Study your flashcards anywhere!

Download the official Cram app for free >

  • Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

How to study your flashcards.

Right/Left arrow keys: Navigate between flashcards.right arrow keyleft arrow key

Up/Down arrow keys: Flip the card between the front and back.down keyup key

H key: Show hint (3rd side).h key

A key: Read text to speech.a key

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/242

Click to flip

242 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
When working on a computer, what do you need for an adequate workspace?
First, the work area must be flat. Second, the area must be sturdy. Third, the area must be well lit, clean, and large enough to hold all pieces and necessary tools.
When removing the case cover, why should you not remove all screws from the back of the PC?
Some of these screws hold vital components (such as the power supply) to the case, and removing them will cause those components to drop into the computer.
What should an antistatic strip be connected to?
You should plug one end of the antistatic wrist strap into the ground plug of an outlet.
Before you remove a power supply, what two things must you do?
Before you remove the power supply from the computer, you must disconnect the power supply connectors from the internal devices, and remove the mounting hardware for the power supply.
What are hot-pluggable drives?
Hot-pluggable drives are those that can be added or removed while the computer is running.
What are stand-offs?
The motherboard is held away from the metal case using brass or plastic spacers called stand-offs.
Name the default IRQs for COM1 and COM2.
COM1 is usually IRQ4, and COM2 is usually IRQ3.
In what Windows utility would you manually change a hardware resource assignment?
Device Manager
What is one of the most common problems in upgrading to a larger hard disk?
One of the most common problems in upgrading to a larger hard disk is the BIOS’s inability to support the larger disk size.
What is the default I/O address for LPT1?
0378-037F
What range is Bluetooth limited to?
It is usually limited to about 10 feet of effective range.
What is the acronym used for infrared?
It is IrDA.
What is used to create cells within a cellular network?
Radio cells are created through the use of transmitters. They provide coverage within a specific area.
True or false: Most laptop electrical cords include a light to show that AC current is being received.
True. Most laptop electrical cords include a light to show that AC current is being received.
What are the three elements of an LCD?
The liquid crystal display (LCD) consists of three key elements: the screen, the inverter, and the video card.
What is the difference between active and passive matrix displays?
With a passive matrix, the display is essentially created at one time, and changes take place to an entire column. With an active matrix, a single liquid crystal (pixel) can be changed.
True or false: Video sharing is very memory-intensive.
True. Video sharing is very memory-intensive.
What is used to turn off a system if the heat rises too high?
A thermal cutoff switch is often included in laptops to turn off the system if the temperature rises too high.
True or false: When a stylus no longer works, you can purchase inexpensive replacement styluses for most units.
True. You can purchase inexpensive replacement styluses for most units.
True or false: Every peripheral has the ability to drain power and resources from the PC.
True. Every peripheral has the ability to drain power and resources from the PC.
Which command-line utility displays or changes the attributes for one or more files?
ATTRIB displays or changes the attributes for one or more files.
You have opened a command window with CMD and now want to close it. What command should you use to do this?
EXIT closes the CMD window.
At the command line, what switch can be used with DIR to see the listing one screenful at a time?
DIR /P displays the listing one screenful at a time. Press Enter to see the next screenful.
You are in the directory C:\Documents and Settings\edulaney\photos. Where will the command cd .. take you?
This will take you to the directory C:\Documents and Settings\edulaney.
What is the command—and syntax—that should be used to change the G: drive from FAT32 to NTFS without losing data?
The command is convert G: /FS:NTFS.
Which command is used to start the System Configuration Editor?
The command is MSCONFIG. You can start it by going to Start Run, and typing the command.
Which type of backup copies only the files for which the archive bit is currently turned on, and turns off the archive bit after the files are backed up?
An incremental backup copies only the files for which the archive bit is currently turned on. After the files are backed up, the archive bit is turned off.
When does Windows XP automatically create restore points?
Windows XP creates restore points automatically every 24 hours, as well as when you install unsigned device drivers or install (or uninstall) a program with Windows Installer or InstallShield.
What are the three ways to start Task Manager?
The first way to display the Task Manager is to press Ctrl+Alt+Delete and click the Task Manager button (if needed). The second is to right-click an empty location on the Taskbar and choose Task Manager from the pop-up menu. The third method is to hold down Ctrl+Shift and press Esc.
What is the command used to install the Recovery Console from the CD?
Type winnt32 /cmdcons.
What is used in Windows to add a printer to a client?
The Add Printer Wizard is used in Windows to add a printer to a client.
How many characters can a printer name include?
The printer name can contain up to 32 characters.
You have shared a printer, but you do not want it to be seen by all users. What character can you use to “hide” it?
You can place a dollar sign ($) at the end of the name to prevent it from being visible to all other users even though you may choose to share it.
What protocol is needed for Internet printing?
Internet printing is made possible by Internet Printing Protocol (IPP).
Which tab on a print server’s Properties provides the location of the spooler?
The Advanced tab provides the location of the spooler and an assortment of logging and notification options.
What type of support allows the printer to send unsolicited messages (such as out of paper, low on toner, and so on) to the workstation?
Bidirectional support allows the printer to send unsolicited messages (such as out of paper, low on toner, and so on) to the workstation.
What is the range of number that can be used for printer priority?
The printer priority range is from 1–99.
True or false: By default, Windows does not separate print jobs or use a separator page.
True. By default, Windows does not separate print jobs or use a separator page.
What is the term used for a single logical printer that prints to more than one printing device?
A printer pool is a single logical printer that prints to more than one printing device.
Which network service is used in TCP/IP networks to translate host names to IP addresses?
DNS is the network service used in TCP/IP networks to translate host names to IP addresses.
What name translation service works only with Windows-based hosts?
Windows Internet Naming Service (WINS) is similar to DNS, but it works only with Windows-based hosts.
Which port does HTTPS use by default?
HTTPS uses port 443 by default.
What does IPX/SPX use that must be agreed on by all hosts on the network?
IPX/SPX uses frames. The frame type needs to be agreed on by all hosts on the network.
What is NETBEUI an acronym for?
NetBIOS Extended User Interface
What protocol in TCP/IP transfers mail between servers?
Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is used to send mail between servers.
Which two protocols can clients use to access e-mail on servers?
Post Office Protocol (POP) and Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) can be used by clients to access e-mail.
What are two popular web browsers?
Internet Explorer and Mozilla Firefox are both popular web browsers.
For a Windows-based client to be able to share files, what must be installed?
The File and Printer Sharing for Microsoft Networks client must be installed.
Which NTFS directory permission allows the user to navigate the entire directory structure, view the contents of the directory, view the contents of any files in the directory, and see ownership and attributes?
The Read permission allows the user to navigate the entire directory structure, view the contents of the directory, view the contents of any files in the directory, and see ownership and attributes.
What is a command-line utility that enables you to verify entries on a DNS server.
NSLOOKUP
What is hardening?
Hardening is the process of reducing or eliminating weaknesses, securing services, and attempting to make your environment immune to attacks.
What does a security baseline define?
A security baseline defines the level of security that will be implemented and maintained.
How many EAL levels does Common Criteria define?
Common Criteria (CC) defines seven EALs (Evaluation Assurance Levels).
Which EAL level is it anticipated will be the common benchmark for commercial systems?
It’s anticipated that EAL 4 will be the common benchmark for commercial systems.
What is the major tool for reviewing logs in Windows 200x?
The Event Viewer is the major tool for reviewing logs in Windows 200x.
Which Windows 2000x tool can be a lifesaver when you’re troubleshooting problems and looking for resource-related issues?
Performance Monitor can be a lifesaver when you’re troubleshooting problems and look-ing for resource-related issues
How many service packs are available for Windows XP?
At the time of this writing, two service packs are available for Windows XP.
True or false: All Unix security is handled at the file level.
True. All Unix security is handled at the file level.
What filesystem can FAT32 be upgraded to—without loss of data—in many current Microsoft operating systems?
FAT32 can be upgraded to NTFS without data loss through the use of the convert utility.
What is the default value for the Account Lockout Counter in Group Policy?
Account Lockout Counter is the number of invalid attempts it takes before lockout occurs. The default is 0.
What part of a computer should you never attempt to repair?
The power supply. The stored electricity can electrocute you.
What electrical item stores current?
Capacitors. They are used with power supplies and monitors.
How far away from a component should you hold a can of compressed air when using it?
2–3 inches.
What is chip creep?
When chips and boards get hot inside a computer and then cool enough to begin working their way out of their sockets.
What is tripping?
Tripping is a condition that occurs when the breaker on a device such as a power supply, surge protector, or UPS turns it off because it received a spike.
What is nuisance tripping?
Nuisance tripping means the tripping occurs often and isn’t a result of a serious condition.
What organization rates surge protectors and UPSs?
All units are rated by Underwriters Laboratories (UL) for performance.
How are isolated ground receptacles identified visually?
Isolated ground receptacles are identifiable by orange outlets.
If you use an air compressor to clean out dust in a system, what is the maximum PSI that should be used?
The maximum PSI should be 40.
What can be used to check for the presence of current?
A voltmeter can be used to check for the presence of current.
True or false: It is OK to say to a customer, “I don’t know.”
True. Honesty is a trait that is highly valued, and there is no shame in admitting that you do not know something. The key is to not leave it at that, but to follow up with the offer to find out.
True or false: Communication is a critical component of any relationship, even one between a customer and a vendor.
True. Communication is a critical component of any relationship, even one between a customer and a vendor.
True or false: You should react to a customer rather than respond.
False. Responding includes facts and feelings, whereas reacting focuses on feelings.
True or false: People want to feel heard more than they care about whether you agree with them.
True. People want to feel heard more than they care about whether you agree with them.
True or false: You should focus solely on differences rather than wasting time looking for common ground.
False. Look for common ground instead of focusing solely on differences.
What percent of time per day does the average worker spend communicating?
The average worker spends 50 percent of their time communicating.
What percent of time spent communicating is listening?
Forty-five percent of time spent communicating is listening.
What fraction of all workplace mistakes are the result of poor communication?
One-fourth of all workplace mistakes are the result of poor communication.
What is the halo effect?
The halo effect is when you are influenced by something other than the item you should be focusing on—usually it is a loosely associated factor.
Gestures, facial expressions, posture, gaze, and gait and all forms of what?
Gestures, facial expressions, posture, gaze, and gait and all forms of nonverbal communication.
In which folder is the command interpreter located?
c:\Windows\System32 or c:\WINNT\System32.
What command would you use to view the directory structure?
TREE.
When writing a batch file, how should a series of commands be entered?
With each command on a separate line.
What is c:\ an example of?
Root directory.
Regardless of the current folder, how could you open the System32 folder in one command, assuming that the SystemRoot is c:\Windows?
cd\windows\system32 (with no spaces!).
Write the command to display all hidden files in the current directory.
dir /a:h
Write the command to copy c:\sales and all its contents to c:\temp\sales.
xcopy c:\sales c:\temp\sales\ /e
Write the command(s) to remove system, hidden, and read-only attributes for BOOTSECT.DOS.
attrib c:\bootsect.dos -s -h -r
What switch sets the COPY command to work in network restartable mode?
/x
What switch enables you to delete read-only files without a confirmation prompt?
/f
Write the command to delete the c:\data directory and its contents.
rd c:\data /s
Write the command to defragment the D: drive and display a complete report.
defrag d: /f /v
The installer has used Setup Manager to create a WINNT.SIF file. What is this for and how is it used?
This is an unattended answer file for CD-based installations. It needs to be copied to a floppy disk, which should be inserted into the machine before it boots from the Windows Setup CD.
What is the purpose of UNATTEND.UDF?
Uniqueness Database File - configure system specific details such as machine name during unattended setup.
The SYSPREP program has a number of switches. What does the -pnp switch do?
Forces Plug-and-Play detection during the re-building phase.
Where would you locate a console file? What would the file extension be?
The file would be located in the creator's Start Menu folder. It would have an .MSC extension (it could also be saved to any location, but this is the default).
How do you make a console available to other users?
By placing it in the "All Users" Start Menu folder.
How do you protect a console from changes by other users?
By saving it in "User mode - limited access" console mode.
True or false? Kernel memory does not use the pagefile.
False.
How would you check peak memory usage for a particular process?
Press Ctrl+Shift+Esc to open Task Manager and click the Processes tab. Select View > Select Columns. Check Peak Memory Usage and click OK.
What would you do if the total commit charge runs consistently close to its limit?
Install more physical memory, increase the size of the pagefile, or advise the user to run fewer programs. This could also indicate a faulty application that is "leaking" memory.
You are watching CPU Usage and notice that it often jumps to 100% then falls back. Does this indicate a problem?
Probably not CPU Usage usually peaks and falls. If it stays over 80–90% the system could require a faster CPU or there could be a faulty application.
You need to restart the Print Spooler service on the local machine. You have logged on as Administrator. What are your next steps?
Alt-click My Computer and select Manage. Select Services and Applications > Services. Alt-click Print Spooler and select Restart. You can also use the "net stop spooler" and "net start spooler" from a command prompt.
What tool would you use to delete Temporary Files?
Disk Cleanup.
Where are Remote Desktop login rights configured?
From System Properties, select the Remote tab, and click Select Remote Users.
How does a user request remote assistance?
Enable the feature through My Computer properties, then use the Help and Support Center to issue the request.
What methods exist to advertise your remote assistance request?
Email client (MAPI), Windows Messenger, or file.
What issues are there with remote assistance and real world networks?
There are likely to be connectivity problems if a connection has to be made from outside a LAN (across the internet for example), notably because the firewall would need to be configured to allow access over port 3389.
HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT contains what information?
File extension association data.
Where are the Registry files stored?
The %SystemRoot%\System32\Config folder (with the exception of NTUSER.DAT user profiles).
Which key stores information about devices installed on the system?
HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE.
Which key would you investigate to check settings configured for a particular user?
HKEY_USERS.
Where are System Restore settings such as available disk space configured?
System Properties (System Restore tab). Note that System Restore is only available for Windows XP, not Windows 2000.
What command would you use to schedule scanning of the system files when the computer is rebooted?
sfc /scanonce
What is a recovery partition?
A partition containing a backup of the system configuration at a particular point in time. These are often used on OEM PCs to enable the PC to be restored to its factory settings.
When should you use Last Known Good to recover a computer?
When a minor system change has been made, such as adding a device or reconfiguring a device.
When should you use the recovery console?
To troubleshoot the system when it won't boot. Typically you will use the console to disable devices and services that are causing a problem that cannot be resolved booting into safe mode.
How would you start the ASR process to recover a system?
Boot from the Setup CD and press F2 at the prompt. Insert the ASR recovery floppy then press a key to continue.
You want to use the NTBACKUP program to create an archive of the contents of a hard disk without affecting the regular backup process. What type of backup would you use?
Copy.
What is the difference between differential and incremental backups?
An incremental backup clears the archive attribute and so selects any files modified since the last full or incremental backup. A differential backup does not clear the archive attribute, and so will select any files modified since the last full backup.
What precautions should be taken when managing backup tapes?
Store the tapes securely. At least one set of tapes should be stored offsite.
What two methods can you use to ensure the integrity of a backup job?
Set the backup program to verify data and test that data can be restored successfully.
Which devices provide network connections on the Internet?
Routers.
TCP/IP packets can take any route around a network to reach their destination. What prevents a packet where the destination is unreachable traveling around the network perpetually?
Each packet is configured with a lifespan called Time To Live (TTL).
On a firewall, what port would you configure to allow SMTP communications only?
Allow Port 25 and Deny all others.
TCP/IP addressing utilizes a 32-bit IP address with a subnet mask, but what are the components of NWLink addressing?
Frame type, network number, and internal network number.
What would you suspect if a TCP/IP host is configured to use the IP address 169.254.1.10?
Either the IP address has been configured manually or the machine has failed to contact a DHCP server and is using an APIPA-assigned address.
What is Classless Interdomain Routing?
Using variable length network addresses (subnet masks). This is a more flexible scheme than the old system of class-based IP addresses.
What protocol resolves an IP address to a network adapter's MAC address?
ARP (Address Resolution Protocol).
Why is a preshared key not a suitable wireless authentication model for enterprise networks?
Distribution of the key is not secure.
What version of wireless encryption provides support for the 802.11i standard?
WPA-2 (Wi-Fi Protected Access version 2).
What software is required to browse resources on a NetWare server?
Novell Client for Windows.
What are the main differences between a local user account and a domain user account?
Local accounts reside in the security database of the local machine only and provide the ability to log on to that system and use its resources. Domain accounts reside on the domain controllers for the Windows domain. These accounts provide a single logon to the entire domain and allow the users to access resources for which they have permissions on any server in the domain.
Which accounts are created by default?
Administrator and Guest.
How many characters can be entered for a user name and password?
User name: 20 characters; Password: 128 characters.
Why should you enforce the use of Ctrl+Alt+Del to log in?
To ensure that the password cannot be captured by another program.
How would you install smart card security on the local machine?
Most smart card readers attach to the computer via USB.
Why should use of a smart card be protected by a PIN?
To prevent misuse of the card if it is lost or stolen.
What type of biometric recognition is most suitable for integrating with a notebook computer?
Finger or thumbprint readers are generally the simplest type of device.
What is the function of a group?
To make it easier and more efficient to assign permissions to user accounts.
Why should you be reluctant to assign permissions to the group Everyone?
Because the default permissions for most files and folders is Full Control for the group Everyone.
Which file systems support file and folder permissions?
NTFS.
Where do you set file and folder permissions?
The Security tab in the file or folder's Properties page.
What permissions do you require to move a file and to copy a file?
To move a file you need Modify permissions; to copy a file you need Read permissions.
What happens when a user receives permissions in his own right and as a member of one or more groups?
The permissions from each source are combined to produce their effective permissions.
When you set permissions on a folder, what happens to the files and subfolders by default?
They inherit the parent folder's permissions.
What are the default NTFS permissions for most files and folders?
Full access for Everyone.
Who can change permissions?
Administrators, users with full control permissions, and the owner of the file or folder.
Who can take ownership?
Administrators and users with full control permissions.
How do you enable or disable Simple File Sharing under Windows 2000?
Simple File Sharing is not a feature of Windows 2000, only Windows XP. On XP, it can be enabled or disabled using the View tab of the Folder Options applet.
Which users can administer auditing?
Members of the administrators' group, or users with "Manage Audit and Security Log" rights.
Where do you view the security log?
Event Viewer.
What organization is responsible for creating the standards published as RFCs?
Internet Engineering Taskforce (IETF).
What does it mean if an IP address is registered by ARIN?
The registration is located in North America or sub-Saharan Africa.
What is the main usage of SSL?
Secure Sockets Layer is used to encrypt HTTP traffic (HTTPS, which operates over port 443 by default).
What Internet protocols can be used to retrieve messages from an email server?
POP3 (Post Office Protocol) and IMAP4 (Internet Mail Access Protocol).
True or false? FTP provides secure file transfer over the Internet?
False; it provides file transfer but data is not secure and passwords are transmitted in plain text.
When accessing a Newsgroup, to avoid asking a common question, you should first read the...
Frequently Asked Questions (FAQ).
True or false? Instant messaging file attachments could be used to spread a computer virus.
True.
"www.granniesdumplins.com" is an example of a...?
Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN).
"http://www.granniesdumplins.com/index.htm" is an example of a... ?
Uniform Resource Indicator (or Locator).
The top-level domain is the section of the domain farthest to the... ?
Right (.com, co.uk, and so on).
What is the function of NAT?
Network Address Translation a router can map private network IP addresses onto a single public IP address. Private addressing keeps the local network more secure and reduces the demand for unique IP addresses.
Why is ICS unsuitable for an enterprise network?
ICS configures a DHCP server on the local machine. This would cause addressing problems on the network, which should only ever have one DHCP server. Apart from this, a single workstation would not be able to sustain the throughput and reliability required for internet routing for multiple clients.
What protocol enables a PC to exchange data with an ISP's router over a telephone line?
Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP).
How do you configure the Internet Explorer web browser's connection properties?
Select Tools > Internet Options > Connections tab.
If configuring ICS manually, what default gateway parameter would you configure for the client machines?
192.168.0.1
How would you configure Internet Explorer to browse a site that you have confirmed is safe for scripting?
Select Tools > Internet Options > Security tab. Click Trusted Sites then click the Sites button. Add the URI of the website.
True or false? One of the dangers of cookies is that they can be used to monitor and record keystrokes made by the user without their knowledge.
False.
How would you configure Windows Firewall to allow traffic over a specific port?
Open the Firewall applet from Control Panel and click the Exceptions tab. Click Add Port. Add a description of the port, enter the port number, and select whether it is a TCP or UDP port.
You are trying to add a computer to a wireless network but cannot detect the access point. What would you suspect the problem to be?
The computer's wireless adapter is not supported by the AP or the computer is not in range or there is some sort of interference.
A single PC on a network cannot connect to the Internet. Where would you start troubleshooting?
Test the PC's TCP/IP configuration, specifically the default gateway or name resolution.
Your company is moving to new premises. The building is already flood-wired with network cabling. What tool would you use to test whether the cabling supports Gigabit Ethernet?
Advanced cable certifier.
How could you identify a problem with a patch cable without cable testing tools?
Substitute with a known good cable.
A user contacts you to say that they cannot log on. What is your first troubleshooting step?
Ask the user what error message they receive.
You have restarted the DHCP server following a network problem. What command would you use to refresh the TCP/IP configuration on client workstations?
ipconfig /renew "Local Area Connection"
If a host has a firewall configured to block ICMP traffic, what result would you expect from pinging the host (assuming that the path to the host is otherwise OK)?
Destination unreachable.
What tool is used to test TCP/IP routing?
TRACERT.
Why should unused ports be disabled?
To prevent connection of unauthorized equipment.
True or false? NSLOOKUP can only be used with host names.
False.
Why must all electrical equipment be protected by a fuse?
A fuse prevents too much current flowing through the circuit. Excessive current can cause wiring to overheat, creating a fire hazard.
If static electricity is not harmful to humans, why is it damaging to electronic components?
These components are designed to work at very low voltages; a static discharge is very high voltage. No damage occurs to humans because the current is very small but the tiny wires and components of electronic circuits are much more fragile.
You have to service a PC but anti-static protection is not available. You know that you can ground yourself by touching the metal chassis of the PC, but should you do this before or after unplugging the PC from mains power?
For safety reasons, always unplug the PC from mains power before opening the case.
Why is it better to use approved cleaning products for computer hardware?
Household cleaners tend to leave deposits, dust, or fiber traces that can interfere with the operation of computer components. Some components (such as display screens) use delicate materials that can be damaged by chemicals in non-approved products.
What precaution should you take when using spray cleaners?
Always spray the cloth rather than the equipment, especially if cleaning around ventilation slots.
Why should you never use a home vacuum cleaner to clean a PC?
Because they generate large amounts of static electricity that may damage sensitive components.
What are the principal environmental hazards to consider when installing PC equipment?
Heat and direct sunlight, excessive dust and liquids, and very low or high humidity. Equipment should also be installed so as not to pose a topple or trip hazard.
True or false? Rocking a card from side-to-side is the best way to release it.
False.
How is the heatsink attached and what problems can occur releasing it?
The heatsink is attached to a clip on the motherboard. There will also be a power connector for the fan assembly. The clip is often quite tight and difficult to release. Another issue can arise where too much thermal paste has been applied, causing the heat sink to stick to the processor.
What must you check when inserting a PGA CPU chip?
That pin 1 is aligned properly and that the pins on the package are aligned with the holes in the socket. Otherwise, you risk damaging the pins when the ZIF lever is lowered.
What practical issues can make the installation of PATA drives difficult?
Parallel data cables are quite short but fairly bulky. If the case layout is not good, adding a 3.5" hard drive on the same cable as a 5" CD-ROM drive can be tricky.
What setting should you check before installing a PSU?
That the voltage selector is set to the correct voltage (or if there is no selector that the PSU is suitable for the voltage used by the mains supply).
What is the process for installing memory in a notebook?
Locate the memory slot, which is usually accessed via a panel on the back cover. Move the connector up to 45º and insert the memory card, taking care to align it correctly. Push the card flat again.
What is the function of BIOS?
The Basic Input Output System contains instructions, such as the Power On Self Test (POST), that allow the CPU to bootstrap the PC.
Where in memory is BIOS loaded?
The top 64KB of the first 1MB of system memory.
What component is used to store system configuration data?
CMOS RAM, which is powered by a battery.
Name three keys commonly used to run a PC's BIOS/CMOS setup program.
Esc, Del, F1, F2, F10.
Which device corresponds to the following:
IRQ: 7
I/O Address: 378
LPT1
Which device corresponds to the following:
IRQ: 3
I/O Address: 2F8
COM2
Which device corresponds to the following:
IRQ: 5
I/O Address: 278
LPT2
Which device corresponds to the following:
IRQ: 4
I/O Address: 3F8
COM1
What measurement would you expect from a multimeter if a fuse is good?
Zero ohms.
When measuring an unknown voltage, what setting should be made on the multimeter?
Set to the highest range first.
What are the two components required for a loopback test?
Loopback plug and test software.
What limits upgrade potential for the system processor?
The type of motherboard and chipset.
How can CPU performance be improved?
Overclocking.
A dot matrix printer's pins are fired by... ?
Solenoids.
How many pins may a dot matrix printer have in its print head?
9, 24 or 48.
What types of paper/stationery can dot matrix printers use that laser and inkjet printers cannot?
Multi-part and continuous stationery.
What two types of print head are used by inkjet printers?
Thermal or piezo.
What is the process of electrostatic charging?
Applying a uniform negative charge to the OPC drum using the primary corona wire.
The removal of the charge from an OPC drum by a laser is called... ?
Laser imaging or writing.
What is the process of image transfer?
Passing paper between the OPC drum and the secondary or transfer corona wire. This attracts the toner from the OPC drum to the paper.
Heating laser printer toner so that it sticks to the paper is called... ?
Fusing.
What differentiates Thermal Autochrome printers from other printer types?
There is no ink/toner; the only consumable is the paper.
What standard should parallel printer cables used for EPP operation meet?
IEEE 1284 compliant.
You use three Windows applications that need to print to a Canon BJC-4300 printer. How many printer drivers must you install?
One.
Give two reasons why dot-matrix output may be faint.
Ribbon worn, ribbon not spooling properly, or platen gap (ribbon to paper) too high.
Paper is jamming in an inkjet printer. What could be causing this?
Paper not loaded squarely or too much paper loaded into tray.
What effect does a worn OPC drum have on printing?
Faint printing.
A laser printer is producing white stripes on the paper. What could be causing this?
Poorly distributed toner or damaged/worn transfer corona wire.
What effect does a dirty primary corona wire have on laser printing?
Black stripes on paper.
You have removed an OPC drum to clean a laser printer. Where should you store it?
In a light-proof storage bag or area.
Which file format is best suited to emailing scanned images?
JPEG (or PNG).
What are the two commands for invoking the help system from the command line?
help CommandName
CommandName ./?
What is the command for invoking a text editor from the command line?
edit FileName
What is the command for suppressing the display of commands in a batch file?
@echo off
The drive containing the boot sector is drive C, and is referred to as the _______ partition.
system
What is the default installation directory for Internet Information Services (IIS)?
C:\Inetpub
What is the command extracting archive files from the command line?
expand source destination
ie.: expand a:\Install.cab c:\temp
Write the command(s) to remove system, hidden, and read-only attributes for BOOTSECT.DOS.
attrib c:\bootsect.dos -s -h -r
List the 5 sections (keys) of the registry.
HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT
HKEY_CURRENT_USER
HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE
HKEY_USERS
HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG
Which registry key contains information about the local computer system, including hardware and operating system data such as bus type, system memory, device drivers, and startup control data?
HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE
Which registry key contains object linking and embedding (OLE) and file-class association data?
HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT
Which registry key contains the profile for the user who is currently logged on, including environment variables, personal program groups, desktop settings, network connections, printers, and application preferences?
HKEY_CURRENT_USER
Which registry key contains all actively loaded user profiles, including HKEY_CURRENT_USER, which always refers to a child of HKEY_USERS, and the default profile?
HKEY_USERS
Which registry key contains system and software configuration information specific to this session. This section is built using the settings within HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE and the hardware profiles set by the administrator?
HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG
The SYSPREP program has a number of switches. What does the -pnp switch do?
Forces Plug-and-Play detection during the re-building phase.
Which of the following options could be the reasons for unavailability of the server? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Server problems
B. Network problems
C. Efficient Network
D. Computer workstation problems
E. Efficient computer workstation
A. Server problems
B. Network problems
D. Computer workstation problems
Which of the following options make up the three tiers of support? (Choose all that apply.)

A. SLA
B. Desktop hardware technician
C. Help desk via phone
D. Customer
E. Backroom technician
B. Desktop hardware technician
C. Help desk via phone
E. Backroom technician
Which of the following is a professional way to speak to a customer?

A. Using technical jargon to impress the customer
B. Speaking ambiguously about the problem to the customer
C. Asking clarifying questions until you understand the problem
C. Asking clarifying questions until you understand the problem
Which of the following options emphasize active listening? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Not interrupting the customer
B. Avoiding eye contact with the customer
C. Listening attentively to the customer
D. Showing interest in the conversation
E. Insulting the customer
A. Not interrupting the customer
C. Listening attentively to the customer
D. Showing interest in the conversation