conditioning units, should be turned off to prevent air from outside entering the building. Normal operations may continue within the building. c) means that if there is an immediate threat to life in a school, officers shall enter the school to stop the threat in accordance with training d) means, urgent, pressing and/or emergency circumstances. Exigent circumstances may include a bomb threat, a person possessing or using a weapon, or a fire on school property (as defined in the Police/School Board Protocol). e) means that all movement in and out of the school is restricted and external doors locked, however, movement within the school is not restricted as the external danger near the school poses no immediate threat to the students or staff unless they leave the building. Page 160 |
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295) According to Procedure 10-13 entitled Threats to Schools Upon being notified of a school Lockdown, Hold and Secure or Shelter in Place, shall.
a) be mindful of the circumstances that led to the involvement of the police and ensure that the original investigation continues b) attend the station c) assess the need to assume the role of Unit Commander. d) Notify the OIC page162 |
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296) According to Procedure 11-01 Public Safety and Emergency Management Response which is not the responsibility of the first supervisory officer.
a) ensure that a command post has been established b) assume the role of PIM until relieved by a superior officer c) reassess the situation d) advise the communications operator of the status of the incident and any new information e) Notify Duty operations Page 164 |
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297)According to the procedure entitled Police response to Labour Disputes
a) Police officers shall undertake paid duty policing that is related to a labour dispute. b) There are no ‘special rules’, which apply to a breach of the peace which may take place during a labour dispute. c) Public Safety & Emergency Management maintains a part time Industrial Liaison section for support when dealing with labour disputes. d) The courts have found that generally the introduction of non–serious charges, in particular “mischief”, may rectify a dispute. Page 165 |
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298) According to the procedure entitled Police response to Labour Disputes a supervisory officer upon receiving notification of a strike or lock–out in progress shall
a) call communications and assess the situation b) notify the officer in charge of the duty operation c) instruct personnel not to cross the picket line, unless an emergency arises or unless necessary in the performance of their duties d) encourage the involved parties to negotiate a picket line protocol e) ensure a TPS 236 and any other applicable reports are submitted page 166 |
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299) According to the procedure entitled Court Attendance which of the following need the mandatory notification of the Unit Commander
a) when notified to attend court during annual leave b) when unable to attend court for reasons other than annual leave c) when attending court for reasons other than criminal d) when incapable of utilizing the court kiosk for court appearances page167 |
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300) According to the procedure entitled Court Attendance a TPS 448 shall only be used under the following circumstances:
a) where a Court Kiosk is not functioning (CASC application is inactive) b) during a power surge c) at judicial and quasi-judicial appearances where no Court Kiosks exist d) when members working in covert operational roles are preauthorized for exemption by their Case Manager e) for the use of retired Service members attending court page 168 |
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301) According to the procedure entitled Court Attendance an Officer in Charge/Detective Sergeant when a process server attends at the unit to serve a subpoena on a member for Civil Court, or for the defence in criminal proceedings, and the member is not available shall
a) advise the process server to return the following day. b) advise the process server to contact the member to arrange a time for service when the member is off duty c) ensure only the member named in the subpoena accepts service d) ensure that any served subpoena left at the unit improperly by a process server is returned to the court services page 168 |
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302) If a Chief of Police, Deputy Chief or other police officer is convicted of an offence and sentenced to a term of imprisonment, the Chief of Police or Police Services Board, as the case may be, may not suspend him or her without pay, even if the conviction or sentence is under appeal.
a) True b) False Page 169 |
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303) According to the Procedure entitled Suspension from Duty- Police Officer which offence grounds for suspension to be initiated..
a) assault b) assault cause bodily harm c) robbery d) breach of peace e) serious misconduct page 170 |
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304) Officer in Charge upon considering the suspension of a police officer in accordance with the PSA, and in the absence of the unit commander shall if circumstances warrant suspension shall
a) advise the officer in writing that they are immediately suspended from duty b) relieve the officer of their wallet and cap c) date and sign the suspension notice d) advise the suspended officer that access is restricted to only the public areas of any police facility (excluding collecting personal property at the unit immediately after being suspended) e) instruct the officer to report to the unit commander at a specified some time on the next business day page 171 |
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305) According to Procedure entitled Civilian Discipline Process who shall be notified upon becoming aware of an incident where the actions or conduct of another member will likely bring discredit on the reputation of the Service.
a) Unit Commander b) Officer In Charge c) Supervisor d) Professional Standards Page 172 |
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306) Workplace discrimination and harassment is an unacceptable form of conduct and will be processed in the same manner as any other form of discipline.
a) True b) False Page 172 |
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307) Complaints about the performance or conduct of a civilian member and the related discipline process are governed by the Police Services Act. Discipline matters relating to civilian members are governed by the Collective Agreement and are supported through Labour Arbitration decisions.
a) true b) false PAGE 172 |
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308) Which of the following is not a resolution available in the disciplinary process for a civilian member.
a) unfounded b) verbal reprimand c) suspension with pay d) suspension pending termination PAGE 172 |
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309) According to Procedure entitled Civilian Discipline Process when named as the subject of a performance or conduct complaint and requested to attend a
disciplinary meeting with the unit commander shall a) refuse to attend as directed b) accept or refuse the course of action delivered by the Officer in Charge c) advise the unit commander if exercising the right to respond d) immediately notify a supervisor page 172 |
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310) According to Procedure entitled Civilian Discipline Process a supervisor when initiating a disciplinary action against a civilian member shall pg 173
a) prepare a TPS 649 detailing the reasons for discipline b) serve a copy of the TPS 901 on the member c) advise the member of his/her right to have an Association representative present during any subsequent meetings with the unit commander d) submit the original TPS 931 and any recommendations and/or related correspondence to the officer in charge |
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311) According to Procedure entitled Suspension from Duty- Civilian when Civilian members upon being suspended from duty shall immediately surrender
a) all non-uniform equipment b) forensic identification equipment c) Provincial Offences Book d) wallet badge e) 2 factor authentication token (e Token) |
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312) A supervisor of Officer in Charge when circumstances dictate that a civilian member should be immediately suspended from duty shall
a) verbally suspend the member from duty b) serve the member with suspension notice c) advise the member to report to the Officer in Charge as directed d) advise the member that access to any police facility is restricted to the private areas only during the entire term of the suspension e) notify Professional Standards (PRS) – Investigative Unit – Information Security that the member has been suspended |
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313) According to the Procedure entitled Unsatisfactory Work Performance, work performance standards applicable to members can not be found in
a) Service Governance b) Municipal By-laws c) Provincial Statutes and associated Regulations d) Collective working agreement e) Federal Statutes and associated Regulations |
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314) When job descriptions do not meet current needs or do not reflect new responsibilities, unit commanders shall ensure that revised draft job descriptions are forwarded to the ______________________________for final review, assessment and approval.
a) Human Resource Management b) Staff Planning c) Unit Commander – Compensation & Benefits d) Manager of Compensation and Benefits e) Employment Unit 315) All work performance deficiencies should be addressed in a … a) tps 649 b) through discussion, guidance or training provided to the member. c) timely manner d) meeting with the unit commander page 175 |
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316) Examples of work performance issues that may form the basis for a complaint of unsatisfactory work performance include, but are not limited to
a) inconvenience b) attitude c) quantity of work d) subordination e) discreditable conduct |
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317) Where a supervisor identifies the performance of a member that is less than satisfactory and the work performance deficiency cannot be corrected through________, __________or__________, the supervisor shall record the deficiency on a TPS 955.
a) discussion, discipline or training b) discussion, guidance or transfer c) discipline, guidance or training d) discussion, guidance or training |
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318) Special Review is a two-part process. The initial part involves an interview between the member and the ______________. This initial meeting is intended to ensure that management practices or accommodation factors are not the root cause of the reported deficiency.
a) Officer in Charge b) Unit Commander c) Direct Supervisor d) Association representative |
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319) The second part of the Special Review will be initiated where it is identified that the work performance deficiency is a persistent situation attributable to the individual member. A meeting between the unit commander, the assigned supervisor and the member will be held to. Which of the following is not a function of this meeting?
a) develop a plan for disciplinary action b) profile the time frame for improvement c) detail the specific standard to be met d) explain the possible disciplinary ramifications if the standards are not met page 176 |
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320) According to the Procedure entitled Unsatisfactory Work Performance which of the following is the responsibility of the second level supervisor.
a) attend at the designated location and time b) provide guidance or instruction targeted at correcting the deficiency c) record the response given by the member, and/ or provide the member with the opportunity to respond d) conduct heightened monitoring of the member’s performance e) sign and accept service of the TPS 955, if applicable page 177 |
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321) In the procedure entitled Human Rights Discrimination is defined as
a) means engaging in a course of vexatious comment or conduct that is known or ought reasonably to be known to be unwelcome. Harassment can include a onetime incident or repeated incidents. b) means a course of unwanted remarks, behaviours or communications that is based on race, colour, ancestry, place of origin and/or ethnic origin. The person responsible knows or ought reasonably to know that these are unwelcome. c) means engaging in activity that treats a person less favourably and/or differently than another person in the same or similar circumstances. Discrimination can be described as the result (impact) of treating a person unequally by imposing unequal burdens or denying benefits, rather than treating the person fairly on the basis of individual merit. d) means harassing or discriminatory behaviours that are sufficiently severe and/or pervasive and cause significant and unreasonable interference to a member’s work environment. A poisoned environment can interfere with and/or undermine work performance and can cause emotional and psychological stress not experienced by other members. As such, it results in unequal terms and conditions of employment and prevents or impairs full and equal enjoyment of employment, benefits, or opportunities. Page 180 |
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322) In the procedure entitled Human Rights, Racial Profiling is defined as
a) means a course of unwanted remarks, behaviours or communications that is sexual and/or gender based. The person responsible knows or ought reasonably to know that these are unwelcome. b) means a course of unwanted remarks, behaviours or communications that is based on race, colour, ancestry, place of origin and/or ethnic origin. The person responsible knows or ought reasonably to know that these are unwelcome. c) means any action undertaken for reasons of safety, security or public protection that relies on stereotypes about race, colour, ethnic origin, ancestry, religion or place of origin rather then on reasonable suspicion, to single out an individual for greater scrutiny or different treatment. d) means engaging in activity that treats a person less favourably and/or differently than another person in the same or similar circumstances. Discrimination can be described as the result (impact) of treating a person unequally by imposing unequal burdens or denying benefits, rather than treating the person fairly on the basis of individual merit. Page 180 |
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323) In the procedure entitled Human Rights the Toronto Police Services Board (Board) and the Service are committed to creating and maintaining a _________ and_________ workplace that is free of discrimination and harassment. Every member must avoid any expression or display of prejudice, bigotry, or discrimination on any of the prohibited grounds. The perception of bias or prejudice has the potential to damage mutual respect that exist between members.
a) safe, secure b) happy, safe c) welcoming, safe d) healthy, safe e) healthy , welcoming page 181 |
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324) Every member of the Service has a right to equal treatment with respect to
employment and with respect to services and facilities without discrimination or harassment on the basis of the following grounds a) ethnic origin, place of birth, marital status b) disability, economic status, religion c) race, colour, religion d) citizenship, race, place of origin e) place of origin, sexual orientation, relationship page 181 |
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325) In the procedure entitled Human Rights which of the following is not one of the Guiding Principles
a) The Service's Human Rights Procedure is predicated on the Human Rights Code. Discrimination and harassment as defined by the Human Rights Code are against the law and are behaviours which are considered incompatible with the standard of conduct required of a member of the Service. b) Discrimination and harassment are in most cases an abuse of power. The Service recognizes that the purpose of human rights laws and policies is to assist members of groups that have been historically disadvantaged and disempowered in our society. c) To ensure management understands and fulfils their responsibilities under the Human Rights Code, management is expected to attend regular human rights workshops. Further, management is expected to provide human rights education and awareness sessions for all members in their respective units. d) All parties involved in a complaint must be treated fairly. The Service's Human Rights Procedure is based on principles of fairness and due process for complainants and respondents. The Service is committed to providing a complaints process that is fair, unbiased and facilitative for all parties. f) The Service recognizes that discrimination and harassment is a human rights violation. This could affect the health and safety of our members; as matters can have an impact on their physical and emotional well being and affect the overall health of the organization. Page 182 |
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326) In the procedure entitled Human Rights it states that members shall not _________, ___________ or___________ against any person who makes a report or complaint about their conduct or the conduct of another Service member.
a) avoid, harass or be vengeful b) harass, intimidate, or retaliate c) intimidate, molest or retaliate d) retaliate, complain, or harass e) refuse, complain. Disregard page 182 |
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327) A complaint of discrimination or harassment must be filed within ______________ of the date of the alleged incident(s).
a) Thirty(30) days b) Three (3) months c) Six (6) months d) Ninety (90) days Page 183 |
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328) When a member is served with an OHRC complaint, or allegation thereof shall
a) send an e-mail to the unit commander and to the Unit Commander – DMU b) make a copy of the OHRC complaint and forward all documentation to their Unit Commander c) follow the direction of the OHRC d) respond directly to the OHRC page 184 |
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329) According to the procedure entitled Special Investigations Unit, Serious injury shall initially be presumed when injured party
a) attend the hospital b) alleges and assault cause bodily harm c) suffers fracture to rib d) suffers third degree burns page186 |
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330) Civilian members including Court Officers, Parking Enforcement Officers and
Special Constables are included in the definition of a police officer for the purposes of the SIU. a) True b) False Page 186 |
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331) According to the procedure entitled Special Investigations Unit Subject officer is defined as …
a) means a police officer whose conduct appears, in the opinion of the SIU Director, to have caused the death or serious injury under investigation, and has been so designated. b) means a police officer whose conduct appears, in the opinion of the SIU Liason Officer, to have caused the death or serious injury under investigation, and has been so designated in writing. c) means a police officer whose conduct appears, in the opinion of the SIU Director, to have caused the death or serious injury under investigation, and has been so designated in writing. d) means a member whose conduct appears, in the opinion of the SIU Director, to have caused the death or injury under investigation, and has been so designated in writing. Page 186 |
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332) Who has a duty to ensure that the scene is properly preserved
from contamination or deterioration ? a) First Officer on the scene b) First Supervisor on the scene c) SIU investigators d) Every Police Officer page 187 |
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333) According to the procedure entitled Special Investigations Unit what is of primary importance in all incidents
a) apprehension of suspect b) preserving evidence c) medical assistance d) timely notification page 187 |
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334) Which of the following is not an issue to be determined as part of the Chief’s Administrative Investigation
a) policies b) criminality c) conduct d) services provided page 189 |
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335) According to the procedure entitled Special Investigations Unit which of the following is the duty of the Officer in Charge.
a) brief the Chief’s SIU Designate with the details of the incident b) ensure unauthorized persons do not question involved officers, unless there is an immediate medical requirement, or an urgency to locate outstanding suspects, or preserve evidence c) remain separate from and not communicate with other involved officers, including any incident debriefing, until otherwise instructed by the Chief’s SIU Designate d) immediately notify the Supervisory Officer – Duty Desk e) provide ongoing assistance to the members at the scene page 191 |
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336) According to the Procedure entitled Evaluations, Reclassifications and Appraisals members will be evaluated by one (1) supervisor who has supervised the member for a minimum period of
a) one (1) year b) thirty (30) days c) ninety (90) days. d) six (6) months page 192 |
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337) Appraisals for probationary sergeants/detectives will be completed prior to the completion of their __, ___,and____ month in the rank.
a) 3rd, 6th and 9th b) 1st, 6th and 10th c) 3rd, 6th and 10th d) 2nd, 6th, and 10th Page 192 |
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338) The appraisal form shall remain in a member’s unit personnel file for …..
a) ten (10)years b) five (5) years c) three (3) years d) two (2) years page 192 |
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339) According to the Procedure entitled Evaluations, Reclassifications and Appraisals At the end of (above) period, unit commanders shall ensure that the appropriate appraisal form is forwarded to
a) Human Resources Management – Employee Records. b) Human Resources Management – Staff Planning c) Human Resources Management –Employment Records d) Human Resources Management – Records Retention Page 192 |
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340) According to the Procedure entitled Evaluations, Reclassifications and Appraisals Police officers may respond to their annual appraisal by completing a TPS 649 within
a) ten (10) days of being counselled. b) ten (10) working days of being counselled c) thirty (30) days of being counselled d) ninety (90) days of being counselled page 193 |
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341) According to the Procedure entitled Coach Officers, Coach officers are________________ selected by their unit commander to coach probationary
constables during their field training and are responsible for evaluating the probationary constable’s performance. a) constables b) second class constables c) first class constables d) training constables page 195 |
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342) According to the Procedure entitled Coach Officers, the which of the following is not a required qualification for coach officers.
a) consistently maintained high fitness performance ratings b) previously performed uniform duties c) the desire and demonstrated ability to accept additional responsibilities d) an attitude toward policing, including a good relationships with other Service members and the public page 195 |
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343) A coach officer shall be allowed to remain in this assignment for a maximum of __________________ unless a longer period of time is authorized, in writing, by their unit commander.
a. one (1) year b. two (2) years c. three (3) years d. five (5) years page 195 |
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344) According to the Procedure entitled Use of Force Members may use an intermediate weapon such as their issued baton, OC spray or conducted
energy weapon (CEW) as a force option a) to prevent themselves from being assaulted b) to control a prisoner c) to intimidate a person armed with an offensive weapon d) to control a potentially violent situation when other force options are not viable e) for any justifiable purpose. Page 197 |
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345) According to the Procedure entitled Use of Force and Ontario regulation 926/90 a member may only use approved use of force options
a. true b. false page 197 |
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346) Members are prohibited from discharging a firearm at a motor vehicle for the __________________________________________.
a) unless there exists an immediate threat of death or grievous bodily harm to the officers and/or members of the public by a means other than the vehicle b) sole purpose of disabling the vehicle. c) any reason d) unless they are in the path of the vehicle page 198 |
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347) Ontario Regulation 926/90 compels members to submit a UFR Form 1 to the Chief of Police when a member
a) uses physical force on another person that results in minor injury b) draws a handgun in the presence of a member of the public, excluding a member of the police force while on duty c) draws a firearm d) displays firearm regardless if the firearm is a handgun or a long gun, e) uses a weapon other than a firearm during training page 198 |
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348) A police dog or police horse that comes into contact with a person is considered a weapon.
a. true b. false page 198 |
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349) A Team Report UFR Form 1 is restricted to members of the ETF, Public Order Unit (POU) and the Mounted Unit. An incident in which force was actually used including the Demonstrated Force Presence of a CEW requires a Team Report UFR Form 1 may be submitted by the involved officers
a) True b) False |
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350) When a member of the Service discharges a firearm, the who shall be notified forthwith.
a. Officer in Charge b. Officer in Charge- Duty Operations c. Duty Inspector d. Firearm Discharge Investigator Page 200 |
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351)
Members unless engaged in an approved training exercise shall submit a UFR Form 1 to their supervisor prior to the completion of the tour of duty when they a) use physical force on another person that results in an injury b) display a shotgun in the presence of a member of the public, excluding a member of the police force while on duty discharge a firearm c) use an open hand technique on another person d) use a weapon other than a firearm on another person page 201 |
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352) According to the procedure entitled Injury/Illness Reporting which of the following is not the responsibility of the Officer in Charge.
a) ensure appropriate medical attention is given b) ensure a TPS 105 is completed in accordance with Item 1 of this Procedure c) ensure a copy of the TPS 105 accompanies the prisoner if transported to lock–up or court d) When identifying safety issues regarding members shall notify the Officer in Charge – Duty Operations by internal correspondence. Page 204 |
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353) The hand held CEW when applied directly, is specifically designed to gain control of a subject who is assaultive as defined by the Criminal Code (CC). This includes threatening behaviour if the officer believes the subject intends and has the ability to carry out the threat, or where the subject presents an imminent threat of serious bodily harm or death, which does not, includes suicide threats or attempts.
a. true b. false page 205 |
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354) According to the procedure entitled Suspect Apprehension Pursuit which of the following statement is true.
a) A pursuit shall be the choice of last resort and shall be considered only when necessary. b) Before initiating a pursuit, a police officer shall determine whether in order to protect public safety, the immediate need to apprehend or identify an individual in the fleeing motor vehicle or the need to identify the motor vehicle outweighs the risk to public safety that may result from the pursuit c. A police officer breaches the code of conduct when the officer decides not to initiate or chooses to abandon a pursuit because the officer has reason to believe that the risk to public safety that may result from the pursuit outweighs the risk to public safety that may result if an individual in the fleeing motor vehicle is not immediately apprehended or if the fleeing motor vehicle or an individual in the fleeing motor vehicle is not identified. d) Public safety represents a factor which may change rapidly and which shall be continually assessed. Page 206/7 |
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355) According to the procedure entitled Suspect Apprehension Pursuit which of the following is not a Public Safety Factor.
a) presence of pedestrians or other traffic b) time of day c) apparent age of the driver d) presence in the pursued motor vehicle of individuals who are not suspects e) length of service of involved officer page 208 |
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356) According to the procedure entitled Suspect Apprehension generally, no more than two (2) motor vehicles should be directly engaged in a pursuit unless
authorized by the communications operator. a. true b. false page 208 |
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357) During a pursuit, police officers and pursuit supervisors shall consider methods of terminating a pursuit as described in the Suspect Apprehension Pursuit Training Manual as developed by the Ontario Police College. These methods include:
a) The use of a helicopter, when available b) Follow-up investigation c) Use of tire deflation devices, when available d) The Tandem Stop e) Intentional contact page 209 |
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358) According to the procedure entitled Suspect Apprehension a the road supervisor when advised of a pursuit shall, in addition to complying with unit-specific policies
a) assume control of the pursuit b) notify the Communications Services supervisor c) order unnecessary police officers to resume regular patrol, if required d) monitor the communication page211 |
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359) According to the Procedure entitled Uniform, Equipment and Appearance Standard members when issued with articles of uniform and/or equipment shall
a) be responsible for the good care, serviceable condition and safe storage of issued articles of uniform and equipment, excluding temporarily assigned items b) not use or wear their issued uniform or equipment while off duty without obtaining prior approval from the Unit Commander, except when commuting to and from work c) not apply any substance to, or alter, any article of uniform or equipment so as to affect its reissuance d) not use articles of uniform or equipment issued to another member, nor lend their issued articles of uniform and equipment to another member, except when authorized by a Unit Commander page 213 |
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360) When assigned to a uniform function, female members shall
a) keep their hair neat, clean and well–groomed b) ensure their hair falls below the bottom of the uniform collar nor interfere with the proper wearing of the forage cap c) if hair is longer than prescribed standard, pin and place hair underneath the forage cap in a ponytails d) ensure their hair does impair their vision page 214/15 |
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361) The Toronto Police Service is committed to open and timely communication with the public and the media. This Service recognizes that the media is a major source of information about police and their activities and plays a crucial role in developing the community’s attitudes towards the police. Therefore, it is essential that a ¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬-________________________________with all members of the media.
a) free flow of information is available b) co–operative working relationship be maintained c) a good working relationship be maintained d) reasonable access to interviews be available page 219 |
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362) According to the procedure entitled News Media a news release is defined as
a. means an official verbal release of information by an authorized member held in a formal manner for the news media. b. a written release of information by a member of Public Information who has been authorized by the Unit Commander – Public Information to release information to the media. c. means a written release of information to the media on a TPS 600 issued by an authorized member (see Appendix A, 'Sample News Release'), and approved by issuing member's supervisor. d) a release of information by officer or civilian holding the rank of manager or higher, or a person authorized by the Unit Commander – Public Information. Page 220 |
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363) When disseminating information to the news media, whether verbally or on a TPS 600, authorized members shall disclose:
a) the location where victims of violent crimes have been sent for treatment or shelter b) a young person charged with an offence c) the location, time and date of the incident d) photographs of arrested persons page 224 |
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364) According to the procedure entitled Third Party Claims for Damage to or Loss of Private Property a claim for damage or loss will be considered valid subject to the following conditions
a) the claimant was improperly involved in any incident or engaged in wrongdoing which gave rise to the damage b) the damages claimed are reasonably related to the action by a member of the Public, and are not excessive or exaggerated; or, the damages claimed occurred on Service property and are not excessive or exaggerated c) the claim is for damage or loss of property only d) the claim does arises out of a motor vehicle collision involving a police vehicle page 225 |
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365) According to the procedure entitled Paid Duties whenever possible, officers should have a witness to the payment received sign their memorandum book.
a) true b) false page 231 |
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366) According to the procedure entitled Paid Duties major event is defined as
a) means a public event, held in a City-owned venue attended by ticket or pass holders, generally extending into hours when entertainment venues are usually closed (e.g. raves). This type of event is classified as a special event. b) means a special event that does not require police resources above what would be reasonably available within the unit with minimal assistance from other divisions or units. c) means a larger special event that requires police resources above what would be reasonably available within the unit and would require personnel to be brought in from several divisions and/or support units to adequately police the event. d) means an event that is planned, organized or produced by an Individual, agency or group that requires police resources in addition to, or redirected from, normal police operations or through paid duties. Page 226 |
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367) According to the procedure entitled Paid Duties all requests for paid duty officers at Entertainment Gathering Events or Commercial Licensed Premises will require a personal meeting between the promoter or a designated employee and the
a. host unit Paid Duty Co–ordinator or designate. b. Central Paid Duty co- ordinator or designate c. Host unit Commander or designate d. host unit special events planner page 228 |
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368) The CPDO may authorize a paid duty that commences within the boundaries of Toronto and terminates in another police jurisdiction, where it would be impractical for the client to make alternative arrangements.
a) true b) false page 228 |
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369) According to the Procedure entitled Paid Duties prior to accepting a paid duty assignment shall
a) ensure the paid duty has been approved by the OIC or CPDO b) ensure the paid duty does interfere with regular police duties c) ensure no portion of the paid duty overlaps with other paid duties duty, including appropriate travel time d) ensure that the total combined number of paid duty hours and regular duty hours do not exceed fifteen and one half (15 ½) hours in a twenty four (24) hour period (the twenty four (24) hour period commences at the start of the paid duty or regular duty) e) not perform a paid duty or any number of paid duties exceeding twelve (15 ½ ) hours in a twenty four (24) hour period, where the twenty four (24) hour period commences at the start of the first paid duty page 229 |
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370) The following is part of the Toronto Police Service Vision Statement, We are committed to deliver police services which are sensitive to the needs of the community, involving collaborative partnerships and teamwork to overcome all challenges.
a) true b) false page 234 |
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371) The following are the goals of which service priority.
Increase safety in and around schools and promote student trust and confidence in police. Provide youth with crime prevention and safety information, and encourage reporting. Reduce the impact and effects of bullying and cyber‐bullying. Focusing on violent crime, prevent and decrease the victimization of children and youth. a) Focusing on Violence against Women b) Focusing on people with Distinct Needs c) Addressing Community Safety Issues d) Focusing on Child and Youth Safety Page 235 |
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372) The following are the excerpt is from which service priority.
The Police Service must ensure that we have the ability and are prepared to deal with incidents that can affect a large number of people – large‐scale emergency events, hate crime, crime facilitated by technology, or crimes which may affect entire communities. a) Ensuring Pedestrian and Traffic Safety b) Delivering Inclusive Police Services c) Targeting Violence, Organized Crime, and Gangs d) Addressing Community Safety Issues page 236 |
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373) Which of the following is not part of Service Governance
a) Police Services Board Policies and By–laws; b) Standards of Conduct; c) Federal and Provincial Legislation and Regulations d) Policy and Procedures Manual; e) directions from a superior. Page 237 |
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374) The Standards of Conduct (the Standards) set clear standards of ethical behaviour expected of members.
The Standards set out to: a) establish discretionary conduct that is applicable to members in the performance of their duties and functions respecting: (i) the preservation of peace, (ii) the prevention of crime and offences against the law, (iii) the administration of justice assigned to peace officers; b) establish standards for the Service concerning appropriate disciplinary or corrective measures in respect of the public; c) assist the Service in delivering fair, impartial and effective services to the communities we serve; d) maintain public confidence in the Service by ensuring that members are accountable to the community in a way that is fair the community, and does not unduly interfere with the ability of carry on their day to day activities page 238 |
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375) Any chief of police or other police officer commits misconduct if he or she engages in,
(a) Discreditable Conduct, in that he or she, a) without lawful excuse, disobeys, omits or neglects to carry out any lawful order b) fails to account for or to make a prompt, true return of money or property received in an official capacity, c) is guilty of oppressive or tyrannical conduct towards an inferior in rank d) without proper authority, communicates to the media or to any unauthorized person any matter connected with the police force, page 239 |
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376) Members shall report to a supervisor, a Unit Commander or the Unit Commander of Professional Standards – Investigative Unit as soon as practicable:
a) whenever they are charged with a Provincial offence, which no power of arrest is provided b) whenever their driver’s licence has been suspended, for any reason giving the particulars of the charge or incident and the agency or individual laying the charge or initiating thesuspension. c) contravened or apparently contravened any section of the Police Services Act, Ontario Regulation 123/98 or the Human Rights Code, d) contravened or apparently contravened any provincial statute or regulation Page 241 |
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377) Members who become involved in a situation at a Service committee meeting where there is an actual, apparent or potential conflict of interest, either personally or through association with family members, shall disclose the nature of such conflict, as soon as practicable, to the committee. Such members shall refrain from voting or participating in any decision–making process and shall refrain from any attempt to influence the voting, or the decision–making
process. a) True b) false |
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378) Members shall not engage in racially biased policing, which includes racial profiling, and occurs when a member of a police service inappropriately consider race or ethnicity in deciding how and with whom to interact in an policing capacity.
a) true b) false page 243 |
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379) Members required to drink alcoholic beverages when and to the extent essential for the performance of official duties and assignment, must receive prior approval from the Officer in Charge and such consumption must not interfere with the performance of their duties;
a) true b) false |
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380) According to Standard of Conduct 2.1.1 which of the following is a members general responsibility.
a) place completed Provincial Offences Act offence notices and summonses and Parking Infraction Notices in the appropriate receptacles. b) ensure that calls for service are promptly attended c) not suppress, tamper with or fail to disclose to an investigating officer or to the discipline authority of a respondent, information that is material to a proceeding or potential proceeding; d) ensure that all forms of communication pertaining to their unit, including CPIC and facsimile transmissions, are promptly attended to; page 246 |
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381) In the from the Chief article dated 2009 12 01 the Chief states; We will support, without qualification, those who do the right thing. We will pursue, with equal
determination, those whose action or inaction demonstrates that the laws that govern the people of Canada don’t apply equally to police officers. Preferential treatment for police officers undermines _________ ______________ ____________ ___________________. For us to retain public confidence, we must respond to any such allegation with the most thorough investigation. Where it is proved, we must respond with the most serious sanctions available to us. a) our relationship with the members of the community b) our relationship with those we serve and protect c) our relationship with the public d) our commitment to the core values page 249 |
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382) In the Chief’s message entitled Members involved in Criminal Driving Offences he states; This is not only a corporate responsibility but also a __________ ____________to prevent these offences from continuing and a commitment to report and act on these offences when they occur. This includes the actions of all police and community members.
a) criminal responsibility b) personal responsibility c) corporate responsibility d) service priority page 251 |
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383) "Callback" is defined as the callback of a member after he/she has reported off duty and before his/her next following tour of duty. Which of the following situations does not fall within the provisions of a “callback”,
a) at courts during his/her off duty hours including lieu time hours b) at courts during his/her regularly scheduled days off c) appearance under subpoena administrative tribunal at arbitration under this Collective Agreement d) appearance under subpoena at a Workplace Safety & Insurance Board (W.S.I.B) Hearing page 256 |
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384) Between the hours of 3:00am and 7:00pm what percentage of uniformed patrol cars shall be manned by two uniformed officers.
a) 50% b) 33% c) 25% d) 100% e) 20% page 259 |
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385) An aggrieved member, accompanied and represented by an Association Steward or Director, may present his/her grievance, in writing, to his/her Unit Commander or designate and the grievance shall be discussed with a view to reaching a settlement. The Unit Commander shall render a written decision within ___________ of the discussion.
a) five (5) days b) ten (10) days c) five (5) working days d) ten (10) working days page 260 |
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386) Where a Constable, after serving a maximum of twelve (12) months in a classification, has had his/her reclassification to a higher level withheld and wishes to appeal the withholding of his/her reclassification, he/she may appeal such action to the Standing Committee on Probationary Constables within _________________ ____________(exclusive of Saturday or Sunday) of the time he/she was informed that the reclassification was being withheld.
a) seventy two (72) hours b) forty eight (48) hours c) ten (10) working days d) five (5) days page260 |
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11 – 01 Public Safety & Emergency Management
Response pg163 387) First Supervisory Officer Upon arriving at a unlawful assembly or disaster incident shall a) reassess the situation b) ensure compliance with the applicable sections of Procedure 10–01, including assignment of duties according to the IMS c) ensure that a command post has been established d) liaise with other responding emergency services supervisors |
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388) First Supervisory Officer
After being briefed by the officers at the site shall a) reassess the situation b) ensure that a command post has been established c) assume the role of PIM until relieved by a superior officer d) comply with the decisions of the Public Safety & Emergency Management supervisory officer |
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11 – 03 Police Response at Labour Disputes p164
389) Rationale The _____________________ governs the labour relations rights of employers and employees, including the right to strike by employees and the right of the employer to lock–out employees. a) Labour Relations Act b) Provincial Labour Relations Act c) Ontario labour Act d) Ontario labour Relations Act |
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390) ________________________________ maintains a permanent Industrial Liaison section for support when dealing with labour disputes.
a) Public Safety & Management b) Public Safety Unit c) Ontario Safety Emergency Management d) Public Safety & Emergency Management |
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391) Officer in Charge
Upon receiving notification of a strike or lock–out shall ensure a) encourage the involved parties to negotiate a picket line protocol b) arrange to have additional police officers on stand–by in the vicinity of the scene but out of view c) consider the use of the Public Safety & Emergency Management d) the unit commander is made aware of the situation |
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12 – 02 Court Attendance p168
Officer in Charge/Detective Sergeant 392) When a process server attends at the unit to serve a subpoena on a member for Civil Court, or for the defence in criminal proceedings, and the member is not available shall a) ensure only the member named in the subpoena accepts service b) ensure the subpoena is accepted c) ensure any member named in the subpoena accepts service d) contact the member and advise him he is to be served. |
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Toronto Police Service
Organizational Chart pg 233 Approved by the Toronto Police Services Board on Feb. 12, 2009 393) According to the Organizational chart under what command does the following unit report too. Which is correct? Human Resources Command a) Marine Unit b) Traffic Services c) Employment d) Financial Management |
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394) According to the Organizational chart under what command does the following unit report too. Which is correct? Executive Command
a) Sex Crimes Unit b) Police Liaison Services c) Corporate Planning d) Radio and Electronics Services |
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395) According to the Organizational chart under what command does the following unit report too. Which is correct? Specialized Operations Command
a) Professional Standards b) Legal Services c) Communication Services d) Video Services |
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396) According to the Organizational chart under what command does the following unit report too. Which is correct? Human Resources Command
a) Financial Mgt. b) Fleet and materials Mgt. c) Community Mobilisation d) Records Mgt. |
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397) According to the Organizational chart under what command does the following unit report too. Which is correct? Executive Command
a) Corporate Services b) Customer Service c) Purchasing Services d) Information Technology Services |
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398) According to the Organizational chart under what command does the following unit report too. Which is correct? Administrative Command
a) Employment b) Staff Planning c) Enterprise Architecture d) Occupational Health and Safety |
c
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399) According to the Organizational chart under what command does the following unit report too. Which is correct? Human Resources Command
a) Marine Unit b) Traffic Services c) Court Services d) Labour Relations |
c
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400) According to the Organizational chart under what command does the following unit report too. Which is correct? Specialized Operations Command
a) Court Services b) Customer Service c) Purchasing Services d) Information Technology Services |
c
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401) According to the Organizational chart under what command does the following unit report too. Which is correct? Human Resources Command
a) Financial Mgt. b) Fleet and materials Mgt. c) Employment d) Records Mgt. |
c
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402) According to the Organizational chart under what command does the following unit report too. Which is correct? Administrative Command
a) a) Employment b) Staff Planning c) Diversity Mgt. Unit d) Project Mgt. Office |
c
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403) According to the Organizational chart under what command does the following unit report too. Which is correct? Specialized Operations Command
a) 22 Division b) 51 Division c) 42 Division d) Mounted Police Services |
c
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404) According to the Organizational chart under what command does the following unit report too. Which is correct? Administrative Command
a) Radio and Electronics Services b) Training and Education c) Community mobilisation d) Enterprise Resource Mgt. |
c
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405) According to the Organizational chart under what command does the following unit report too. Which is correct? Human Resources Command
a) Financial Mgt. b) Fleet and materials Mgt. c) Training and Education d) Records Mgt. |
c
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406) According to the Organizational chart under what command does the following unit report too. Which is correct? Administrative Command
a) Employment b)Staff Planning c)Financial Mgt. d)Occupational Health and Safety |
c
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407) According to the Organizational chart under what command does the following unit report too. Which is correct? Specialized Operations Command
a) 22 Division b) 51 Division c) 42 Division d) Parking Enforcement |
c
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408) According to the Organizational chart under what command does the following unit report too. Which is correct? Divisional Policing Command
a) Marine Unit b) Traffic Services c) Court Services d) 11Division |
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409) According to the Organizational chart under what command does the following unit report too. Which is correct? Specialized Operations Command
a) Legal Services b) Public Information c) Hold Up Squad d) Risk Management |
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410) According to the Organizational chart under what command does the following unit report too. Which is correct? Divisional Policing Command
a) 22 Division b) 34 Division c) 44 Division d) 21 Division |
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411) According to the Organizational chart under what command does the following unit report too. Which is correct? Administrative Command
a) Budgeting and Control b) Court Services c) Bail and Parole d) Labour relations |
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412) According to the Organizational chart under what command does the following unit report too. Which is correct? Executive Command
a) Information Technology Services b) Audit and Quality Assurance c) Facilities management d) Purchasing Support |
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413) According to the Organizational chart under what command does the following unit report too. Which is correct? Administrative Command
a) Employment b) Staff Planning c) Diversity Mgt. Unit d) IT Governance Mgt. |
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414) According to the Organizational chart under what command does the following unit report too. Which is correct? Divisional Policing Command
a) Budgeting and Control b) Information Systems Services c) Financial management d) 53 Division |
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415) According to the Organizational chart under what command does the following unit report too. Which is correct? Specialized Operations Command
a) 22 Division b) 51 Division c) 42 Division d) Traffic Services |
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416) According to the Organizational chart under what command does the following unit report too. Which is correct? Administrative Command
a) Customer Service b) Training and Education c) Community mobilisation d) Enterprise Resource Mgt. |
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417) According to the Organizational chart under what command does the following unit report too. Which is correct? Executive Command
a) Budgeting and Control b) Information Systems Services c) Financial management d) Public Information |
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Toronto Police Service 2009-2011 Business Plan
Vision Statement 418) WHICH STATEMENT BEST REFLECT OUR Vision statement a) We strive to deliver police services which are sensitive to the needs of the community, involving collaborative partnerships and teamwork to overcome all challenges b) We are committed to deliver police programs which are sensitive to the needs of the community, involving collaborative partnerships and teamwork to overcome all challenges c) We are committed to deliver police services which are sensitive to the needs of the community, involving partnerships and teamwork to overcome all challenges d) We are committed to deliver police services which are sensitive to the needs of the community, involving collaborative partnerships and teamwork to overcome all challenges |
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419) WHICH STATEMENT BEST REFLECT OUR Mission statement
a) We are dedicated to delivering police services, in partnership with our communities, to keep Toronto the best and safest place to be. b) We are committed to delivering police services, in partnership with our communities, to keep Toronto the best and safest place to be. c) We are dedicated to delivering police services, in partnership with our communities, to keep Toronto the best and brightest place to be. d) We are dedicated to delivering police services, in partnership with our communities, to keep Toronto the safest place to be. |
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420) ___________________________ & _________________________ best reflect the core
Value of Integrity which is correct a) sensitive & trustworthy b) honourable, trustworthy, c) equitable, sensitive d) professional, responsible, |
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421) ___________________________ & _________________________ best reflect which core value of Fairness
a) responsible, and dependable b) impartial, honourable c) conscientious, professional, d) sensitive and ethical manner. |
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422) ___________________________ & _________________________ best reflect the core value of honesty
a) honourable, trustworthy, b) responsible, and dependable c) truthful and open d) equitable, sensitive |
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423) ___________________________ & _________________________ best reflect the core value of Teamwork
a) professional, responsible, b) diverse skills, abilities, c) responsible, and dependable d) sensitive and ethical manner. |
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15 – 09 Conducted Energy Weapon Rationale pg 205
424) Officer in Charge When in receipt of the expended air cartridge package and accompanying TPS 649 shall ensure the expended air cartridge package and the TPS 649 are delivered to __________________ for replacement approval a) Armanent Office b) ETF c) Unit Commander d) Download Office ETF |
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17 – 01 News Media Rationale Definitions
425) ____________________________ means a police officer or civilian holding the rank of manager or higher, or a person authorized by the Unit Commander – Public Information. a) Media Relations Officer b) Authorized Member c) Authorized Police officer d) Media Officer |
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426) Except to the extent required by the FOI, the _____________________________________ shall be responsible for the release of information regarding another member, personal or otherwise. During non–business hours of Public Information, the Duty Inspector – Duty Desk (Duty Inspector) will be responsible for releasing such information.
a) Unit Commander Corporate .Information b) Unit Commander – Public Information c) Unit Commander – Public Services d) Unit Commander – Information Services |
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