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305 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Common exacerbating factors of psoriasis
HIV

Strep infections

Skin injury (sun burn or drug rxn)
5 Ps of lichen planus
Pruritic

Purple

Polygonal

Planar

Papules
Associations to Porphyria Cutanea Tarda
Heavy EtOH consumption

HCV

Iron Overload
Facial hirsutism

Milia

Erosions

Scars and tense bullae on the hands
Porphyria Cutanea Tarda
Pemphigus vulgaris
Often involves the mouth (50%)

Diagnosed by immunofluorexcent studies of perilesional skin

High fatality if not treated
Erythema Nodosum
Think:
- Sarcoid
- IBD
- Strep infections
- Drugs (OCPs -- most commonly)
Erythema multiforme
"TARGET LESIONS"

Think:
- HSV
- Drugs (PCN, Sulfa, and Phenytoin most commonly)
- Mycoplasma
Acanthosis nigricans
Seen with obesity and diabetes and gastric cancers (60%)
Young patient with eruption of seborrheic dermatitis
Think HIV
Old patient with eruption of seborrheic dermatitis
Thinks Parkinson's
Alcoholic hepatitis AST/ALT ranges
AST levels <300 with trivial elevations of ALT and AST/ALT ratio >3
AST/ALT ratio in viral hepatitis
<1 --> if cirrhosis just barely >1
Common features of hemochromatosis and alcohol liver disease
- Hepatomegaly
- Glucose intolerance
- Testicular atrophy
- Cardiomyopathy
NASH
Can mimic alcohlic hepatitis

USually occurs in middle-aged women with obesity, DM, and HTN

Clinical features are hepatomegaly and elevated transaminases (usually AST>ALT)
Most common causes of acute liver failure
Drugs (Aceteminophen) -- most common

Viral hepatitis

Ischemia
ANA + ASMA + Hyperglobulinemia
Autoimmune hepatitis
Wilson's Disease
Rare Autosomal Recessive D/o

Hepatitis

Neuro sx

Hemolytic Anemia

Kayser-Fleischer rings around iris
Drugs that cause cholestasis classically
-Chlorpromazine
-Gold
-Chlorprpamide
-OCPs
-Erythromycin
-Amoxicillin/Clavulanate
Primary sclerosing cholangitis
Occurs in middle aged men with h/o UC

Past colectomy does not protect patient from this
Variceal bleeds
-Sclerotherapy is effective in controlling acute variceal bleeding (75-90%)

-Serious complications limit its usefulness

-Variceal band ligation is as effective but with less complciations

-Beta-blocers are effective for prophylaxis of variceal bleeding
SBP
usually cuased by GNRs

Tx with 3rd generation cephalosporin x5 days
Crohn's disease
Most commonly involves the terminal ileum and cecal region (45%)
Extraintestinal manifestations of Crohn's disease
-Uveitis
-Spondylarthropathy
-Erythema nodosum
-Pyoderma gangrenosum
Small intestine bacterial overgrowth
-Cause of malabsorptive diarrhea

Causes:
- Scleroderma
- Diabetes
- High dose PPIs
- Post-op Billroth 2)
- Radiation enteropathy
Whipple's Disease
Malabsorptive diarrhea + Arthritis* _ CNS involvement + uveitis + clubbing
Celiac Sprue
dermatitis herpetiformis

Increased risk for small bowel lymphoma

selective IgA deficiency

Cause of isolated ALT elevation
ALT elevated
Think:
- celiac
- gallstone pancreatitis
Serologic testing for celiac sprue
IgA endomysial antibody + IgA TTG
Chronic watery diarrhea in a middle aged woman without weight loss or pain (secretory diarrhea)
Think:
- Microscopic (Collagenous) Colitis
Treatment of choice for microscopic (collagenous) colitis
Bismuth
Diarrhea due to pancreatitic insufficiency
Has a greater amount of stool fat than other malabsorptive diarrheas and normal small bowel absorption tests (D-xylose and Hydrogen breath tests)
Colitis from these organisms can mimic the symptoms and appearance of UC
Campylobacter and occasionally amebiasis

Note: UC does not have skin lesions
Pancreatic psudocysts
Pseudocysts >6 cm are at high risk for perforation, infection, and hemorrhage.

Surgical drainage should be performed if they do not resolve
Initial evaluation of chronic pancreatitis
Plain AXR -- presence of diffuse calcifications in the pancreas is diagnostic (~40%)
Most sensitive imaging to visualize chronic pancreatitis if highly suspected and normal AXR
ERCP
Next step in evaluation of duodenal or gastic ulcers?
H. pylori testing
ALS
Presents with asymmetric weakness with bulbar or limb presentation.

No sensory, visual, or bowel or bladder abnormalities
DVT + Stroke
Think patent PFO
ASA + Plavix vs. ASA for stroke
Choose ASA alone - no increased benefit with dual tx; increases risk of bleeding
Indications for carotid endarterectomy
Symptomatic patients with >70% stenosis

Asymptomatic patients with >80% stenosis who have a low surgical risk and an otherwise good 5 year survival
TIA and meets CEA criteria
CEA should be done immediately after TIA
Statins and stroke
Decrease stroke risk by 20-30%
Hypokalemia + HTN
Think Secondary Causes:
- Hyperaldosteronism
- RAS
- Alcoholism
Hypertensive
Hyperhydrosis
Hyperglycemia
Headache
Hypotonsion (orthostatic)
Think: Pheochromocytoma
Flash pulmonary edema and HTN
Think: RAS
Nephrotic syndrome and infections and thrombosis
Patients with nephrotic syndrome are at increased risk for infxns d/t urinary loss of IgG and complement.

They are also at risk for thrombosis d/t urinary loss of antithrombin III and an increase in coagulation factors
Flank Pain + Hematuria + Enlarged Kidney on Ultrasound
Think: RENAL VEIN THROMBOSIS
Subacute nephrotic syndrome with very low albumin
Think Minimal Change Disease
Associations of minimal change disease in adults
-Hodgkin's lymphoma
-NSAID use
-Atopy/allergy
Most common cause of nephritis worldwide
IgA nephropathy

- usually presents as micro/macroscopic hematuria often within 48 hours of a URI
Young male smoker with a h/o hydrocarbon exposure (mechanic) who presents with hemoptysis (following a URI) and hematuria and diffuse infiltrates on X-rays
Goodpastures
Gadolinium in CKD patient
Nephrogenic Fibrosing Dermopathy/Sclerosis
S/p angiography, aortic surgery or on institution of anticoagulation; clinical features inclue livedo reticularis, purple toes, and progressive renal dysfunction. Peripheral eosinophilia.
Atherembolic renal disease
Acute renal failure thrombocytoenia hemolysis and schistocytes
mirscopic angiopathy
Which patients with thrombotic microangiopathy do you definitely plasmaphorese?
TTP

Antiphospholipid syndrome

Complement disorders
Important causes of acute interstitial nephritis
Beta-lactams (esp PCNs)
NSAIDs
Dilantin
Allopurnol
Calcium oxalate crystals in urine
Ethylene glycol toxicity
Refractory Asthma
Think of Reflux
Treatment of familial HyperCholesterolemia when all medical therapy fails
Plasmapharesis --- if this fails, liver transplant
Autoimmune thrombocytopenia + Autoimmune hemolysis (Coombs or DAT +)
Evans syndrome

Initially tx with steroids, then splenectomy
Types of Asthma - mild, moderate, severe
Mild persistent—symptoms greater than 2×/week but less than lx/day with FEV1 >80%

Moderate persistent—daily symptoms greater than 2×/week with FEV1 >60 and <80%

Severe persistent—continual symptoms with limited physical activity and FEV1 <60%
FHx of Colon Cancer in family member who is >60 yo; when to begin colon cancer screening
Age 40 q10y after
(+)ve ANA with renal findings --- next step?
Biopsy the kidney!
Amiodarone + Hypothyrodism, next step?
Continue amio and start levothyroxine
When is amiodarone the answer in the tx of Afib?
Amiodarone also has some effect in converting AFib to sinus rhythm, but its effect on rate control is minimal. Amiodarone is the answer when a patient has been converted to sinus rhythm and you want to use a drug to maintain the patient’s sinus rhythm. Amiodarone is best used in patients with ventricular dysfunction.

Rate control and anticoagulation is superior to converting the rhythm.
Middle Aged Man with dry tap on BMBx but eventually finding fibrosis + monocytopenia + splenomegaly
Hairy Cell

- characteristic findings

- Tx with Cladribine
Neutropenia from HIV drug
Think AZT -- switch to Stavudine typically
Monitoring of TB patients
Sputum Cx every month until negative
Why we give cyclophosphamide and glucocorticoids in Wegener's
Cyclophosphamide and glucocorticoids result in markedly improved patient survival and renal function survival

Fischer, Conrad (2009-10-06). Kaplan Medical Internal Medicine Question Book (p. 163). Kaplan Publishing. Kindle Edition.
Dendritic ulcer on eye -- tx?
Topical trifluridine and acyclovir x 10 days
Uveitis Tx
Steroid Eye drops
Most common arrhythmia associated with digoxin
Paroxysma Atrial Tachycardia with variable block
What can you do to the pacemaker to stop torsades if a patient has one
Accelerate tehheart rate with a pace maker -- this shortens the QT interval and effectively reverses the torsades
Tx of choice for vWD
Desmopressin
Hypothyroidism from lithium, next step?
Start Levothyroxine and continue the Lithium
Pt with coronary artery disease with acute cluster headache; tx?
Prednisone and High Flow O2

DO NOT GIVE ERGOTAMINES AND SUMATRIPTAN TO PATIENTS WITH CAD
Most accurate way of assessing the EF?
MUGA - nuclear venticulopgram
Tx of MS related fatigue
Amantadine or Modafanil
How does drug induced lupus differ from actual SLE?
-Nephritis is NOT a feature of DILE
-M=W in DILE
-No neuro symptoms in DILE
-No Anti-DsDNA in DILE (but +ve anti-histone antibodies)
Drugs associated with Drug Induced Lupus Erythematous
Isoniazid
Methydopa
Chlorpromazine
Hydralazine
Procainamide
Interferon
Quinidine
Tx of DIC
FFP + Cryoprecipitate
As the severity of mitral stenosis worsens, how with the opening snap change?
As the severity of mitral stenosis worsens, the opening snap moves closer to S2.

The opening snap is produced by the pressure in the atrium, resulting in the sudden opening of the mitral valve with an increased sound because of the fibrosis. As mitral stenosis worsens, the pressure in the atrium increases. This opens the mitral valve earlier. The more severe the mitral disease, the earlier the valve opens. Both S3 and S4 gallops are signs of the rapid entry of blood into the ventricle, not because the stenotic valve is blocking the rapid entry of blood into the ventricles.
Tx of AML
Daunarubicin and Cytarabine is standard tx.

ATRA is added if APL subtype found.
Tx of lupus nephritis in pregnancy
Treatment of active lupus nephritis in pregnancy is dependent on the absence of adverse effects of the medication on the fetus. High-dose prednisone can be used relatively safely. Hydralazine can be used to control the blood pressure. Azathioprine can also be used, with caution, if there is no evidence of leukopenia. Cyclophosphamide and methotrexate are absolutely contraindicated. Mycophenolate should be avoided in pregnancy.

Fischer, Conrad (2009-10-06). Kaplan Medical Internal Medicine Question Book (p. 187). Kaplan Publishing. Kindle Edition.
Initial test to detect secondary syphilis?
VDRL
Common drug associated with Minimal Change Disease -- stop this drug first?
NSAIDs
Side effects of Allopurinol
adverse effects of allopurinol are more severe than with other drugs and can include a severe toxicity syndrome, including eosinophilia, hepatitis, decreased renal function, an erythematous desquamative rash, and, occasionally, a vasculitis.

Mild rash can be treated with desensitization

Fischer, Conrad (2009-10-06). Kaplan Medical Internal Medicine Question Book (p. 198). Kaplan Publishing. Kindle Edition.
Most specific test for Wegener's
Open lung biopsy

NAsal bx may be sufficient to confirm dx, however.
Benzo of choice in panic d/o if it has to be given
Clonazepam (AVOID ALPRAZOLAM - short acting!)

1st Line -- SSRI + CBT
Antidepressant with minimal side effects
Buproprion

Nefazodone
Antidepressants that don't have weight gain
Buproprion
Nefazodone
Venlafaxine
Most weight gain with this anti-depressant
Mirtazapine -- good in elderly with poor po intake and weight loss
A 45 yo woman is seen with symptoms of major depression. She is very bothered by insomnia, and wants to be put on “a medicine that works fast!”. What would be the best option?

A) Citalopram
B) Amitriptyline
C) Escitalopram
D) Mirtazapine
E) Bupropion
Answer - Mirtazapine

Compared to SSRI’s mirtazapinehad an odds ratio of 1.57 (CI 1.3-1.88) for response at 2 weeks, and OR of 1.82 for full remission compared to SSRI’s. At the end of 12 weeks mirtazapine had a slightly higfher reponse rate (OR 1.19). Mirtazapine more likely to cause weight gain and drowziness, less likely to cause sexaul side effects that SSRI’s

Cochrane review

Benefit of drug is rapid and weight gain (if wanted) but it does not have long term benefit over others.
Augmentation options with pts with partial responses to tx despite maximizing tx
- Buproprion*
- Add T3
- Add lithium
Contraindications to TCAs
Arrhythmias
H/o MI
BPH
Contraindications to Buproprion
Sz d/o
Eating D/o
EtOHism
Serotonergic Syndrome
Symptoms:Confusion, sweating, agitation, anxiety, vomiting, diarrhea

Signs: Tachycardia, hypertension, fever, muscle rigidity, hyperreflexia, tremor

Usually caused by several serotonergic drugs combined: SSRI’s, tramadol*, linezolid*, meperidine*, dextromethorphan, TCA*, MAOI, buspirone, trazadone

STOP THE OFFENDING DRUG!
Pt with MRSA PNA with h/o depression, tx with linezolid develops confusion, tachycardia, HTN, fever, muscle rigidity
Suspect Serotonin Syndrome
CNS Effects of Quinolones
-Insomnia

-Nightmares

-Hallucinations

-Psychosis
Common causes of delirium
-Anticholinergics
-Antihistamines
-Steroids
-Quinolones -- give the right dose
-Sedatives/Hypnotics
-Antipsychotics can have a paradoxical effects
Tx of Chronic Bacterial Prostatitis
Fluoroquinoilone x1 month
Tx of Acute Bacterial Prostatitis
1 week course of TMP-SMX or FQ
Tx of central hypothyroidism
Levothyroxine + Glucocorticoids
Patients with small (≤2 cm) type I gastric carcinoid tumors
Should be followed with endoscopic surveillance every 6 to 12 months for at least 3 years after initial endoscopic removal.
Asymptomatic patients with indolent, well-differentiated metastatic carcinoid tumors.
Can often be managed with expectant observation and serial imaging studies
Iron Deficiency Anemia and A1c
Will falsely lower A1c not raise it
Useful in evaluating recurrent syncope in the absence of heart disease, to discriminate neurocardiogenic from orthostatic syncope, and to evaluate frequent syncope in patients with psychiatric disease.
Tilt-table testing
In patients with acromegaly whose insulin-like growth factor 1 and growth hormone levels remain elevated after transsphenoidal surgery, next step?
somatostatin analogues (octreotide) are commonly used to normalize levels and shrink any residual pituitary tumor.
Patients with large esophageal varices and contraindications to nonselective β-blockers
should receive endoscopic variceal ligation as prophylactic treatment for variceal hemorrhage.
BRAF + mutation
= Papillary Thyroid Cancer

V600E mutation tend to have a more aggressive long term course. BRAF mutations are frequent in papillary carcinoma and in undifferentiated cancers that have developed from papillary tumors.
Presents with dull, aching groin pain that is indolent in onset; risk factors include corticosteroid use and excessive alcohol use.
Osteonecrosis of the hip

- During early stages X-rays may be normal
- MRI is most sensitive
isointense with slight contrast enhancement on a T1-weighted scan and hyperintense on a T2-weighted scan.
= Blood
Tx of large papillary thyroid cancers
Large papillary thyroid cancer (>4 cm) is treated with thyroidectomy and then with radioactive iodine to decrease the risk of recurrence and death.
Things that reduce mortality in ARDS
In patients with acute respiratory distress syndrome, a lung-protective strategy of low tidal volume (6 mL/kg predicted weight) and plateau pressure less than 30 cm H2O is associated with reduced mortality.
In patients with colorectal carcinoma with metastatic disease to the lung, what is the next step?
surgical resection is the primary treatment and is associated with good long-term survival.
In asthma, when should a LABA be added?
Long-acting β2-agonists should be added only if medium-dose ICS therapy fails to control symptoms.
The drop-arm test can be performed by the examiner passively abducting the patient's arm and then having the patient slowly lower the arm to the waist.
Supraspinatus tear

Get an MRI
This disorder is more common in women than in men and is characterized by anterior knee pain that is made worse with prolonged sitting and with going up and down stairs.
Patellofemoral pain syndrome
Characterized by daytime hypercapnia (arterial PCO2 >45 mm Hg [6.0 kPa]) in an obese patient
Obesity Hypoventilation Syndrome
Important imaging diagnostic test after confirmation of Myasthenia Gravis
Patients with myasthenia gravis should have a chest CT to evaluate the presence of thymic hyperplasia or thymoma
The most appropriate treatment of Bell palsy
PREDNISONE, preferably administered within the first 72 hours

The use of antiherpesvirus agents, such as acyclovir, as monotherapy for Bell palsy has not been shown to be helpful. A prodromal viral illness can sometimes precede Bell palsy, as it did in this patient.
Indications for cerebral aneurysm surgical tx?
Size and location are the major predictors of subsequent rupture for incidentally discovered cerebral aneurysms; the most prudent management is watchful waiting with repeated neuroimaging to monitor increasing aneurysmal size, particularly for anterior cerebral aneurysms less than 12 mm in diameter and posterior circulation aneurysms less than 7 mm in diameter.
IBS ROME III CRITERIA
The AGA criteria require abdominal pain or discomfort as well as diarrhea for diagnosis of IBS-D. The Rome III criteria for IBS require recurrent abdominal pain or discomfort at least 3 days per month in the last 3 months associated with two or more of the following: (1) improvement with defecation, (2) onset associated with a change in frequency of stool, and (3) onset associated with a change in form of stool.

Do further diagnostic testing if criteria is NOT met
Slowly progressive solid-food dysphagia in a young man who has allergic diseases is likely due to what?
eosinophilic esophagitis.
Prevention of High Altitude Sickness
When gradual ascent is not feasibe (flying to colorado, ex), give Acetazolamide

Acetazolamide works via several different mechanisms to stabilize ventilation, improve oxygenation, counteract fluid retention, and induce a mild metabolic acidosis, all of which accelerate acclimatization and improve acute symptoms associated with the transition to high altitudes. Prophylaxis should be reserved for patients who are at risk for altitude-related illness (particularly those with a history of altitude-related illness) or patients with cardiopulmonary disease.
Loss of Conscioussness with a concussion during a game (even if brief), next step?
Athletes with a grade 3 concussion, which is defined as a brief (seconds) or prolonged (minutes) loss of consciousness, should be prohibited from returning to competition until they are asymptomatic for 1 week.
The most important step in managing patients with toxic epidermal necrolysis or SJS
stop the suspected causative medication and initiate supportive care in an intensive care unit or burn unit

DO NOT GIVE IV STEROIDS!!!!
An interruption of the normal hair growth cycle caused by stress and commonly follows childbirth
Telogen Effluvium
Most common type of hair loss overall. It tends to occur gradually rather than suddenly and in clearly identifiable patterns typically involving the crown of the head and temporal areas.
Androgenetic alopecia (male and female pattern hair loss) -- it is gradual.
Cervical dysphagia, halitosis, and aspiration pneumonia
suggests Zenker's Diverticulum
Intermittent non-progressive solid dysphagia
Schatzki's ring
Most common implicated drugs in pill esophagitis
-Tetracycline/Doxycycline****
-KCl**
-NSAIDS and ASA
-Iron**
-Alendronate
Patients with immunosuppression (especially HIV) can develop chronic anemia with this pathogen
Parvovirus B19
Treatment used for chronic anemia due to parvovirus in immunocompromised patients
IVIG
Major reservoir for rabies in the US
Bats
Skunks
Raccoons
Foxes
Cayotoes
Fevers, Myalgias, Noncardiac pulmonary edema, increased Hct, and Luekocytosis in SW camper -- what organism?
Think: Hantavirus
Bilateral 7th Nerve Palsy
Think: Lyme Disease
Aside from MRSA, what do 3rd generation cephalosporins generally miss?
Pseudomonas and Enterococcus
1st line tx for dog/cat/human bite; what if PCN allergic?
1st line - Amoxicillin + Clavulanate

PCN allergic - Clindamycine + FQ
Recurrent Erythema Multiforme
Likely HSV related -- tx with acyclovir
Recurrent episodes of swelling usually beginning in childhood and frequently after trauma.

Episodes of abdominal pain are common.

No urticaria

What is the next screening test?
C4 level ---> Suspect hereditary angioedema!
Associated conditions of acquired c1-esterase deficiency
B-cell lymphoproliferative disorders

Connective tissue diosroders

Monoclonal gammopathies
"Chicken Skin" around the neck/axilla

Angioid streaks on funduscopic exam

Recurrent GI Bleeding

Atherosclerosis
Pseudoxanthoma Elasticum

- Aut Recessive, ABCC6 mutation on chromosome 16
Levothyroxine and drug interactions, specifically
Calcium
Iron
Anatacids
Cholestyramine
Sucralfate
Natural products that interact with warfarin
Generally begin with the letter "G"

Increases bleeding: Gingko, Ginger, Glucosamine/Chondroitin, and Garlic

Decreases levels: Ginseng
Drugs that cause Hyperkalemia
ACE-I

ARBs

TMP/SMX

K+ Sparing Diuretics

NSAIDS
Risk of rhabdomyolsis with statins increases when the drug is combined with these drugs?
Erythromycin
Cyclosporin
Gemfibrozil (esp if on steroids) >>> Fenofibrate (by 10x)
Fluoroquinolones and major side effects
Tendon rupture (***Highest if pt concurrently on steroids)
Confusion/Delirium in the elederly (esp if renal failure)
QTc Prolongation (moxifloxacin)
Classic drug that causes a NAGMA
Topiramate
Classic drug that causes AGMA
Salicylates (if combined with resp alkalosis)

Metformin (lactic acidosis)
Distinguishing features that suggest HIV over mononucleosis
Rash --> acute HIV (70%)

Oral ulcers --> acute HIV (30%)

Diarrhea --> acute HIV (30%)
Exposure to cats in an immunocompromised patient characterized by the appearance of lesions or nodules of varying sizes all over the skin. The lesions are typically very small but can grow up to about 4 cm in diameter. These usually arise in groups. You can find as many as 50 papules at one time. These can vary in color and are generally bright red or almost black in appearance.
Bacillary angiomatosis --- think Bartonella species
HIV patient with dysphagia, next step?
Think oral candidasis

Start fluconazole

Start PCP prophylaxis regardless of CD4 count
HIV patient who has spontaneous pneumothorax was probably infected with what organism?
Pneumocystis (95% probability)
What is important to assess before starting HIV meds?
Patient compliance and willlingness to adhere to regimen
HIV associations to know:

Oral Hairy Leukoplakia
PML
Kaposi Sarcoma
Bacillary Angiomatosis
Oral Hairy Leukoplakia --> EBV

PML --> JC virus

Kaposi Sarcoma --> HHV8

Bacillary Angiomatosis --> bartonella
How do you distinguish oral hairy leukoplakia from oral candidasis?
CAn scrape off Candida with a tongue blade, often times leaving a bloody, painful denudation mark

Oral Hairy Leukoplakia --> white patch, which almost exclusively occurs on the lateral surfaces of the tongue, cannot be scraped off easily.
HIV drug implicated in life-threatening hypersensitivity syndrome; what is the defect?
ABACAVIR

Test for presence of HLA-B*5701
Fever and Lymphadenopathy in an HIV patient with CD4 count <100; think what organism?
MAC
HIV drug associated with renal stones and sludging
Indinavir
HIV drugs associated with peripheral neuropathy and pancreatitis
D4T (STAVUDINE)

DDI (DIDANOSINE)

DDC (ZALCITABINE)
HIV drug class associated with lactic acidosis
NRTIs

Most will have hepatomegaly and abnormal LAEs as well

D4T (Stavudine) is the msot associated
Risk factors for disseminated candidal infections
Hyperalimentation
Central Venous Catheters
DM
Borad-spectrum antibiotics and steroid tx

Consider giving Caspofungin
Clinical features of disseminated candidiasis
Fever
Endophthalmitis
Pulmonary infiltrates

Hepatosplenic candidiasis most common in transplant of leukemic patients - fever, abdominal pain, HSM, increases alk phos
RFs fo invasive aspergillosis
Prolonged granulocytopenia (neutropenic fever patients)Prlonged corticosteroid patients
Cytotoxic chemotherapy

Tx: Voriconazole = Amphoterecin B (increasing resistance to itraconazole)

***NOTE: NOT COMMON IN AIDS PATIENTS***
Disseminated coccidoides are more common in what ethnicities
Blacks
Filipinos
Asians
AIDS

Lesions can occur in bone, skin, meninges, and joints
Key features of visceral leishmaniasis
Hepatosplenomegaly
Generalized lymphadenopathy
Pancytopenia
Fever
Cachexia (resembles lymphoma)

Epidemiology: Latin America, Mediterranean littoral, Middle East

Cutaneous disease is obvious
Liver abscess and E hystolytica
confirm dx with bx
Eating raw or uncooked pork
Trichinosis

Clinical features: severe muscle pain, periorbital and facial edema, subconjunctival and plinter hemorrhages, eosinophilia
Frequent gonoccocal and meningococcal infections
Terminal Complement Deficiency Suspected

Check CH50
Most common cause of genital ulcers in the US
HSV2
Painful genital ulcers with irregular borders in SE Asia or Africa
Think: Chancroid
Causes of secondary rhinitis to know
Hypothyroidism

Pregnancy

Wegener's granulomatosis

Medical induced (nasal decongestant overuse, ACEI, Alpha-blockers)
Intraoperative Anaphylaxis culprits
Latex allergies

Preoperative antibiotics

Induction agents (esp thiopental)

Opiates
Tx of acute episodes of bradykinin mediated angioedema
IV C1 inhibitor concentrate
Long-term management of hereditary angioedema
Danazol and Stanazolol to elevated hepatic synthesis of C1 esterase inhibitor protein
A patient who is allergic to beta-lactams [This includes penicillin derivatives (penams), cephalosporins (cephems), monobactams, and carbapenems] can still use this drug for tx if required
Aztreonam

Does not have cross-reactivity in regard to allergic reactions with beta-lactams with the possible exception of ceftazadime, which shares an identical side-chain.
Equalization of diastolic pressures
Suspect tamponade
Pneumonia that may be associated with autoimmune hemolytic anemia, erythema multiforme, and bullous myringitis
Mycoplasma`
Incrased TLC
hyperinflcation
Increased RV
Air-trapping
Restrictive pattern on spirometry and lung volumes

Normal DLCO

Reduced Max inspiratory and expiratory pressures
Think: Neuromuscular Disorders
Bilateral PEripheral Infiltrates + Eosinophilia
Chronic Eosinophilic Pneumonia
Differences b/w secondary vs primary adrenal insufficiency
In secondary adrenal insufficiency:

Hyperpigmentation is absent
More prominent hypoglycemia (d/t coexistent growth hormone deficiency)
No hyperkalemia
In critical care patients, adrenal insufficiency can be diagnosed if random cortisol is less than what number?
<12 --> Adrenal insufficiency is likely

A random serum cortisol level greater than 15 micrograms/dL (414 nmol/L) in a critically ill patient and a level greater than 12 micrograms/dL (331 nmol/L) in a critically ill patient who has hypoproteinemia (serum albumin level <2.5 g/dL [25 g/L]) make the diagnosis of adrenal insufficiency unlikely.
Hyperchloremic NAGMA and Hyperkalemia
Think: RTA IV associated with Diabetes = Hyporeninemic Hypoaldosteronism
Cushing's Disease
Pituitary Over-secretion of ACTH

Clinical features: facial plethora, striae, easy bruisability, weakness, osteopenia (80%), glucose intolerance, centralized obesity, neuropsychiatric effects.
How do you distinguisg adrenal vs. pituitary Cushing's
High Dose Dexamethasone Suppression Test will suppress patients with pituitary Cushing's to 50% of pre-test values

Ectopic/Adrenal tumors fail to suppress
Common secondary causes of hyperlipidemia
Diabetes (increased TG)

Hypothyroidism (increased TG and LDL)

Drugs (Thiazides/Beta-blockers)

Nephrotic Syndrome
Causes of Vitamin K deficiency
Malabsorption

Malnutrition

Anticoagulants

Cephalosporins (Cefoperazone, Cefotetan)
Most common hereditary cause of unexplained VTE (esp in women taking OCPs)
Factor V leiden (APC resistance)
VTE + Elevated PTT that does not correct with a 1:1 mix
Antiphospholipid Syndrome

Also recurrent fetal loss

Can be associated with SLE, some drugs, HIV
When to get a BMBx in ITP
Very elderly and more than 2 cell lines down
Rectal Cancer requires...
Stage II/II rectal cancer are treated with preoperative (neoadjuvant) radiation tx and chemotx and post-op adjuvant chemotherapy alone
Stage IV Colorectal Cancer Tx
5fu + Leucovorin + Oxaliplatin +/- bevacuzimab
Follow up for Colorectal Cancer
CEA q3-6 mo x2 years then q6mo for subsequent 3 years


Colonscopy 1 year after resection, then 3 years later, then every 5 years

CT of the Chest/ABD/Pelvis q1y for 3 years with perinerual invasion or poorly differentiated tumors
CML -- look for this chromosomal abnormality
Philadelphia Chromosome t(9;22) tx with imatinib

Helps control disease but does not cure it
Bone pain after drinking alcohol, eosinophilia, MCD, pruritis
Think: Hodgkin's Disease
Acute Febrile Neutrophilic Dermatosis (SWEET SYNDROME) associted with?
AML
Necrolytic Migratory Thrombophlebitis (spread of erythematous blisters and swelling across areas subject to greater friction and pressure, including the lower abdomen, buttocks, perineum, and groin)
Think: Glucagonoma
Cancers that cause fever
Hepatoma

Hypernephroma

Lymphoma
Order of decision making ability
Durable POA > Spouse > Parents > Children > Sibs
Acute tx of nephrolithiasis
Increased Fluids

Nifedipine AND corticosterodis or Tamsulosin for distal ureteral staones <10-15 mm in diameter

IV ketoralc

Shockwave lithotripsy
High risk HCM
Syncope

SCD

FHx

Septum >30 mm

---> ALL SHOULD CONSIDER ICD
Pregnancy and Heart Disease: If signs of MI --- think?
Coronary Artery Dissection
Classic Features of Ankylosing Spondylitis
Back Stiffness

Sacroilliac pain and iritis

Upper lobe pulmonary fibrosis

Aortic insufficiency
Reactive Arthritis
symmetric arthritis

s/p dyssentry/NG urethritis

peripheral arthritis affecting the lower extremities

Swelling of the achilles tendon

Conjunctivitis, Uveitis

Urethritis

Prostatitsi

KERATODERMA BLENORRHAGICA (rash on soles/palms)

CICINATE BALANITIS
CPPD is associated with what 2 systemic diseases
Hyperparathyroidism and Hemochromatosis
Antibody that can be associated with Subacte Cutaneous Lupus
Anti-Ro Ab
Facial rash that involves the nasolabial folds
Rosacea (SLE SPARES NASOLABIAL FOLDS)
Asplenic individuals should get these vaccines
Pneumococcal

H influenza B

Meningococcal
Worrisome side effect of chronic Megestrol use
Adrenal Insufficiency

Megestrol is a progestational agent with strong glucocorticoid activity that is commonly used in patients with anorexia of different causes because it is a potent appetite stimulant.
The offspring of mothers with prepregnancy obesity and gestational diabetes mellitus are at increased risk for...
childhood obesity
Severe and persistent mastalgia tx
1st try supportive bra

Medical treatment is typically reserved for women who have severe and persistent pain that interferes with their quality of life. Danazol is the only treatment that has been approved by the FDA for cyclical mastalgia, although it would not be appropriate in this patient without a trial of nonmedical therapy.
Initial test of choice when there is a moderate or high pretest probability of endocarditis (i.e. staph bacteremia)
TEE
Provide nursing level services, such as intravenous medications and medication management, wound care, and other medical services in addition to low-level rehabilitation services. With further recovery, long-term care options may be reassessed and the most appropriate type pursued.
Skilled Nursing Facility
Focused on intensive physical and occupational therapy and other forms of rehabilitative treatment as needed. Although patients with active medical issues may be candidates for inpatient rehabilitation, these issues need to be stable, and patients are generally required to participate in therapy for a minimum of 3 hours daily.
Inpatient Rehabilitation
Provide care similar to that in an acute hospital setting but for patients who are considered stable with the need for hospital-based testing or interventions and with few anticipated changes in the care plan. This setting is overseen by physicians and is appropriate for patients who require significant medical monitoring but are expected to have a more prolonged (more than 25 days) time to recovery. This patient's medical needs are minimal and could be appropriately provided in a skilled nursing setting.
Long-term Acute Care Hospitals
Physician must feel that the expected prognosis is less than 6 months of life remaining.
Hospice Care
Ankle radiographs -- when should you get an Ankle X-ray?
should only be obtained in patients with acute ankle pain who are unable to bear weight or who have bony tenderness to palpation at the posterior edge of either the lateral or medial malleoli.
Should be considered in patients with chronic, nonproductive cough without an apparent cause
Check sputum eosinophils

--> Nonasthmatic Eosinophilic Bronchitis'

Tx: inhaled corticosteroids
Most common anterior pituitary hormone disorder after traumatic brain injury is?
Growth hormone deficiency, which can be suggested by a decreased serum insulin-like growth factor 1 level and is confirmed by a stimulation test measuring GH reserve.
First-line therapy for the treatment of allergic rhinitis?
Intranasal corticosteroid.
he best initial treatment for hirsutism in women with polycystic ovary syndrome
OCPs
Characterized by reduced total lung capacity and increased residual volume (owing to the patient's inability to fully exhale).
Respiratory Muscle Weakness due to neuromuscular disease
Immunocompetent persons who received the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine before age 65 years
Should receive a single booster vaccination at age 65 years, or 5 years after their first vaccination if they were vaccinated between the ages of 60 and 64 years.
Aside from Sjogren's disease, Anti-Ro/La (SSA/SSB) is positive in...
Mothers infants with neonatal lupus

Subacute cutaneous lupus erythematous
Most likely neoplasm to present in a young never-smoker with evidence of endobronchial obstruction and a history of recurrent pneumonia.
Carcinoid Tumor
Intensive care unit admission in asthma
For symptomatic patients with an arterial PCO2 of greater than or equal to 42 mm Hg (5.6 kPa) or persistent FEV1 or peak expiratory flow less than 40% of predicted despite aggressive bronchodilator treatment.
When should you choose clopidogrel over ASA in patients with stroke?
he Clopidogrel versus Aspirin in Patients at Risk of Ischemic Events (CAPRIE) study randomized patients with ischemic stroke, myocardial infarction, or peripheral arterial disease to aspirin versus clopidogrel, with a primary outcome of stroke, myocardial infarction, or death. Overall, clopidogrel was superior to aspirin in preventing the primary outcome, with the benefit being greatest among participants with peripheral arterial disease. The absolute risk reduction in clopidogrel versus aspirin for the primary outcome was 0.5% per year. The combination of aspirin and dipyridamole could be another appropriate option for secondary stroke prevention.
Mainstay 1st line tx of Asthma
SABA then INHALED CORTICOSTEROIDS [NEVER USE LABA WITHOUT INH CORTICOSTEROIDS]
Mainstay 1st line tx of COPD
SABA then Long Acting Anticholinergics (Tiotropium for FEV1<60%) and LABA (which can be used alone in COPD), then can add inhaled corticosteroids (Can't be used alone!) --- opposite of asthma
The initial treatment of anaphylaxis
intramuscular or subcutaneous epinephrine

Patients with wheezing should also receive treatment with an inhaled β2-agonist such as albuterol.

Neither antihistamines nor corticosteroids have been shown to improve outcomes in anaphylaxis, and neither agent would reverse this patient's bronchospasm quickly enough. When these agents are used, it is usually in an attempt to prevent a delayed recurrence of symptoms, but even this is not supported by strong evidence of efficacy.
Cherry red spot in the eye
Acute Central retina artery occlusion
blood and thunder in the eye
retinal vein occlusion
Can be used to manage musculoskeletal features of diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis.
Methotrexate
Surgical patients at high risk for venous thromboembolism, including those with previous venous thromboembolism, patients who have undergone orthopedic surgery, and patients with some cancers (especially gynecologic malignancy), should receive what VTE prophylaxis for how long?
Should receive extended (up to 5 weeks) prophylaxis of lovenox (usually).
An oral phosphodiesterase-4 inhibitor recently approved for use in patients with severe and very severe COPD associated with chronic bronchitis and a history of frequent exacerbations.
Roflumilast
Centor Criteria for Grp A strep
Fever >100.5 (>38.1)

Tonsillar Exudates

Tender Cervical Lymphadenopathy

Absence of Cough
Metabolic syndrome is diagnosed by the presence of...
three or more of five abnormalities: increased waist circumference, elevated systolic or diastolic blood pressure, decreased HDL cholesterol level, elevated triglyceride level, and elevated fasting plasma glucose level.
CP that is typically sharp, pleuritic, retrosternal, worsened by recumbency, and improved by sitting forward.
Acute Pericarditis
vertigo, unilateral hearing loss, and tinnitus
Meniere's disease
here is pain with abduction of the right arm between 60 and 120 degrees. The patient is asked to hold the arm extended anteriorly at 90 degrees with the forearm bent to 90 degrees (at 12 o’clock), as if holding a shield. When the arm is internally rotated to cross in front of the body, the patient feels pain in the shoulder (positive Hawkins test).
Rotator Cuff Impingement
Palpable osteophytes may be present, and radiographs, if obtained, may demonstrate degenerative changes. It characteristically presents with pain that occurs with shoulder adduction and abduction above 120 degrees.
Acromioclavicular Joint Degeneration
Stage III pressure ulcers
defined by full-thickness tissue loss but without exposure of bone, tendon, or muscle, generally require debridement, proper dressing selection, and treatment of infection, if present.
Stage II ulcers
Can be treated using an occlusive dressing to keep the area moist.
Tx of yeast infection in pregnancy and patients with DM2/immunocompromising conditions?
Topical Imidazole (Clotrimizole) x 7 days
Effective treatment for moderate menstrual bleeding.
Medroxyprogesterone acetate for 10 to 21 days is
Cervical cancer screening in women >30
In women older than 30 years with no risk factors for cervical cancer or history of abnormal Pap smears, the cervical cancer screening interval can be extended to 3 years with cytology or 5 years with cytology and human papillomavirus DNA testing. Screen up to age 65 if all is negative.
Tobin Index
RR/TV <105 --> EXTUBATE
BP screening frequency guidelines
screening every 2 years for those with blood pressures of less than 120/80 mm Hg and every year for those with systolic blood pressures of 120 to 139 mm Hg and diastolic blood pressures of 80 to 89 mm Hg
Characterized by cyclic central apneas and hyperpneas during sleep that are associated with ascension to altitude; symptoms include repeated awakenings from sleep, sometimes with a sense of dyspnea, and fatigue related to poor sleep quality.
High Altitude Periodic Breathing
Loss of both active and passive range of motion
Adhesive Capsulitis
Effective for treating hypercapnic respiratory failure related to neuromuscular weakness
Bipap
Diagnosis of HF with an exudative pleural fluid
A serum to pleural fluid albumin gradient greater than 1.2 g/dL (12 g/L) or a serum to pleural fluid total protein gradient greater than 3.1 g/dL (31 g/L) is equally consistent with a transudative process under these circumstances.
An option for reducing LDL cholesterol levels in women with hyperlipidemia who wish to become pregnant.
Bile Acid Sequestrants -- Colesevalam
Dietary Guidelines for cholesterol
Saturated fat intake should be reduced to less than 7% of total calories (about 19 g of saturated fat for a 2500-calorie diet) and dietary cholesterol consumption decreased to less than 200 mg/d.
Pravastatin metabolism
Renally metabolized so has the least drug-drug interactions
Which statin has the least drug-drug interaction
Pravastatin - renally metabolized
Pain typically located along the anteromedial aspect of the proximal tibia distal to the joint line of the knee and characteristically worsens with step climbing and at night.
Pes Anserine Bursitis
Should be suspected in anyone with pharyngitis, persistent fever, neck pain and septic pulmonary emboli.
Lemierre's Syndrome -- Fusobacterium

Next step = CT of neck with contrast

IV antibiotics (e.g. carbapenems or unasyn) indicated
Goal BP target in HTN Emergency
mean arterial pressure should generally be lowered by no more than 25% in the first hour of treatment.

Over the next 2-6 hours target DBP <110
Goal BP targets in HTN urgency
Gradually decrease over 1-2 days using po agents
Tx of Aortic Dissection
IV beta blocker followed by nitroprusside
The greatest effect on the rate of progression to proliferative retinopathy is what intervention in diabetics?
Glucose Control
Pts who have never been PPD tested and are high risk should receive what testing strategy
2 stage testing if the first test is negative
Very low glucose level in pleural effusions
Think: RA** can have the lowest glucose level; and think infection
Right sided MSSA endocarditis -- duration of tx?
2 weeks (all others are 4-6 weeks) -- low risk endocaridits
Cancer patient with SIADH; appears chronic
Give Demeclocyline
Diarrhea in an HIV Positive PAtient -- no detected organism on stool cx --- what is the likely organism?
Cryptosporidium

The proper test to detect cryptosporidiosis is a modified acid-fast examination of the stool. There is no truly effective antimicrobial agent directly against cryptosporidiosis. The efficacy of paromomycin is partial at best. The management of cryptosporidiosis is to treat the underlying HIV. As the CD4 rises, the cryptosporidial infection will resolve.

Fischer, Conrad (2009-10-06). Kaplan Medical Internal Medicine Question Book (p. 263). Kaplan Publishing. Kindle Edition.
Tx of TB in pregnancy
INH + Ethambutol + Rifampin x9 mo
Treatment of macular degeneration of the "wet" or "soft" variety?
Laser Photocoagulation

Macular degeneration is one of the most common causes of central retinal visual loss in the elderly. The “dry” type consists of the accumulation of yellow objects called “drusen” in the eye. Therapy for dry or drusenoid macular degeneration is with antioxidant vitamins such a vitamin C and E and zinc. “Wet,” or exudative, type responds to laser photocoagulation which does retard the progression of the disease. Nothing has been shown to restore vision that has already been lost.

Fischer, Conrad (2009-10-06). Kaplan Medical Internal Medicine Question Book (p. 266). Kaplan Publishing. Kindle Edition.
Tx of Lyme CNVII Palsy
Doxycycline x 3 weeks
Contraindication of mefloquine
Psychiatric illness
Tx of uveitis (when it is obvious)
Topical Steroids --- otherwise avoid and refer to opthalmology
Selenium deficiency is assocaited with what?
Cardiomyopathy
Treatment of localized psoriasis when patient not tolerating long-term steroids
Calcipotriene (VITAMIN D ANALOGUES!)

Ultraviolet light is used to control unresponsive disease particularly when it covers extensive surface areas, not localized disease such as in this case.
Major side effect of treating patients with Vitamin B12 deficiency (esp if they are pancytopenic)
Hypokalemia

It is one of the few circumstances in which cells can be made so rapidly that potassium can actually be used up and drop the serum level. The marrow is the only place in the body where cell production can be so rapid as to use up the potassium enough to drop the serum level.

Fischer, Conrad (2009-10-06). Kaplan Medical Internal Medicine Question Book (p. 269). Kaplan Publishing. Kindle Edition.
Subsiding pain in chronic pancreatitis corresponds to what objective measures?
Diarrhea secondary to worsening exocrine function In persons with chronic pancreatitis, recurrent attacks of pain typically lead to a chronic level of pain. After progressive loss of pancreatic function, the pancreatic pain can “burn out.” This phenomenon develops as the gland becomes more damaged, worsening endocrine and exocrine function (e.g., worsening diabetes and diarrhea from malabsorption).

Fischer, Conrad (2009-10-06). Kaplan Medical Internal Medicine Question Book (p. 272). Kaplan Publishing. Kindle Edition.
Patients with biliary colic -- next step?
Don't treat -- symptomatic tx only
Eggshell calcifications on Xray
Silicosis --- check TB
Major side effects of nitrofurantoin
Pulmonary Fibrosis

Drug-induced Hepatitis
LLQ - Crampy - Acute GIB
Think Acute Ischemic Colitis -- likely from watershed area --- tx with iv fluids and supportive care
Pain out of proportion to abdominal exam
Think: Mesenteric Ischemia and get a CT Angiogram stat -- may need papavarine
Very high DLCO
Pulm Hemorrhage
Antibody to Hep B Core Antigen with negative Hep B Surf Antigen and negative HBV e Ag
Nonreplicating Chronic HBV infection
Surrepititious Insulin use
Low C peptide with high insulin levels
Sulfonylurea abuse
High C peptide, High insulin (that's b/c it is from an insulin secretogue)
Chronic Lupus Erythematosus =
Discoid Lupus -- no other associations

NOTE: SCLE is associated with (+)ve Anti-RO/LA antibodies
Raccoon eye in adult after valsalva
AL Amyloidosis
Lichen planus association
HCV and liver disease - remember the 5 p's
Characterized by a rate of approximately 150/min and P waves of a single morphology, most clearly seen in lead V1 and at the end of T waves in other leads
Atrial Tachycardia
an escape rhythm in which the ventricular rate is between 30/min and 40/min. The QRS complexes are wide (as in all ventricular arrhythmias) and fairly regular, and there is no atrial activity (that is, no P wave). An idioventricular rhythm is considered accelerated when the rate is more than 50/min but less than 120/min.
Idioventricular Rhythm
Painful genital lesion found to have chancroid; causative organism?
Hemophilus ducreyi

The lesion begins as a papule, then evolves into a pustule that erodes to form an ulcer. Typical ulcers are between 1 and 2 cm in diameter with a red base and undermined, shaggy borders. The base of the ulcer is often purulent and appears as a “dirty painful ulcer.”
Intracellular organisms
remember neisseria and listeria
Occurs in acutely or critically ill patients, is characterized by low total and free triiodothyronine (T3) levels (caused by conversion of thyroxine [T4] to reverse T3 rather than T3), normal or low T4 levels, and variable thyroid-stimulating hormone levels (usually normal or low, but sometimes elevated).
Euthyroid Sick Syndrome
characterized by extremely pruritic round or oval patches of eczematous dermatitis consisting of papules, scaling, crusting, and often serous oozing. Most lesions appear on the trunk and legs and are 2 to 10 cm in diameter.
Nummular Dermatitis
Paget's Disease of the Breast
Recognized as an eczematous eruption of the nipple and areola that is often associated with a yellow exudative discharge. Paget disease of the breast is strongly associated with underlying breast cancer despite a normal clinical breast examination and mammogram results. Diagnosis is established by skin biopsy.
causative organism for molluscum contagiousum
poxvirus
Leukocytoclastic Vasculitis
This condition should not be diagnosed without a very thorough physical examination and laboratory studies to exclude systemic involvement, particularly clinically occult glomerulonephritis
Cutaneous Anthrax
Cutaneous anthrax is the most common type of anthrax in the United States and results when causative microorganisms are introduced into a skin abrasion or cut. Cutaneous lesions are initially pruritic and painless and subsequently progress to vesicular lesions surrounded by nonpitting edema. The lesions then become hemorrhagic or necrotic, and satellite lesions may form. Finally, a central black eschar can develop and usually resolves over 6 weeks. Diagnosis is confirmed by culture of blood or exudate or by full-thickness skin biopsy.

Think of rancher in the western US.
The first and most common clinical manifestation of acute GVHD
A maculopapular exanthem that can progress to bullae formation. The rash first appears at the nape of the neck and on the ears, shoulders, palms of the hands, and soles of the feet and may be pruritic or painful.
Erythema Marginatum
=Rheumatic Fever
Pathergy Test
Development of an erythematous papular or pustular lesion >5 mm 24 to 48 hours after skin prick by a needle
Purpura fulminans
A severe complication of meningococcal disease.