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79 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Which system is used to report contract actions?
a. Wide Area Workflow (WAWF).
b. Central Contractor Registration (CCR).
c. Federal Procurement Data System-Next Generation (FPDS-NG).
d. Contractor Performance Assessment Reporting System (CPARS).
c. Federal Procurement Data System-Next Generation (FPDS-NG).
Which has responsibility for the accuracy and the submission of individual contract action reports?
a. Contract specialist.
b. Contracting officer.
c. Plans and programs flight.
d. Head of the Contracting Activity (HCA).
b. Contracting officer.
Which contract action is not reportable?
a. Modifications.
b. Blanket purchase agreement (BPA) calls.
c. Purchases made at AbilityOne service stores.
d. Government purchase card (GPC) purchases exceeding $25,000.
c. Purchases made at AbilityOne service stores.
After execution by all parties, copies of contracts or modifications must be distributed within
a. 3 days.
b. 7 days.
c. 10 days.
d. 14 days.
c. 10 days.
In-process inspection of commercial items by the government
a. is forbidden.
b. is required above the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT).
c. must be conducted in a manner consistent with commercial practice.
d. must be conducted according to the contractor’s quality assurance plan.
c. must be conducted in a manner consistent with commercial practice.
Acceptance may not take place
a. after delivery.
b. before delivery.
c. at the time of delivery.
d. after payment is made.
d. after payment is made.
Acceptance of noncomplex commercial items is prescribed in
a. 52.212–1, Instructions to Offerors—Commercial Items.
b. 52.212–2, Evaluation—Commercial Items.
c. 52.212–4, Contract Terms and Conditions—Commercial Items.
d. 52.212–5, Contract Terms and Conditions Required to Implement Statutes or Executive Orders—Commercial Items.
c. 52.212–4, Contract Terms and Conditions—Commercial Items.
Ordinarily, what option is given to the contractor because of a notice of rejection for nonconformance?
a. Subtract cost of nonconforming supplies from invoice.
b. Request government return of nonconforming supplies to vendor.
c. Correct or replace any nonconforming supplies at a discount to the government.
d. Correct or replace any nonconforming supplies at no additional cost to the government.
d. Correct or replace any nonconforming supplies at no additional cost to the government.
When delivery is late on a commodities contract, the government may take any of the actions except
a. invoke liquidated damages in the agreed amount until delivery is made or the delivery schedule
is renegotiated (if liquidated damages are included in the contract).
b. enter into negotiations with the contractor to extend the delivery date, provided the government
receives appropriate consideration for doing so.
c. terminate the contract for default in accordance with Part 49 of the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR).
d. terminate the contract for default in accordance with Part 12 of the FAR.
d. terminate the contract for default in accordance with Part 12 of the FAR.
Which Web-based system provides for electronic invoicing, receipt, and acceptance?
a. MyInvoice.
b. DFAS Vendor Pay.
c. Wide Area Workflow (WAWF).
d. Automated Business Services System (ABSS).
c. Wide Area Workflow (WAWF).
To adhere to prompt payment guidelines, payment is due within how many days after government acceptance of supplies?
a. 7 days.
b. 10 days.
c. 30 days.
d. 45 days.
c. 30 days.
Records of contractor performance are managed in the
a. Central Contractor Registration (CCR) database.
b. Contractor Performance Evaluation System (CPES).
c. Contractor Performance Assessment Reporting System (CPARS).
d. Federal Procurement Data System-Next Generation (FPDS-NG).
c. Contractor Performance Assessment Reporting System (CPARS).
Which types of copies of contractual instruments can become part of the official contract file?
a. Original, authenticated copies, or conformed copies.
b. Original, authenticated copies, and registered copies.
c. Original, authenticated copies, and certified copies.
d. Original, certified copies, and conformed copies.
a. Original, authenticated copies, or conformed copies.
Which action must be taken prior to providing a contractor with preliminary notice of the government’s intent to exercise an option?
a. Validate the requirement.
b. Ensure funds are available.
c. Make a determination of price fair and reasonableness.
d. Synopsize the government’s intent to exercise the option.
a. Validate the requirement.
Unless otherwise specified, the government typically must provide how many days notice of its intent to exercise an option period?
a. 7.
b. 30.
c. 45.
d. 60.
d. 60.
What option does the government have if it fails to provide the necessary notifications required by the contract and still desires to exercise an option period?
a. Exercise the government’s unilateral right to the option.
b. Terminate the contract and resolicit as a new requirement.
c. Issue a bilateral modification and obtain contractor concurrence.
d. Issue a change order directing the contractor to continue performance under the current contract.
c. Issue a bilateral modification and obtain contractor concurrence.
Which is not required to be accomplished by the contracting officer (CO) to exercise an option?
a. Ensure funds are available.
b. Satisfy competition requirements.
c. Check the Excluded Parties List System.
d. Obtain Representations and Certifications.
d. Obtain Representations and Certifications.
The authority to make changes to an existing contract is not extended to
a. modifications executed by contracting officers in accordance with contract scope.
b. contract changes made by a contracting officer at the request of the contractor.
c. qualified contracting officer representatives to make constructive changes to contracts.
d. modifications to contracts within the limitations specified on the contracting officer’s warrant.
c. qualified contracting officer representatives to make constructive changes to contracts.
A modification in which all adjustments regarding cost, time, scope, and other consideration have been decided and required no further modification to complete contract change is known as
a. a change order.
b. a unilateral modification.
c. an administrative change.
d. a definitized modification.
d. a definitized modification.
What modification authority must be cited when making administrative changes to a contract using the SF 30?
a. 52.212–4, Contract Terms and Conditions—Commercial Items.
b. 52.243–4, Changes.
c. 52.243–7, Notification of Changes.
d. No further authority must be cited.
d. No further authority must be cited.
What modification authority must be used when no specific clause can be cited?
a. Administrative.
b. Changes clause.
c. Mutual Agreement of the Parties.
d. Other than Full and Open Competition.
c. Mutual Agreement of the Parties.
Unilateral modifications may be used for all except
a. issue change orders.
b. issue termination notices.
c. make administrative changes.
d. make changes authorized by the Changes clause.
d. make changes authorized by the Changes clause.
When you are processing administrative changes, all may be processed as administrative changes except
a. correcting a fund cite.
b. updating the payment office.
c. correcting errors in unit price.
d. correcting price extension errors.
c. correcting errors in unit price.
When you are processing an administrative change, which is required?
a. Verify funds are available.
b. Obtain contractor signature.
c. Check block 13B of the SF 30.
d. Cite the appropriate modification authority.
c. Check block 13B of the SF 30.
A change order
a. may be issued unilaterally.
b. must be signed by the contractor.
c. cites 52.212–4 as the authority.
d. are used to make changes outside the scope of contracts.
a. may be issued unilaterally.
Changes authorized in fixed-price contracts for supplies include all except
a. place of delivery.
b. methods of shipment or packing.
c. drawings, designs, or specifications.
d. directed acceleration in performance of work.
d. directed acceleration in performance of work.
The contracting officer has grounds to terminate a contractor for default when
a. there are excusable delays resulting in delinquent performance.
b. there is an actual failure or fails to progress to perform contractual obligations.
c. there is repeated failure to follow the directions given by a government inspector.
d. the contractor’s performance has not commenced and the requirement has been canceled.
b. there is an actual failure or fails to progress to perform contractual obligations.
The contracting officer shall issue a no-cost settlement instead of a termination notice when
a. there are outstanding payments.
b. government property is furnished.
c. available funds have been exceeded.
d. it is known that the contractor will accept one.
d. it is known that the contractor will accept one.
A notice for termination can be rescinded if it is determined that the items had been completed or shipped before the contractor’s receipt of notice by
a. modification of the notice.
b. amendment of the notice.
c. converting the termination notice to a cure notice.
d. converting the termination notice to a show cause notice.
b. amendment of the notice.
How can a termination for convenience of a fixed-price contract be settled?
a. Inventory basis or total-cost basis.
b. Inventory basis or adjusted-cost basis.
c. Total-price basis or total-cost basis.
d. Total-price basis or adjusted-cost basis.
a. Inventory basis or total-cost basis.
If a contractor’s failure to perform is due to actions of a subcontractor, will the contractor remain liable for excess costs of repurchase?
a. Yes, if the subcontractor’s failure was beyond his control.
b. No. Prime contractors are protected from liability by the Subcontract Protection clause.
c. No. Contractor can only be held accountable for costs as defined in the contract; the subcontractor will be charged any excess costs.
d. Yes, if supplies or services were available from other sources and sufficient time remained for the contractor to meet the required delivery schedule.
d. Yes, if supplies or services were available from other sources and sufficient time remained for the contractor to meet the required delivery schedule.
Which termination consideration is not considered when determining whether to terminate a contract for default?
a. Value of contractor assets.
b. Specific excuses for the failure
c. Urgency of the need for the supplies. .
d. Ability of the contractor to liquidate guaranteed loans.
a. Value of contractor assets.
A cure notice is issued when
a. a contractor is debarred by another government agency.
b. contract performance is affected by new base entry procedures.
c. a specific condition exists that endangers contract performance.
d. the contractor fails to submit monthly progress payment requests.
c. a specific condition exists that endangers contract performance.
What amount of time is the contractor normally given to correct a failure?
a. Ten days from the receipt of the cure notice.
b. One week from the receipt of the cure notice.
c. Ten days from the date of issue of the cure notice.
d. One week from the date of issue of the cure notice.
a. Ten days from the receipt of the cure notice.
What actions will the contracting officer take if the contractor fails to respond to a show cause notice?
a. Proceed under the premise that no valid explanation exists.
b. Send a follow-up letter by registered mail, return receipt requested.
c. Proceed with the termination for the convenience of the government.
d. Issue the cure notice giving the contractor an additional 10 days to cure the failure.
a. Proceed under the premise that no valid explanation exists.
The show cause notice
a. does not require a formal response by the contractor.
b. may be used to extend the contract performance period.
c. requires the contractor to submit a revised progress schedule.
d. is used to notify the contractor of the possibility of termination.
d. is used to notify the contractor of the possibility of termination.
When is the contractor’s right to proceed further under the contract terminated?
a. Upon receipt of the show cause notice.
b. After all appeals have been exhausted.
c. Upon receipt of the notice of termination.
d. Once the contracting officer’s decision is finalized.
c. Upon receipt of the notice of termination.
When supplies or services are still required after termination for default, the contracting officer should
a. forward the requirement to the contractor so a contract can be issued by the contractor.
b. consolidate the requirement with the next purchase requisition for the same or similar item.
c. issue a letter to the contractor specifying what is still required and when delivery is required.
d. repurchase the same or similar supplies or services against the contractor’s account as soon as
possible.
d. repurchase the same or similar supplies or services against the contractor’s account as soon as
possible.
The contracting officer should exercise the government’s right to terminate a contract for commercial items only when such a termination
a. can be done at no cost to the government.
b. can be completed within 14 working days.
c. if it is mutually agreeable among the parties.
d. would be in the best interest of the government.
d. would be in the best interest of the government.
When termination is for the government’s convenience, what may a contractor use to
demonstrate charges resulting from the termination for which the contractor is entitled to be paid?
a. Government furnished payroll and termination forms.
b. An affidavit of charges signed by the contractor’s accountant.
c. Records from the contractor’s standard record keeping system.
d. Paid invoices from suppliers and certified payrolls from subcontractors.
c. Records from the contractor’s standard record keeping system.
Under the Contract Terms and Conditions–Commercial Items clause, the contractor is required to notify the contracting officer of an excusable delay
a. within five work days before the scheduled delivery date.
b. as soon as a meeting can be held with the functional area.
c. after the contractor receives a cure notice for late delivery.
d. as soon as possible after commencement of an excusable delay.
d. as soon as possible after commencement of an excusable delay.
A contractor has notified the contracting officer of the intent not to accept a unilateral purchase order. In this situation, the contracting officer must
a. issue a cure notice to the contractor.
b. proceed with cancellation of the order.
c. proceed with termination of the order.
d. issue a letter directing the contractor to perform.
b. proceed with cancellation of the order.
Contract files using simplified acquisition procedures are considered closed when the contracting officer receives
a. evidence of receipt of property and final payment.
b. a receiving report and a copy of the final payment voucher.
c. shipping documents for the complete shipment and a certified invoice.
d. no requests for follow-up and a correct invoice for the total amount of the contract.
a. evidence of receipt of property and final payment.
The DD Form 1597, Contract Closeout Checklist, is used when closing out
a. contracts valued above the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT).
b. contracts valued above the micro-purchase threshold.
c. only cost-type contracts exceeding the SAT.
d. all contracts regardless of value.
a. contracts valued above the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT).
Who needs to be notified when a contract containing classified material is complete and ready to be closed?
a. Defense Security Service.
b. Defense Contract Audit Agency.
c. Defense Contract Management Agency.
d. Defense Finance and Accounting Services.
a. Defense Security Service.
How would you close a contract if the contractor becomes bankrupt?
a. Get approval from your immediate supervisor.
b. Coordinate with the Office of General Counsel.
c. Get approval from your small business specialist.
d. Coordinate with your quality assurance specialist.
b. Coordinate with the Office of General Counsel.
Data transfer, storage, and retrieval procedures must record and reproduce the original document completely, accurately, and clearly. In addition, the procedures must
a. protect the original data from alteration.
b. be acceptable as evidence in a court of law.
c. reduce the amount of material to be stored.
d. be cheaper to store than the original documents.
a. protect the original data from alteration.
The retention period for contracts at or below the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT) is
a. one year after final payment.
b. three years after final payment.
c. six years after final payment.
d. six years and three months after final payment.
b. three years after final payment.
Follow-up in simplified acquisitions is
a. done by exception.
b. prohibited below the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT).
c. mandatory above the micro-purchase threshold.
d. accomplished on a monthly basis until delivery is made or services are performed.
a. done by exception.
When delivery is late on a commodities contract, the government may take any actions except
a. invoke liquidated damages in the agreed amount until delivery is made or the delivery schedule
is renegotiated (if liquidated damages are included in the contract).
b. extend the delivery date, provided the government receives appropriate consideration for doing so.
c. terminate the contract for default in accordance with Part 49 of the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR).
d. terminate the contract for default in accordance with Part 12 of the FAR.
d. terminate the contract for default in accordance with Part 12 of the FAR.
Unless otherwise specified in the contract, Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR) clause 52.212–4, Contract Terms and Conditions—Commercial Items, states that risk of loss or damage to supplies remains with the contractor until the supplies are
a. physically received by outside of continental United States (OCONUS) users.
b. delivered to a carrier, if transportation is free of board (FOB).
c. delivered to a carrier, if transportation is FOB destination.
d. accepted by the government at the destination specified in the contract, regardless of transportation type.
b. delivered to a carrier, if transportation is free of board (FOB).
In a commodity contract that has a Variations in Quantity clause, the variations that are allowed by the government are those.
a. known to be acceptable to the contractor.
b. that meet customary commercial standards.
c. caused beyond the reasonable control of the contractor.
d. caused by loading, shipping, packing, or allowances within manufacturing processes.
d. caused by loading, shipping, packing, or allowances within manufacturing processes.
What document is used to guide discussions during a contract post-award conference?
a. Contracting Officer’s Guide.
b. Contract Administrator’s Guide.
c. DD Form 1484, Post-Award Conference Record.
d. DD Form 1484, Contract Administrator Checklist.
c. DD Form 1484, Post-Award Conference Record.
A contracting officer (CO) might use a post-award letter in lieu of a conference when
a. requested by the requiring activity.
b. a contractor is new to government contracting.
c. the contract contains complex or special requirements.
d. an incumbent contractor is awarded a new contract and the terms have not changed.
d. an incumbent contractor is awarded a new contract and the terms have not changed.
A new wage determination must be incorporated into service contracts
a. for each new contract in excess of $2,000.
b. when extending the contract pursuant to an option clause.
c. for only those contracts exceeding the simplified acquisition threshold (SAT).
d. every time a modification is accomplished, regardless of dollar amount.
b. when extending the contract pursuant to an option clause.
Which statement regarding wage determinations is correct?
a. Wage determinations may be incorporated by reference.
b. Wage determinations must be incorporated at the time of award or by modification.
c. Inclusion of the Service Contract Act clause in contracts automatically incorporates the most current wage rates.
d. The presence of a wage determination listed in the Department of Labor’s database determines applicability to a contract.
b. Wage determinations must be incorporated at the time of award or by modification.
Items that must be addressed in a preconstruction conference include all except
a. labor standards.
b. contractual authority.
c. termination procedures.
d. accident prevention plans.
c. termination procedures.
When the government takes possession prior to completion of construction, and without final acceptance, the one-year warranty period begins
a. when final acceptance occurs.
b. at a time negotiated by the parties.
c. the date after final payment is made.
d. at the time the government takes possession.
d. at the time the government takes possession.
When bonds are required on a construction contract, the contractor’s notice to proceed is issued after the
a. award but prior to receipt of bonds.
b. contracting officer has received all executed bonds.
c. award but prior to contacting surety for proof of issuance of bonds.
d. contracting officer has received notification from the contractor that bonds have been secured.
b. contracting officer has received all executed bonds.
What requires that all work under a construction contract be performed in a skillful manner?
a. Davis-Bacon Act.
b. Service Contract Act.
c. Material and Workmanship clause.
d. Apprentices and Trainees standards.
c. Material and Workmanship clause.
All are corrective actions that may be taken by the contracting officer (CO) if a contractor falls behind the approved schedule except
a. direct acceleration of work.
b. request voluntary acceleration.
c. excuse delays beyond the contractor’s control.
d. retain a maximum of 20 percent of the amount of a progress payment.
d. retain a maximum of 20 percent of the amount of a progress payment.
Which labor standards provisions require all laborers and mechanics employed or working upon the site of construction to be paid unconditionally and not less often than once a week?
a. Davis-Bacon Act.
b. Service Contract Act.
c. Contract Work Hours Act.
d. Payrolls and Basic Records.
a. Davis-Bacon Act.
What type of labor interview is used after detecting errors in labor checks or receipt of a complaint alleging violations?
a. Routine inspection.
b. Employee interviews.
c. Special compliance check.
d. Unannounced compliance check.
c. Special compliance check.
Which labor standards provisions require the contractor to submit weekly copies of all payrolls to the contracting officer and maintain payroll and basic records for a period of three years?
a. Davis-Bacon Act.
b. Service Contract Act.
c. Payrolls and Basic Records.
d. Contract Work Hours Act.
c. Payrolls and Basic Records.
Blanket purchase agreement ordering officer responsibilities include all except
a. competing purchases.
b. maintaining ethical standards of conduct.
c. delegating authority to authorized users within their unit.
d. ensuring orders are placed for only those items on the approved price list.
c. delegating authority to authorized users within their unit.
What term is defined in the AFFARS as an emergency involving military forces caused by natural disasters, terrorists, subversives, or required military operations?
a. Contingency.
b. National distress.
c. National emergency.
d. International plan of action.
a. Contingency.
What determines the appropriate certification level and training that contracting personnel should have prior to selection as a contingency contracting officer (CCO)?
a. The individual’s rank.
b. The particular tasking.
c. Squadron commander’s discretion.
d. Individual’s education level held.
b. The particular tasking.
What type of organizational structure requires contingency contracting officers (CCOs) augmenting the organization to follow another service’s Defense Federal Acquisition Regulation Supplement (DFAS) when acquiring goods and services?
a. Joint Forces Command.
b. Service Component Support to Own Forces.
c. Joint Theater Support Contracting Command.
d. Lead Service Theater Contracting Organization.
d. Lead Service Theater Contracting Organization.
A declared contingency may be designated by the
a. assistant secretary of the Air Force for Acquisition (Contracting) (SAF/AQC).
b. Joint Theater Support Commander.
c. on-scene commander.
d. secretary of Defense.
d. secretary of Defense.
Responsiveness to basic life support requirements (i.e. food services, potable water, etc.) is the main focus of what deployment phase?
a. Beddown.
b. Sustainment.
c. Initial deployment.
d. Termination/redeployment.
c. Initial deployment.
Which task is not considered a key task in setting up a work center?
a. Obtaining an interpreter.
b. Making contact with the US Embassy.
c. Establishing a cutoff date for end-of-year purchases.
d. Establishing a system for customers to submit purchase requests.
c. Establishing a cutoff date for end-of-year purchases.
All are examples of existing authorities that may be used to provide flexibility in expediting requirements for contingency except
a. increasing the simplified acquisition threshold to $300,000.
b. using written solicitations for Requests for Proposal (RFP).
c. awarding letter contracts and other forms of undefinitized contract actions.
d. awarding contracts for emergency requirements before resolving a protest.
b. using written solicitations for Requests for Proposal (RFP).
Who determines the priority of purchase requests in a contingency?
a. Contingency contracting officer (CCO).
b. Contracting officer representative.
c. Deployed commander.
d. Functional commander.
c. Deployed commander.
What document is typically used to initially fund a contingency operation?
a. AF Form 9, Request for Purchase.
b. AF IMT 616, Fund Cite Authorization.
c. SF 44, Purchase Order-Invoice Voucher.
d. DD Form 1348–6, DOD Single Line Item Requisition System Document.
b. AF IMT 616, Fund Cite Authorization.
Which member of a US Embassy essentially operates a contracting office in the host nation and can provide information on local purchasing conditions?
a. Military Attaché.
b. Financial Attaché.
c. Foreign Services Officer.
d. Government Services Officer.
d. Government Services Officer.
What action must a contingency contracting officer (CCO) take to ensure the necessary resources are made available and appropriate policies are established to carry out contracting support at a deployed location?
a. Contact the nearest US Embassy for assistance.
b. Deploy with an active government purchase card.
c. Obtain reachback support from continental United States (CONUS) organizations.
d. Brief deployed commander on support requirements and contract capabilities.
d. Brief deployed commander on support requirements and contract capabilities.
When connectivity issues prevent the reporting of contract actions during a contingency, what action must a contingency contracting officer (CCO) take?
a. Nothing, reporting is not required.
b. Report the actions upon redeployment.
c. Forward the list of contract actions to the US Embassy for monthly reporting.
d. Mail the PIIN log to the home to the unit deployment manager for monthly reporting.
b. Report the actions upon redeployment.
Which individual has overall responsibility for overseeing the management of decentralized blanket purchase agreements (BPA)?
a. Ordering officers.
b. Contracting officer.
c. Deployed commander.
d. Functional commander.
b. Contracting officer.
What document is produced by contingency contracting officers (CCO) and contains information about special personnel requirements, host nation support, local customs, billeting arrangements, and other problems encountered in the contracting process at deployed locations?
a. After-action report.
b. Inspector General report.
c. Contingency operations report.
d. Government Accountability Office report.
a. After-action report.