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100 Cards in this Set

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  • Back
201) What should you do before conducting an in-depth funds analysis?
a. Develop financial plan.
b. Conduct preliminary research.
c. Monitor reimbursement program.
d. Develop economic impact statement.
b
201) An economic analysis (EA) is an aid to rational choice among competing alternatives. How many steps are in a formal EA?
a. Three.
b. Four.
c. Five.
d. Six.
d
201) Risk from imperfect knowledge about the state of the world lead to what type of risk?
a. Schedule.
b. Technical.
c. Requirements.
d. Cost estimating.
c
201) Funding variances occur when reprogramming actions take place; identify the two types of funding variances?
a. Macro and micro.
b. Slippage and stoppage.
c. Slippage and acceleration.
d. Acceleration and stoppage.
c
202) The key to successfully accomplishing your role as a financial analyst is your
a. determination.
b. hard work and knowledge.
c. professional education and other classes.
d. professional reputation and in-depth knowledge of your wing’s mission and structure.
d
202) While standard organizational structures are defined in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 38–101, who determines the organizational structure of your base?
a. The Defense Finance and Accounting Service (DFAS).
b. The Secretary of the Air Force (SAF).
c. The Financial Service Office (FSO).
d. The major command (MAJCOM).
d
7. (202) Under which group in an objective wing would you find weapon systems operators such as pilots, navigators, flight engineers, and missile launch officers?
a. Operations.
b. Logistics.
c. Support.
d. Medical.
a
202) The group in a wing responsible for supply, transportation, and contracting is
a. Operations.
b. Logistics.
c. Medical.
d. Support.
b
9. (202) Which group within a wing is responsible for the housing, feeding, security, communications, and recreational activities of the base?
a. Medical.
b. Support.
c. Logistics.
d. Operations.
b
10. (203) The rules and procedures for using funds appropriated to the Air Force can be found in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 65–601, volume
a. 1.
b. 2.
c. 3.
d. 5.
a
203) Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) contains current symbols and budget codes and their descriptions?
a. AFMAN 65–604.
b. AFMAN 65–504.
c. AFMAN 65–503.
d. AFMAN 65–501.
a
203) Which publication establishes prerequisites for recording obligations?
a. Office of Management and Budget (OMB) A–76.
b. Department of Defense (DOD) 4000.19-R.
c. Defense Finance and Accounting Service (DFAS)-DE 7077.2-M.
d. DFAS-DE 7000.4-R.
d
204) The first phase of the Department of Defense (DOD) biennial planning, programming, and budgeting decision-making process and involves all the key elements within DOD in their respective areas of responsibility is
a. costing of programs.
b. identifying our national goals.
c. determining military plans and requirements.
d. coordinating long-range military planning with existing programs.
c
204) Which cycle of the Department of Defense (DOD) biennial planning, programming, budgeting, and execution (PPBE) system identifies military goals and develops courses of action to meet them?
a. Planning.
b. Budgeting.
c. Execution.
d. Programming.
a
205) Department of Defense (DOD) functional categories are classifications of expense that are directly subordinate to
a. program elements (PE).
b. major force programs (MFP).
c. Department of Defense elements of expense (DODEE).
d. Air Force elements of expense/investment codes (EEIC).
a
16. (206) In which stage of the budget cycle are estimates developed within the Department of Defense (DOD) accounting structure?
a. Review.
b. Execution.
c. Enactment.
d. Formulation.
d
206) The Chief of Staff of the Air Force approves or adjusts estimates and submits them to what agency or office that will make the last official action to either approve or adjust the Department of the Air Force budget estimate?
a. Air Force Council.
b. National Security Council (NSC).
c. Secretary of the Air Force (SAF).
d. Office of Management and Budget (OMB).
c
207) Which federal department or agency prepares the appropriation warrant?
a. Headquarters US Air Force.
b. Department of Defense (DOD).
c. Department of the Treasury.
d. Office of Management and Budget (OMB).
c
208) Of the two types of documents issued to the major commands (MAJCOM), which one makes funds available for obligation from an allocation or suballocation?
a. Allotment.
b. Appropriation warrant.
c. Apportionment request.
d. Operating budget authority.
a
208) Identify the document that contains annual and quarterly funding authority within the operations and maintenance appropriation?
a. Allotment.
b. Appropriation warrant.
c. Apportionment request.
d. Operating budget authority.
d
209) Which appropriation, by period of availability, has the greatest impact on base management?
a. No-year.
b. One-year.
c. Two-year.
d. Multiple-year.
b
22. (209) What are the two statuses of availability categories for appropriation accounts?
a. Current and expired.
b. Current and direct.
c. Expired and indirect.
d. Expired and direct.
a
210) Funds made available to the Air Force cannot be established in reserve accounts to use later; therefore, funds are programmed
a. in their entirety.
b. on a monthly basis.
c. on a quarterly basis.
d. in six month increments.
a
(210) The basic purpose of the operating budget is to ensure that you price the baseline property and
a. Call instructions are appropriate.
b. inputs to the program objective memorandum (POM) are correct.
c. the baseline for operations and maintenance (O&M) is accurate.
d. the financial plan is submitted on time.
c
211) The directive to price an approved program in a specific format is called
a. program objective memorandum (POM).
b. defense guidance.
c. Command Call.
d. USAF Call.
c
211) In what month does the Secretary of the Air Force (SAF) issue the USAF Call to the major commands (MAJCOM)?
a. January.
b. February.
c. March.
d. April.
a
212) What process does the Air Force use to sharpen financial planning?
a. Bogey concept.
b. Initial distribution.
c. President’s budget (PB).
d. Continuing Resolution Authority (CRA).
a
28. (212) How many parts are included in the Bogey?
a. One.
b. Two.
c. Three.
d. Four.
b
213) Budgeting provides a means for coordinating activities toward what common goal?
a. Mission accomplishment.
b. Functional area interaction.
c. Financial blueprint development.
d. Implementation of a rigid planning document
a
213) A balanced equitable program consists of a balance between
a. mission and support requirements.
b. mission and nonappropriated requirements.
c. nonappropriated and support requirements.
d. nonappropriated and appropriated requirements.
a
214) The operations and maintenance (O&M) execution plan will have narratives written at what level?
a. Subactivity group (SAG).
b. Product enhancing capital (PEC).
c. Element of expense investment code (EEIC).
d. Responsibility Center/Cost Center (RCCC).
a
214) How many sections must be included in the operations and maintenance (O&M) execution plan?
a. Two.
b. Three.
c. Four.
d. Five.
c
215) Who reviews the financial plan to make sure that estimated costs and justifications are factual and complete?
a. Financial Management Analysis (FMA).
b. Financial Management Board (FMB).
c. Financial Working Group (FWG).
d. Comptroller.
b
215) You can submit the budget to the major command (MAJCOM) after whose approval?
a. Financial Management Board (FMB).
b. Financial Working Group (FWG).
c. Supervisor.
d. Commander.
a
216) What perspective in the Commander’s Resource Information System (CRIS) do you use to retrieve an end-of-day snapshot of the most current budget execution data?
a. Program Summary Record (PSR).
b. Fund Summary Record (FSR).
c. Control Summary Record (CSR).
d. Document Summary Record (DSR).
a
216) If your commander wants to know how the unit is executing their 2008 TDY budget, what data should you use in the search criteria in the Commander’s Resource Information System (CRIS)?
a. Element of expense investment code (EEIC) of 409 only.
b. EEIC of 409, fund code of 30, and fiscal year.
c. Fiscal year of 2007 and fund code of 30 only.
d. Fund code of 30 only.
b
217) On what time interval basis are research, development, test and evaluation (RDT&E) funds set up?
a. No-year.
b. Quarterly.
c. Annually.
d. Multiple-year.
d
217) Which program within the research, development, test and evaluation (RDT&E) appropriation includes work performed under contract with other government agencies, private industry, and educational institutions?
a. Mission.
b. Outsourcing.
c. Management and support.
d. Operations and maintenance (O&M).
a
217) At which level does the Air Force manage research, development, test and evaluation (RDT&E) funds for the current and immediate preceding fiscal year?
a. Program element (PE).
b. Military force program (MFP).
c. DOD element of expense (DODEE).
d. Responsibility Center/Cost Center (RC/CC) code.
a
217) What are the two appropriations for management of military family housing (MFH)? a. 57*7020 and 57*7040.
b. 57*7030 and 57*7045. c. 57*7045 and 57*7040. d. 57*7045 and 57*7080.
c
217) What budget program is set up to cover operations and maintenance (O&M) costs of the military family housing (MFH) program?
a. 710.
b. 720.
c. 730.
d. 740.
b
217) Which expense is not reimbursable for military family housing (MFH)?
a. Charges for mobile home space rental.
b. Amounts paid for utilities and services.
c. Support of family housing owned by another service.
d. Charges for initial utility connection of privately owned mobile homes
a
217) Can your commander purchase egg rolls for a Chinese day function using appropriated funds and if so, when?
a. Yes, and the size does not matter.
b. Yes, as long as they are “sample size.”
c. No, egg rolls are always considered to be a meal.
d. No, any type of food cannot be purchased legally with appropriated funds.
b
218) What is the very heart of the financial management process that allow you to estimate, justify, and manage base fund requirements?
a. Approved programs.
b. Proper documentation.
c. Formatted justification.
d. MAJCOM authorizations.
a
219) Financial plan year fund requirements may vary from historical data because of
a. one-time fund requirements and program changes.
b. program changes and an escalating cost-of-living index.
c. one-time fund requirements and an escalating cost-of-living index.
d. previous year austere funding and steady operations and maintenance spending.
a
46. (219) The appropriation system provides for
a. a specific amount of money for a specific purpose for a specific period.
b. management with a tool for measuring the progress of its programs.
c. managers to look at their historical data as a starting point for programming future requirements.
d. scrutinizing and updating all data for known program or price changes in order to check for different ways to accomplish the mission.
a
219) Analysis of historical data does not involve the full act of analyzing
a. plans.
b. programs.
c. operations.
d. requirements.
d
220) When tracking money due to the government, which item would you identify as a recovery of excess payments accredited to an appropriation?
a. A refund.
b. A reimbursement.
c. A collection of monies taken during religious services.
d. A collection resulting from the sale of goods or services.
a
220) When the Air Force takes steps to initially construct an NCO open mess facility, what type of funds would it use?
a. Nonappropriated funds.
b. Reimbursable O&M funds.
c. Military construction appropriation.
d. Operations and maintenance appropriation.
c
221) Total Obligation Authority (TOA) includes both Direct Budget Authority (DBA) and
a. Reimbursement Budget Authority (RBA).
b. Cost-Benefit Analysis (CBA).
c. Total Actual Authority (TAA).
d. Operations and maintenance (O&M).
a
222) Which employee would be considered a wage grade (WG) employee?
a. Doctor.
b. Lawyer.
c. Electrician.
d. Computer operator.
c
222) In which civilian pay expense does the responsibility center manager (RCM) have the most control?
a. EEIC 391—Overtime.
b. EEIC 393—Personnel Benefits.
c. EEIC 390—Clothing Allowance.
d. EEIC 392—Personnel Compensation.
a
222) Examples of other civilian personnel compensation (EEIC–392) include
a. overtime pay, premium pay, and night work differential.
b. overtime pay, cost-of-living allowance, and base pay.
c. overtime pay, base pay, and night work differential.
d. holiday pay, Sunday pay, and hazardous duty pay.
d
222) A work year is equal to
a. one person working 365 days at 8 hours per day.
b. one employee being in a pay status for 8 months.
c. the number of payable hours in the year times overall average salary.
d. one employee being in pay status for the number of payable hours in a fiscal year.
d
223) If temporary duty (TDY) travel encompasses more than one fiscal year, how are the charges obligated?
a. Fiscal year departed.
b. Fiscal year completed.
c. Total expenses charged to each fiscal year.
d. Split expenses according to fiscal year incurred.
d
224) Which element of expense/investment code identifies tuition assistance? a. 531.
b. 551.
c. 552.
d. 553.
b
224) Who is responsible for computing funding requirements for tuition assistance?
a. Using activity.
b. Education office.
c. Contracting office.
d. Financial analysis office.
b
225) Which is not a category to analyze when computing the Flying Hour Program?
a. Aviation fuels.
b. Fuel consumption.
c. Consumable supplies.
d. Material support division
b
226) To whom do senior officials delegate approval authority for contingency funds?
a. Comptroller.
b. Financial analysis officer.
c. Comptroller or the financial analysis officer.
d. No one below their level in the applicable command element.
d
227) The focal point for developing transportation requirements is the
a. resource advisor (RA).
b. transportation officer.
c. responsibility center manager (RCM).
d. Financial Management Analysis (FMA) office.
b
227) Which method for developing transportation fund requirements is used most frequently?
a. Cost-per-ton.
b. Cost-per-move.
c. Cost-per-cubic yard.
d. Type of transportation.
a
228) The element of expense for civil engineering contract services, such as snow removal and fire protection, are classified as
a. EEIC 531 – custodial services.
b. EEIC 532 – engineering services.
c. EEIC 533 – other civil engineering services.
d. EEIC 560 – other services.
c
228) The respective units of measure for custodial services and refuse collection are
a. cubic yards and tonnage.
b. cubic feet and cubic yards.
c. square feet and cubic yards.
d. square feet and square yards.
c
229) The majority of materiel items are purchased from
a. contracts.
b. local vendors.
c. the local purchase store.
d. the Defense Working Capital Fund.
d
229) Items such as periodicals, subscriptions, and training aids are classified as
a. initial issue.
b. replacement.
c. one-time issue.
d. off-line supplies.
d
230) Legal is one of the three types of limitations (restraints) imposed on the operating budget authority document legal, what are the other two?
a. Ethical and local.
b. Line-item and ethical.
c. Ethical and administrative.
d. Line-item and administrative.
d
230) Which reflects the use of targets?
a. Budgetary tool.
b. Legal limitation.
c. Administrative limitation.
d. Administrative reservation of funds.
a
230) After receiving the Operating Budget Authority Document (OBAD) from the major command (MAJCOM), what procedure must be accomplished?
a. Use the O&M execution plan to fund approved programs.
b. Identify all reimbursements authority required for base maintenance.
c. Analyze the OBAD with MAJCOM to ensure all funds requested were received.
d. Review of the OBAD submission, limitations, and targets to determine the percentage of the mission that can be accomplished.
d
230) When interpreting the Operating Budget Authority Document (OBAD) at base level, which step is to review the location verifying that the OBAD is for your base?
a. First.
b. Second.
c. Third.
d. Fourth.
b
231) What is your first consideration to determine the level at which you load fund targets?
a. Do you consume resources at a level that’s significant and measurable?
b. Does management exercise controls at this level?
c. Are targets adequately distributed?
d. Are targets loaded correctly?
a
231) Fund apportionment has a direct effect at base level by making managers program their funds
a. monthly.
b. quarterly.
c. biannually.
d. annually.
b
231) When interpreting quarterly phasing, what column do you review?
a. QUARTER.
b. DESCRIPTION.
c. TOTAL FOR OBAN.
d. ANNUAL PROGRAM.
a
232) Mission-essential programs that are not funded fully are called
a. excesses.
b. shortfalls.
c. distortions.
d. disconnects.
d
232) No more than what percentage of an annual appropriation can be obligated during the last two months of the fiscal year?
a.5.
b. 15.
c. 20.
d. 25.
c
75. (232) What is entered by the Financial Analysis Office into Standard Base Supply System (SBSS) to get into the Organizational Cost Center Record (OCCR) adjustment screen?
a. 236.
b. 240.
c. Julian date of the transaction.
d. Applicable type of update depending upon the transaction.
a
233) Which type of manager plans and directs the actions of an organization or program for an all-inclusive budget?
a. Staff.
b. Line.
c. Financial.
d. Resource.
b
233) Which financial manager, appointed by a responsibility center manager (RCM), monitors and helps prepare estimated requirements for resources?
a. Cost analyst.
b. Financial analyst.
c. Resource advisor (RA).
d. Cost center manager (CCM).
c
234) Which type of responsibility ensures management decisions are compatible with the overall objectives of the installation?
a. Primary.
b. Collateral.
c. Secondary.
d. Concurrent.
b
234) Which type of responsibility are you carrying out if you, as a financial analyst, act as a liaison between resource advisors and offices within the comptroller section?
a. Primary.
b. Collateral.
c. Secondary.
d. Concurrent.
d
235) Which type of managers are members of the Financial Management Board (FMB)?
a. Line.
b. Staff.
c. Top level.
d. Middle level.
c
235) As a minimum, how frequently should the Financial Management Board (FMB) review the status of funds or accounts?
a. Monthly.
b. Quarterly.
c. Semiannually.
d. Annually.
b
236) What two types of training does the Resource Management System (RMS) provide?
a. Informal training and initial basic training.
b. Informal training and management training.
c. Initial basic training and specialized training.
d. Initial basic training and management training.
c
236) Which type of financial training is completed within 90 days after assignment?
a. Informal.
b. Specialized.
c. Initial basic.
d. Management.
c
236) The key to Resource Management System (RMS) training is
a. training.
b. visual aids.
c. lesson plans.
d. documentation.
d
237) What is the maximum dollar value of a gift that may be accepted from an outside source? a. $19.99.
b. $29.99.
c. $49.99.
d. $99.99.
a
237) If you dealt with a governmental matter during the last year of your service, how many years are you barred from representing that matter after leaving government service?
a. One.
b. Two.
c. Three.
d. Four.
b
238) Which appropriation is used for day-to-day expenses such as training exercises, deployments, and civilian salaries?
a. Personnel.
b. Procurement.
c. Operations and maintenance (O&M).
d. Research, development, test, and evaluation (RDT&E).
c
238) Which government agency fashioned the Necessary Expense Rule, authorizing expenditures if necessary to accomplish the object of an appropriation?
a. National Security Council (NSC).
b. Congressional Budget Office (CBO).
c. Office of the Secretary of Defense (OSD).
d. Government Accountability Office (GAO).
d
238) If an organization spent their entire funding during the first two months of the fiscal year and continued to include obligations, then they would be in violation of the
a. Antideficiency Act (ADA).
b. Goldwater Nichols Act.
c. time obligation restriction.
d. purpose obligation restriction.
a
239) What is an authorized exception to the Antideficiency Act (ADA)?
a. Bona fide need.
b. Necessary expense.
c. Food and Forage Act.
d. Continuing resolution
c
240) The Air Force requires an economic analysis (EA) if annual recurring costs exceed a. $100,000.
b. $200,000. c. $250,000. d. $500,000.
d
240) Which is not an example of a capital asset?
a. Equipment.
b. Buildings.
c. Training.
d. Land.
c
240) Which Office of Management and Budget (OMB) circular directs the economic analysis (EA) process of commercial activities?
a. A–11.
b. A–70.
c. A–76.
d. A–94.
c
241) Which step of activity-based management (ABM) assigns resource costs to activities?
a. Step 1.
b. Step 2.
c. Step 3.
d. Step 4.
b
241) What does activity-based costing (ABC) use to assign the costs of resources to activities?
a. Cost drivers.
b. Production.
c. Unit cost.
d. Asset.
a
242) The law of supply states that the quantity supplied is
a. added to price.
b. subtracted from price.
c. directly proportional to price.
d. inversely proportional to price.
c
242) What is the equilibrium price?
a. Unstable price set by sellers.
b. Balanced price established by the buyers.
c. Price negotiated between buyers and sellers.
d. Discounted price established below the wholesale cost.
c
242) In order to figure out a price, what must be contrasted?
a. Nothing.
b. The laws of supply and demand.
c. The market price and the law of supply.
d. The negotiated price and the law of demand.
b
243) In which step of a business case analysis (BCA) would assumptions be made?
a. Step 1.
b. Step 2.
c. Step 3.
d. Step 4.
d
244) Which is not one of the four principles of operational risk management (ORM)?
a. Accept no unnecessary risk.
b. Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.
c. Accept all risks to meet mission requirements.
d. Accept risks when benefits outweigh the costs.
c