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59 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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4. Which disease is characterized by frequent bone fractures, abnormal dentition and blue sclera?
A. Achondroplasia B. Osteogenesis imperfect C. Osteomalacia D. Osteitis deformans |
B. Osteogenesis imperfect
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6. Which of the following is also known as marble bone disease of Albers-Schonberg disease?
A. Achondroplastic dwarfism B. Osteopetrosis C. Fibrous dysplasia D. Osteogenesis imperfecta E. None of the above |
B. Osteopetrosis**
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7. Rickets is due to:
A. Increased parathormone production B. Decreased calcium utilization C. Vitamin D deficiency D. Increased renal resorption of phosphate |
C. Vitamin D deficiency
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8. Relative to deficiency of vitamin D, all of the following are true except:
a. Found in children of vitamin D-deficient mothers b. Found in individuals with limited exposure to sunlight c. Causes osteomalacia in adults d. Causes hypercalcemia |
d. Causes hypercalcemia
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10. Which of the following results from reduced production of osteoid, the protein matrix of the bone?
a. Osteitis b. Osteomalacia c. Osteoporosis |
c. Osteoporosis
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11. In osteoporosis, thinning of trabeculae is particularly common in which bones?
A. Neck of femur B. Distal radius C. Clavicle and scapula D. Occiput |
Neck of femur
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13. The so-called “brown tumor” of hyperparathyroidism may microscopically mimic:
A. ameloblastoma B. central giant cell granuloma C. periapical cemental dysplasia D. traumatic bone cyst E. odontogenic keratocyst |
B. central giant cell granuloma**
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15. Paget’s disease is characterized by:
A. Reduced osteoclastic activity B. Increased osteoclastic activity followed by reduced osteoblastic activity C. Reduced osteoclastic activity followed by increased osteoblastic activity D. Increased osteoclastic activity followed by increased osteoblastic activity |
D. Increased osteoclastic activity followed by increased osteoblastic activity
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16. Which of the following is elevated in the serum of a patient with Paget’s disease?
A. BUN B. Calcitonin C. Alkaline phosphatase D. Calcium E. None of the above |
C. Alkaline phosphatase
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19. Pott’s disease is osteomyelitis of the spine due to:
A. Staphylococcus B. Salmonella C. Cryptococcus D. Mycobacterium |
D. Mycobacterium
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20. Which of the following is the most common joint disorder?
A. Osteoarthritis B. Psoriatic arthritis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Gouty arthritis E. N. gonorrhea arthritis |
A. Osteoarthritis
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22. Tissue accumulation of urates is characteristic of which form of arthritis?
A. Osteoarthritis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Gout D. Lyme disease |
C. Gout
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23. All of the following are characteristic of gout, except:
A. Affects joint at the base of the big toe B. Urate crystals deposited in skin and joints C. More common in women D. Increased uric acid level in blood E. Treated with alopurinol |
C. More common in women
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24. The most common malignant bone tumor is:
A. osteosarcoma B. Osteochondroma C. Giant Cell tumor D. Metastasis |
D. Metastasis
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25. Which of the following is probably not a true neoplasm?
A. Osteoma B. Osteoid osteoma C. Chondroma D. Giant Cell tumor |
A. Osteoma
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A malignant tumor of mesenchymal origin that produces osteoid is a(n):
a. Osteosarcoma b. Chondrosarcoma c. Giant Cell tumor d. Ewing’s sarcoma |
a. Osteosarcoma
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32. Which tumor is associated with a translocation event between chromosomes 11 and 22?
A. Osteosarcoma B. Osteochondroma C. Giant Cell tumor D. Ewing’s sarcoma |
D. Ewing’s sarcoma
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34. Which of the following is true concerning myasthenia gravis?
a. Antibodies to acetylcholine b. Skeletal muscle weakness c. Thymic hyperplasia d. Ptosis e. All of the above |
e. All of the above
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36. The etiology of myasthenia gravis involves autoimmunity against:
A. Instrinsic factor B. Acetyl choline receptor C. Parathormone D. Cardiac myosin |
B. Acetyl choline receptor
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37. Which of the following is associated with myasthenia gravis?
A. Thymic hyperplasia B. Thymoma C. Lymphoma of the thymus gland D. Atrophic thymus gland E. None of the above |
A. Thymic hyperplasia
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39. In Duchenne dystrophy, dystrophin is:
A. Expressed at high levels B. Expressed reduced levels but the protein is abnormal C. Expressed at normal levels but the protein is abnormal D. Not expressed |
D. Not expressed
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40. Uterine fibroids are actually benign tumors of smooth muscle, and thus are classified as:
A. Liposarcoma B. Fibroma C. Leiomyoma D. Rhabdomyosarcoma |
C. Leiomyoma
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7. What is the leading cause of death from liver disease in early childhood?
a. Choledocholithaisis b. Cholangitis c. Secondary biliary cirrhosis d. Biliary atresia |
d. Biliary atresia
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7. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia is an example of
a. complement-mediated cytotoxicity b. antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity c. cytotoxic T cell activity d. Natural Killer cell activity |
a. complement-mediated cytotoxicity
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10. Which of the following is/are associated with erythema multiforme (EM)?
A. Butterly rash B. Crusting, bloody lip lesions C. Target lesions D. A and C E. B and C |
D. A and C
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12. “Stevens-Johnson syndrome” and “toxic epidermal necrolysis (Lyell disease)” are terms that have been used traditionally for more severe forms of which of the following diseases?
A. SLE B. Erythema multiforme C. Epidermolysis bullosa D. Erythema migrans |
B. Erythema multiforme
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15. Which of the following is not associated with lichen planus?
A. Hyperparakeratosis B. Saw tooth rete pegs C. Whickam striae D. Acute eczematous dermatitis E. Pruritis |
D. Acute eczematous dermatitis
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18. All of the following are associated with sub-basilar epithelial splitting except:
A. paraneoplastic pemphigus B. cicatrical pemphigoid C. pemphigus D. dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa E. bullous pemphigoid |
C. pemphigus
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20. Which of the following is a serious acute or chronic bullous autoimmune disease of skin and mucous membrane where clinical features show increased prevalence in Ashkenazi Jews?
A. pemphigus vulgaris B. cicatricial pemphigoid C. mucous membrane pemphigoid D. erythema multiforme |
A. pemphigus vulgaris
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There are several recognized clinical variants of pemphigus; which of the following is the most common form?
A. pemphigus vulgaris B. pemphigus vegetans C. pemphigus erythematosus D. pemphigus foliaccus |
A. pemphigus vulgaris
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24. Which of the following lesions show histological features with direct immunofluorescence studies of perilesional mucosa featuring a continuous linear band of immunoreactants at the basement membrane zone?
A. erosive lichen planus B. pemphigus vulgaris C. paraneoplastic pemphigus D. cicatricial pemphigoid |
D. cicatricial pemphigoid
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28. Which of the following is a relatively common low-grade malignancy that originates in the pilosebaceous glands and pathologically resembles squamous cell carcinoma?
A. Actinic keratosis B. Seborrheic keratosis C. Keratoacanthoma D. Dermatofibrosis E. Intradermal nevus |
C. Keratoacanthoma
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32. Which of the following is associated with dyskeratosis (keratin pearls)?
A. Melanocarcinoma B. Basal cell carcinoma C. Squamous cell carcinoma D. Pulmonary adenocarcinoma E. None of the above |
C. Squamous cell carcinoma
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33. Which of the following is not true concerning basal cell carcinoma?
A. Most common malignant tumor of skin B. Originates in lowest layer of the epidermis C. Develops on sun exposed skin surfaces D. Invades and destroys surrounding tissues E. Rarely cured by surgical resection |
E. Rarely cured by surgical resection
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35. Which of the following is not associated with malignant melanoma?
A. Can arise in junctional nevi B. Rarely metastasizes C. Most severe form of skin cancer D. Most common in fair-skinned individuals E. Originates in pigment-producing skin cells |
B. Rarely metastasizes
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1. Which of the following is elevated in the serum of a patient with azotemia?
a. BUN b. Albumin c. Creatine d. A and C e. A, B, and C |
d. A and C
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2. Uremia is associated with which of the following?
a. Metabolic and endocrine alterations b. Failure of renal excretory function c. Azotemia d. A and C e. A, B, and C |
e. A, B, and C
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4. Asymptomatic hematuria, proteinuria or a combination of the two is characteristic of which of the following kidney problems?
a. Glomerular abnormalities b. Tubular abnormalities c. Interstitial abnormalities d. Cortical abnormalities e. None of the above |
a. Glomerular abnormalities
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6. Which of the following is/are primary glomerulonephritis conditions?
a. Minimal change disease b. Systemic lupus erythematosus c. Membranous glomerulonephritis d. A and B e. A and C |
e. A and C
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9. Which of the following is/are mediators of glomerular injury?
a. Interleukin 1 b. Arachidonic acid metabolites c. Nitric oxide d. Growth factors e. All of the above |
e. All of the above
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11. Acute nephritic syndrome involves all of the following except:
a. Azotemia b. Excessive proteinuria c. Grossly visible hematuria d. Hypertension e. Glomerular disease |
b. Excessive proteinuria
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15. Immunohistology of renal tissue and skin from a patient with SLE reveals deposition of immunoglobulin and complement in the glomeruli and dermo-epidermal junction respectively. Measurement of serum complement levels in this patient would most likely reveal:
a. Increased level b. Normal levels c. Reduced levels d. Absence of complement |
c. Reduced levels
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18. Which of the following is not associated with Berger disease?
a. Nephrotic syndrome b. Children and young adults c. Most common glomerular disease worldwide d. Variant of Henoch-Schonlein purpura e. IgA entrapped in mesangium |
a. Nephrotic syndrome
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20. Which of the following is characterized by glomerular crescent formation?
a. Acute poststreptococcal GN b. Rapidly progressive GN c. Membranoproliferative GN d. IgA nephropathy e. None of the above |
b. Rapidly progressive GN
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23. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis (RPGN) most commonly occurs between ages:
a. 10 and 20 b. 30 and 40 c. 50 and 60 d. 60 and 70 e. 70 and 80 |
a. 10 and 20**
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25. Which of the following is the most obvious clinical manifestation of nephrotic syndrome?
a. Generalized edema b. Thirst c. Hyperalbuminemia d. Urine specific gravity of 1,000 e. None of the above |
a. Generalized edema
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27. Which of the following is/are the most frequent systemic causes of nephritic syndrome?
a. Diabetes mellitus b. SLE c. Amyloidosis d. A and C e. A, B, and C |
e. A, B, and C
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28. Which of the following is/are more commonly associated with childhood disease?
a. Lipoid nephrosis b. Membranous GN c. Minimal change disease d. A and B e. A and C |
e. A and C
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29. The inability of an infant to cry may be a clinical sign of:
A. icterus B. congenital amyloidosis C. lipoid proteinosis D. Vitamin D resistant rickets E. hypophosphatasia |
C. lipoid proteinosis
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34. Chronic glomerulonephritis represents the end stage of which of the following?
a. RPGN b. FSG c. MPGN d. MGN e. All of the above |
e. All of the above
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35. Tubulointerstitial nephritis (TIN) refers to kidney disease generally caused by which of the following?
a. Drugs b. Metabolic disorders c. Irradiation d. B and C e. A, B, and C |
a. Drugs
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37. All of the following are associated with urinary tract infections except:
a. 10 times more common in men b. Acute UTI caused by E. coli c. Chronic UTI caused by drug resistant organisms d. Major cause of preventable retrograde renal failure |
a. 10 times more common in men
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38. The most common agent causing ascending pyelonephritis is:
a. Staphylococcus b. Escherichia coli c. Streptococccus faecalis d. Pseudomonas e. Enterobacter |
b. Escherichia coli
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42. Which of the following is associated with malignant nephrosclerosis
a. Severe hyperlipidemia b. Severe hyperalbuminemia c. Severe hypertension d. Severe hyperthyroidism e. Severe hyperbilirubinemia |
c. Severe hypertension
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43. The most common variety of renal stone is the:
a. Calcium oxalate (phosphate) stone b. Struvite stone c. Uric acid stone d. Cystine stone e. None of the above |
a. Calcium oxalate (phosphate) stone
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46. Which of the following is not related to autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease?
a. Tends to be stable and progress very slowly b. Hypertension is complication c. Disease is reversible d. Intermittent gross hematuria is common e. Flank pain occuring in fourth decade |
c. Disease is reversible
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47. Which of the following cystic diseases of the kidney is the most common inherited disorder of the kidney?
a. Infantile polycystic kidney disease b. Medullary cystic disease c. Adult polycystic kidney disease d. Medullary sponge kidney e. None of the above |
c. Adult polycystic kidney disease
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48. Which of the following is/are predisposing factors for bladder and renal carcinomas:
a. Herpes simplex infection b. Cigarette smoking c. Descending infections d. A and B e. B and C |
b. Cigarette smoking
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50. Which of the following is the most common malignant tumor of the kidney?
a. Wilms tumor b. Renal cell carcinoma c. Transitional cell carcinoma d. Ewing sarcoma e. None of the above |
b. Renal cell carcinoma
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