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492 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
What are the items on the exterior safety check?
|
• Chocks in place
• Landing gear door position and handle • Flight control surfaces clear • APU Exhaust area clear (unless APU running) |
|
What does the EEC use as the controlling parameter (GE)?
|
N1
|
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What protection features are provided in the EEC Normal mode?
|
• Thrust limiting
• Maintains constant thrust, compensating for dynamic temperature and pressure. • Compensates for bleed requirements • Overspeed protection (FCOM, VOL 2, 7.20.5) |
|
What action should be taken prior to manual selection of EEC alternate mode?
|
Decrease thrust lever position. Thrust increases when alternate mode is selected manually. Thrust does not change when the EEC transfers control from normal mode to alternate mode.
|
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What occurs in the autothrottle system when any EEC control is changed to alternate mode?
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The autothrottles disconnect, but can be reconnected when all EECs have been changed to alternate mode.
|
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What EEC normal mode protection feature is not available in EEC Alternate mode?
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Thrust limiting at maximum N1 (maximum thrust can be achieved prior to thrust lever position at full forward)
|
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What feature of the EEC provides overspeed protection?
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Fuel metering unit
|
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When does the EEC select approach idle?
|
• Flaps in a landing position
• Continuous ignition ON • During thrust reverser operation |
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How long is approach idle maintained after touchdown?
|
5 seconds
|
|
How do you select the IRU mode selector from NAV?
|
The selector must be pulled out
|
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What is the function of the ALIGN position of the IRU Mode Selector?
|
• Initiates alignment
• Removes sensor errors when selected from NAV mode |
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How long does it take for full alignment of the IRS?
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10 minutes
|
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When is full alignment of the IRS required?
|
When the time from the last full alignment to the next expected arrival time exceeds 18 hours.
|
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How do you accomplish a fast alignment of the IRS?
|
• Airplane must be parked
• Position the selectors to ALIGN • Enter present position • Reposition the selectors to NAV • Takes 30 seconds • Fast alignment can be accomplished without entering present position. However, greater navigational accuracy is attained by entering present position |
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What does the IRS ON Battery (BAT) Light mean, when displayed on the Overhead Maintenance Panel?
|
IRS operating on backup electrical power (APU hot battery bus)
|
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Explain what happens when alignment of the IRS is lost in flight.
|
• The navigation mode is inoperative for the
remainder of the flight. • Attitude information can be obtained by moving the selector to ATT. |
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What happens if the center IRU is operating on DC power?
|
The center IRU operates on DC power for 5 minutes, then shuts down.
|
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What are the start sources for the APU, and which one do we normally use?
|
• TR (Transformer-‐Rectifier Unit), when Utility Bus 4
is powered. • APU Battery, when Utility Bus 4 is unpowered. • TR is the normal switch position. |
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Can the APU be operated in flight?
|
Yes, when left running for takeoff it can be operated in flight up to 20,000 feet
|
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Is electrical power available from the APU in flight? How about APU bleed air in flight?
|
• No, APU electrical power is not available in flight
• Yes, APU bleed air is available in flight for one pack up to 15,000 feet |
|
What APU components are powered by the APU battery?
|
• Inlet door
• APU controller • DC fuel pump • APU fire detection system |
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What APU components are powered by the main battery?
|
• APU fire extinguisher
• APU fuel valve • Standby power for the APU controller |
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What powers the APU starter during a battery start sequence?
|
• The APU battery
• (All other APU components are powered by the main battery while the APU starter is engaged) |
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What happens if the TR should overheat with the start source in TR?
|
• Start power is transferred to the battery
• Further start attempts with an overheated TR are inhibited |
|
How does a TR failure affect APU starting?
|
• Automatic switching to the APU battery is not
provided • Moving the start switch to BATTERY removes the TR from the starting circuit and allows APU starting on battery power. |
|
When does the EICAS memo message APU RUNNING display?
|
When the APU selector is ON and APU N1 RPM exceeds 95% N1.
|
|
Describe the APU shutdown sequence.
|
• Rotating the APU selector to OFF begins the
shutdown cycle • APU bleed air valve closes • APU continues running unloaded for a 60-‐second cooldown period. • When the cooldown period finishes, the APU shuts down. |
|
What would happen if the battery switch is positioned OFF prior to completion of the APU shutdown cooldown period?
|
The APU shuts down immediately.
|
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How long should you wait before turning the battery switch OFF after the APU selector is rotated to OFF, and why?
|
• 2 minutes
• Allows a complete shutdown sequence, with fire detection capability. |
|
What would cause the APU to shut down automatically?
|
• A limit is exceeded
• A fire is detected • Battery switch turned off during APU shutdown sequence. |
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What does the “AVAIL” light indicate on the External and APU PWR switches?
|
The related power source (APU or EXT) is plugged in and available. and the power quality is acceptable.
|
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What bus is powered on the ground when APU generator 1 or external power 1 is available?
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Ground handling bus
|
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When is the main cargo deck handling bus powered?
|
When the “AVAIL” light is displayed on the APU 2 or EXT 2 switches.
|
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What electrical power source would you select if cargo handling is required?
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The number one auxiliary or external power
|
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When is the ground service bus powered?
|
When A/C bus 1 is powered, either on the ground or in flight.
|
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What is the function of the Standby Power Switch in the Auto Position?
|
Allows the main and APU standby busses to be powered from available sources.
|
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Where would you find the Electrical Power-‐up procedure?
|
Refer to the FCOM, Vol. 1, Supplemental Procedures
|
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What does a Bus Isolation (ISLN) light illuminated indicate?
|
• BTB open
• AC bus isolated from synchronous bus |
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What happens when you push a Generator Drive Disconnect (DRIVE DISC) switch?
|
• Disconnects IDG from engine when above idle
speed • Opens related Generator Control Breaker (GCB) |
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What condition would automatically disconnect the IDG if not manually disconnected by the flight crew?
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Excessively high drive oil temperature
|
|
How do you reconnect an IDG that has been disconnected?
|
• Maintenance action is required
• The IDG cannot be restored by flight crew action |
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What does a Generator DRIVE light indicate?
|
• IDG oil pressure low, or
• IDG oil temperature high, or • GCB open due to uncorrectable generator frequency fault |
|
What are some of the equipment items powered by the Utility busses?
|
• Forward main pumps 2 and 3
• Forward override/jettison pumps 2 and 3 • Center override/jettison pump • Galley equipment (freighter) |
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Describe the electrical load shedding process.
|
Utility bus loads are shed one at a time through ELCUs in a programmed sequence until the overload condition is relieved.
|
|
What is the purpose of the electrical system overload protection?
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To ensure power is available to critical and essential equipment.
|
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During load shedding, would you expect to see an EICAS Advisory message ELEC UTIL BUS L, R?
|
No, this message is inhibited during load shedding
|
|
What are the main AC electrical power sources?
|
• Four IDGs
• Two auxiliary power sources (APU generators) • Two external power sources |
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Describe the function of the Split System Breaker (SSB).
|
Divides the synchronous bus, allowing each side of the AC electrical system to be powered by separate auxiliary or external power sources.
|
|
Describe the electrical system sequence of events during engine start with the SSB open.
|
• The IDG powers its side of the synchronous bus
when voltage and frequency are acceptable. • The previous power source is disconnected. |
|
Describe the electrical system sequence of events with a single power source powering the synchronous bus, when an engine is starting., SSB closed.
|
• The IDG powers the entire synchronous bus when
voltage and frequency are acceptable. • The SSB remains closed and the original power source is disconnected |
|
Which bus powers the Captain’s transfer bus and the main standby bus?
|
AC bus 3
|
|
Which bus powers the First Officer’s transfer bus?
|
AC bus 2
|
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Which bus provides backup power for both transfer busses?
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AC bus 1
|
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What are some of the equipment items powered by the ground service bus?
|
• Main and APU battery chargers
• Fuel pumps for APU start • Flight deck flood, navigation, and service lights • Miscellaneous service outlets and equipment |
|
How can the ground service bus be powered when AC bus 1 is not powered, while on the ground?
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By pushing the ground service switch on the cabin panel at door L1, the ground service is then connected to the same power source as the ground handling bus.
|
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What are some of the equipment items powered by the ground handling bus?
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• Lower cargo handling equipment and compartment
lights • Fueling system • Auxiliary hydraulic pump 4 |
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What bus powers the APU standby bus?
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The Captain’s transfer bus
|
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How is the electrical system configured during an automatic ILS approach (auto-‐land)?
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• AC and DC busses 1,2, and 3 are isolated from the
sync bus • AC bus 4 continues to power the synchronous bus |
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What are some of the major components of the AC standby power system?
|
• Main and APU standby busses
• Main and APU batteries • Main and APU standby inverters • Standby power selector |
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What is the normal source of power for the main standby bus?
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AC bus 3
|
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How does the main standby bus get power if AC bus 3 becomes unpowered in flight, all other conditions normal?
|
The main standby inverter powers the main standby bus, through the main battery charger, through the main hot battery bus (the main battery normally powered by AC bus 1 through the ground service bus.)
|
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If both AC bus 3 and AC bus 1 are not powered, all other conditions normal, how is the main standby bus powered, and for how long can it be powered?
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The main standby inverter powers the main standby bus, from the main battery through the main hot battery bus. (since the battery charger is unpowered, the main battery can provide power to the main standby bus for a minimum of 30 minutes).
|
|
What are some of the equipment items on the main standby bus?
|
• Left EIU, left CDU, left ILS, left VOR
• Various fight control components • Standby ignition for all engines • Primary EICAS display, standby instrument lights • RMI (if installed) • Left ADC, left EFIS control panel • Left transponder (some aircraft number exceptions) |
|
What are the equipment items on the APU standby bus?
|
• Left FMC
• Left ND • Left PFD |
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How is DC power provided by the electrical system?
|
• Four transformer-‐rectifier units (TRUs) produce DC
power, each TRU powered by its related AC bus. • Four DC busses are connected through DC isolation relays to the DC tie bus. • Battery busses distribute DC power in addition to the four main DC busses |
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What is the normal power source for the main and APU battery busses?
|
DC bus 3
|
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If either AC bus 3 or DC bus 3 is unpowered, how is each battery bus powered?
|
Its related hot battery bus
|
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What are some examples of individual equipment items on the main battery bus?
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• APU controller (alternate)
• Fuel valves (all engines) • All crossfeed valves • Dome, storm, and selected indicator lights • IDG disconnect (all engines) • Manual pressurization control • Trailing edge flap control • Captain’s interphone • Left radio tuning panel • Left VHF |
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How is each hot battery bus normally powered?
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• The ground service bus
• Through its related battery charger • Each battery is connected directly to its related hot battery bus |
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What are some examples of equipment items on the main hot battery bus?
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• APU fuel shutoff valve
• Spar valves (all engines) • APU and lower cargo fire extinguishers • Engine fire extinguishers (all engines) • Fire switch unlock (all engines) |
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What are some examples of equipment items on the APU hot battery bus?
|
• IRU left, center, and right DC power
• Left and right outflow valves • APU inlet door, APU controller (primary) |
|
When will the demand pumps be commanded to operate if the hydraulic demand pump selector is in the AUTO position?
|
• Demand pump operate when related engine pump
output pressure is low, or when related fuel control switch is in CUTOFF • Demand pumps 1 & 4 also operate when flaps are in transit, or flaps out of up in flight. |
|
What does the hydraulic system (SYS FAULT) fault light indicate?
|
• Low hydraulic system pressure
• Low hydraulic reservoir quantity • Excessive hydraulic fluid temperature |
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What does a hydraulic demand pump low PRESS light indicate?
|
• Demand pump selector positioned to OFF or AUX
• Demand pump operates and output pressure is low • Demand pump fails to operate |
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What does a hydraulic reservoir quantity indication of .80 mean, as displayed on the Secondary EICAS display?
|
80% of normal service level
|
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What does a magenta “RF” displayed next to a hydraulic quantity indicator on the Secondary EICAS mean?
|
The reservoir requires refill
|
|
When is the engine driven hydraulic pump pressurized?
|
• The engine is running
• The engine pump switch is ON |
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Which demand pumps are air driven, and which ones are electric motor driven?
|
• Systems 1 and 4 are air driven pumps, through the
bleed air manifold. • Systems 2 and 3 are electric driven pumps. |
|
What is the purpose of the auxiliary pump?
|
Used for ground operations
|
|
Why are the hydraulic reservoirs pressurized by the bleed air system?
|
• To prevent pump cavitation
• To ensure positive flow during high demand conditions |
|
How does pulling a fire switch affect the hydraulic system?
|
• Related hydraulic fluid shutoff valve closes
• The EDP depressurizes. • The related demand pump operates. |
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What are some examples of major system components powered by each hydraulic system?
|
• Systems 1 and 4 power the trailing edge flaps, body gear, normal brakes (SYS 4), alternate brakes (SYS 1), and steering. Systems 1 and 4 also provide redundant power to the primary flight controls.
• Systems 2 and 3 power the primary flight controls, stabilizer trim, and elevator feel. System 2 also powers the alternate brakes and lower yaw damper. System 3 powers the upper yaw damper. • Systems 1, 2, and 3 power the related center, right, and left autopilot servos (L,C,R are powered by systems 3,1,2 respectively) • Systems 2, 3, and 4 power the spoilers. |
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Describe the OFF position of the landing gear.
|
Landing gear hydraulic system is depressurized.
|
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How many degrees can the nose-‐wheel steering system turn the nose gear with the tiller, and how many degrees with the rudder pedals?
|
• 70 degrees in either direction with the tiller
• 7 degrees with the rudder pedals |
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When does RTO apply maximum brake pressure?
|
• Airplane on the ground
• All 4 thrust levers are retarded to idle, and • Above 85 knots. |
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What does the BRAKE SOURCE amber light indicate when illuminated?
|
• Active brake hydraulic sources (hydraulic systems
4, 1, and 2) have low pressure |
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What does a white, crosshatched, expanded gear position indication mean?
|
Related landing gear in transit
|
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What does an amber X display on an expanded gear position mean?
|
Landing gear position indicator inoperative
|
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What does a white empty box on the Gear synoptic display indicate?
|
Related landing gear door position indicators inoperative
|
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What sensing systems control in flight and ground operation of various airplane systems?
|
• Air/ground sensing system
• Nose gear extension sensing system |
|
How does the airplane distinguish between air mode and ground mode?
|
A combination of main gear tilt sensors
|
|
Nose gear extension sensing provides a signal to relays controlling functions in which systems?
|
• Stall warning
• Nose gear steering |
|
What conditions must be satisfied in order for the landing gear lever lock to release?
|
• Main gear are tilted
• Body gear centered |
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Describe the sequence of events when the landing gear lever is moved UP.
|
• The landing gear doors open
• Automatic braking occurs • Landing gear begin to retract. • Main gear hydraulically tilt to the retract position • EICAS gives related indications |
|
How are the landing gear held in position after retraction?
|
• Main gear are held in the up position by uplocks
• The nose gear is mechanically locked in the up position. |
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During landing gear extension or retraction, state what happens if any gear position disagrees with lever position after normal transit time.
|
• The EICAS changes to the expanded non-‐normal
format • Affected gear displayed as in transit, or UP if the gear never unlocked from the up position. |
|
How does the gear extend through the alternate gear extension system?
|
• By pushing the alternate gear extend switches
• The gear uplocks and gear door latches are electrically released. • The gear free-‐falls • Gravity and air loads extend the gear • Springs pull the downlocks into the locked position |
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When does body gear steering operate?
|
• When the nose wheel steering angle exceeds 20
degrees • Ground speed decreasing through 15 knots. |
|
When is body gear steering deactivated?
|
Ground speed increasing through 20 knots
|
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What is the purpose of the brake accumulator?
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Provides parking brake application
|
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Describe the difference between normal and alternate anti-‐skid braking systems.
|
• Normal brake antiskid provides each main gear
wheel with individual antiskid protection. • Alternate brake antiskid provides antiskid protection to lateral wheel pairs (forward and/or aft pair on each truck), rather than to individual wheels |
|
How does the brake torque limiter function in the Alternate brake system?
|
• Brake torque is sensed on an individual wheel
basis. • Brake pressure is released on a laterally paired wheel basis. |
|
When do the auto brakes apply after landing?
|
• All thrust levers are closed
• Ground mode sensed • The wheels have spun up |
|
Which systems contribute to total airplane deceleration on landing?
|
• Autobrakes
• Thrust reverse • Spoilers |
|
Give examples of what would disarm the autobrakes after landing.
|
• Pedal braking applied
• Any thrust lever advanced after landing • Speedbrake lever moved to DOWN detent after speedbrakes have been deployed on the ground • DISARM or OFF position selected on the autobrakes selector • Autobrake fault • Normal antiskid system fault |
|
What hydraulic system pressurizes the brake accumulator?
|
System 4
|
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Can the airplane be stopped with normal accumulator pressure?
|
No, the accumulator is not designed to stop the aircraft.
|
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Why is it necessary to pressurize hydraulic system 4 before pressurizing the other systems?
|
Precludes the transfer of hydraulic fluid from system 1 or 2 into system 4, when the parking brake is set, and then released.
|
|
What provides automatic brake source selection?
|
Pressure-‐operated selector valves
|
|
What value on the brake temperature monitoring system causes the BRAKE TEMP Advisory EICAS message to appear?
|
5
|
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How many Flap Control Units (FCUs) are provided?
|
3
|
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What are the basic functions of the FCUs?
|
• Primary control
• Secondary control • Indication and annunciation |
|
How many groups of leading flaps are provided, and how are they normally powered?
|
• Three groups on each wing: outboard, midspan,
and inboard section. • Normally pneumatically powered from the bleed air duct. |
|
What are the two groups of trailing edge flaps, and how are they powered?
|
• Inboard and outboard
• Inboard powered by hydraulic system 1 and outboard by system 4 |
|
How are opposite trailing edge flaps connected?
|
Mechanically, in order to maintain symmetry
|
|
What protection features do FCUs provide for trailing edge flaps in primary mode?
|
• Asymmetry protection
• Flap load relief • Flap position information to EICAS and other systems |
|
What protection features do the FCUs provide for trailing edge flaps in secondary mode?
|
• Asymmetry protection
• Flap position information to EICAS and other systems |
|
Describe the function of the FCUs in primary mode.
|
• LEF are driven pneumatically to the selected
position. • TEF are driven hydraulically to the selected position. |
|
Describe the function of the FCUs in secondary mode.
|
• If any flap group fails to move to the commanded
position, the FCUs switch to secondary mode for the related group. • The flap group is driven through electric motors. |
|
What happens if a primary control failure occurs in either the inboard or midspan leading edge flap group?
|
Both groups switch to secondary mode
|
|
What happens if a failure occurs in a leading edge flap group on one Wing?
|
• The flap groups on both wings change to secondary mode after a time delay of between 20 to 45 seconds.
• The non-‐affected side completes movement before changing to secondary mode, due to the rapid rate of primary mode flap movement. |
|
What happens immediately if a trailing edge asymmetry is detected?
|
• Primary mode is immediately shut down for the
asymmetric group. • The FCUs do not use secondary mode • FLAP DRIVE EICAS Caution Message |
|
What EICAS Advisory message displays if all three FCUs fail in their control function?
|
FLAPS CONTROL EICAS Caution message
|
|
How does the Flap Alternate Control mode work?
|
• Bypasses the FCUs
• Can be manually selected • All flaps are extended or retracted by electric motors |
|
Is there any asymmetry protection in alternate flap mode?
|
No
|
|
State the actions that occur when the Alternate (ALTN) Flaps Arm switch is pushed.
|
• Arms flap alternate control mode
• Arms alternate flaps selector • Shuts off primary and secondary mode operation • Flap lever inoperative |
|
What is the maximum extension of the trailing edge flaps in alternate mode?
|
25
|
|
Describe the secondary mode or non-‐normal expanded flap position indication for leading edge flaps
|
• All flap positions are displayed
• White box outline shows LEF group retracted • White crosshatch shows LEF group in transit • Solid green box shows LEF group extended • Amber box outline, crosshatch, or solid box – drive unit inop. • Indicator motion is continuous between flap detents. |
|
Describe the secondary mode or non-‐normal expanded flap position Indication for trailing edge flaps.
|
• White – position of inboard and outboard TEF
• Amber – asymmetry or drive failure in related group • Indicator is continuous between flap detents |
|
What does an amber “X” mean on an expanded flap display?
|
Related flap sensor (and display) inoperative
|
|
Describe the Alternate Mode Expanded Flap Position Indicator.
|
• All flap positions displayed
• Flap position index marks at 5 and 25 • Indicator motion is continuous between flap detents. |
|
Describe the flap position indication on EICAS if the standby bus is the only powered AC bus.
|
• The left wing TEF sensors are not powered.
• An amber X is displayed on the left outboard and inboard TEF indications. • An expanded indication is displayed. |
|
What flaps extend when the flap lever is moved from UP to Flaps 1?
|
Inboard and midspan leading edge flap groups.
|
|
What flaps extend when the flap lever is moved from Flaps 1 to Flaps 5?
|
• Trailing edge flaps move to Flaps 5 position.
• Outboard leading edge flap groups extend. |
|
What flap sequencing occurs when using alternate flaps?
|
• During extension, all LEF and TEF groups extend
immediately. • TEF extend to a maximum of 25. • During retraction, all LEF groups retract after inboard TEF are completely retracted. |
|
Describe flap load relief.
|
• If airspeed limit is exceeded with flaps 30 selected,
the flaps retract to 25. • If airspeed is excessive at flaps 25, the flaps retract to 20. • Flap load relief is not available in secondary or alternate mode. |
|
How long does the flap indication on primary EICAS remain displayed after all flaps are up?
|
10 seconds
|
|
What is the affect on the flap system during engine reverse thrust operation?
|
Inboard and midspan leading edge flaps retract automatically
|
|
Describe the function of the Stabilizer (STAB) Trim Cutout Switches, AUTO position.
|
• Supplies hydraulic power for stabilizer trim
• Shuts off related system hydraulic power if unscheduled trim detected. |
|
What surface component is moved when stabilizer trim inputs are made?
|
• Leading edge of the movable horizontal stabilizer
• Stabilizer trim varies the angle of incidence of the horizontal stabilizer. |
|
State what occurs when the Stabilizer Trim CUTOUT Switches are in CUTOUT.
|
Shuts off related hydraulic power to stabilizer trim.
|
|
Describe the function of the alternate trim switches.
|
• The switches provide trim commands through a
separate control channel. • The switches provide an increased range of stabilizer trim travel. |
|
How do the FMCs calculate correct stabilizer trim greenband?
|
• They use the entered CG, and
• The entered gross weight, and • The entered takeoff thrust setting. |
|
How does the aircraft provide a crosscheck to ensure the correct greenband has been selected?
|
A nose gear oleo pressure switch position is compared to the selected greenband.
|
|
What is the effect on stabilizer trim if the control wheel stabilizer trim switches are used while the autopilot is engaged?
|
• If a single autopilot is engaged, the autopilot will disengage and the stabilizer trim will move in the desired direction.
• If multiple autopilots are engaged, the control wheel stabilizer trim switches are inhibited. |
|
State the effect on the autopilots and stabilizer trim, if the alternate trim switches are used with any number of autopilots engaged.
|
• The alternate trim switches override autopilot trim
commands. • The alternate trim switches do not cause autopilot disengagement. |
|
How many spoiler panels are provided?
|
6 spoiler panels on each upper wing
|
|
Which spoiler panel does not function as a flight spoiler?
|
Inboard spoiler on each wing
|
|
Which spoiler panels function as speedbrakes in flight?
|
The four inboard panels on each wing
|
|
Which spoiler panels function as ground spoilers when on the ground?
|
All six spoiler panels on each wing
|
|
Which spoiler panel is displayed on the EICAS status display?
|
• 4th spoiler panel in from the wingtip on the left wing. (this panel functions as a flight spoiler, speedbrake, & gnd spoiler)
• the outermost panel on the right wing (flight spoiler and ground spoiler only, and therefore, speedbrake extension is not displayed on the right wing’s spoiler position indicator) |
|
Which spoiler panels are extended with the speedbrake lever in the flight detent position?
|
• The two inboard spoilers on each wing extend to
mid-‐travel. • The two middle spoiler panels on each wing extend to full travel. |
|
When do the spoiler panels extend to the UP position during landing, if the speedbrake lever is ARMED?
|
• Thrust levers 1 and 3 near closed
• Main landing gear touch down. |
|
When do the spoiler panels extend to the UP position during landing if the speedbrake lever is NOT Armed?
|
• Thrust levers 1 and 3 near closed
• Main landing gear on the ground • Reverse thrust levers 2 or 4 pulled up to the idle detent |
|
Since the speedbrake lever is in the DN position during takeoff, what action provides an automatic spoiler function for RTO?
|
Reverse thrust levers 2 or 4 pulled to the idle detent.
|
|
For go-‐around protection, what action drives the speedbrake lever to the DN position?
|
Thrust lever 1 or 3 advanced from the closed position, regardless of whether ground spoilers were automatically or mechanically selected.
|
|
Which elevator panels are displayed on the Surface Position Indicator?
|
Left and right outboard elevator positions
|
|
What can you do if you lose elevator control due to a jam?
|
When significant manual force is applied to the control column, shear outs between the inboard and outboard elevators allow elevator control to be regained
|
|
Describe the elevator feel system.
|
• Mechanism provides artificial feel at control
columns. • Force increases as airspeed increases • If both hydraulic systems 2 and 3 fail, mechanical springs provide feel force. Feel force is no longer a function of airspeed. |
|
How does the aileron lockout system work, and what is its purpose?
|
• How it works: Locks the outboard ailerons in the neutral position at high airspeeds.
• Purpose: Permits full travel of the outboard ailerons at low airspeeds, and • Prevents over-‐controlling at high airspeeds, and • Provides the required roll authority at low airspeeds. |
|
What would happen if you use aileron trim with the autopilot engaged?
|
• The aileron neutral point is repositioned.
• When the autopilot is disengaged, the wheel and ailerons move to the repositioned aileron neutral point. • The airplane responds with roll proportional to the amount of aileron trim input. |
|
How do the rudder ratio changers work?
|
• Rudder ratio changers gradually reduce each rudder surface’s response to pedal inputs as airspeed increases.
• The system protects the vertical tail from stresses caused by large rudder surface deflections at high airspeeds. |
|
What is the purpose of the yaw dampers?
|
• To improve airplane directional stability
• To provide turn coordination |
|
What unlocks an engine fire switch?
|
• Fire warning
• Fuel control switch is in CUTOFF • Pushing the Fire Override switch beneath the fire switch |
|
How many engine fire extinguishers are provided?
|
2 on each wing
|
|
What occurs when an engine fire switch is pulled out?
|
• Closes the related engine and spar valves
• Closes the related engine bleed air valve • Trips off the related engine generator • Shuts off hydraulic fluid to the related EDP • Depressurizes the related EDP • Arms both related engine fire extinguishers |
|
How many APU fire bottles are provided
|
One
|
|
Can you shut down the APU from outside the airplane?
|
• Yes, by using the APU Ground Control Fire Protection Panel, located in the right body gear well.
• There is an APU stop switch, an APU Fire Control Switch and an APU Extinguisher Discharge Switch, located on the panel. |
|
What action discharges the fire extinguisher, for an engine/or APU?
|
• Rotating the engine fire switch or the APU fire switch.
• For the APU, the APU extinguisher automatically discharges for an APU fire warning light when on the ground. |
|
Describe the fire protection system for the forward and aft lower cargo compartments.
|
• 4 fire extinguisher bottles are provided.
• Pushing the cargo fire discharge switch, with FWD or AFT armed, initiates extinguisher discharge sequence to provide effective agent concentration for a fixed period of time., according to related QRH checklists. |
|
State the actions that occur when you push a FWD or AFT cargo fire arm switch.
|
• Turns off two packs
• Arms lower cargo compartment fire extinguishers • Configures equipment cooling to override mode and turns off all airflow and heat into lower cargo compartments. • Closes master trim air valve. |
|
What type of compartment is the main deck cargo compartment?
|
Class E
|
|
What happens when you push the CARGO FIRE Depressurization Switch with the MAIN deck fire switch ARMED?
|
Initiates airplane depressurization to slightly below airplane altitude.
|
|
What happens when you push the main deck Cargo Fire Arm switch?
|
• Enables main deck fire suppression
• Turns off two packs • Configures equipment cooling to closed loop and turns off all airflow to main deck and airflow and heat into lower compartments. • Closes master trim air valve |
|
Describe the engine fire/overheat detection system.
|
• A dual loop fire detector is installed in each engine nacelle.
• Each engine has a dual loop overheat detector. • Both loops in a detector must detect a fire or overheat to cause an engine fire warning or overheat caution. |
|
Describe the APU Fire/Overheat detection system.
|
• A dual loop fire detector is installed in the APU compartment.
• There is no overheat detection in the APU compartment. • Either loop detecting a fire activates an APU fire warning, which shuts down the APU. • Either loop detecting a fire on the ground discharges the APU fire extinguisher bottle. |
|
Describe the Cargo Compartment Fire Detection systems.
|
• The forward and aft lower compartments have 4 dual loop detectors.
• The main deck has 16 dual loop detectors. • Sample air from throughout each compartment is drawn through the detectors by center bleed duct air. Both loops in a detector must sense smoke to activate the cargo fire warning. |
|
What happens if a fault occurs in one loop upon completion of any fire and overheat fault test?
|
• The system reconfigures for single loop operation.
• If the operable loop senses a fire or overheat condition, the related fire warning or overheat caution activates. |
|
What fire detection system is provided in the wheel wells?
|
Each main gear wheel well has a single loop detector.
|
|
Is there smoke detection provided for the Crew Rest areas?
|
Yes, smoke detectors are installed in the crew rest areas, and an aural warning sounds in the crew rest compartment when smoke is detected in that compartment.
|
|
Describe the lavatory smoke detection/protection system.
|
• Smoke detectors are installed in the lavatory. An aural warning sounds in a lavatory when smoke is detected in that lavatory.
• An automatic fire extinguisher is located in the waste compartment in each lavatory. |
|
What two engine indications are displayed full time on the EICAS?
|
• N1
• EGT |
|
State the sequence of events that occur when you pull a start switch with the AUTOSTART Switch ON.
|
• Arms the start valve
• Opens engine bleed air valve |
|
State the sequence of events that occur when you pull a start switch with the AUTOSTART Switch OFF.
|
• Opens start valve
• Opens engine bleed air valve |
|
What two valves close at 50% N2 RPM during engine start?
|
• Start valve
• Engine bleed air valve |
|
What is the function of the AUTO Ignition Selector in the SINGLE position?
|
• The EEC alternates igniter 1 and igniter 2 after ever second ground start
• The EEC selects both igniters for in-‐flight start or flameout. |
|
What is the function of the Standby (STBY) IGNITION selector in NORM?
|
• AC power system supplies power to selected igniters
• Standby power system supplies power continuously to all igniters if AC power system is not powered. • 1 or 2 – standby power system supplies power continuously to the related igniter regardless of Auto ignition selector or EEC |
|
What happens when you turn the Continuous (CON) IGNITION Switch ON?
|
• Selected igniters operate continuously
• Commands approach idle minimum |
|
When is ignition selected for each engine individually?
|
• Related start switch is out, and the fuel control
switch to RUN. • During autostart, when commanded by the EEC. • Nacelle anti-‐ice is on • Flameout is detected |
|
When is ignition selected for all engines?
|
• Trailing edge flaps are out of the up position
• Continuous ignition switch is ON |
|
What color does the EGT change to if the EGT start limit is exceeded?
|
Red
|
|
What does “X-‐BLD” mean when displayed next to the N2 indication when an engine is shut down?
|
• The current flight level for engine start envelope is greater than the maximum start altitude.
• Crossbleed air is necessary for start. |
|
How many igniters are selected for ground start, and how many for inflight start?
|
• One igniter for ground start
• Two for inflight start |
|
With the AUTOSTART Switch ON, describe the engine start sequence.
|
• Pulling the start switch out arms the start valve.
• Pulling the start switch out opens the bleed valve • Moving the fuel control switch to run initiates the start sequence. • The EEC opens the start valve and the start light illuminates. • At a predetermined N2, the EEC opens the fuel metering valve and energizes the selected igniter. |
|
What three malfunctions are monitored and results in an aborted start by the EEC?
|
• Hot start
• Hung start • No EGT rise |
|
How does the EEC protect against an impending hot start, hung start, or no
|
• For an impending hot start or a hung start before starter cutout, it cuts off fuel, adjusts the fuel schedule, and then reapplies fuel for another attempt. It makes 3 attempts before aborting the autostart sequence. Fuel and ignition are cut off. The engine motors for 30 seconds before the start and bleed air valves close.
• For no EGT rise, it cuts fuel and ignition. The engine motors for 30 seconds. The EEC applies fuel and ignition to both igniters for another attempt. It makes 3 attempts before aborting the autostart sequence. (Same motoring as above) |
|
At what EGT limit does the EEC abort an inflight start through the autostart system?
|
The takeoff limit
|
|
How is the engine oil cooled?
|
Cooled by fuel as it flows through the fuel/oil heat exchanger.
|
|
How is the engine thrust reverser actuated?
|
Pneumatically actuated fan air.
|
|
What protects the thrust reversers from deploying inadvertently in flight?
|
The reverser system applies bleed air to stow and lock the reverser.
|
|
What is broadband vibration in the airborne vibration monitoring system, and how is it displayed?
|
• Broadband is average vibration (fan, LPT, or N2).
• BB displays on secondary EICAS. |
|
How many fuel tanks do we have and what are their approximate capacities?
|
• 7 fuel tanks (+ horizontal stab for pax airplanes)
• 1 and 4 mains = 13.2 kgs each • 2 and 3 mains = 38.1 kgs each • center tank = 52.1 kgs. • 2 and 3Reserves = 4.0.kgs. each • total capacity = 163, 042 |
|
What commands fuel valves to open or close and fuel pumps to turn on and off according to fuel management logic?
|
Fuel system management cards (FSMCs)
|
|
Which crossfeed valves are affected by flap extension on the ground?
|
2 and 3. They are closed by the FSMCs when flaps extend to takeoff position on the ground.
|
|
Which fuel pumps are system logic pumps, in other words, commanded to turn on and off by system logic during normal operations?
|
Override/jettison pumps 2 and 3. They are inhibited from operating when pressure is detected from both CWT override/jettison pumps.
|
|
Trace the flow of fuel to the engines when there are 7700 kgs or more fuel in the Center Wing Tank., from blockout.
|
• Both CWT pump switches should be ON.
• X-‐feed valves 2 and 3 close when flaps extended for takeoff • CWT pumps feed engines 1 and 4. • Main pumps 2 and 3 feed their related engine. |
|
Trace the flow of fuel to the engines when there is less than 7700 kgs of fuel in the center wing tank, from blockout.
|
• Both CWT tank pumps should be off.
• X-‐feed valves 2 and 3 close when flaps extended for takeoff. • Override/jettison pumps 2 feed engine 1 • Override/jettison pumps 3 feed engine 4. • Main pumps 2 and 3 feed their related engine. |
|
When do the FSMCs open the reserve transfer valves?
|
• When main tank 2 or 3 fuel quantity decreases to approximately 18,200 kgs.
• Fuel transfers from reserve tanks 2 and 3 to the related main tank. |
|
Under what conditions would fuel automatically transfer from main tanks 1 and 4 to their adjacent tanks 2 and 3?
|
During fuel jettison, when either main tank 2 or 3 fuel quantity decreases to 9,072 kgs.
|
|
Can fuel be manually transferred from any tank to another tank?
|
• Yes, there is a Main Tank 1 and 4 Transfer Switch on the overhead panel.
• Fuel can transfer from the outboard to the inboard main tanks, to approximately 3,200 kgs remaining in each outboard main tank. |
|
State what occurs when you select the Fuel Jettison Switch to A or B.
|
• Arms the jettison selector.
• Displays preselected fuel to remain on EICAS |
|
Describe how the fuel quantity indication changes upon termination of fuel Jettison
|
• The fuel to remain quantity indication changes from magenta to white.
• The fuel to remain quantity flashes for 5 seconds. |
|
What occurs when you push either fuel jettison nozzle valve to ON during the QRH fuel jettison procedure?
|
• It activates all override/jettison pumps in the tanks containing fuel (pump switches must be on).
• The related jettison nozzle valve also opens. |
|
What is the source of fuel for the APU?
|
• Normally supplied from main tank 2.
• When AC power is available, fuel is supplied by main pump 2 aft. • If AC power is not available, a dedicated DC pump in main tank 2 supplies fuel to the APU. • Main pump 3 aft operates to prevent tank to tank transfer and provides fuel if main pump 2 aft fails (with aircraft exceptions) |
|
In general, how would you handle a fuel imbalance situation?
|
By opening or closing crossfeed valves and turning off and on fuel pump switches (refer to QRH and Supplementary Procedures)
|
|
What is the impact on the aircraft of excessive fuel imbalance?
|
• Adversely affects CG
• Aerodynamic drag • Fuel economy |
|
When is an engine on suction feed, and how would you correct a suction feed situation?
|
• An engine is on suction feed when main tank fuel pressure is low.
• Open the appropriate fuel crossfeed valve from a main tank with operating pumps. |
|
Does the suction feed line go through the main tank fuel pumps?
|
No, the suction feed line bypasses the pumps
|
|
A single main tank fuel pump can provide sufficient fuel to how many engines?
|
• One engine at takeoff thrust
• Two engines at cruise thrust. |
|
A single main tank 2 or 3 override/jettison pump can provide sufficient fuel to how many engines?
|
Two engines at takeoff and cruise conditions
|
|
Can the main tank 2 or 3 override/jettison pumps operate when the related Main tank is below 3,200 kgs (standpipe level)
|
No
|
|
Fuel tank temperature is measured in which tank?
|
Main tank 1
|
|
When does the fuel temperature display on primary EICAS display in amber?
|
-37 C
|
|
How is Center Wing Tank Fuel scavenged?
|
• CWT fuel is scavenged by 4 jet pumps, two pumping into each main tank 2 and 3.
• Scavenge begins when main tank 2 or 3 fuel quantity decreases to approximately 27,200 kgs. |
|
What are the fuel imbalance differences that would generate an EICAS Advisory message?
|
• 1360 between tanks 1 and 4
• 2720 between tanks 2 and 3 • 2720 between inboard and outboard tanks after FUEL TANK/ENG |
|
When correcting a fuel imbalance condition, when would you expect the associated EICAS Advisory IMBAL message to no longer display?
|
When the difference is less than 450 kgs
|
|
What does a Crossfeed Valve ON, with the bar visible, indication mean for Crossfeed Valve Switches 2 and 3?
|
Crossfeed valve open when commanded by system logic
|
|
What does a Crossfeed Valve ON, with the bar visible, indication mean for Crossfeed Valve Switches 1 and 4?
|
The crossfeed valve is open
|
|
What does it mean when the main tank 2 and 3 Override (OVRD) Fuel Pump Switches are ON? How about OFF, ON not visible?
|
• ON – fuel pump operates when commanded by system logic.
• OFF (ON not visible) – fuel pump selected OFF. |
|
What happens when you turn the nacelle anti-‐ice switches on?
|
• NAI valve opens when the bleed air pressure is available.
• Engine igniters selected by the Auto Ignition selector and EEC operate continuously. • PRV opens when anti-‐ice is ON. |
|
What conditions would prevent the PRV from opening when nacelle anti-‐ice is on?
|
• Prior or present bleed air overheat
• Start valve not closed • HP bleed air valve failed open |
|
With the Nacelle Anti-‐Ice Switches in AUTO during icing conditions, while on the ground, prior to takeoff, would the system be on or off?
|
OFF, on the ground
|
|
If in the NAI AUTO position, with the anti-‐ice valves open at touchdown, when do the valves close?
|
Valves remain open until engine shutdown
|
|
How many ice detection probes are there, and where are they located?
|
Two probes are located on the forward fuselage
|
|
If the engine bleed air valve is closed, and nacelle anti-ice is commanded, what is the source of bleed air for nacelle anti-‐ice?
|
IP bleed only (HP bleed valve remains closed)
|
|
Is wing anti-ice effective with the leading edge flaps extended?
|
No, wing anti-ice is ineffective when the LEF are not retracted.
|
|
Can you operate the wing anti-ice system on the ground?
|
No, on the ground, WAI system is inhibited
|
|
What part of the engine and wing are heated with NAI and WAI?
|
• Nacelle inlets
• Wing leading edges |
|
What is displayed on primary EICAS when the nacelle anti-‐ice and/or the wing anti‐ice valve is open?
|
“NAI” for nacelle anti-ice; and “WAI” for wing anti-ice.
|
|
Describe flight deck window heating systems.
|
• Flight deck windows are electrically heated
• Forward windshields have anti-‐ice protection on the exterior surfaces • Forward windshields have anti-‐fogging on the interior surfaces. • Side windows have controlled anti-‐fogging heating on the interior surfaces |
|
What windows’ heating system is controlled by the window heat switches?
|
Forward windshields only
|
|
Since the forward windshields are controlled by the window heat switches, how do we heat the side windows?
|
• Side window heating is automatic.
• No flight deck controls are provided • System is powered whenever the AC electrical system is powered. |
|
How many pitot-static probes are provided, and when are they heated?
|
4 pitot-static probes, electrically heated when any engine is operating.
|
|
How many angle of attack probes are provided, and when are they heated?
|
2 angle of attack probes are heated when any engine is operating.
|
|
How many cabin altitude controllers are provided?
|
Two controllers, A and B. Each controller controls both outflow valves.
|
|
Can either outflow valve maintain cabin altitude and full ventilation?
|
• Yes
• One pack is selected off to ensure cabin doors may be opened regardless of the position of the outflow valves if an emergency evacuation is required immediately after landing. |
|
What are the three modes controlled by the cabin altitude controllers?
|
Climb, cruise, and descent
|
|
How do the cabin altitude controllers calculate a cabin pressurization schedule?
|
• They use ambient pressure, and
• Flight plan data from the FMC |
|
Does cabin altitude continue to increase, or level-‐off, if there is a planned level segment during the climb phase?
|
Continues to increase during the level segment.
|
|
What is maximum cabin altitude in cruise mode?
|
8,000 feet
|
|
When do the cabin altitude controllers enter descent mode?
|
• T/D, or
• An initial descent of approx. 1,000 feet from cruise altitude, regardless of T/D. |
|
When in descent mode, do the cabin altitude controllers program a positive or a negative pressurization at touchdown?
|
Small positive pressurization at touchdown.
|
|
When does the cabin rate limiter close both outflow valves?
|
When cabin altitude exceeds 11,000 feet.
|
|
How can you gain manual control of the landing altitude, if the airport for takeoff or landing is not in the data base?
|
• By pushing the Landing Altitude (LDG ALT) Switch on the overhead panel.
• MAN (amber) displays on primary EICAS. |
|
What altitude is assumed by the cabin altitude controllers if landing altitude is not available from the FMC, and MAN is not selected?
|
2,000 feet
|
|
Describe the NORM position of the Cabin Altitude Selector.
|
Cabin altitude controller A or B selected automatically on alternate flights.
|
|
What happens if the primary controller selected by the cabin altitude selector switch fails?
|
The secondary controller is automatically selected.
|
|
What action would allow you to gain manual operation of the pressurization system?
|
• Turn both Outflow Manual switches to ON.
• All automatic cabin altitude control functions are bypassed. |
|
What is the flight deck temperature range with the Flight Deck (FLT) temperature Selector in AUTO?
|
18C to 29C
|
|
What valve are you controlling when you select MAN with the flight deck temperature controller?
|
Flight deck trim air valve
|
|
What does the Zone System (SYS) Fault Light indicate?
|
• Temperature zone duct overheat or zone temperature controller fault has occurred.
• Master trim air valve failed closed • Trim air switch off • master trim air valve closed and pack air continues to flow. |
|
What is the temperature range with the main deck and forward and aft lobe temperature selectors in AUTO?
|
4C to 29C
|
|
Under what conditions would trim air be unavailable to the flight deck, upper deck, crew rest, and main deck?
|
• EICAS advisory TEMP ZONE is displayed.
• Center section of the bleed duct is isolated. • EICAS Advisory message TRIM AIR OFF is displayed. • The Master Trim Air switch is OFF. |
|
If trim air is not available to the flight deck, upper deck, crew rest, and main deck distribution system, how is temperature controlled in the cabin?
|
• Backup modes control temperature
• If the flight deck temp selector setting is available to the PTC, pack outlet temperature of all packs is regulated to an average temp between 18C and 29C, as set by the Flt Deck Temp selector, or • If unavailable to the PTC, the last temperature set, or • If last temp unavailable to the PTC, then 24C |
|
What target temperature is set to the upper deck and crew rest zone when electrical power is initially applied to the airplane?
|
24C
|
|
How many pack temperature controllers (PTC) are provided?
|
Two, A & B.
|
|
How many separate channels are provided in the PTCs?
|
Each PTC has three separate channels, one for each pack.
|
|
What happens if a pack temperature controller (PTC) detects a fault in a pack channel?
|
Control of the respective pack switches to the other PTC.
|
|
How can you restore pack operation for a failed PTC?
|
Push the Pack Reset Switch.
|
|
What would happen if a fault or an overheat of the PTC is detected?
|
The respective pack valve closes, resulting in a pack shutdown.
|
|
What are the 7 temperature zones for the 400F?
|
• Flight deck/upper deck/crew rest
• Forward and aft main deck • Forward and aft lower lobe cargo zones |
|
What is the function of the Lower Lobe Cargo Conditioned AIR FLOW RATE Selector? (LLCCAFR)
|
Provides forward and aft lobe cargo air conditioning.
|
|
With the LLCCAFR Switch Off, what controls pack outlet temperature?
|
The flight deck, upper deck, and crew rest zone requiring the coolest temperature.
|
|
What zone and what pack is affected with the LLCCAFR selector in FWD HI?
|
All of pack three air is sent to the forward lower cargo lobe.
|
|
What zone and what pack is affected with the LLCCAFR selector in AFT HI?
|
All of pack two air is sent to the aft lower cargo lobe.
|
|
Explain the position of the LLCCAFR selector in BOTH LOW.
|
2/3 of pack 3 and 2/3 of pack 2 conditioned air distributed respectively to forward and aft lower lobe cargo compartments.
|
|
What position of the LLCCAFR selector would result in all packs remaining in high flow during cruise?
|
• FWD HI/AFT HI
• BOTH LOW |
|
The center duct provides air supply to what systems?
|
• Cargo smoke detection
• Potable water pressurization • LLCCAFR Trim Air • Trim Air • Aft Cargo Heat |
|
Describe overheat protection of the aft cargo heat system.
|
An overheat thermal switch opens and closes an overheat/shutoff valve at higher temperatures.
|
|
What is the source of heat for the forward cargo compartment?
|
Heated air exhausted from the Electrical and electronic (E & E) compartment. (equipment cooling inboard exhaust valve open).
|
|
Equipment cooling provides cooling air for what compartment/systems?
|
• Flight deck equipment
• Electrical and equipment racks (E & E) |
|
When is warm equipment cooling air ducted overboard on the ground?
|
• Engines not operating
• Equipment cooling selector in NORM • Ambient temperature moderate or high (7C) |
|
When does the equipment cooling system configure for flight?
|
One or more engines on each wing is operating.
|
|
How can you manually configure the equipment cooling system for flight?
|
Positioning the Equipment Cooling Selector to STBY.
|
|
Which valve is closed when equipment cooling is in closed loop mode?
|
Inboard exhaust valve
|
|
What is the source of equipment cooling air for the flight deck?
|
With two or three packs operating, the flight deck equipment cooling source valve directs conditioned air into the flight deck electrical equipment.
|
|
Describe the operation of the equipment cooling system with the Equipment Cooling Selector in OVRD.
|
• Provides equipment cooling in flight if internal fans are inoperative.
• Internal fans are not powered. • Smoke/override valve opens. • All other valves closed, no air flow to forward cargo. • Cabin differential pressure draws air from the panels area on the flight deck, through the equipment cooling ducts to the E&E, to create a reverse flow of air across the equipment, then through the supply duct, then overboard. |
|
Under what conditions would the equipment cooling system revert to closed loop mode?
|
• LLCCAFR Selector in FWD LOW, BOTH LOW, FWD HIGH, with a forward lobe temp selector set lower than 10C.
• If a single internal fan fails. • When the MAIN CARGO FIRE ARM switch is pushed. |
|
Under what conditions would High Pressure (HP) air be used?
|
• Descent
• Other low power setting operations |
|
Under what conditions would Intermediate Pressure (IP) air be used?
|
High power setting operations.
|
|
The Engine Bleed Air Switches control which valves by system logic, when bleed air pressure is available?
|
• Engine bleed air valve
• PRV • HP bleed valve |
|
Describe the general function of pressure regulating valve (PRV).
|
Prevents damage to ducting and equipment downstream, the PRV limits bleed air pressure.
|
|
How are the engine bleed air valves actuated, and when do they open for forward flow?
|
• The bleed air valves are pressure actuated.
• They remain closed until engine bleed air pressure causes forward flow. |
|
With the HP valve failed open and the respective bleed air switch OFF, will nacelle anti-‐ice be available?
|
No
|
|
An Engine Bleed Air System (SYS) FAULT light indicates what?
|
• Bleed air overheat
• Bleed air overpressure • HP bleed valve open when commanded closed • PRV open when commanded closed |
|
What does a bleed duct Isolation (ISLN) VALVE light indicate (amber)?
|
Isolation valve position disagrees with switch position
|
|
What prevents reverse air flow into the engine compressor sections during engine start?
|
The PRV is positively closed
|
|
What happens if the engine start valve fails to close?
|
• Bleed air is isolated from the engine starter
• The PRV remains closed • The engine bleed air valve remains closed. • Nacelle anti-‐ice and thrust reverse are not available for the respective engine. |
|
What two valves close in the engine if a bleed air overheat is detected?
|
• PRV
• HP valve |
|
What conditions in the engine bleed air system would prevent nacelle anti ice operation when the bleed air switch is ON?
|
• The PRV has failed closed, or
• The PRV has been closed due to a bleed air overheat, or • The start valve is not closed |
|
How would you isolate a bleed air duct section in the event of a bleed duct leak is detected?
|
• Close the respective isolation valve
• Close the engine bleed air valves. |
|
Do we normally operate with the Isolation Valves open or closed?
|
Open
|
|
If the center duct is isolated, how is temperature controlled in all temperature zones?
|
• All temperature zones operate in backup temperature control mode
• Trim air is unavailable. |
|
With a left or right duct isolated, how would the leading edge flaps extend on the affected side, and what EICAS Advisory message would display?
|
• The respective LEF operate electrically in secondary mode.
• FLAPS PRIMARY (until LEF extended) |
|
How does an isolated left or right duct affect the hydraulic systems?
|
The respective hydraulic demand pump 1 or 4 is turned off.
|
|
What two systems use engine bleed air downstream in the engine prior to the engine bleed valve?
|
• Nacelle anti-‐ice
• Thrust reverse |
|
What is the wingspan of the airplane?
|
213 feet (64.9 meters)
|
|
What is the length of the airplane?
|
231 feet, 10 inches (70.7 meters)
|
|
What is the distance from wing gear strut to wing gear strut?
|
36 feet, 1 inch (11.0 meters)
|
|
What is the minimum width of pavement for a 180 degree turn?
|
153 feet (46.6 meters)
|
|
What two types of push-‐button switches are provided?
|
• Alternate action
• Momentary action |
|
Describe a momentary action switch and give some examples.
|
• Spring loaded to the extended position.
• They activate or deactivate systems or reset system logic. • Examples are the zone reset switch, pack reset switch, aHow would you describe an alternate action switch, when the Switch is ON?nd CARGO FIRE Depressurization/Discharge Switch |
|
How would you describe an alternate action switch, when the Switch is ON?
|
• When pushed in and flush with the panel, the switch is on.
• A mechanical shutter on one half of the switch opens to show an illuminated legend, such as “ON,” “AUTO,” or a flow bar. • For some switches, system status (MAN, OFF, VALVE) may be shown in the lower half of the switch. |
|
When do The FASTEN SEAT BELTS signs illuminate when AUTO is selected?
|
• Landing gear not up and locked/Flap lever not up
• Airplane altitude below 10,300 feet • Cabin altitude above 10,000 feet |
|
When are landing lights at maximum intensity?
|
Landing light switches ON and landing gear lever in DOWN position.
|
|
Can the taxi light (if installed) and rwy turnoff lights be illuminated in flight?
|
No, the lights extinguish when air/ground sensing system is in air mode.
|
|
With the Emergency (EMER) Lights Switch ARMED, when do the emergency lights illuminate?
|
If airplane electrical power (DC) fails or is turned off.
|
|
What powers the emergency lighting system, and for what duration?
|
• Remote batteries, powered by DC bus 4.
• 15 minutes with a fully charged battery |
|
When do the supernumerary oxygen masks drop automatically?
|
When the Supernumerary Switch is in NORM and cabin altitude reaches approximately 14,000 feet.
|
|
When does the supernumerary oxygen flow control unit reset?
|
Closed electrically with the supernumerary oxygen switch in RESET, when cabin altitude below 12,000 feet.
|
|
What indication do you get when oxygen is flowing, on the Oxygen Mask Panel?
|
Yellow cross shows on the oxygen mask panel.
|
|
What does “N” mean on the NORMAL/100% Switch (Red)?
|
N means an air/oxygen mixture on demand (ratio depends on cabin altitude)
|
|
What happens when you rotate the Oxygen Mask Emergency/Test selector to emergency, and when would you use it?
|
Supplies 100% oxygen under positive pressure at all cabin altitudes, and protects against smoke and harmful vapors
|
|
When the mask is removed from the stowage box, when does the mask microphone activate?
|
When the left‐hand door to the mask stowage box is opened.
|
|
How do you know that the oxygen supply valve is open?
|
An OXYGEN ON flag appears in the mask compartment near the left-hand door of the stowage box.
|
|
How do you shut off oxygen after use?
|
• Close the left-‐hand door of the stowage box.
• Push and release the RESET/TEST switch. • (This action shuts off oxygen to the mask, stows the flag, deactivates the microphone, and activates the boom mic. |
|
Where is the portable ELT located, on the freighter?
|
Upper deck lavatory exterior wall.
|
|
Where are the two crash axes located on the freighter?
|
• Main deck left forward sidewall
• Flight deck stowage compartment, left side. |
|
How many Portable Breathing Equipment (PBEs) are on the freighter, and where are they located?
|
• Four
• One on the main deck forward left side wall. • Two on the exterior wall of the upper deck lavatory. • One in the flight deck, right side on the wall, immediately after entrance to the flight deck |
|
How do you re-‐engage the autothrottles when the pitch mode is VNAV or FLCH SPD, when the A/T flight mode annunciation is blank?
|
Cycle the A/T ARM switch to OFF and back to ARM.
|
|
How do you re-engage the autothrottles when the pitch mode is ALT, V/S or G/S?
|
Push the speed switch.
|
|
How could you select climb thrust after takeoff or go-around?
|
Push the Thrust (THR) Switch
|
|
What speed is set in the IAS/Mach window and PFD when power is first applied to the airplane?
|
200 knots
|
|
The outer BANK LIMIT Selector applies to which roll mode?
|
HDG SEL
|
|
When the Localizer (LOC) is captured, what is displayed in the Heading (HDG) Window
|
The ILS front course
|
|
How can you de-select the approach mode AFTER localizer and glide-‐slope captured?
|
• Select TO/GA
• Disengage autopilot and position both F/D switches off. |
|
With the Approach (APP) Switch pushed, at what intercept track angle does the AFDS capture the Localizer?
|
120 degrees of the localizer course
|
|
At what altitude are the autopilot systems powered by separate sources with three autopilots engaged?
|
Below 1,500 feet radio altitude
|
|
Can the glideslope be captured prior to Localizer intercept?
|
No, glideslope capture is inhibited until localizer capture and the intercept angle is within 80 degrees of the localizer course.
|
|
What does an amber horizontal line displayed through the affected ACTIVE pitch or roll mode indicate?
|
A flight mode fault is detected
|
|
How many pushes of the autopilot disengage switches on the control column would you make to disengage all autopilots?
|
• Two pushes
• First push disengages, second push resets the master warning lights, EICAS warning message, and aural warning. |
|
When TO/GA is pushed for go-‐around on approach, what autothrottle mode would be displayed on the flight mode annunciation, if the A/T is armed?
|
THR mode
|
|
What climb rate is achieved during a go‐around with TO/GA pushed?
|
2,000 feet per minute of climb.
|
|
What autothrottle mode is activated with the second push of the TO/GA switch?
|
THR REF, at full go-around thrust
|
|
What AFDS status annunciation displays above the attitude display on the PFD when the autopilot is engaged?
|
CMD
|
|
When does VNAV activate?
|
VNAV activates at 400 feet above runway elevation.
|
|
When is VNAV deactivated?
|
• When selecting TO/GA, FLCH SPD, V/S, ALT, or G/S pitch mode.
• Dual FMC failure |
|
What Autothrottle flight mode annunciations would you have when using FLCH SPD in a descent, to include subsequent altitude capture?
|
• THR, followed by HOLD.
• A/T mode changes to SPD when altitude captured. |
|
When power is first applied to the airplane, what altitude is displayed in the MCP altitude window and PFD?
|
10,000 feet
|
|
How are autothrottle, roll, or pitch mode changes emphasized on the FMAs?
|
Green box around the mode for 10 seconds.
|
|
Will the autothrottles operate if you don’t push TO/GA for takeoff by 50 knots? If not, when will they operate in that case?
|
• No
• Reaching 400 feet. (autothrottles inhibited until 400 feet) |
|
How can you disarm VNAV, LNAV, LOC, and APP modes when armed?
|
Push the mode switch a second time
|
|
Which PFD annunciation is associated with a fail operational automatic landing, and which one is associated with a fail passive automatic landing?
|
• LAND 3 for fail operational
• LAND 2 for fail passive |
|
Which pitch mode does not provide autothrottle speed protection?
|
Vertical Speed (V/S).
|
|
When does LNAV activate when armed?
|
• Above 50 feet and in position to turn onto the active route leg.
• In flight, when within 2 ½ miles of the active leg. |
|
When does the ROLLOUT mode activate?
|
Below 5 feet
|
|
What controls are used by the AFDS to steer the airplane on the localizer centerline after touchdown?
|
Rudder and nosewheel steering
|
|
What initial pitch attitude is commanded by the flight director when the flight director is turned on, while on the ground?
|
8 degrees nose up
|
|
In flight, when is TO/GA armed?
|
• Flaps out of up, or
• Glideslope captured |
|
If a VNAV descent is initiated prior to top of descent (T/D), what is the pitch mode?
|
VNAV SPD
|
|
Describe the condition that would cause VNAV ALT to display as the pitch mode.
|
A conflict occurs between the VNAV profile and MCP altitude.
|
|
When does the FLARE mode activate during autoland?
|
Between 60 and 40 feet RA.
|
|
When do the autopilots start the flare maneuver?
|
Approximately 50 feet radio altitude
|
|
When do the autothrottles retard to idle during autoland?
|
At 25 feet radio altitude
|
|
When does the FLARE mode de-activate?
|
• At touchdown
• Nosewheel smoothly lowers to the runway. |
|
During autoland, what action disconnects the autothrottles?
|
A reverse thrust lever is raised to reverse idle.
|
|
What conditions would cause the autothrottles to disconnect and subsequently cannot be re-connected?
|
• Both FMCs fail
• Two or more engines are shut down. |
|
Can the autothrottles be reconnected if the FMC Master switch is switched?
|
Yes
|
|
During takeoff, when TO/GA is selected, what autothrottle mode is active?
|
THR REF (thrust reference)
|
|
When does the autothrottle annunciation change to HOLD during takeoff?
|
65 knots
|
|
When is barometric altitude recorded by the FMC during takeoff?
|
100 knots
|
|
At liftoff, with TO/GA as the roll mode, what roll command is maintained?
|
Ground track
|
|
If an engine failure occurs on the ground, what is the pitch command target Speed at liftoff?
|
V2, or airspeed at liftoff, whichever is greater.
|
|
At acceleration height, what speed commands are established by pitch as the flaps are retracted?
|
5 knots below the placard speed of the commanded flap position.
|
|
When is TO/GA mode terminated after takeoff?
|
• By selecting any other pitch and roll mode, or
• By activation of LNAV/VNAV modes. |
|
When does the autopilot control the rudder during multi A/P approaches?
|
When LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciated.
|
|
At what two altitudes will runway alignment occur during multi A/P approaches during crosswinds, with all engines?
|
500 feet and 200 feet, depending on crab angle.
|
|
How does the A/P maintain runway alignment if an engine failure occurs prior to the approach, during multi A/P approaches? If during approach?
|
• AFDS introduces a sideslip at 1300 AGL.
• Establishes a wings level configuration. • If an engine fails during the approach, wings level is established when the engine failure is detected. |
|
What pitch is commanded by the AFDS when TO/GA is pushed in a windshear recovery on approach?
|
15 degrees pitch-‐up or slightly below the pitch limit, whichever is lower.
|
|
How does the automatic flight control system provide stall protection?
|
Prevents speed reduction below the minimum maneuvering speed.
|
|
Describe flight envelope speed protection.
|
• Overspeed protection prevents exceeding the maximum operating,
• Gear extended, or • Flap placard speeds. |
|
What speed protection margin is used by the AFDS in max operating, flap placard speed, and gear extended speeds?
|
5 knots
|
|
What two conditions prevent the AFDS and autothrottle from providing speed protection?
|
• V/S pitch mode
• Engine failure above maximum engine-out altitude. |
|
How many knots, in height, is the command speed pointer on the PFD?
|
5 knots
|
|
What minimum maneuver capability is provided at the top of the amber bar on the PFD airspeed display?
|
1.3g at 40 degrees of bank in level flight
|
|
What occurs at the minimum speed display (red) on the PFD?
|
Stick shaker or low speed buffet occurs.
|
|
When is the Pitch Limit Indication (PLI) displayed?
|
Flaps are not up
|
|
When is radio altitude displayed on the PFD?
|
Below 2,500 feet AGL
|
|
Where are the marker beacon annunciations displayed?
|
Upper right corner of the PFD
|
|
How do the glideslope and localizer pointers on the PFD indicate excessive glideslope or localizer deviation?
|
The scales turn amber and the pointers flash.
|
|
How do you know when you are 1/3 of a dot deviation from the Localizer?
|
The Localizer pointer is just touching the rectangle during expanded localizer deviation scale.
|
|
Where does the altitude you select on the altitude window in the MCP display on the PFD, and in what color?
|
• The top of the altitude indications on the right side of the PFD.
• Displays in magenta |
|
Where is current track displayed on the ND?
|
Top of the ND middle.
|
|
How can you control your displays if the EFIS control panel fails?
|
Through the related CDU.
|
|
Describe the PLN (plan) mode of the ND mode selector.
|
• Non-moving display
• True north is up • Allows route step through, using the legs page |
|
What systems failure would result in the NAV Source Selector positioned to CDU L (captain’s panel), and CDU R (F/O’s panel)?
|
Dual FMC failure (alternate navigation)
|
|
Which source selector switch determines which localizer and glideslope receivers provide information to the respective PFD and ND?
|
EIU source selector
|
|
What does the acronym EIU mean?
|
EFIS/EICAS Interface Unit
|
|
Which IRS source provides autobrakes reference?
|
IRU selected by the Captain
|
|
What source selector switch would you likely move in the event of an ALT or SPD flag in view on the PFD?
|
Air Data Source Selector.
|
|
How can you control displays if the display select panel fails?
|
Through the CDU.
|
|
The pitot static system provides pitot and static pressure to which aircraft systems and/or components?
|
• Air data computers
• Standby airspeed indicator and standby altimeter • Elevator feel computer |
|
Explain the course of air through the pitot static system as it enters the pitot and static tubes and ports all the way through to the displays.
|
Air flows through the pitot tubes and static ports, to the Air data computers, to the EIUs, which provide displays of altitude, airspeed, mach, and air temperature.
|
|
When do the ILS receivers tune and the frequency and course display after you select an ILS while inbound to the landing airport?
|
• When the airplane is within 150 nm of the destination airport.
• When within 50 nm of T/D • When in FMC descent |
|
How long is ILS autotuning inhibited after takeoff?
|
10 minutes (prevents clutter on the PFD)
|
|
How could you autotune a new approach frequency during the 10-minute autotune inhibit period?
|
Select and execute a new approach in the active flight plan.
|
|
If the tuned frequency of a navigation station, or an incorrect identifier displays, instead of the correct Morse code identifier, what should you do?
|
Verify the identity of the tuned navigation station from the audio Morse code from the radio tuning panel.
|
|
In what transponder modes will the transponder activate beacon and altitude reporting to ATC, when in flight?
|
• XPNDR
• TA, TA ONLY/or TA/RA |
|
Can ATC monitor airplane position on the ground when the transponder is in STBY or OFF?
|
No
|
|
Can clear air turbulence be sensed by weather radar?
|
No, turbulence can only be sensed when there is sufficient precipitation.
|
|
How many FMS’s and how many FMCs are provided?
|
• One FMS (flight management system)
• Two FMCs (flight management computers L and R) |
|
How many hours could you meet the requirements for navigation if you had two IRUs, one FMC, and two CDUs as the sole means of navigation?
|
18 hours
|
|
When does the approach phase of the FMS start?
|
When the first waypoint of the of the procedure sequences.
|
|
When will the FMC fail to sequence the active waypoint?
|
When more than 21 nm off the active route and not on an offset route.
|
|
What factor determines “Econ” speed?
|
Cost index
|
|
Explain the concept of cost index.
|
• Cost index is the relationship of fuel versus time.
• A low cost index causes a minimum fuel, lower cruise speed and maximizes range. • High cost index causes a minimum time speed schedule within the flight envelope. |
|
What is a conditional waypoint?
|
• A conditional waypoint is based on a time or altitude requirement, and not based on a land reference.
• Indicate when an event occurs, and not a geographically fixed position, ie., “when reaching 4,000 feet.” |
|
What determines present position of the airplane, and where on the ND is it displayed?
|
• FMC
• Tip of the white triangle |
|
How is FMC position updated?
|
• GPS
• Nav radios • IRS |
|
How is the FMC updated during an ILS/LOC approach?
|
Localizer signals (LOC, LOC DD, LOC VD, LOC GPS.)
|
|
What does a “VD” FMC radio position update status indicate and where is it displayed?
|
• VOR and its collocated DME
• Lower right hand corner of the ND, in green. |
|
When does the FMS enter polar operation conditions?
|
When the FMC calculated airplane position passes north of 84 north or south of 84 south. (FMCs revert to split IRS.)
|
|
When would you ever select the “TRUE” position on the Heading Reference switch?
|
For autopilot operations in high latitudes using a roll mode other than LNAV.
|
|
When does the heading reference for PFDs, NDs, and RMi change to true north?
|
• At 82N (or north of 70N between 80W and 130W)
• At 82S (or south of 60 S between 120E and 160 E) |
|
When armed for takeoff, when does VNAV activate?
|
400 feet
|
|
What VNAV climb profiles are used by VNAV and displayed in the pitch mode FMA during climb?
|
• VNAV SPD
• VNAV PTH |
|
What VNAV climb mode would display on the FMA during departure waypoint constraints?
|
VNAV PTH
|
|
If the FMC cruise altitude is FL 250 and the clearance altitude, FL 190 is set in the MCP, what pitch mode FMA will display when FL 190 is captured?
|
VNAV ALT
|
|
What is the end of descent point (E/D) for VOR approaches?
|
The missed approach point, which may be the VOR, runway waypoint, or a named waypoint.
|
|
What is the end of descent point (E/D) for all approaches other than VOR approaches?
|
50 feet above the runway threshold (RW Waypoint).
|
|
When does the FMC transition to “on approach” logic?
|
• A VFR approach is created and the airplane has sequenced the FAXXX, or the airplane is enroute to a direct-‐to or intercept-‐to the RWYYY waypoint and the airplane is within 25 nm of the runway threshold.
• A published instrument approach has been selected and incorporated into the active flight plan and the airplane has sequenced the first waypoint on the published approach. |
|
If you are flying an approach with the FMC in “on approach” logic, and the airplane rises more than 150 feet above the path, the FMA pitch mode will change from VNAV PTH to what pitch mode display?
|
VNAV SPD
|
|
What condition or feature of the FMC allows us to set missed approach altitude while in a VNAV PTH, allowing us to continue descent on approach?
|
“on approach” logic.
|
|
When you execute the missed approach, what altitude becomes the new cruise altitude?
|
The highest altitude in the missed approach procedure
|
|
What two databases are contained in the FMC?
|
• Performance
• Navigation |
|
What could happen if you advance the thrust levers further during a T0 1 or TO 2 fixed derate, following an engine failure?
|
Loss of directional control
|
|
Can you manually apply more thrust, when conditions are necessary, during an assumed temperature thrust reduction takeoff?
|
Yes, because the assumed temperature thrust setting is not considered a limitation.
|
|
During climb, at what altitude does CLB 1 or CLB 2 derated thrust begin to increase linearly and at what altitude would CLB thrust be achieved?
|
• 10,000 feet is when derated thrust begins to increase
• 15,000 feet is when CLB thrust is achieved |
|
What fuel value is usually used by the FMC for performance calculations?
|
CALC (calculated)
|
|
If you lose electrical power to the FMC, and then returns, do you have to re-enter performance data on the PERF INIT page?
|
Yes
|
|
Is the autothrottle available during dual FMC failure?
|
No
|
|
Are LNAV and VNAV available in alternate navigation?
|
No
|
|
What CDU pages are available during Alternate Navigation?
|
• ALTERNATE NAVIGATION LEGS
• ALTERNATE NAVIGATION PROGRESS • ALTERNATE NAVIGATION RADIO |
|
If the <FMC prompt is not displayed in line 1when MENU is displayed on the CDU, how do you display alternate navigation pages available?
|
Push the LEGS key, the PROG key, and the NAV RAD key.
|
|
Is it OK for the pilots to enter information in both CDUs at the same time?
|
No, avoid this practice.
|
|
What is meant by the DRAG/Fuel Flow (FF) values in line 3L of the CDU Identification page?
|
Drag and fuel flow correction factors
|
|
What happens when an active database expires in flight?
|
The expired database is used until the active date is changed after landing.
|
|
When do the ILS frequency and course and the word PARK display on the NAV/RAD page when en‐route to the destination?
|
• Less than 200 NM from the T/D, or
• More than halfway to the destination. • (Whichever represents the lesser distance to destination) • Upon manual tuning |
|
What is the maximum thrust reduction limit in terms of percentage when using assumed temperature?
|
25%
|
|
When entering a thrust reduction (THR) HAA value in the FMC Takeoff REF page, do you have to add field elevation to the value?
|
No, the FMC adds runway elevation to the entered HAA thrust reduction height, causing thrust reduction at an MSL.
|
|
How would the FMC handle a manually entered V1 speed less than V1MIN?
|
The FMC would display “VIMIN” in the header line and the value of V1MIN in the data line.
|
|
On the legs page, does the INTCPT COURSE line at 6R mean TO?, or FROM? the active waypoint in 1L?
|
TO the waypoint.
|
|
What system logic features of the FMC Arrivals page allow a quick air turn back to the origin airport?
|
• The arrivals page allows access without changing the destination on the route page.
• Less than 400 miles from the origin, and while nearer to the origin than the destination, pushing the DEP ARR key displays the ARRIVALS page for the origin airport. |
|
Can the FMC display engine out performance limitations based on two engines out?
|
Yes
|
|
On what page of the CDU could you find elevation for an airport in the database?
|
Reference Navigation Data Page
|
|
What is the difference between RNP and ACTUAL? Where is it displayed?
|
• RNP is required navigation performance
• ACTUAL is Actual Aircraft Navigation Performance • Displayed on FMC POS REF page |
|
Can you make manual entries to RNP or ACTUAL values?
|
Manual entries can be made to RNP (displays in large font).
|
|
On what page of the CDU could you enter the altitude or fight level where anti‐ice is to be first turned on during the descent?
|
The Descent Forecast Page
|
|
If, while loading an approach to the destination during cruise flight, you subsequently push, the 6R key “APPROACH Intercept (INTC),” and then execute, what would become the active waypoint? What would happen to any other pages or waypoints previously loaded?
|
• The approach intercept fix would become the active waypoint.
• All other waypoints previously loaded would be deleted. |
|
On what page of the CDU could you find runway length for the selected Runway?
|
Approach Reference Page
|
|
What teardrop offset angle is used by the “Holding” page?
|
40 degrees
|
|
What is commanded by pushing the MCP Altitude Selector switch?
|
• Initiates an “early descent” when within 50 NM of the top of descent point. VNAV starts an early descent and captures the idle descent path. VNAV SPD displays on the FMA pitch mode.
• Initiates a cruise descent when more than 50 nm from top of descent point. VNAV begins a cruise descent to the new cruise altitude, and may not capture the idle descent path. • Initiates a climb or descent toward the altitude set in the MCP altitude window, when in VNAV PTH or VNAV ALT pitch mode. • During climb or descent with altitude constraints, each push deletes the next waypoint constraint. • During climb with no altitude constraints, and the altitude window set above the FMC cruise altitude, changes cruise altitude to the altitude window value. |
|
When flying an instrument approach with a PROC HOLD header displayed at line 1L, do you have to select EXIT HOLD and then EXECUTE in order to exit the holding pattern?
|
No, the FMC automatically commands an exit from the hold when the holding pattern is designed as a course reversal in lieu of a procedure turn.
|
|
Which waypoints are referenced and displayed in magnetic and which waypoints are displayed in true on the alternate navigation LEGS pages?
|
• Only the active waypoint is referenced to magnetic north.
• All subsequent waypoint courses are true courses. |
|
What does EICAS mean?
|
Engine Indication and Crew Alerting System
|
|
What are the three types of EICAS messages?
|
• Alert
• Memo • Status |
|
What are the three priority levels of alert messages?
|
• Warning
• Caution • Advisory |
|
What is the highest priority alert message?
|
Warning messages (red)
|
|
Can warning messages be canceled by pushing the CANC switch
|
No
|
|
Can amber alert messages be canceled or recalled?
|
Yes, by pushing the CANC switch or the RCL switch.
|
|
What is an advisory message?
|
• Lowest priority message (displayed in amber).
• Indented one space • Can be canceled or recalled. |
|
Where is the most recent EICAS communication message displayed?
|
• At the top of its priority group.
• All messages move down one line. |
|
Where is the most recent Memo message displayed?
|
At the bottom of the memo messages
|
|
What is a memo message and where are they displayed?
|
• A reminder of selected state of controls or systems.
• Displayed in white • Cannot be canceled • Displayed at the bottom of the last page of EICAS alert messages. |
|
Give examples of EICAS memo messages.
|
• APU RUNNING
• CON IGNITION ON • SEATBELTS ON • PACKS OFF • AUTOBRAKES RTO |
|
What does the STATUS Cue mean, and what color is the display?
|
• A new status message exists (Secondary EICAS)
• Cyan color |
|
What is the function of the EIU selector in the AUTO position?
|
• Selects an operable EIU to provide data to EFIS and EICAS.
• Selects, left, then center, and then right. |
|
If you had previously exceeded a parameter, such as an EGT limit for an engine, what would be displayed when pushing the RCL Switch?
|
Redisplays a red box.
|
|
What alert displays are shown or displayed on the PFD?
|
• PULL UP (red)
• WINDSHEAR (red) (predictive windshear ahead or an immediate windshear is occurring. |
|
When you receive a TCAS RA, where do you position the center of the airplane symbol on the PFD?
|
Outside the red outlined RA pitch regions.
|
|
How many events can the EICAS Event Record Switch record?
|
5
|
|
Which type of EICAS message are listed in the DDG and provide a cross reference to the MEL for dispatch capability?
|
EICAS Status Messages
|
|
Which engines, when advanced, will display the EICAS alert message CONFIG, if the airplane is not configured for takeoff?
|
2 or 3
|
|
What configuration conditions will cause the CONFIG message to display?
|
• Flaps not in a takeoff position
• Body gear not centered • Parking brake set • Speedbrake lever not in DN detent • Stabilizer trim not in takeoff range |
|
What conditions will cause the CONFIG GEAR EICAS warning message?
|
• The airplane is in flight, and
• Any landing gear not down and locked, and • Any thrust lever is closed and the RA is less than 800 feet. • Flaps in a landing position (25 or more) |
|
When does the c-chord sound prior to reaching the selected altitude?
|
900 feet
|
|
How many feet off the selected altitude will cause the EICAS alert message ALTITUDE ALERT?
|
300 feet
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Name some Ground Proximity Warning System features provided.
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• Look-‐ahead terrain alerts
• Predictive windshear alerts • Immediate windshear alerts • Bank angle voice alerts • Immediate alerts involving impact with obstacles and the ground. • Altitude voice annunciations during approach |
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TERRAIN, TERRAIN, PULL UP voice annunciation sounds when how many seconds from projected impact with terrain? How about CAUTION, TERRAIN?
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• 20 to 30 seconds – for TERRAIN, TERRAIN, PULLUP
• 40 to 60 seconds for CAUTION, TERRAIN |
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When are master CAUTION lights and Beeper inhibited during takeoff?
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80 knots airspeed
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New Predictive Windshear Warnings are inhibited at what airspeed during takeoff?
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100 knots airspeed
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When are Master WARNING lights and Bell for New EICAS warning messages FIRE inhibited during takeoff?
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At V1
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