A And P Oral Airframe Flashcards

Front 1

What forms of wood, other than solid wood, are used in aircraft?

Back 1

laminated and plywood

Front 2

what is a laminated wood assembly?

Back 2

two or more layers glued together with the grain of all layers approximately parallel

Front 3

how is aircraft plywood constructed

Back 3

usually made of an odd number of thin pieces with the grain of each layer at an angle of 45 to 90 degrees to the adjacent ply.

Front 4

What species of wood is used as a standard for strength properties?

Back 4

Spruce.

Front 5

How would you inspect wood for rot?

Back 5

check for dark discoloration of the wood surface or gray stains along the grain.

Front 6

what are the approved types of glues used in aircraft wood structure repair?

Back 6

casein and resin or any glue approved by the manufacturer.

Front 7

what effect does room temperature have on gluing wood structures using resin glue?

Back 7

curing time as well as joint strength.

Front 8

when are mineral streaks acceptable?

Back 8

if inspection fails to reveal any decay.

Front 9

are hard knots acceptable?

Back 9

yes, within the limits of AC 43.13-1b pg 1-2

Front 10

why is compressed wood not acceptable?

Back 10

is not as strong as other woods.

Front 11

how do you inspect stressed plywood skin?

Back 11

visual inspection for delamination irregularities and ring test.

Front 12

why is a bushing in a wooden spar shorter than the spar thickness?

Back 12

to allow for shrinkage to insure proper seating of the fitting.

Front 13

what are the results of insufficient gluing pressure?

Back 13

thick glue lines and weak joint.

Front 14

what methods are used to apply pressure to wood glue joints?

Back 14

clamps, brads, nails, presses, screws

Front 15

what type of joint is generally used in splicing structural members?

Back 15

scarf joint.

Front 16

why does the strength of a beveled scarf joint depend on the accuracy of the scarf cut?

Back 16

the effective glue areas will be reduced if both glue ends are not the same bevel.

Front 17

how may plywood be prepared for bending?

Back 17

soak in hot water.

Front 18

what method will prevent a patch and a plywood pressure plate from adhering due to extruding glue from the patch?

Back 18

use wax paper between the patch and the pressure plate.

Front 19

what area of a wood spar may not be spliced?

Back 19

under a wing attachment, landing gear, engine mount and lift strut fittings.

Front 20

what is the maximum number of splices that should be made to any one spar?

Back 20

two

Front 21

why are large area washers used in wooden structures?

Back 21

to minimize compression damage.

Front 22

what is the minimum temperature for curing wood joints with resin glue?

Back 22

70 degrees f.

Front 23

what are the two types of fabric used for covering aircraft?

Back 23

organic and synthetic.

Front 24

what are organic fibers?

Back 24

cotton and linen.

Front 25

what are synthetic fibers?

Back 25

fiberglass and heat shrinkable fibers (nylon, orlon and dacron)

Front 26

what determines the strength requirements for a fabric covered aircraft?

Back 26

the manufacturer by the never to exceed speed and wing loading.

Front 27

what strength fabric should be used for recovering an aircraft?

Back 27

high grade aircraft textile at least as good a quality and equivalent strength as those originally used by the manufacturer.

Front 28

what is the purpose of reinforcing tape?

Back 28

it is used over ribs and between fabric rib stitching to prevent the stitching cord from cutting through the fabric.

Front 29

what is the fabric warp?

Back 29

the direction along the length of the fabric.

Front 30

what type of machine sewed stitches are used?

Back 30

french fell, folded fell and plain overlap.

Front 31

what should be done to structures that will be covered with doped fabric?

Back 31

dope proof with a protective coating of paint or tape.

Front 32

where is surface tape used?

Back 32

sewed seams, lapped edges, rib stitching and screws.

Front 33

what is the advantage of the envelope method of covering wings?

Back 33

practically all sewing is by machine.

Front 34

when are anti tear strips recommended?

Back 34

when the never to exceed speed is in excess of 250 mph.

Front 35

how are ventilation and drainage hole edges reinforced?

Back 35

plastic, aluminum or brass grommets.

Front 36

what methods are used to check doped fabric?

Back 36

a punch tester. when the results are marginal, a laboratory test is needed.

Front 37

what is the maximum permissible deterioration used for fabric aircraft?

Back 37

30% of original fabric strength.

Front 38

what type of fabric is not affected by moisture or mildew?

Back 38

fiberglass.

Front 39

what is the fabric selvage edge?

Back 39

an edge of cloth woven to prevent raveling.

Front 40

what rib stitching spacing is used when the original spacing is unknown?

Back 40

use chart in ac 43.13-1b

Front 41

what is a tie off knot?

Back 41

a standard modified seine knot used on all stitches other than the starting knot.

Front 42

inw hat direction is the warp and selvage edge of aircraft fabric applied and what identification is usually found on the selvage edge?

Back 42

it is parallel to the line of flight and the TSO number is recorded on the selvage edge.

Front 43

what are the common types of paints used on aircraft?

Back 43

primers, enamels, lacquers and epoxies.

Front 44

what is used with zinc chromate primer it it is too thick and needs to be thinned?

Back 44

toulene

Front 45

what are two types of dope used on aircraft?

Back 45

nitrate and butyrate.

Front 46

why should dope not be used over paint or enamel?

Back 46

because it tends to remove the paint or enamel.

Front 47

what happens to pain finishes if excess drier is added to the paint?

Back 47

the results will be a brittle film causing cracking and peeling.

Front 48

what is the purpose of zinc chromate primer?

Back 48

serves as a corrosion resistant covering and base coat for protective topcoats.

Front 49

what is the advantage of using butyrate dope instead of nitrate dope from a safety point of view?

Back 49

less flammable.

Front 50

when spraying acrylic lacquer, what health safety precaution should the mechanic observe?

Back 50

use an approved respirator.

Front 51

what are three methods of applying paint?

Back 51

dipping, spraying and brushing.

Front 52

what type of paint may be used over epoxy topcoats?

Back 52

any paint system in good condition.

Front 53

what is the cause for spray painting dust?

Back 53

incorrect air pressure or distance of gun from work.

Front 54

what may cause spray paint sags and runs?

Back 54

too much paint being applied or inadequate surface preparation.

Front 55

what causes "orange peel" spray finish?

Back 55

incorrect paint viscosity, air pressure, gun setting or distance of the gun from the work.

Front 56

what is a blushing paint finish?

Back 56

clouding or light spots on the surface.

Front 57

what will cause a blushing paint finish?

Back 57

moisture in the air supply, adverse humidity or changes in temperature.

Front 58

what would be the result of applying a coat of dope when the temperature of the dope room is too high?

Back 58

pinholes in the dope film.

Front 59

what areas must be protected from damage when using paint remover/stripper?

Back 59

synthetic rubber products, composites, fabrics, acrylics and bonded surfaces.

Front 60

what is the reason for paint touchup, other than appearance?

Back 60

helps to eliminate general corrosion problems.

Front 61

how can a mechanic determine if the control surfaces need to be checked for balance after painting?

Back 61

check manufacturers service manual and/or check with the manufacturer.

Front 62

what size and location standards must be used for an aircraft registration marking?

Back 62

as prescribed by far 45.

Front 63

what is done with the rivet head stem when a self plugging (friction lock) rivet is installed?

Back 63

pulled until snapped and trimmed flush with the head.

Front 64

give an example of a self plugging mechanical lock rivet.

Back 64

cherry lock or huck.

Front 65

what type of tools are required to install cherrylock rivets?

Back 65

hand or power tools equipped with mechanical pulling head.

Front 66

describe correct dimensions on a properly upset rivet.

Back 66

1 1/2 diameter wide, 1/2 diameter tall.

Front 67

what is bonded honeycomb construction?

Back 67

laminar constructed combination alternating dissimilar materials (two metal facings bonded on each side of a core).

Front 68

what materials are used in honeycomb construction?

Back 68

stainless steel, titanium, magnesium, plywood, glass, nylon and cotton cloth.

Front 69

what may cause delamination of honeycomb construction?

Back 69

some vibration, liquid leakage, internal condensation and manufacturer mistakes.

Front 70

what is a potting compound used for in bonded honeycomb repair?

Back 70

hole filling.

Front 71

what is done to the damaged area in a bonded honeycomb?

Back 71

the damaged area must be removed.

Front 72

what will cause crazing in transparent plastic panels/windshields?

Back 72

stress, improper handling and harmful solvents.

Front 73

what procedure should be used when drilling plexiglass, to prevent damage to the hole as the drill point breaks through the underside?

Back 73

backup with wood and feed slowly.

Front 74

what should be done to twist drills that are to be used for drilling completely through fiberglass?

Back 74

modified to a 60 degree tip angle, cutting angle to a zero rake and increase the back lip 12 to 15 degrees.

Front 75

what calculation must be made when bending sheet metal?

Back 75

bend allowance.

Front 76

what must be done when two bends intersect?

Back 76

relief holes are drilled at the intersecting point.

Front 77

what type of weathering damage may be found on metal aircraft?

Back 77

corrosion.

Front 78

what methods are used when forming sheet metal?

Back 78

shrinking, stretching, bending, crimping and folding.

Front 79

what factors are used to determine setback?

Back 79

radius of the bend and thickness of the material.

Front 80

what is the purpose of lightening holes cut in rib sections.

Back 80

reduce weight.

Front 81

what is a joggle?

Back 81

an offset formed on an angle strip to allow clearance for a sheet or extrusion.

Front 82

determine total length of a solid rivet for installation.

Back 82

1 1/2 diameter greater than the total thickness of material to be joined.

Front 83

how do you determine the proper material to be used for a repair?

Back 83

manufacturers current data/service manual. if not covered by manufacturers current data, use 43.13-1b

Front 84

what is the spacing and edge distance for protruding head rivets?

Back 84

edge distance is two times the diameter and spacing is three times the diameter.

Front 85

describe rivet head markings for a, b, d, ad and dd rivets.

Back 85

a - plain (1100) b - cross (5056) d - raised dot (2017) ad - dimple (2117) and dd - double dash (2024)

Front 86

why dimple for flush rivets instead of counter sink?

Back 86

depends on the thickness of the sheet.

Front 87

what kind of loads are rivets designed to withstand?

Back 87

shear.

Front 88

describe criteria for replacement of a 2024 rivet with a 2117 rivet.

Back 88

for 5/32 or less diameter, use next size rivet, assuming spacing and edge distance meet minimum requirements.

Front 89

what happens to magnesium if the flux is not removed after welding?

Back 89

severe corrosion will occur.

Front 90

magnesium is limited to what type of joint weld?

Back 90

butt welds.

Front 91

what must be done in the weld zone to successfully weld titanium?

Back 91

the weld zone must be shielded with an inert gas.

Front 92

why is it necessary to use flux in all silver soldering?

Back 92

to have the base metal chemically clean without the slightest film of oxide.

Front 93

what type of flame is used for silver soldering?

Back 93

oxyacetylene flame should be neutral.

Front 94

what type of repair could be made for a dented steel tube cluster joint?

Back 94

weld a formed steel patch plate over the dented area.

Front 95

what method can be used to insert a tight fitting inner sleeve into a tubular repair?

Back 95

cool the sleeve with dry ice.

Front 96

what are three general types of welding?

Back 96

gas, electric arc and electric resistance.

Front 97

how is a soft flame obtained without reducing thermal output?

Back 97

using a larger tip and adjusting the gas pressure.

Front 98

what is the most desirable method to use when welding aluminum?

Back 98

heliarc (dc) welding.

Front 99

what valve should be turned off first when extinguishing a torch?

Back 99

the acetylene, to allow the gas tip to burn out.

Front 100

what procedure will control expansion when welding a joint?

Back 100

tack welding at intervals along the joint.

Front 101

what safety precaution should be taken when gas welding has been completed?

Back 101

turn off the valves and relieve all pressure.

Front 102

what must be done with heat-treated aluminum alloys that are weldable after a weldable repair has been made?

Back 102

it must be re-heat treated.

Front 103

what is the result of insufficient penetration?

Back 103

low strength weld.

Front 104

what type of welding causes less buckling and warping than gas welding?

Back 104

metallic arc-welding.

Front 105

what is gas-shielded arc welding?

Back 105

a gas is used as a shield around the arc to prevent the atmosphere from contaminating the weld.

Front 106

what are the advantages of gas-shielded arc welding?

Back 106

stronger, more ductile and more corrosion resistant.

Front 107

what does the size of the torch tip opening determine?

Back 107

the amount of heat, not the temperature.

Front 108

what is a servo trim tab?

Back 108

an auxiliary control positioned by movement of cockpit controls and aids in moving control surfaces.

Front 109

what is a balance trim tab?

Back 109

an auxiliary control positioned by fixed linkage in opposite direction of control surface and aids in control surface movement.

Front 110

what is a spring tab?

Back 110

an auxiliary control that aids in moving the primary control surface by keeping direct proportion of deflection to the aerodynamic load imposed on the surface.

Front 111

name several high lift devices.

Back 111

leading edge flaps, slots, slats and trailing edge flaps.

Front 112

what are three mechanical methods used to actuate flight control systems?

Back 112

cable, push-pull rods and torque tube.

Front 113

what is the purpose of a rotorcraft cyclic pitch control?

Back 113

changes the pitch of each main rotor blade during a cycle of rotation.

Front 114

what is the purpose of the rotorcraft collective pitch control?

Back 114

varies the lift of the main rotor(s) blade(s) simultaneously.

Front 115

what unit compensates for helicopter main rotor torques?

Back 115

auxiliary or tail rotor.

Front 116

what control a helicopter tail rotor?

Back 116

anti-torque pedals.

Front 117

what flight control surfaces are considered the primary group?

Back 117

ailerons, elevators and rudders.

Front 118

what is considered the secondary flight control group?

Back 118

trim tabs and spring tabs.

Front 119

what flight controls are included in the auxiliary group?

Back 119

wing flap, spoilers, speed brakes, leading edge flaps and slots.

Front 120

what are the three axes of an aircraft?

Back 120

vertical, longitudinal and lateral.

Front 121

where does breakage of control cables occur most frequently?

Back 121

where cables pass over pulleys and through fairleads.

Front 122

what items must be known when measuring flight control cable tension?

Back 122

desired tension and temperature.

Front 123

what are cable tension regulators?

Back 123

a mechanical device that automatically maintains cable tension.

Front 124

what is a cable fairlead?

Back 124

cable guide.

Front 125

what is the purpose of vortex generators?

Back 125

boundary layer air control.

Front 126

why are control surfaces locked when an aircraft is parked?

Back 126

prevent wind damage to controls.

Front 127

what tools are used to check control surface travel?

Back 127

propeller protractor, ruler, templates, rigging fixtures and special tools.

Front 128

in accordance with far 65.85 and 65.87, what type of inspection may a certificated airframe and powerplant mechanic sign off?

Back 128

100 hour inspection.

Front 129

when may a mechanic perform an annual inspection?

Back 129

when the mechanic holds an inspection authorization.

Front 130

when must an annual inspection be performed, if required for a particular aircraft?

Back 130

within the preceding 12 calendar months.

Front 131

what may be used as a checklist for 100 hour inspection?

Back 131

any checklist which meets the minimum standard of far 43 appendix d.

Front 132

where is a list of information that is required for aircraft records after completion of a 100 hour inspection?

Back 132

far 43 and far 91.

Front 133

who may approve for return to service a progressive inspection phase check?

Back 133

certificated a and p mechanic, certificated repair station or the aircraft manufacturer.

Front 134

when is a 100 hour inspection required on aircraft operating under far 91 (general operating rules)?

Back 134

aircraft carrying persons for hire or aircraft used for flight instruction for hire.

Front 135

when is the first 100 hour inspection due after discontinuance of a progressive program?

Back 135

100 hours after the last complete inspection of the progressive program.

Front 136

does an aircraft under a progressive inspection program need a 100 hour inspection if the airplane is used for flight instruction for hire?

Back 136

no.

Front 137

what are the privileges and limitations of a mechanic with regards to propellers?

Back 137

minor repairs and minor alterations and inspections.

Front 138

what kind of charge is used to inflate a landing gear shock strut?

Back 138

dry air or nitrogen.

Front 139

what regular inspection should be made of the exposed portion of a landing gear strut?

Back 139

clean and inspected for damage and proper extension.

Front 140

what is the purpose of landing gear torque links?

Back 140

keep the landing gear pointed in a straight ahead direction.

Front 141

what power sources are normally used to retract landing gear systems?

Back 141

hydraulic and electrical.

Front 142

what type of nosewheel steering is provided on small aircraft?

Back 142

simple system of mechanical linkage hooked to the rudder pedals.

Front 143

what unit prevents nosewheel vibration?

Back 143

shimmy damper through hydraulic action.

Front 144

what are some types of brake systems?

Back 144

independent, power boost, power control.

Front 145

what is the purpose of power brake debooster cylinders?

Back 145

reduce the pressure to the brake and increase the volume of fluid flow.

Front 146

wha must be accomplished before inspecting a wheel and brake system for hydraulic leaks?

Back 146

pressurize the system.

Front 147

what prevents a split wheel from leaking air through the inner and outer mating surfaces or the wheel assembly?

Back 147

a rubber packing between the two assemblies.

Front 148

what is the most necessary maintenance function for safe, long aircraft tire service?

Back 148

proper inflation.

Front 149

what are the effects on tires if under inflated?

Back 149

rapid or uneven wear near the edge of tread and creep or slip when the brakes are applied.

Front 150

when should a landing gear retraction check be accomplished?

Back 150

during an annual inspection (or other inspection), when landing gear components have been replaced, and after hard landings.

Front 151

what is the indication of excessive heating of a wheel bearing?

Back 151

discoloration.

Front 152

what is the purpose of antiskid system?

Back 152

bring a fast moving aircraft to a stop during ground roll without tires skidding.

Front 153

what is the purpose of a wheel fusible plug?

Back 153

relieve air pressure to prevent tire blowout.

Front 154

what are some methods of bleeding brakes?

Back 154

gravity and pressure.

Front 155

how is the braking load transmitted from the wheel to the rotating disk?

Back 155

by slots and keys.

Front 156

what methods are used for steering large aircraft?

Back 156

mechanical, electrical and hydraulic.

Front 157

what prevents a nose landing gear from being retracted with the nosewheel out of the center position?

Back 157

nosewheel centering internal cams or external track.

Front 158

what are three types of hydraulic fluids?

Back 158

vegetable, mineral and phosphate ester base fluids.

Front 159

what color is mineral base hydraulic fluid?

Back 159

red

Front 160

what happens to plastic resins, vinyl, lacquers and oil base paints if exposed to phosphate eater based hydraulic fluid such as 'skydrol'?

Back 160

the material will be damaged, softened and/or peeled.

Front 161

what feature is built into a hydraulic pump-drive system to prevent damage in the event of a pump seizure or overload?

Back 161

a shear section in the pump-drive shaft.

Front 162

what precautions should be taken to minimize contamination during replacement of a hydraulic unit?

Back 162

All lines should be plugged or capped after disconnecting and cleaned before assembly.

Front 163

what would cause a hydraulic filter to go into open bypass, allowing unfiltered fluid into the system?

Back 163

a clogged filter.

Front 164

what are the sources of hydraulic pressure in an aircraft?

Back 164

hand pumps, engine driven pumps, electrically driven pumps.

Front 165

what are methods of pressurizing a hydraulic reservoir?

Back 165

cabin pressurization, turbine compressor, aspiratior and venturi-tee.

Front 166

how is a gear type pump operated?

Back 166

two meshed gears that revolved in a housing are driven by a power unit. fluid is trapped and pressurized as the gears turn.

Front 167

what are the types of engine driven hydraulic pumps?

Back 167

constant-delivery and variable-delivery

Front 168

what is the purpose of a pressure relief valve?

Back 168

to limit the amount of pressure, thereby preventing failure of the system components.

Front 169

what is the purpose of a pressure regulator?

Back 169

to manage the output of the pump.

Front 170

what is used in some hydraulic systems to supplement the power pump when several units are operated at the same time?

Back 170

accumulator.

Front 171

what are the types of accumulators?

Back 171

diaphragm, bladder and piston.

Front 172

for what purpose are pneumatic systems used in some aircraft?

Back 172

to operate brakes, doors, drive pumps and engine starting.

Front 173

what are sources of pneumatic power?

Back 173

storage bottles, vane type pumps and turbine engine compressors.

Front 174

what happens to excessive pressure in a pneumatic pressure system?

Back 174

relief valve will bleed to the atmosphere.

Front 175

What is the purpose of restrictors that are used in aircraft pneumatic systems?

Back 175

to control the rate of airflow.

Front 176

why should a pneumatic system be purged periodically?

Back 176

to remove contamination and moisture.

Front 177

what must be accomplished with any accumulator prior to disassembling?

Back 177

make sure air or preload has been discharged.

Front 178

what are the two groups of independent cabin compressors?

Back 178

positive displacement and centrifugal.

Front 179

what is the principal control of a pressurization system?

Back 179

outflow valve.

Front 180

what method is used by some turbine powered aircraft for pressurization?

Back 180

bleed air from the turbine engine compressor section.

Front 181

what is a roots blower?

Back 181

engine driven compressor based on the intake of a predetermined volume of air that is compressed and delivered to the cabin duct.

Front 182

what pressurization control unit will change the position of an outflow valve?

Back 182

the cabin pressure controller.

Front 183

what are three methods of supplying heat when "heat of compression" is not sufficient for cabin air conditioning?

Back 183

gasoline combustion heater, electric heater, and exhaust gas air-to-air heat exchanger.

Front 184

what is the function of ventilating air in a combustion heater?

Back 184

a blower, ram air or cabin compressor.

Front 185

what components are used in an air cycle cooling system?

Back 185

expansion turbine, air-to-air heat exchanger and various valves.

Front 186

what causes a temperature drop in an air cycle cooling system?

Back 186

the compressed air performs the work of turning a turbine.

Front 187

how does a water serparator remove moisture from the air?

Back 187

the air passes through vanes that swirl the air and droplets are collected and drained.

Front 188

what is vapor cycle cooling?

Back 188

freon cooling.

Front 189

what components are in a vapor cycle cooling system?

Back 189

evaporator, compressor, condenser and expansion valve.

Front 190

what is a continuous-flow oxygen system?

Back 190

oxygen will flow from a charged cylinder through a high-pressure line to a reducing valve and to mask outlets.

Front 191

what is a pressure demand oxygen system?

Back 191

oxygen will fill from a charged cylinder on demand of the user.

Front 192

what must be accomplished to an oxygen system if it has been open to atmosphere for 2 hours or more?

Back 192

purged to remove moisture.

Front 193

what is used to purge oxygen lines of moisture?

Back 193

dry nitrogen, dry air or oxygen.

Front 194

what type of oxygen must be used in aircraft?

Back 194

Aviators breathing oxygen

Front 195

why is oil added to a vapor cycle freon system?

Back 195

to provide lubrication and prevent compressor failure.

Front 196

what safety precautions should be observed when servicing oxygen systems?

Back 196

oil free tools, clothing hands and adequate eye protection.

Front 197

what are sources of ventilating air in a combustion heater?

Back 197

a blower, ram air or cabin compressor.

Front 198

what is used as a guide for range marking instruments?

Back 198

aircraft specifications or type certificate data sheets and flight manual.

Front 199

what does a yellow arc on an instrument dial indicate?

Back 199

caution.

Front 200

who can apply range marking to the instrument dial face?

Back 200

certificated instrument repair stations.

Front 201

why are slippage marks used on instrument dial face?

Back 201

to indicate loose glass.

Front 202

when are range markings placed on an instrument glass and what precaution must be taken?

Back 202

the glass must be marked for slippage indication.

Front 203

what can be used to static check a manifold pressure indicator?

Back 203

current atmospheric pressure.

Front 204

what other instruments may be used to check manifold pressure indicator for correct indication?

Back 204

a sensitive altimeter or barometer.

Front 205

what indication errors may be found in altimeters?

Back 205

scale, hysteresis and installation.

Front 206

what flight indication errors are usually connected to a pitot static system?

Back 206

rate of climb, airspeed and altimeter.

Front 207

why is it undesirable to clear obstructions from pitot static holes with a tool?

Back 207

the holes are aerodynamically critical.

Front 208

what is required for replacement of components connected to a pitot static system?

Back 208

a leak test.

Front 209

what methods are used to drive a turn and bank indicator?

Back 209

air pressure (positive and negative) and electricity.

Front 210

what causes and electric-driven gyro rotor to tilt when the aircraft is turned?

Back 210

gyroscopic procession.

Front 211

what is a synchro-type remote indicating system?

Back 211

transmits information from one point to another point (flap position).

Front 212

what does a capacitor-type fuel quantity system accurately determine?

Back 212

weight of fuel in the tanks.

Front 213

what does a tachometer indicate?

Back 213

crankshaft or main turbine rotor speed.

Front 214

where does an electrical resistance temperature indicator receive a signal from?

Back 214

from a heat sensitive element or bulb.

Front 215

what type of indicating system is a turbine-engine exhaust gas temperature system?

Back 215

thermocouple.

Front 216

what is the meaning of "swinging" a compass?

Back 216

adjusting the n - s and e - w magnets.

Front 217

what should be looked for during an inspection of a magnetic compass?

Back 217

the bowl should be filled with liquid and should not contain any bubbles or discolorations.

Front 218

what precautions should be taken regarding hardware used for installation of a magnetic compass or nearby instruments?

Back 218

use non-magnetic hardware.

Front 219

what are three basic autopilot components?

Back 219

gyros, servos and an amplifier.

Front 220

what are the sensing elements of an autopilot system?

Back 220

direction gyro, turn and bank gyro, attitude gyro and altitude control.

Front 221

what are the actuating elements of an autopilot system?

Back 221

microphone, transmitter, transmitting antenna, receiving antenna, receiver and handset.

Front 222

what is the most common communication system in use?

Back 222

very high frequency (vhf).

Front 223

how often does the atc transponder require certification?

Back 223

every 24 calender months.

Front 224

what are the components of a typical airborne VOR system?

Back 224

receiver, visual indicator, frequency selector, antennas and power supply.

Front 225

what are two antennas usually required for an ILS system?

Back 225

vertical guidance for correct angle of descent.

Front 226

when may an ELT legally be checked for operation?

Back 226

during the first 5 minutes of the hour.

Front 227

what is a DME?

Back 227

distance measuring equipment.

Front 228

what is VOR equipment used for?

Back 228

navigation.

Front 229

where should a DME antenna be located?

Back 229

on the lower surface of the aircraft in a position that will not be blanked by the wings in a bank.

Front 230

what is an ADF?

Back 230

automatic direction finder.

Front 231

what type of antennas do most transponders have?

Back 231

short stub usually mounted on the lower surface of the fuselage.

Front 232

what powers an emergency locater transmitter?

Back 232

self-contained battery.

Front 233

what method is used to monitor the output signal during an ELT test?

Back 233

use vhf communications receiver tuned to 121.5 MHz.

Front 234

how may the determination be made to replace the battery in an ELT even though the set operates?

Back 234

the replacement date is marked on the outside of the transmitter.h

Front 235

how should coaxial cable be routed from an antenna to a receiver?

Back 235

secured every 2 feet, not routed with other wire bundles and at least ten times the cable diameter.

Front 236

what is the purpose of a radio shock mount bonding jumper?

Back 236

to provide a low-impedance ground return.

Front 237

what are the components of a communication system?

Back 237

mic, transmitter, transmitting antenna, receiving antenna, receiver and handset.

Front 238

what information does a glideslope radio bean provide?

Back 238

vertical guidance for correct angle of descent.

Front 239

what is the purpose of a fuel dump system?

Back 239

reduce the weight of the aircraft to a specified landing weight.

Front 240

when would the fuel jettison system be required?

Back 240

when the maximum takeoff weight exceeds the maximum landing weight.

Front 241

what purpose other than reducing weight is accomplished with a fuel jettison system?

Back 241

lateral stability may be obtained with a heavy wing aircraft due to fuel out of balance.

Front 242

what are the two types of fuel tanks?

Back 242

bladder and intergral.

Front 243

what supports the weight of the fuel in a bladder type fuel cell?

Back 243

the structure of the cavity that the cells fits into.

Front 244

what is a wet wing type construction?

Back 244

intergral fuel cell.

Front 245

what is the purpose of a fuel temperature indicator in a turbine powered aircraft?

Back 245

to determine when there may be a danger of ice crystals forming in the fuel.

Front 246

what is the purpose of a crossfeed system?

Back 246

an interconnected fuel system so that fuel can be fed from various tanks to any engine.

Front 247

what positions may be selected on a fuel tank selector valve?

Back 247

fuel tank positions, crossfeed and on or off.

Front 248

what is a drip gauge?

Back 248

an underwing bayonet type gauge.

Front 249

what is an electrically operated fuel tank shut off valve in-transit light?

Back 249

indicates when the valve is in motion.

Front 250

what is a pressure fueling system?

Back 250

underwing or single point fueling system.

Front 251

what are advantages of single point pressure fueling?

Back 251

reduces fueling time, eliminates aircraft skin damage and reduces chances of contamination.

Front 252

what should be done with old gaskets and seals when replacing fuel system components?

Back 252

remove and replace with new ones.

Front 253

what type of fuel system leak will not be visible by evidence of stains or wet spots?

Back 253

an internal fuel leak (shutoff valve, selector valve or crossfeed valve)

Front 254

what are four types of fuel quantity gauges in use today?

Back 254

sight glass, mechanical, electrical and electronic.

Front 255

why is an electronic type fuel quantity gauge more accurate than others?

Back 255

measure by weight instead of gallons.

Front 256

what is the purpose of fuel tank internal baffles?

Back 256

resist fuel surging caused by changes in attitude of aircraft.

Front 257

what method may be used to check a fuel tank for leaks after a patch or weld has been performed?

Back 257

air pressure up to 1/2 PSI and liquid soap to detect any leaks.

Front 258

why should you wait a period of time after fueling before checking fuel pumps?

Back 258

to allow time for water and sediments to settle to the drain point.

Front 259

what may be used to determine the size of an unmarks wire?

Back 259

a wire gauge.

Front 260

why should an electrical system be checked before a load increase?

Back 260

to determine that the wire, cable, or protection device limit will not be exceeded.

Front 261

what instruments are used to monitor electrical loads?

Back 261

ammeter and voltmeter.

Front 262

what is a "trip free" circuit breaker?

Back 262

it cannot be reset until the condition is corrected.

Front 263

when should a switch be derated from its normal rating?

Back 263

for high rush in circuits, inductive circuits and electrical motors.

Front 264

where is the white position/navigation light mounted?

Back 264

on the tail, always visible from the rear.

Front 265

what color is the left wingtip light?

Back 265

red.

Front 266

what factors are considered when selecting wire size for electrical power?

Back 266

allowable power loss, permissible voltage drop and current carrying ability.

Front 267

what type of electrical items may cause short time demand loads on an electrical system?

Back 267

landing gear motor, radio transmitter and flap motor.

Front 268

when do electrical motors draw several times their rated current?

Back 268

during start.

Front 269

how long should bonding jumper wires be?

Back 269

as short as practicibal.

Front 270

what hardware is used to make bonding or grounding connections to a structure of dissimilar materials?

Back 270

a washer of suitable material should be used so that corrosion will occur on the washer and not the part.

Front 271

what should be done to a conduit end when fittings are not used?

Back 271

flared to prevent wire insulation damage.

Front 272

what size electrical conduit should be used?

Back 272

twenty-five percent larger than the maximum diameter of the wire bundle.

Front 273

what three faults are associated with electrical system malfunctions?

Back 273

open circuits, shorted circuits and power.

Front 274

when is a circuit breaker designed to open?

Back 274

before the conductor emits smoke.

Front 275

what causes an AC electric motor to run slow?

Back 275

no lubrication, applied low voltage or wiring defects.

Front 276

what could cause an AC electric motor to run fast?

Back 276

excessive supply voltage or motor field windings shorted.

Front 277

what controls the output voltage of an alternator?

Back 277

the DC exciter.

Front 278

during trouble shooting, when is a continuity check made?

Back 278

when the power is off.

Front 279

how many terminal lugs can be put on a single terminal strip in an aircraft?

Back 279

four.

Front 280

how can a particular wire in a bundle be identified?

Back 280

ID code on the wire.

Front 281

where is a circuit breaker located in a circuit?

Back 281

as close to the power source as possible.

Front 282

what types of landing gear warnings are provided for retractable landing gear systems?

Back 282

an audible or visual device.

Front 283

when does an audible device operate in a landing gear warning system?

Back 283

when the throttle is retarded and the landing gear is not down and locked.

Front 284

what types of position indicators indicate landing gear down and locked?

Back 284

green lights and/or visual indicators.

Front 285

what is the purpose of a mach warning system?

Back 285

audible warning that aircraft speed

Front 286

how does a take off audible warning differ from a landing gear audible warning?

Back 286

audible tone of take off horn is intermittent.

Front 287

what items may cause a take off warning horn to operate in a typical transport jet aircraft?

Back 287

speed brakes, flaps, stabilizer and auxilliary power exhaust door.

Front 288

what does an anti-skid warning indicate?

Back 288

system failure or system is turned off.

Front 289

what is the indication of an anti-skid system automatically returning to a manual brake system?

Back 289

a warning light.

Front 290

when is the time to check landing gear switches, lights and warning horns or buzzers for proper operation?

Back 290

during a gear retraction check.

Front 291

what positions of retractable landing gear must be indicated?

Back 291

secure up and secured down.

Front 292

if an aircraft has only one indicator light, will the switches on the landing gear be connected in series or parallel with each other?

Back 292

series.

Front 293

where are the procedures located for checking and adjusting landing gear switches?

Back 293

aircraft manufacturers manual.

Front 294

what other aircraft system may activate the landing gear warning system?

Back 294

the flaps, when extended past the given number of degrees with the landing gear in the retracted position.

Front 295

what type of indication is usually provided for stall warning?

Back 295

audible and/or visual.

Front 296

what type of indications are used for cabin doors in the open and closed position?

Back 296

visual and warning lights.

Front 297

what is the reason for a master caution warning system in aircraft?

Back 297

to alert the crew of system operation or malfunction.

Front 298

what system is used to indicate battery over-temperature?

Back 298

warning lights or temperature indicator.

Front 299

what is the purpose of the annunciator system?

Back 299

to show, by warning lights, that a system has failed or a caution condition exists.

Front 300

what is the source of the anti-skid warning system?

Back 300

the anti-skid control box.

Front 301

what condition will cause a wing leading edge anti-ice overheat light to illuminate?

Back 301

failure of a thermal switch to cause closure of the anti-ice valve.

Front 302

what are the two methods of inflating pneumatic deicer boots?

Back 302

engine driven vacuum pump and bleed air from a turbine engine compressor.

Front 303

how are deicer boots attached to leading edges of wing and tail surfaces?

Back 303

cement, fairing stripes and screws, or a combination of both.

Front 304

what is the function of the air/oil separator used in some deicer boot systems?

Back 304

in a wet type vacuum pump system, it is used to remove oil from the pressurized air.

Front 305

what must be accomplished to a deicer boot prior to a cold patch repair?

Back 305

relieve the installed tension.

Front 306

what normally keeps deicer boots held down in flight?

Back 306

suction is supplied to the boots during flight.

Front 307

what methods are used to supply heat for thermal anti-icing systems?

Back 307

turbine compressor bleed air, engine exhaust heat exchangers and ram air heated by a combustion heater.

Front 308

how is the temperature maintained in a thermal anti-icing system?

Back 308

by mixing bleed air and ambient air.

Front 309

what prevents overheating of the wing leading edge skin in a thermal anti-ice system, that is operated by engine bleed air?

Back 309

a thermal switch will cause a valve to close and shut off the flow of bleed air when the temperature of the skin reaches a predetermined value.

Front 310

what happens to the thermal anti-icing airflow after it has heated a leading edge surface?

Back 310

the airflow is exhausted to the atmosphere.

Front 311

why are anti-ice systems using turbine engine bleed air provided with an overheat system?

Back 311

to prevent aircraft structure damage.

Front 312

what are several problems associated with electrically heated windshields?

Back 312

delamination, scratches, arching and discoloration.

Front 313

when is windshield delamination acceptable?

Back 313

when within limits established by manufacturer and it is not in an open area where it affects optical qualities of the windshield panel.

Front 314

what are the effects of electric windshield arcing?

Back 314

local overheating and damage of windshield.

Front 315

how can an electrically heated pitot tube with an ammeter installed in the system be checked for operation?

Back 315

verified by noting the current consumption when the heater is turned on.

Front 316

what methods are used to remove rain from a windshield?

Back 316

wiping off, blowing off and chemical rain repellent.

Front 317

what powers windshield wiper systems?

Back 317

electrical or hydraulic power.

Front 318

what are the two problems accompanied with windshield wipers when operated in flight?

Back 318

aerodynamic forces reduce blade pressure and failure to achieve fast enough wiper oscillation.

Front 319

how does a pneumatic rain removal system work?

Back 319

the air blast forms a barrier that prevents raindrops from striking the windshield.

Front 320

why is a windshield rain repellent system not operated when the windshield is dry?

Back 320

heavy undiluted repellent will restrict window visibility.

Front 321

what is the purpose of the electronic timer in a pneumatic deicer boot system?

Back 321

controls the operating sequence and time intervals.

Front 322

where are carbon monoxide detectors normally used?

Back 322

aircraft cabins and cockpits.

Front 323

what is the indication of excess carbon monoxide fumes when using a "co" tester?

Back 323

the tester changes color to green, dark gray or black.

Front 324

how does a photoelectric smoke detector warn of possible fire?

Back 324

smoke in the air will cause the photoelectric cell to conduct an electric signal to a detector amplifier.

Front 325

how may a photoelectric smoke detector be checked?

Back 325

use of a test switch circuit.

Front 326

name two types of smoke instruments used in aircraft?

Back 326

photoelectric and visual

Front 327

what is a thermal switch fire detection system?

Back 327

heat sensitive units that complete electrical circuits at a certain temperature.

Front 328

how are thermal switch units wired?

Back 328

parallel with each other and in series with the lights.

Front 329

how are fenwal spot detectors wired?

Back 329

parallel between two complete loops of wiring.

Front 330

how is a thermal couple fire warning system different from a thermal switch system?

Back 330

thermal switch works at a specific temperature whereas the thermocouple depends on a rate of temperature rise.

Front 331

what is continuous loop detection system?

Back 331

one or more wires imbedded in a special ceramic core that changes its resistance with a change in temperature.

Front 332

what is continuous element fire detection system?

Back 332

a stainless tube containing a discrete element which will produce gas with heat and a mechanical switch to activate the system.

Front 333

what are two types of fire extinguishing systems?

Back 333

high rate of discharge and conventional systems.

Front 334

what is the most common fire extinguishing agent associated with a conventional system?

Back 334

carbon dioxide.

Front 335

what type of extinguishing agent is usually found in a high rate of discharge system?

Back 335

halogenated hydrocarbon type agents (halon)

Front 336

what procedure is used to check a freon container for pressure?

Back 336

a chart must be used for a minimum and maximum gauge reading for every change of temperature.

Front 337

what protection is provided for a fire bottle in case of a temperature rise in excess of set limits?

Back 337

a safety disk will rupture and spill the agent overboard.

Front 338

what is the purpose of the yellow disk in a co2 type fire extinguishing system.

Back 338

indicates a normal system discharge.

Front 339

what may be caused by kinks and sharp bends in sensing elements of a fire detection system?

Back 339

false fire warning and/or inoperative system.

Front 340

how is a fire bottle discharged?

Back 340

electrically by a discharge cartridge.

Front 341

how is the service life of a discharge cartridge calculated?

Back 341

from the manufacturers data stamp or the face of the cartridge.