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225 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What do the following have in common?
Bus-star-ring-mesh-hydrid

A. They are topologies
B. They are cable types
C. They are security codes for networks
A. They are topologies
The boot process for a Windows XP Professional
system fails to a blue screen with an error message. Where on the Internet is the MOST likely place to find information specific to this
error?

A. Microsoft knowledge base
B. Internet chat room
C. Internet search engine
D. Computer manufacture's website
A. Microsoft knowledge base
On a SCSI system you need to have both ends of the bus terminated.

A. True
B. False
A. True
When discussing motherboards, characteristics like size and format refer to?
A. Its capacity
B. Its form factor
C. Its importance
D. Its density
Which video technology supports a resolution of
1,024x768 and 256 colors?

A. SVGA
B. XGA
C. VGA
D. CGA
B. XGA
The floppy controller is assigned to which IRQ?
A. IRQ 4
B. IRQ 6
C. IRQ 7
D. IRQ 8
B. IRQ 6
What do the following have in common?
PGA, SECC, OOI, PPGA

A. They are processor form factors
B. They are expansion slot types
C. They are memory types
A. They are processor form factors
Which RAID level is characterized below?
· Similar to RAID level 3, except the parity information is
spread across all drives.
· Minimum of 3 disks required
· Striping with parity
· Fault tolerant

A. RAID level 0
B. RAID level 1
C. RAID level 2
D. RAID level 3
E. RAID level 4
F. RAID level 5
F. RAID level 5
PCI is short for?

A. Peripheral component interconnect
B. Petite component interconnect
C. Provisional component interconnect
A. Peripheral component interconnect
Windows NT, 2000, 2003 Server, XP and Vista use
which file system?

A. FAT32
B. NTFS
B. NTFS
A computer technician going to a client to repair
their computer can also open up the monitor to find what the problem may be.

A. True
B. False
B. False

Monitors are especially dangerous because they keep the charge and should be repaired by trained professionals
Which part(s) of the computer are more sensitive to
ESD?

A. CPU
B. RAM
C. Case
D. Keyboard
A. CPU
B. RAM
Where is the system BIOS located?

A. In the master boot record
B. On RAM
C. On a ROM chip soldered to the motherboard
D. Inside the power supply
C. On a ROM chip soldered to the motherboard
Which of the following is the local user with the
MOST authority on a computer running Windows XP?

A. BCM user
B. Power user
C. Network Configuration Operator
D. Administrator
D. Administrator
What does a long repeating beep usually mean when booting a computer that is experiencing a failure?

A. The video card needs to be replaced
B. The RAM needs to be replaced
C. The motherboard has failed
D. The CPU is dead
E. The system speaker is malfunctioning
B. The RAM needs to be replaced
Pin 1 on the IDE cable must plug into pin 1 on the
hard drive. IDE cables are marked with a colored stripe (usually red
or blue) on the pin 1 side of the cable. If you plug the cable in
backwards, hard drive will continuously spin, but will not able to communicate with the system.

A. True
B. False
A. True
You computer isn't passing the POST test. You receive a beep code, but can't find any information as to what it
means. Which of the following tools will be the most useful in solving the problem?

A. Post Card
B. Multimeter
C. Protocol Analyzer
D. IC ROM Puller
A. Post Card
Which of the following modes will provide retrieval
of a previous computing session with the least amount of boot-up time?

A. Shutdown
B. Hibernate
C. Standby
D. Restart
C. Standby
You are working on the inside of a pc. You take a part out knowing you won’t be using it anymore but the part works
and you want to store it. Where would you put it?

A. In the box it came in
B. In an anti-static bag
C. Wrap it up in newspaper
B. In an anti-static bag
You can use a repeater to extend the signal of network segments. They are cheap and work well as a permanent solution. Their advantage is also that you can connect dissimilar
networks together.

A. True
B. False
B. False

Although repeaters do extend the signal of network segments, and are a cheap solution, the solution is only a temporary fix. You cannot connect disimilar networks – the networks have to be the same and they repeat whatever they hear, even noise which isn’t a good thing for the network.
PCI supports which data paths?

A. 32-bit and 64-bit
B. 16-bit and 32-bit
C. 8-bit and 16-bit
A. 32-bit and 64-bit
A USB B connector is at the back of your computer
where you will attach a USB device.

A. True
B. False
B. False

A USB B connector is on the other end, on the device, not on the computer.
Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for the
logical MAC addressing?

A. Physical layer
B. Data link layer
C. Presentation layer
D. Transport layer
E. Physical layer
B. Data link layer
In which network device does it receive a signal on
one port and sends it out on all ports?

A. Bridge
B. Hub
C. Switch
B. Hub
The ISA bus speed is:

A. 8.33 MHz
B. 9.42 MHz
C. 93 MHz
A. 8.33 MHz
Which of the following provides for faster
communication speeds between hard drive and motherboard?

A. ATA
B. Serial ATA
B. Serial ATA
In which type of memory is the BIOS stored?

A. ROM
B. DRAM
C. SRAM
A. ROM
Which motherboard socket type is used for Pentium 2?

A. Slot 1
B. Socket 423
C. Socket 478
D. Socket A
A. Slot 1
Which provides the backbone of communication between all devices installed on a computer?

A. Motherboard
B. The bus
C. The AGP slot
A. Motherboard
SCSI stands for?

A. Simple Components Systems Interface
B. System Components Simple Interface
C. Small Computers System Interface
C. Small Computers System Interface
Incidence reporting refers to:

A. Computer security
B. Computer upgrading
C. Computer repair
A. Computer security
Which kind of partition does the below describe?

These partitions are extra partitions made from the extended partition:

A. Active
B. Primary
C. Extended
D. Logical
D. Logical
Throttling is the utilization of otherwise idle
execution units to improve the over all reaction and response time
of the CPU.

A. True
B. False
B. False

Hyper-threading is the utilization of otherwise idle execution units to
improve the over all reaction and response time of the CPU.
The Network Configuration Operator is the local
user with the most authority on a computer running Windows XP.

A. True
B. False
B. False

The Administrator is the local user with the most authority on a computer running Windows XP.
How many hard drives can a system with 2 IDE controllers have?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
D. 4
The Intel Pentium 4 introduced hyperthreading
which allows each pipeline to run more than one thread at a time.

A. True
B. False
A. True
What is a dual core processor? [Select the best
answer]

A. A motherboard that supports 2 processors
B. A processor that uses 2 L2 caches
C. Two processors combined together into a single CPU
D. A processor that utilizes 2 L1 caches
C. Two processors combined together into a single CPU
Each cylinder is divided into sectors that are 512K
in size.

A. True
B. False
A. True
USB is a high-speed I/O bus that supports the daisy chaining of devices(up to 127).

A. True
B. False
A. True
Which of the following is not a magnetic storage device?

A. Tape Drive
B. Floppy drive
C. Hard Drive
D. CD-ROM
D. CD-ROM
Which of the following is another name for a CPU
(Central Processing Unit)?

A. Miniprocessor
B. Microprocessor
C. Monoprocessor
D. Internal Data Unit (IDU)
B. Microprocessor
An older printer is connected to a computer using
a parallel port. Which of the following connectors is MOST likely used on the computer's parallel port?

A. DB-50 connector
B. DB-25 pin connector
C. DB-9 pin connector
D. DB-37 connector
B. DB-25 pin connector
Which System Bus Architecture does this describe?
“High speed point-to-point for attaching a graphics card to a computer’s motherboard”

A. PCI Bus Mastering
B. PCI Hot Swap
C. Hierarchical PCI Bus
D. Peer PCI Bus
E. I20-Intelligent Input-Output
F. AGP
F. AGP
SODIMMs come in ________ pin and _____ pin configurations.

A. 144
B. 72
C. 168
D. 30
A. 144
B. 72
Which of the following will happen when a user plugs a third-party adapter which outputs alternating current (AC) directly into a laptop?

A. The laptop will start in Safe Mode.
B. The laptop will start, however it will not charge the battery.
C. The laptop processor will be overclocked.
D. The laptop components will be damaged.
D. The laptop components will be damaged.
The small size of the SO DIMMs makes them excellent for laptop computers.

A. True
B. False
A. True
A jumper that is closed (has a jumper on the pins)
is considered to be on.

A. True
B. False
A. True
You are building a computer that will contain 2 hard
drives and a CDROM, all of which are EIDE devices. You have 2
EIDE connections on the motherboard. Which of the following configurations will work?


A. Hard drives 1 and 2 connected to ID1 and both set as master.
The CDROM connected to ID2 and set as master.
B. Hard drive 1 and CDROM connected to ID1 and both set as master. Hard drive 2 connected to ID2 and set as slave.

C. Hard drives 1 and 2 connected to ID1 with hard drive 1 set as master and hard drive 2 set as slave. The CDROM connected to ID2 and set as cable select
D. Hard drives 1 and 2 on ID1 both set as slave. CDROM on ID2 set as the master.
C. Hard drives 1 and 2 connected to ID1 with hard drive 1 set as master and hard drive 2 set as slave.
The BIOS looks for boot information that is
contained in file called __________ at the first sector on the disk.

A. Boot.ini
B. Autoexec.bat
C. Config.sys
D. The master boot record
D. The master boot record
Processor manufacturers guarantee their processors
at a rated clock speed and even when you run the processor at a faster rate.

A. True
B. False
B. False

Processor manufacturers guarantee their processors at a rated clock speed. However, at your own risk, you can run the processor at a faster rate.
What is the common ID number assigned to the host SCSI adapter in a PC?

A. 11
B. 7
C. 9
D. 8
B. 7
A user reports an issue that does not occur while
the technician is onsite. Which of the following actions should the
technician perform while troubleshooting this issue with the user?

A. Ask the user which web sites they have been viewing.
B. Tell the user that the problem is usually related to user training.
C. Ask the user a series of questions designed to narrow the scope of the problem.
D. Tell the user that the technician will solve the problem quickly.
C. Ask the user a series of questions designed to narrow the scope of the problem.
Which is the greatest killer of pcs?

A. Electrostatic charge (ESD)
B. Electromagnetic charge (ESD)
C. Electrostatic discharge (ESD)
C. Electrostatic discharge (ESD)
Which interrupt does the real-time clock use?

A. 7
B. 8
C. 9
D. 10
E. 12
B. 8
Which RAID level are we talking about here?
Disk striping with error correction code stored as parity takes a striped array as in RAID 0, then adds a parity hard disk drive to the array. This parity information is vital if one drive fails. If a drive
should fail in this situation, the parity drive can be used to restore
blocks that have been broken due to data corruption.

A. RAID level 0
B. RAID level 1
C. RAID level 2
D. RAID level 3
E. RAID level 4
F. RAID level 5
D. RAID level 3
Which of the below can be categorized as bus slots? Choose all that apply:

A. PCI
B. AGP
C. PCI-E
A. PCI
B. AGP
C. PCI-E
Select which of the following information is found in CMOS…

A. Memory information
B. Date
C. Time
D. Hard drive information
E. All of the above
E. All of the above
A maximum of _________ IDE disk drives can be connected to each IDE/ATA controller.

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
B. Two
Which chip technology does the following
describe?
“Is a designated set of smaller, faster memory units, utilized by the CPU to perform frequently utilized instructions faster”


A. Hyper-threading
B. Dual-core
C. Overclocking
D. Cache
C. Overclocking
The system timer is assigned to which IRQ?

A. IRQ 0
B. IRQ 1
C. IRQ 3
D. IRQ 4
A. IRQ 0
Serial ATA is backward compatible with the ATA
form factor.
A. True
B. False
B. False
Is it ok to wipe down an LCD screen with a glass cleaner like windex?

A. Yes
B. No
B. No

No. LCD screens should be wiped off only with a damp cloth or a LCD specific cleaning material.
A storage device is any component your computer
uses to permanently store information.

A. True
B. False
A. True
Parity is error correcting. It corrects errors at the
point of transmission.

A. True
B. False
B. False
DIMMS use what number of pins?

A. 168
B. 144
C. 165
A. 168
RIMM memory contains how many pins?

A. 76
B. 184
C. 340
B. 184
Which type of memory is used for cache?

A. DRAM
B. SRAM
C. ROM
B. SRAM
The software you will find in Read-Only-Memory (ROM) is:

A. Hardware
B. Freeware
C. Firmware
C. Firmware
Which type of memory is used in laptops?

A. SoDIMM
B. DIMM
C. SIMM
A. SoDIMM
Which features are a must on laptop motherboards and processors?

A. CPU Throttling
B. Power Management
C. Wi-Fi
D. All the above
D. All the above
Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for providing services like file services?

A. Application layer
B. Presentation layer
C. Session layer
D. Transport layer
A. Application layer
Double Data Rate SDRAM (DD2 SDRAM) is _________ __________ SDRAM.

A. Doubled speeded
B. Clock doubled
C. Faster cycled
B. clock doubled
This type of ram is more expensive and slower.

A. ECC RAM
B. Non-ECC RAM
A. ECC RAM
Which video technology supports a resolution of
1,024x768 and 16 colors?

A. SVGA
B. XGA
C. VGA
A. SVGA
Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for creating and maintaining communications?

A. Application layer
B. Presentation layer
C. Session layer
D. Transport layer
C. Session layer
The secondary hard disk controller is assigned to
which IRQ?

A. IRQ 12
B. IRQ 13
C. IRQ 14
D. IRQ 15
D. IRQ 15
The soundcard or NIC is assigned to which IRQ?

A. IRQ 10
B. IRQ 12
C. IRQ 13
A. IRQ 10
The primary hard disk controller board is assigned
to which IRQ?

A. IRQ 12
B. IRQ 13
C. IRQ 14
D. IRQ 15
C. IRQ 14
From where would you access the paging file?

A. My computer –properties – General tab – settings – Visual Effects
– Virtual Memory then Change button


B. My computer –properties – advanced tab – settings – Advanced tab - Virtual Memory then Change button
C. My computer –properties – advanced tab – environment
variables - Virtual Memory then Change button
B. My computer –properties – advanced tab – settings – Advanced tab - Virtual Memory then Change button
Virtual Memory helps the CPU extend its capacity
thus allowing you to load more programs than what the CPU alone could handle.

A. True
B. False
A. True
Which of the following is the correct order for the
diagnostic and troubleshooting procedures?

A.
Test components
Identify the problem
Analyze the problem
Evaluate the results
Document the results

B.
Identify the problem
Analyze the problem
Test components
Evaluate the results
Document the results

C.
Analyze the problem
Identify the problem
Test components
Evaluate the results
Document the results
B.
Identify the problem
Analyze the problem
Test components
Evaluate the results
Document the results
Which kind of partition does the below describe?
A partition that can be actively booted to is called ______.


A. Active
B. Primary
C. Extended
D. Logical
A. Active
What two types of expansion slots are found on all modern motherboards? What is a third, older type that might or might not also be present?
PCI and AGP. The third type is ISA.
Name three features that distinguish an ATX motherboard from an AT motherboard.
Possible answers include: (1) position of CPU, (2) expansion slot orientation, (3) built-in ports on the side, (4) one-piece power supply connector, (5) physical size and shape of the motherboard, and (6) type of keyboard connector.
What are PGA and SECC? Which of those types is the Socket 423 used with the Pentium 4?
They are the two types of slots/sockets for CPUs in motherboards. PGA is the type with a grid of holes into which pins fit on a flat chip. SECC is the type that accepts a circuit board surrounded by a cartridge. Whenever you see socket in the name, it’s always a PGA type. SECC types have slot in the name.
What voltages does a typical power supply provide to the motherboard?
+5V, -5V, +12V, and -12V for all power supplies, plus +3.3V for an ATX power supply.
On modern systems, what is the relationship between a CPU’s internal and external speeds?
The internal speed is a multiple of the external speed.
Which cache is also known as the back-side cache?
The L2 cache
What is the purpose of a VRM on a motherboard?
To provide different voltages for different CPUs
What is the purpose of a parity bit on a SIMM?
Error correction
Would the POST test identify a problem with RAM?
Yes. One of the components the POST checks is the RAM.
If a legacy serial port is physically fine but does not show up in Windows’ Device Manager, how might you enable it?
It may be disabled in BIOS Setup; try enabling it there.
True or false: Because of the way the screen is refreshed, you typically cannot run LCD projectors, LCD panels, or other similar devices from passive matrix laptops.
True. Because of the way the screen is refreshed, you typically cannot run LCD projectors, LCD panels, or other similar devices from passive matrix laptops.
What is the resolution for XGA?
XGA is a 1024×768 resolution.
What is the aspect ratio of WUGA?
WUGA has a 16:10 screen aspect ratio.
What is cold docking?
Cold docking means the laptop must be turned off and back on for a change to be recognized.
What type of battery is lightweight and has a long life, and is not subject to problems with partial draining and recharging?
Lithium Ion batteries are lightweight and have a long life, plus they are not subject to problems with partial draining and recharging. They tend to be more expensive than NiCad or NiMH, however.
Which type of PCMCIA card is the thickest?
Type III cards are up to 10.5mm thick and are not commonly used.
How many volts does Mini PCI operate at?
Mini PCI operates at only 3.3 volts.
True or false: Batteries are hot-pluggable.
True. Batteries are hot-pluggable, so you do not have to shut down in order to remove one.
True or false: FireWire devices are hot-pluggable.
True. FireWire and USB devices are hot-pluggable.
True or false: To clean a monitor screen, you should use glass cleaner designed specifically for monitors, and a soft cloth.
True. To clean a monitor screen, use glass cleaner designed specifically for monitors, and a soft cloth.
True or false: Windows XP does not support FAT32.
False: Windows XP supports FAT32 as well as NTFS.
With what Windows feature is a paging file associated?
Virtual memory creates a paging file, or swap file, and then moves data into and out of RAM to it.
What is another name for the System Tray?
Microsoft uses the terms System Tray and Notification Area roughly synonymously to refer to the area where the clock and the icons for running background programs appear.
To display a command-line interface in Windows XP, what would you execute from the Run command?
In Windows 2000 or XP, you use CMD.
What files does Windows 2000/XP use to hold the Registry settings?
Windows 2000 and XP use SAM, SECURITY, SOFTWARE, SYSTEM, and DEFAULT.
To select all files that have exactly four letters in their name and an extension that begins with D, what file specification would you use?
You would use ????.D*. The four letters in the name are represented by ????. The extens ion D* refers to any extension as long as it begins with D.
Which type of disk must be partitioned prior to formatting?
Hard disks must be partitioned; removable disks such as CDs and floppies do not need this step.
Which version(s) of Windows supports NTFS encryption on NTFS5 drives?
NTFS5 is used only with Windows 2000/XP.
What utility is a Windows 2000/XP graphical utility for finding and fixing logical errors in the FAT?
Check Disk is a Windows 2000/XP graphical utility for finding and fixing logical errors in the FAT.
Which Windows application most resembles the MS-DOS application EDIT?
EDIT is a plain-text editor, so the answer is Notepad.
Give two examples of line printers.
Ink-jet, dot matrix
What advantage does dot matrix have over other printer technologies?
The ability to print on multipart forms
What is the purpose of the primary corona in the laser printing process?
It applies a uniform negative charge to the drum.
List the six steps in the laser printing process in the correct order.
Cleaning, conditioning, writing, developing, transferring, fusing
If there is loose toner on the paper after a laser print, which part is defective?

A. Corona
B. Fuser
C. Drum
D. Duplexer
B. Fuser
What are some advantages of USB as a printer interface, as opposed to legacy parallel?
USB is fully plug-and-play, it allows several printers to be connected at once without adding additional ports or using up additional system resources, and it is faster.
What do you need to do if there are stripes on an ink-jet printout?
Clean the ink jets; one or more is clogged.
True or false: A laser printer that prints a completely black page may be suffering from a nonfunctioning fuser.
False. A completely black page results from the primary (charging) corona malfunctioning.
Why should you not use transparency film designed for an ink-jet printer in a laser printer?
Because the laser printer’s fuser will melt it.
What is the most common cause of small marks or defects in the same spot on every page of a laser printer’s printout?
A scratch on the drum
What is the difference between full and half duplexing?
Duplexing is the means by which communication takes place. With full duplexing, everyone can send and receive at the same time. With half duplexing, communications travel in both directions but in only one direction at any given time.
What is another name for a server-based network?
A server-based network is also known as a client/server network.
What is the difference between baseband and broadband?
With baseband, the entire medium’s capacity is used for one signal. The speed possibilities are thus increased because the entire channel is utilized. With broadband, the medium is used to carry multiple signals, but all unidirectionally.
Which layer of the OSI model takes data from the upper layers and prepares it for sending across the Physical layer?
The Data Link layer takes data from the upper layers and prepares it for sending across the Physical layer.
At which layers of the OSI model does a gateway operate?
A gateway operates at the top four layers: Application, Presentation, Session, and Transport.
What is the term for the rules that govern the communications between network hosts called?
A protocol is a set of rules that governs the communications between the hosts.
Which Microsoft protocol is compatible with IPX/SPX?
The NWLINK protocol, from Microsoft, is compatible with IPX/SPX—a proprietary protocol from Novell.
Which type of server translates host names to IP addresses?
A Domain Name Service (DNS) server translates host names to IP addresses.
What is the default subnet value for a host with a Class B address?
The default subnet value for a host with a Class B address is 255.255.0.0.
What is BlueTooth?
BlueTooth is an infrared wireless standard that uses light rather than radio waves.
What is physical security?
Physical security is primarily concerned with the loss or theft of physical assets. This would include theft, fire, and other acts that physically deny a service or information to the organization.
What does Kerberos use to authenticate a principal?
Kerberos uses a Key Distribution Center to authenticate a principle. The KDC provides a credential that can be used by all Kerberos-enabled servers and applications.
Which authentication method sends a challenge to the client that is encrypted and then sent back to the server?
Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP) sends a challenge to the originating client. This challenge is sent back to the server, and the encryption results are compared. If the challenge is successful, the client is logged on.
Which type of authentication method uses more than one authentication process for a logon?
A multifactor authentication process uses two or more processes for logon. A two-factor method might use smart cards and biometrics for logon.
What type of technology relies on a physical characteristic of the user to verify identity?
Biometric technologies rely on a physical characteristic of the user to verify identity. Biometric devices typically use either a hand pattern or a retinal scan to accomplish this.
In which type of attack does someone try to con your organization into revealing account and password information?
Someone trying to con your organization into revealing account and password information is launching a social-engineering attack.
What type of malicious code attempts to replicate using whatever means are available?
A worm is a type of malicious code that attempts to replicate using whatever means are available.
Which type of malware enters the system along with a legitimate program?
A Trojan horse enters with a legitimate program to accomplish its evil deeds.
What could be one cause of unusual activity on the system disk when no user is accessing the system?
A symptom of many viruses is unusual activity on the system disk. This is caused by the virus spreading to other files on your system.
What do packet filters prevent?
Packet filters prevent unauthorized packets from entering or leaving a network. Packet filters are a type of firewall that block specified port traffic.
From which government agency can you find Material Safety Data Sheets?
The EPA (Environmental Protection Agency) keeps a copy of Material Safety Data Sheets.
What is the environmentally unfriendly part of laser printers?
Toner. You must be careful not to spill it and to send used cartridges to recycling centers.
True or false: An ESD strap should connect to the ground of an electrical outlet.
True. An ESD strap should connect to the ground of an electrical outlet.
What is the danger to humans when disassembling and working on a monitor?
A high-voltage capacitor inside the monitor retains a charge even long after the monitor has been unplugged.
What type of fire extinguisher is appropriate for electrical fires?
Class C.
True or false: ESD occurs when two objects of unequal electrical charge touch, with the object of higher charge passing some of its voltage to the object of lower charge.
True.
Given that static electricity can exceed 10,000 volts, why does it not electrocute you?
Low current (amps).
As room humidity goes up, what happens to the potential for ESD damage?
It decreases.
True or false: A CRT should not be thrown in a landfill because it contains lead and nickel.
False. A CRT is not landfill-safe, but not because of nickel or lead. Instead, it’s due to the phosphors on the glass and the CRT’s large size and hollow center.
What is the name of the document that contains information about handling and disposal of a potentially hazardous item?
Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS).
A customer is trying to explain a problem to you when you arrive on site, but you cannot understand their dialect. What should you do?
You should see if another person can be found on site who is capable of helping with the translation. They will likely be familiar with the user and know about the issues they are discussing.
A customer becomes physically abusive by pushing you. What should you do?
You should try to calm the individual and explain that their anger isn’t helping the situation. If you cannot calm them down and create a secure environment, you should leave the premises.
A customer tells you that they are really glad to see you and not Tony—the tech they had last time, whom they describe as a real jerk. How should you respond?
You should thank the person for their confidence and support and then ask to see the system in question. Do not join in the discussion of the other co-worker or give them reason to later quote you in any discussion of this individual or their abilities.
A user in the next department has been on the phone with you for 30 minutes describing their desktop problem. No matter how many times you explain it to them, they do not understand what you are saying. What should you do?
Given the close proximity of the user in question, you should visit their machine and solve the problem from there. Not only is it easier to solve the issue when you are sitting at the machine, but it will save time as well.
A customer complains that the printer on system A no longer prints after you were there working on system B. What should you do?
Ask questions about the connections/network between A and B. Ask about the similarities and differences between the two. It will serve no purpose for you to become defensive. Once you have collected information, you can approach troubleshooting the problem as you would any other.
While troubleshooting a customer’s LAN, you determine the server must be rebooted. This will affect over a dozen current users. What should you do?
A message should be sent to all users notifying them that the system will be going down and giving an estimate of how long the users will be affected. The estimate should include time to address any other issues that you fear may crop up.
A customer complains that he cannot print to the workgroup laser printer. What should be the first question you ask?
One of the first questions you should ask the user is if they have ever printed to that printer. This can then be followed up with questions as to how recently they did so and what has changed since then.
A customer states that they may need to reach you quickly for troubleshooting a mission-critical application, and asks for your pager number. What should you do?
You should adhere to policies of the company you work for on this matter. Some companies do not mind customers having the pager number for a technician, whereas others want all calls to come to a central location so the calls can be processed more efficiently. Whichever situation applies, you should carefully explain it to your customer and let them know the rules of response time, escalation, and other issues.
Which act gives law enforcement the right to gain access to encryption keys and cryptography methods?
The Cyberspace Electronic Security Act (CESA) gives law enforcement the right to gain access to encryption keys and cryptography methods.
Which act gives the United States government extreme latitude in pursuing criminals who commit terrorist acts?
The Uniting and Strengthening America by Providing Appropriate Tools Required to Intercept and Obstruct Terrorism (USA PATRIOT) Act of 2001 gives the United States government extreme latitude in pursuing criminals who commit terrorist acts. The definition of a terrorist act is broad.
What are the two commands for invoking the help system from the command line?
help CommandName
CommandName ./?
What is the command for invoking a text editor from the command line?
edit FileName
What is the command for suppressing the display of commands in a batch file?
@echo off
What is the correct sequence for the Electrophotographic (EP) print process?

A. cleaning, charging, writing, developing, transferring, fusing
B. developing, charging, cleaning, fusing, writing, transferring
C. developing, writing, transferring, fusing, charging, cleaning
A. cleaning, charging, writing, developing, transferring, fusing
Which ends of a SCSI bus need to be terminated?

A. Both ends
B. The front end
C. The end of the chain
A. Both ends
How many characters does a MAC address contain?

A. 12
B. 16
C. 21
D. 32
A. 12
What memory type and method is characterized below?

Divides memory into multiple sections for CPU access and reduces the delay involved for the wait states. Slowers memory may use this technology to "catch up".

A. ECC
B. EDO
C. ATA
D. Memory Interleaving
D. Memory Interleaving
The Intel Xeon processor primarily uses which processor form factor?

A. PPGA
B. PGA
C. SEP
B. PGA
When you add more cycles to a CPU clock in order to run cheaper CPU's faster than the manufacturer designed them to run, you are doing what?

A. Setspeeding
B. Throttling
C. Hyperthreading
D. CPU Overrunning
E. Overclocking
E. Overclocking
Regarding memory addresses, what does a device driver do to help out the CPU?

A. It tells the CPU which memory block to put aside for the exclusive use of the device.
B. It tells the CPU if the device is performing an action.
A. It tells the CPU which memory block to put aside for the exclusive use of the device.
Which motherboard socket type is used for Pentium 3 processors?

A. Socket 423
B. Slot 1
C. Socket A
D. Socket 478
E. Slot A
B. Slot 1
Which motherboard socket type is used for AMD Athlon processors?

A. Socket 423
B. Slot 1
C. Socket A
D. Socket 478
E. Slot A
E. Slot A
Which is the mostly widely used communications protocol?

A. IPX/SPX
B. TCP/IP
C. NetBEUI
B. TCP/IP
Ragarding RAID, disk duplexing requires 2 disks and _______ controllers>

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
B. 2
INtel Celeron, Pentium 3 (with 370 pins) and the Pentium 4 (478 pins) use which processor form factor?

A. Socket 423
B. Slot 1
C. Socket A
D. PC-PGA2
E. Slot A
D. PC-PGA2
Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for providing reliable end to end communications?

A. Application layer
B. Presentation layer
C. Session layer
D. Transport layer
D. Transport layer
Which category of the IEEE standard describes Token Ring?

A. IEEE 802.4
B. IEEE 802.3
C. IEEE 802.4
D. IEEE 802.5
D. IEEE 802.5
Parity is:
A. Error checking
B. Error creating
C. Error recovery
D. Error discovery
A. Error checking
If two devices are set to the same DMA channel, will they work?

A. Yes
B. No
B. No
Of the two types of cache memory, which is off-chip?

A. L1
B. L2
B. L2
On heavily used computers, how often should you run the defragmenter?

A. At least once a day
B. At least once a week
C. At least once a month
D. At least once a year
B. At least once a week
What is the maximum single file size on a FAT32 file system?

A. 2 GB
B. 4 GB
C. 12 GB
D. 16 GB
E. 32 GB
B. 4 GB
What best described bus mastering?

A. Allows the CPU to send a signal to a particular I/O address
B. Device bypasses CPU to write directly to memory
C. Enables a device to write directly to another device
C. Enables a device to write directly to another device
Which system management tool can be used to view installed hardware device drivers and check for driver problems?

A. Device manager
B. Task manager
C. Msconfig.exe
A. Device manager
What is the standard speed of the PCI bus?

A. 11 MHz
B. 33 MHz
C. 66 MHz
What is the standard speed of the PCI bus?

A. 11 MHz
B. 33 MHz
C. 66 MHz
A technician wants to install a sound card into a PC. The sound card is not plug-and-play–compliant. What two settings will the technician need to configure?

A. MIDI
B. IRQ
C. IP address
D. MAC address
E. I/O address
B and E. A legacy sound card requires its resources to be set manually. This includes the IRQ, the I/O address, the DMA, and most likely the MIDI port address.
How many USB devices can be daisy chained?

A. 127
B. 63
C. 31
D. 15
E. 4
A. 127
USB devices can be connected together, in theory. The true amount depends on the specific devices being connected. Some devices will require more or less bandwidth than others, so the actual number may vary.
Plenum-grade cable is used in drop ceiling because _______________.


A. Standard cable contains PVC
B. UTP cables are more prone to EMI
C. Plenums cause attenuation
D. UTP cables are prone to ESD
A. Standard cable contains PVC
Plenum-grade cable does not contain PVC, or Polyvinyl Chloride. The PVC can emit poisonous fumes in the event of a fire.
A technician powers on a computer but there is no beep at startup. What is the most likely problem?

A. Power supply is bad
B. Floppy drive is bad
C. Controller card is bad
D. System board failure
E. There is no problem; no beep should happen at startup
A. Power supply is bad
A terminator does what in a SCSI chain?

A. Allows each device to have a unique ID
B. Allows each device to have its own channel
C. Allows each device to speak independently of the other devices
D. Allows the signal to stay on the SCSI bus
D. Allows the signal to stay on the SCSI bus
A SCSI chain is terminated so that the signal will end down the SCSI chain. This allows the PC to communicate with each device by sending a signal through the SCSI chain for a device with a specific SCSI ID.
What component within a printer charges the paper so that the toner will be attracted to the printing area?

A. Laser
B. Print drum
C. Transfer corona wire
D. Fuser
E. Feed rollers
C. Transfer corona wire
The transfer corona wire charges the paper with a positive charge. The toner on the print drum has been charged with a negative charge. The toner is then attracted to the positive paper in the shape of the images being printed. As the paper moves through the printer, it passes over the static eliminator strip, which removes the charges from the paper and toner. This step prevents the paper from being attracted to the print drum and thus jamming in the printer.
What type of connection does CAT5 UTP cable use?

A. RJ-11
B. RJ-24
C. RJ-45
D. RJ-AU
C. RJ-45
What is significant about token ring networks?

A. No hub is required.
B. There is an unlimited number of clients per ring.
C. Each client speaks only when the token is passed to them.
D. A client passes its messages through a token.
E. The network isn't really a ring, but a square.
C. Each client speaks only when the token is passed to them.
A token ring network is a network in a logical ring. Each client speaks only when the token is passed to it. Each client has an equal amount of time to speak on the network.
What address is the loopback host?

A. 127.0.0.0
B. 127.0.0.1
C. 192.168.127.1
D. 255.255.255.255
E. 255.0.0.1
B. 127.0.0.1
When combining shared permissions with NTFS permissions, what security method will be enforced when accessing the resource on the network?

A. The share permission only
B. The NTFS permission only
C. The more restrictive of the two
D. The less restrictive of the two
C. The more restrictive of the two
What protocol is not routable?

A. TCP/IP
B. IPX/SPX
C. NetBEUI
D. UDP
C. NetBEUI
Which operating system runs only on Apple Computers?

A. Windows
B. Macintosh
C. Linux
B. Macintosh
Which feature restores the computer to a previous state without losing data?

A. System restore
B. Stable operating system architecture
C. Scalable memory
A. System restore
Which options are application failure reduction features? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Two symmetric multiprocessors
B. Side-by-side DLLs
C. 4 GB RAM
D. Windows file protection and Windows installer
E. Internet Explorer Add-on Manager
B. Side-by-side DLLs
D. Windows file protection and Windows installer
E. Internet Explorer Add-on Manager
Identify the features of a smart card. (Choose all that apply.)

A. It allows single log-on to Windows 2000-based network resources.
B. It supports credit card-sized cards with an embedded microchip.
C. It can authenticate a user who is accessing a network.
D. It is used for secure and private communications over the Internet.
E. It is supported by the Windows XP Professional edition.
B. It supports credit card-sized cards with an embedded microchip.
C. It can authenticate a user who is accessing a network.
E. It is supported by the Windows XP Professional edition.
Which feature allows a client operating system to be installed from across the network?

A. Setup manager
B. Remote operating system installation
C. Multilingual support
B. Remote operating system installation
Which feature is used to recover from system failures? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Safe Mode startup options
B. MMC
C. Recovery console
A. Safe Mode startup options
C. Recovery console
Which feature enables users to configure their own network connections?

A. Network Setup Wizard
B. Home networking
C. Network bridge
A. Network Setup Wizard
Which option divides the hard disk into usable storage spaces?

A. Files
B. Folders
C. Directories
D. Partitions
D. Partitions
Which options are switches of the cmd command? (Choose all that apply.)

A. /e:nnnn
B. drive:path
C. /p
D. device
E. /c string
A. /e:nnnn
C. /p
E. /c string
Identify the correct order of the steps to be performed for creating a directory. (Choose all that apply.)

A. Type the name of the new folder and press Enter.
B. Click Start and point to All Programs, point to Accessories, and click Windows Explorer.
C. Select the required drive or folder and select a file.
D. Click the plus sign (+) next to a drive or folder.
E. Click File, point to New and click Folder.
A. Type the name of the new folder and press Enter.
C. Select the required drive or folder and select a file.
E. Click File, point to New and click Folder.
Which options are the attributes of files? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Read-only
B. Full control
C. Modify
D. System
E. Hidden
A. Read-only
D. System
E. Hidden
Which of the following options are the features of the Write folder permission? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Allows users to view the attributes assigned to the folder
B. Allows users to change the attributes assigned to the folder
C. Allows users to view the owner of the folder
D. Allows users to view the contents of the folder, its subfolder, and files
E. Allows users to create subfolders within the folder
B. Allows users to change the attributes assigned to the folder
C. Allows users to view the owner of the folder
E. Allows users to create subfolders within the folder
Which options are the features of Internet Explorer Add-on Manager? (Choos eall that apply.)

A. It either permits or disables the add-ons.
B. It allows multiple versions of individual Windows components to be installed.
C. It enhances security and reduces the potential for crashes.
D. It is supported by the Windows XP Professional edition.
E. It helps users install, upgrade, configure, and remove software programs correctly.
A. It either permits or disables the add-ons.
C. It enhances security and reduces the potential for crashes.
D. It is supported by the Windows XP Professional edition.
Which MS-DOS command is used to change the current directory?

A. dir
B. cd
C. md
D. rd
B. cd
Which options are the features of text files? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Files are usually in the ASCII format and can be read by humans.
B. Files can be read by using a text editor.
C. Files include data files.
D. Files can be read by your computer.
E. Files include program files.
A. Files are usually in the ASCII format and can be read by humans.
B. Files can be read by using a text editor.
C. Files include data files.
Which of the following options are the features of the Modify NTFS file permission? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Allows users to modify the file
B. Allows users to take ownership of the file
C. Allows users to delete the file
D. Allows users to complete tasks assigned with Read and Execute and Write file permissions
E. Allows users to change the file permissions
A. Allows users to modify the file
C. Allows users to delete the file
D. Allows users to complete tasks assigned with Read and Execute and Write file permissions
Which option is the function of the drive:path parameter of the dir command?

A. Lists the contents of the specified drive and directory
B. Lists the contents one screen at a time
C. Lists the contents in the wide format
D. Controls the order in which the command displays the result
A. Lists the contents of the specified drive and directory
Which option is the number of extension characters supported by the FAT16 file system?

A. 8.3
B. 0-3
C. 0-255
D. 256
B. 0-3
Which of the following options are file permissions? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Read-only
B. Full control
C. Modify
D. Read and execute
E. Hidden
B. Full control
C. Modify
D. Read and execute
Which MS-DOS command starts an instance of the MS-DOS command interpreter?

A. dir
B. cd
C. cmd
D. rd
C. cmd
Which versions of Windows support side-by-side DLL's?(Choose all that apply.)

A. Windows 3.1
B. Windows 95
C. Windows 98
D. Windows ME
E. Windows XP
F. Windows 2000
E. Windows XP
F. Windows 2000
Which edition of Windows XP is geared towards the business user?

A. Windows XP Media Center
B. Windows XP Home Edition
C. Windows XP Professional
C. Windows XP Professional
Which are the features of scalable memory and processor support? (Choose all that apply.)

A. It supports up to 4 GB of RAM.
B. It reduces the number of scenarios that force users to reboot.
C. Windows XP Professional and Windows 2000 Professional support it.
D. Windows XP Home Edition and Windows XP Media Center Edition support it.
E. It supports up to two symmetric multiprocessors.
A. It supports up to 4 GB of RAM.
C. Windows XP Professional and Windows 2000 Professional support it.
E. It supports up to two symmetric multiprocessors.
Which of the following options is a feature of EFS?

A. It manages various security resources with a single, unified GUI.
B. It controls information that is sent and received from outside the network.
C. It encrypts data to prevent unauthorized parties from changing or viewing it.
C. It encrypts data to prevent unauthorized parties from changing or viewing it.
Which tool is used to clone computer configurations, systems, and applications?

A. The system preparation tool
B. The dynamic updates tool
C. The Internet Explorer Administration Kit
A. The system preparation tool
Which feature protects the core system files from being overwritten during application installations?

A. Side-by-side DLLs
B. Windows file protection
C. Windows installer
B. Windows file protection
Which style or symbol indicates the use of optional parameters?

A. Bold
B. :
C. Italic
D. /
C. Italic