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105 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

What does bleed air get used for?

Pressurisation, engine and APU start, anti ice, trim air, cargo heat, pressurising the hydraulic reservoir and portable water, and the C1/C2 hydraulic demand pumps.

How many recirc fans are there?

Four. Both upper and lower have a forward and aft. The switch says upper and lower.

What will cause the equipment cooling to go into override?

If the switch is pushed, low flow detected, smoke detected or the cargo fire switch is armed.

How does equipment cooling override work?

On differential pressure. Air flows from the flight deck, in a reverse flow through the equipment and then overboard through a seperate vent.

How does the aft equipment cooling work?

Has two fans, a primary and a backup. The fans suck air from the lavs and galleys and pass it though the aft equipment rack. The air is then vented through the aft outflow.

When will the outflow valves automatically close?

11000ft cabin altitude.

Max height we can bleed air off the APU?

22000ft

What does toga command after takeoff?

V2 + 15 or a higher speed if the higher speed is held for more than 5 sec. Max V2 + 25.

At what point is a baro snapshot taken on takeoff?

100kt

When will the A/T not support stall protection?

In hold

When is toga armed?

When the flaps are out of GAS captured.

What goes toga give when pushed for a go around?

Commands 2000fpm ROC at bug speed.

What happens if we push toga a second time on the go around?

Max go around thrust, Lnav will remain active.

When does flare, idle and rollout occur?

40ft, 25ft, 2ft

What does the electrical system consist of?

A main A/C, backup A/C, a DC and a stby system

What sources of A/C power do we have?

Eng and APU IDGs, ground power, two backup gens.

What will cause an automatic IDG drive disconnect?

A high drive temp

With external power connected and the APU running, which bus will the APU power?

Left

How is AC power distributed?

Through the L / R busses, and the ground bus which comes off the R bus.

What happens to the electrical system during an autoland?

The three autopilots isolate to an individual power source, using the L/R IDGs and the backup AC generators.

Can the backup A/C system provide the DC system?

Yes, but only one gen can go through the converter at a time.

How is the main DC system powered?

From the AC transfer busses, which then go through TRU to give DC.

How many TRU are there?

Four, L/R and C1 and C2.

What do the L/R tru power?

The L/R PSA for the flight controls

What do the C1 and C2 TRU power?

The captain's and FOs instrument bus respectively.

What is the backup DC system made up of?

Main battery, inverter, RAT, C1 C2 tru

What does the battery provide in the stby system?

The hot battery bus, captain's instruments, and the L/R PSAs.

What does the rat power?

The C1 and C2 TRU.

When will the rat auto deploy?

When both transfer busses loose power, the centre hydraulic system pressure is low with both engines failed or when all three hydraulic system pressures are low.

Where are the megaphones in the 200?

L1, L2, L4

Where is the crowbar 200?

R5

Where are the beacons?

L2 and L4

Body bag and biohazard kit?

L2

How many cargo fire bottles in the 200?

5

What happens when you pull an engine fire switch?

Hydraulic pump depress, shuts off fluid, shuts both fuel valves, trips the gen, shuts off bleed air, removes power from reverser and arms the bottle.

What happens if we arm the cargo fire system?

Heat shuts off, aft vent fan stops, equipment cooling goes into override, bottles are armed and shuts down the IFE.

What happens when we blow the cargo bottles?

2 discharge, the rest at a metred rate after 20min. If we land before 20 then one will blow at a metered rate on touchdown. If we blow them on the ground then 2 will blow, then one at a metered rate after 20min.

How will we know the lavatory extinguisher has blown?

We won't, we will only get the eicas "smoke lavatory" if smoke is sensed.

How many spoilers, and which ones are locked out during high speed?

14, 5 and 10 locked out

Which spoilers are linked by cable?

4 and 11

Which spoilers won't work in secondary and direct mode?

4,5,10,11

How many aces and pfcs

4 aces and 3 PFC

What envelope protection is provided?

Roll (35), stall and overspread. They only work in normal mode.

What do we loose in secondary mode (FC)

Auto pilot, auto SB, TAC, gust suppression, envelope protection, yaw damper

What do we lose in direct mode (FC)?

Auto pilot, auto SB, tac, gust suppression, envelope protection, yaw damper and manual rudder cancel switch.

How does the elevator change in secondary mode?

Two feels, flaps up or flap down

What are the 3 flap modes?

Primary, secondary and alternate.

How do flows work differently in secondary mode?

Slats move to full at all flap settings

How is flap operation different in alternate mode?

The flap lever is inhibited, the slats are limited to mid and the flaps to 20.

What modes do we not have flap assymetry, uncommanded movement and autoslat protection?

Alternate mode

What's on the centre hydraulic system?

Flight controls, flaps slats, gear actuation and steering, alternate and reserve brakes. The rat provides hydraulic power to the FC on centre system

Which centre hydraulic pump won't work on the ground with only one power source?

The C2 electric pump

Can both air demand pumps operate if both selected to on?

No

How do the alternate brakes work?

If there is low pressure above 60kt in the centre system, then the alternate brakes are isolated to keep the fluid in those lines. Nose gear actuation and steering is also isolated. Fluid from below the standpipe supply's the alternate brakes.

Where is the brake accumulator?

In the normal brake system

What slats are heated?

3, 4, 5, 10, 11, 12

When is wing antiice inhibited?

For 10 min after takeoff in auto. If that is above 10 degrees, wing antiice is inhibited for 5 min after liftoff.

When is the TAT probe heated?

Inflight only.

When are the probes heated?

When the engines are running (except tat)

How does the alternate gear extension work?

A hydraulic electric pump which moves the mechanism holding the gear up, it then free falls

When does the main gear steering kick in?

Through 13 degrees

What speed will the RTO AB work?

85kt

When will the brake BTMS turn amber?

5

When will the APU autostart?

When we lose power to both AC transfer busses

What is the difference between EEC ALT soft and hard?

Soft is selected automatically hard is done manually.

What do we lose in EEC altn mode?

EPR indications and thrust protection (can over boost)

What are the three idles, and when do they kick in?

Min idle, intermediate and approach.

When will intermediate idle be set?

At gear down

When will approach idle be set?

Landing flap, anti ice on (eng), if one of the billed air valves is closed

What does autostart not monitor?

Oil temp and pressure

Fuel capacity of 200?

94.3T

Jettison rates?

1400, 2500

How much fuel will remain in the mains if we leave the jet pumps on?

5200kg

How many fuel pumps are there?

9

What does the eicas "FMC" mean?

A dual failure

What do we lose if both fmcs fail?

Lnav will disengage but can be reengaged. Vnav will disapear. We will lose all FMC speeds and green stuff.

How does alternate navigation work?

CDUs supply route data to the NDs, with one CDU suppling the AP with LNAV. The A/T may be inop. Conditional waypoints cannot be loaded and waypoints need to be loaded from lat/long. Nav aids shall be tuned by on side CDU

In alternate navigation, what pages do we have?

Alternate legs, nav rad, and progress. The CDU will retain the flight plan and data from one will be copied across to the other. Landing altitude will need to be manually set.

What happens if we start a descent outside of 50nm from Tod?

Will descent to new cruise alt

What happens if start descent within 50nm of Tod?

Commands a 1250fpm ROD to capture path. (Thr/vnav SPD, then hold)

What happens if we use descend now outside of 50 from TOD?

Will command a 1250fpm rod to intercept profile

Before the first descent speed constraint, when will the scratchpad say drag required?

At 314kt it will say drag required, at 319 it will stray off path. Vnav SPD at 150ft

Before the first descent speed restriction, when will the AT wake up in thrust?

When 15kt slow. Will say thrust required if AT not srmed. Will go all the way back to MMS then veer off.

Once past the first descent speed restriction, when will it say drag required?

10kt fast. At 15kt it will stray off

Once past the first speed restriction in the descent, when will thrust kick in if slow?

If 10kt slow, other wise will say thrust required

When will vnav be "on approach"

Flaps out of up, sequenced first waypoint of approach, or if on a direct to fix of approach and within 12nm

What does "on approach" mean?

Can open window and will stay in path, and can reset MCP to a higher altitude and will continue on descend

What modes do we get going EO in cruise?

THR (con) / VNAV SPD - while speed reduces.



Speed / path - 300fpm



Further descent at 1250fpm in THR/VNAV SPD. Then HOLD.

What happens during depress?

8500 - air box appears


10000 - cabin alt warng, pa increase, SB on


11000 - outflow valves close


13500 - pa plays, OXY drops,

What is a TA?

A amber circle, conflict in 25-45 seconds

What is a RA?

Red square, 20-30 sec

What is proximate traffic?

White diamond, 1200ft vertically within 6nm.

How long to react to a RA?

5 seconds, 2.5 for second one

When are TA inhibited?

On the ground to 500ft

When are RA inhibited on takeoff?

Below 1000ft

When are descending RA inhibited?

1100ft

When are status cues inhibited?

Engine start to 30min after liftoff

When are master cautions and advisory messages inhibited on takeoff?

80kt to 800ft or 30 seconds

When are master warnings inhibited on takeoff?

V1 to 400ft, or 25 seconds

When are PWS cautions inhibited on takeoff?

80 KT to 400ft

When are new PWS warnings inhibited?

100kt to 50ft RA

Below what altitude can we get a hard windshear warning?

1500ft

What altitude will the system start scanning for with shear on the way down?

2300ft

What altitude will PWS altitudes be given below?

1200ft

Below what altitude will a descending RA not be given?

1100ft