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226 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
1. Select the correct statements regarding an open incisional hernia repair:
A Incisional hernias cannot develop after laparoscopic procedures B The contents of the hernia sac must always be checked for signs of infarction C Hernia repair with strong sutures yields equal results as the tension-free techniques D During the Lichtenstein operation the mesh is fixed to the rectus sheath |
(B)
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2. The keloid:
A is less prevalent in blacks B is an agglomeration of fibrous tissue C has a tendency for malignant transformation D is sensitive to antibiotic therapy E develops in clean wounds |
(B)
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3. From the following famous physicians who was NOT a surgeon?
A Theodor Billroth B Theodor Kocher C Ignác Semmelweis D William Halsted E János Balassa |
(C)
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4. From the following options which is the most appropriate definition of tetanus?
A A medical condition characterized by a prolonged relaxation of smooth muscle fibers B A medical condition characterized by a prolonged contraction of smooth muscle fibers C A medical condition characterized by a prolonged contraction of skeletal muscle fibers D A medical condition characterized by a prolonged relaxation of skeletal muscle fibers |
(C)
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5. Pilonidal sinuses frequently develop in:
A young adult males B young adult females C middle-aged patients D elderly patients |
(A)
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6. Paronychia of the finger is best treated by which of the following types of incisions?
A Halfway between the unguicular margin and the pulp of the finger B At a considerable distance from the distal unguicular margin C Any incision that ensures adequate drainage from the phalanx D A "J-shaped" incision at a 3 mm distance from the distal unguicular margin E A wide "fishmouth" shaped incision |
(D)
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7. Bone metastases rarely develop at which of the following sites?
A Long bones B Bones distal to the knee or elbow C Skull D Vertebrae E Pelvis |
(B)
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8. In the case of clean, closed wounds, the most common source of a Staphylococcus
infection is: A the ambient air of the operating theatre B bedside instruments C dust D bedclothes E bacterial flora of the patient or hospital personnel |
(E)
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9. The most efficient method for the prevention of a wound infection after the operation
of a perforated appendicitis: A sprinkling the wound with sulphonamide powder B drainage of the peritoneal cavity C flushing the wound with antibiotic solutions D rinsing the subcutaneous tissues with disinfectant solution E none of the above |
(D)
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10. Mild infections of the hand can progress to potentially severe infections like:
A the skin of the hand is a particularly heavily contaminated area of the body B the hand often sustains injury when it is infected C there are numerous tendons with a poor blood supply and the maintenance of any required immobilization is difficult |
(C)
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11. The commonly occurring paronychia of the fingers is caused by:
A frequent injury to the delicate skin of the fingers B extremely heavy contamination of the skin of the hand C excessive use and exposure of the hand and fingers during work |
(A)
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12. Which of the following diseases can be most likely transmitted by a blood transfusion?
A Serum hepatitis B Lymphoblastic leukemia C Myeloblastic leukemia D Erythrocytosis E Hodgkin's lymphoma |
(A)
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13. Among all the severe complications of blood transfusions, the most common problem
is: A hemolytic reactions B disease transmission C circulatory overload D hypokalemia E alkalosis |
(A)
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14. The most common indication for renal transplantation is:
A hydronephrosis B end-stage glomerulonephritis or pyelonephritis C renal tuberculosis D Wilms' tumor E "staghorn stones" |
(B)
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15. The immunosuppressive drug that has vastly improved the results of organ
transplantation is: A azathioprine (Imuran) B pyrmidine derivatives C corticosteroids D cyclosporine A E actinomycin D |
(D)
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16. What is the cause of a hyperacute rejection reaction ensuing after renal
transplantation? A Circulating antibodies B Increased cellular immunity C Poor tissue perfusion D Hematoma in the abdomen E Intravascular antirenin deposition |
(A)
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17. Which one of the following options stands for a laparoscopic hernia repair surgery?
A TAP and TEPP B TAPP and TEP C Onlay or sublay eversion technique D Lichtenstein and Shouldice operation |
(B)
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18. Which of the following facilitates collagen deposition during the process of wound
healing? A Epithelial cells B Endothelial cells C Fibroblasts D Capillary network E None of the above |
(C)
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19. Case Study: A 23-year-old girl developed shaking chills, high-grade fever, and chest
pain after obtaining a 75 ml blood transfusion. Select the most likely cause of these symptoms: A a hemolytic transfusion reaction B a pyrogenic reaction C an infected blood product D the presence of cold agglutinins E citrate toxicity |
(A)
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20. All of the following factors contribute to the disruption of abdominal surgical wounds,
EXCEPT: A surgical site infection B frequent coughing C hypoproteinemia D anemia E early mobilization |
(E)
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21. Generalized (diffuse) bleeding following surgical procedures may result from all of the
following, EXCEPT: A a massive transfusion B an undiagnosed coagulopathy C sepsis D insufficient closure of the wound E fibrinolysis or defibrination |
(D)
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22. Indications for a liver transplantation in humans include all of the following,
EXCEPT: A congenital biliary atresia B primary neoplasms confined to the liver C advanced liver cirrhosis D biliary cirrhosis E acute liver damage |
(C)
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23. Which of the following microorganisms is considered the pathogen of the
pseudomembranous colitis associated with antibiotic therapy? A Bacteroides fragilis B Staphylococcus species C Clostridium perfringens D Clostridium difficile E Clostridium tertium |
(D)
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24. Which of the following statements is/are true for hernias in general?
A Femoral hernias are more common in males than in females B The indirect inguinal hernia is the most common hernia in males C Mesh implantation has no benefit in direct inguinal hernia D Risk of incarceration is higher in hernias with a large orifice |
(B)
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25. Which of the following statements is true for Hesselbach’s triangle? )
A Defines the boundaries of a low lumbar hernia B Defines the inguinal floor in the region of a direct inguinal hernia C Is found in a single plane of the inguinal floor and is bounded by the superior epigastric artery, inguinal ligament, and rectus sheath D Is bounded medially by the inferior epigastric vessels |
(B
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26. What is the typical rate of recurrence after a Lichtenstein inguinal hernia repair?
A Under 2% B Between 2-5% C Between 5-10% D Above 10% |
(A)
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27. When do we speak of Grade III hemorrhoids?
A The hemorrhoids do not prolapse B The hemorrhoids prolapse upon defecation but spontaneously reduce C The hemorrhoids prolapse upon defecation and must be reduced manually D The hemorrhoids are prolapsed and cannot be manually reduced |
(C)
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28. Characteristics of the medieval medicine and surgery in Europe:
A Clerical blessing on autopsies B High social status of surgeons C Surgery practiced by barber surgeons D Treatment was based on anatomical and physiological knowledge |
(C)
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29. From the following options which is characteristic to modern age surgery?
A Lack of general anesthesia limits the feasibility of major abdominal interventions B Generally low degree of specialization C Limited use of related resources (imaging techniques, laboratory tests, endoscopy) D Research oriented, evidence based development of surgery |
(D)
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30. Which of the following operations CANNOT be used in the treatment of an inguinal
hernia? A Bassini operation B Shouldice operation C Lichtenstein operation D Mayo operation E TAPP (transabdominal pre-peritoneal hernia repair) |
(D)
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197. Regarding papillary thyroid carcinoma, which of the following statements is
FALSE? A The presence of resectable lymph node metastases does not appear to worsen prognosis B Papillary cancer is characterized by frequent hematogenous metastases C It is the type of thyroid cancer most often associated with prior radiation exposure D There is a high likelihood of occult multicentric disease |
(B)
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198. Select the correct answer:
A Phaeochromocytoma is almost always malignant B Phaeochromocytoma is a disease of the adrenal cortex C Approximately 10% of all phaeochromocytomae is extra-adrenal D Phaeochromocytoma can lead to severe and abrupt hypotensive episodes |
(C)
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199. From the following options which is true for breast cancer?
A The incidence of early-stage breast cancer is decreasing since the establishment of a nation-wide screening program B DCIS/LCIS can eventually turn into invasive breast cancer C The standard operation for a T1N0 breast cancer is mastectomy with axillary lymph node dissection D Radical surgery is indicated in most of the cases even in the presence of multiple distant metastases |
(B)
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200. Which is NOT an indication of parathyreoid surgery from the following
options? A Progressive reduction in bone density B Hypercalcaemia in patients younger than 50 years C Significantly reduced excretion of calcium in the urine D Suspicion of malignant parathyroid disease E Symptomatic hypercalcaemia in all age groups |
(C)
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201. Which is the most frequent sign of breast cancer?
A Palpable mass B Cyclic pain C Skin ulceration D Pathologic fractures |
(A)
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202. Which anatomic structure is the most prone to injury during a thyroid surgery?
A Hypoglossal nerve B Thyroid cartilage C Recurrent laryngeal nerve D Esophagus |
(C)
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203. Which is NOT a typical sign of Cushing’s syndrome?
A Round “moon face” B Central (truncal) obesity C Muscle weakness D Purple striae E Hypotension |
(E)
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204. All of the following are associated with the formation of aneurysms of the
descending aorta, EXCEPT: A Marfan's syndrome B injury C syphilis D atherosclerosis |
(B)
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205. The most severe complication of an abdominal aorta aneurysm is:
A rupture B aortic valve insufficiency C colon perforation D compression of the urether E compression of the portal vein |
(A)
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206. What is the most common cause of dissecting aneurysms of the thoracic aorta?
A Tricuspidal valve insufficiency B Syphilis C Degeneration of the tunica media D Injury E Coarctation of the aorta |
(C)
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207. Postthrombotic varicose veins develop as a result of:
A the insufficiency of the perforant veins B the destruction of deep veins C the destruction of superficial veins D ileofemoral insufficiency E obstruction of the great saphenous vein |
(A)
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208. All of the following are appropriate for the treatment of trophic ulcers after
venous thrombosis, EXCEPT: A elevation of the leg B compression dressing of varicose veins C skin grafting D removal of the saphenous vein E venous bypass surgery |
(E)
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209. All of the following factors predispose to pulmonary embolism, EXCEPT:
A a sedentary lifestyle B the presence of an underlying cardiac disease C the presence of a neoplasm D oral contraceptives E a male gender |
(E
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210. The primary therapy for pulmonary embolism is:
A anticoagulant therapy B ligation of the inferior vena cava C thrombectomy D pulmonary embolectomy |
(A)
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211. All of the following statements are valid regarding an aneurysm of the splenic
artery, EXCEPT: A this is the least prevalent of the aneurysms developing on visceral arteries B it is usually the consequence of degenerative changes in the tunica media of the arterial wall C it causes pain felt in the left hypochondrium and radiating to the left shoulder D the calcified ring of the aneurysm may be visible on plain abdominal X-rays E the risk of rupture is high during pregnancy |
(A)
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212. The treatment of choice for stenosis of the internal carotid artery is:
A eversion endarterectomy B reversal endarterectomy C bypass grafting D ligation of the internal carotid artery E administration of platelet aggregation inhibitors |
(A)
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213. The therapy of an arteriovenous fistula includes:
A excision of the fistula and restoration of the contiguity of the blood vessel B ligation of the artery distal to the fistulae C amputation of the extremity D ligation of the vein distal to the fistulae E drug therapy only |
(A)
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214. All of the following are trophic changes resulting from chronic ischemia,
EXCEPT: A hair loss B friable, opaque fingernails C skin atrophy D muscle atrophy E osteoporosis |
(E)
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215. The most frequent cause of arterial occlusion is:
A embolism B arteriosclerosis C varicose veins D all of the above |
(B)
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216. All of the following statements are valid regarding abdominal aortic
aneurysms, EXCEPT: A most patients are asymptomatic; however the lesion can be detected by a routine physical examination B a pulsatile mass is palpated in the abdomen C the diameter of the aneurysm is not related to the risk of rupture D calcification of the aorta and large vessels is often visible on plain abdominal X-ray E the abrupt onset of severe pain, radiating to the back and the hip indicates dissection or rupture of the aneurysm |
(C)
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217. All of the following are characteristic features of Buerger's disease, EXCEPT:
A it is more prevalent in males B the peak incidence occurs between 20 and 40 years of age C it is rare in blacks D it is closely associated with smoking E it is an unusual form of atherosclerosis |
(E)
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218. All of the following may lead to the thoracic outlet syndrome, EXCEPT:
A a cervical rib B the scalenic anticus syndrome C costoclavicular compression D Raynaud's disease E a hyperabduction syndrome |
(D)
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219. The most common site of peripheral arteriosclerotic aneurysms is:
A the carotid artery B the subclavian artery C the femoral artery D the popliteal artery C the ulnar artery |
(D)
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220. A 65-year-old male patient passes tarry and loose stools (melena) 10 months
after an aorto-bifemoral bypass surgery. The most likely cause of this condition is: A anastomotic leakage B ulcerative colitis C ischemic colitis D an aortoduodenal fistula |
(D)
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221. Which methods is NOT appropriate for the diagnosis of deep-vein thrombosis?
A Phlebography B Radioisotope labelled fibrinogen uptake test C Doppler -ultrasonography D Measurement of the venous flow-rate E Impedance plethysmography |
(D)
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222. Select the correct statement:
A Intermittent claudication carries a high risk of limb loss within a year B Intermittent claudication does not correlate with cardiovascular mortality C Intermittent claudication should be treated with PTA regardless of the claudication distance D Intermittent claudication should be treated with best medical and/or surgical treatment depending on the claudication distance |
(D)
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223. Find the false statement!
An angiogram was performed for left limb short distance claudication. Right limb is symptom free. DSA shows an 80% short stenosis of the right common iliac vessel A The symptom free narrowing should be angioplastied as a preventive measure B In general: symptom free stenosis should not angioplastied C Angioplasty is an operation with all the risks involved D Angioplasty should be a clinical decision made by physician in charge preferably after multidisciplinary discussion |
(B)
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224. Which is NOT a possible diagnostic modality for pulmonary embolism? (
A Chest X-Ray B Perfusion/ventillation scintigraphy C D-Dimer test D Ankle/Brachial Index |
D)
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225. Choose the correct statement regarding Critical Limb Ischaemia:
A CLI is a relatively benign clinical entity with the worse outcome being minor amputation B CLI is a clinical entity with generalized symptoms and multiple cardiovascular co- morbidities C CLI usually requires conservative treatment only D CLI is best treated with primary, major amputation |
(B)
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226. Surgical treatment of lower-limb varicosity includes the following steps:
(GSV: Great Saphenous Vein) A Scalenotomy, phlebectomy, GSV ligation and stripping B TEA, phlebectomy, GSV ligation and stripping, perforator ligation C Saphenous bypass, phlebectomy, GSV ligation and stripping D GSV ligation and stripping, phlebectomy, perforator ligation E GSV stripping, phlebectomy, perforator ligation |
(D)
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167. Which of the following diseases is NOT associated with splenomegaly?
A Malaria B Sickle cell disease C Portal hypertension D Spherocytosis E Lymphomas |
(B)
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168. What does a T3N1Mx colorectal cancer stand for?
A Tumor infiltrates the subserosa, 1-3 positive lymph nodes, no information on distal metastases B Tumor infiltrates the submucosa, 1-3 positive lymph nodes, no information on distal metastases C Tumor infiltrates the subserosa, 4-6 positive lymph nodes, no information on distal metastases D Tumor infiltrates the pelvic wall, 1-3 positive lymph nodes, no information on distal metastases E Tumor infiltrates the subserosa, 1-3 positive lymph nodes, confirmed distal metastases |
(A)
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169. Which disease is associated typically with a left lower quadrant abdominal
pain? A Choledocholithiasis B Right ovarian torsion C Appendicitis D Diverticulitis E Pancreatitis |
(D)
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170. Four days after an uneventful Billroth II gastric resection, a 55-year-old man
suddenly develops severe upper abdominal pain. On examination, his abdomen in rigid and he has a fever. The probable diagnosis is: A duodenal stump leak B acute pancreatitis C postoperative acute cholecystitis D wound infection E delayed rupture of a contused spleen |
(A)
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171. Which enzyme is produced in the pancreas in an inactive form?
A Trypsin B Lipase A Amylase |
(A)
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172. What is the abdominoperineal resection?
A Removal of the rectum and anus with the sphincter, creating a temporary ostomy B Removal of the rectum and anus with the sphincter, creating a permanent ostomy C Removal of the rectum and anus sparing the sphincter, creating a temporary ostomy D Removal of the rectum and anus sparing the sphincter, creating a permanent ostomy |
(B)
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173. All of the following substances are produced by functional carcinoid
neoplasms, EXCEPT: A serotonin B 5-hydroxy-tryptophan C kallikrein and histamine D ACTH E parathormone |
(E)
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174. Breast conserving surgery is contraindicated in the following cases:
A Two or more primary tumors are present in separate quadrants of the breast B If the axillary nodal status is positive C Neo-adjuvant therapy was administered before surgery D Patient is older than 70 years |
(A)
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175. The recommended therapy of intestinal carcinoid tumors is:
A irradiation B chemotherapy C administration of serotonin antagonists D surgery followed by irradiation E intestinal resection |
(E)
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176. The most prevalent type of thyroid cancer is: (
A follicular carcinoma B papillary carcinoma C anaplastic carcinoma D medullary carcinoma E secondary carcinoma |
B)
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177. All of the following belong to skeletal changes occurring in
hyperparathyroidism, EXCEPT: A osteitis fibrosa cystica B osteopetrosis C solitary or multilocular bone cysts D pathologic fractures E osteoporosis |
(B)
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178. The most common type of congenital adrenal hyperplasia develops as a result
of: A 21-hydroxylase enzyme deficiency B 11-hydroxylase enzyme deficiency C 17-hydroxylase enzyme deficiency D 3-b-hydroxysteroid-dehydrogenase enzyme deficiency E excessive ACTH release |
(A)
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179. The treatment of choice for Cushing's disease is:
A a hypophysectomy B irradiation of the pituitary gland C a unilateral adrenalectomy D a subtotal adrenalectomy E a total adrenalectomy |
(B)
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180. What is the proper surgical treatment of an asymptomatic papillary thyroid
cancer – found incidentally - which is 5mm in diameter in the left lobe if there are no enlarged lymph nodes: A Total thyroidectomy B Total thyroidectomy with lymph node dissection C Lobectomy on the left side D Subtotal lobectomy on the left side E No surgery required, irradiation only |
(C)
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181. In which of the following forms of primary hyperaldosteronism is the value of
surgical therapy controversial? A Solitary aldosterone producing adenoma B Carcinoma of the adrenal cortex C Primary hyperaldosteronism due to adrenal hyperplasia D Hyperaldosteronism sensitive to glucose administration E Primary hyperaldosteronism of unknown origin |
(D)
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182. The most reliable test in diagnosing a pheochromocytoma is:
A the measurement of the 24-hour urinary metanephrine excretion rate B the urinary catecholamines concentration C a urinary vanillylmandelic acid determination D the determination of basal plasma catecholamine levels E the determination of plasma catecholamine levels following the injection of histamine |
(A)
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183. Type-II multiplex endocrine neoplasia (MEN) consists of all the following,
EXCEPT: A medullary carcinoma of the thyroid gland B pituitary neoplasms C pheochromocytoma D parathyroid adenoma or hyperplasia E multiple neuromas |
(B)
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184. Complications of hypoparathyroidism include:
A cataract formation and cerebral calcification B diabetes C adrenal insufficiency D hydronephrosis |
(A)
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185. A carcinoma of the thyroid gland:
A often causes hyperthyroidism B is usually associated with hypothyroidism C is generally characterized by normal thyroid function D only the metastases produce hormones E develops in toxic adenomas |
(C)
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186. Acute mastitis is most prevalent at/in:
A birth B puberty C pregnancy D breast feeding E menopause |
(D)
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187. The risk of bilateral breast cancer is high when the primary lesion (having
developed in the breast affected first) is: A DCIS B inflammatory carcinoma C invasive lobular cancer D Paget's disease E invasive ductal cancer |
(C)
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188. Breast cancer develops most frequently in which of the following regions of
the breast? A The upper-medial quadrant B The upper-lateral quadrant C The subareolar region D The lower-medial quadrant E The lower-lateral quadrant |
(B)
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189. The most prevalent histologic type of breast cancer is the:
A invasive papillary carcinoma B invasive ductal carcinoma C medullary carcinoma D colloidal carcinoma E invasive lobular carcinoma |
(B)
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190. Which of the following therapies is recommended for breast cancer patients
with extensive systemic metastases? A Chemo/radiotherapy B Simple mastectomy C Radical mastectomy D Breast conserving surgery |
(A)
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191. Mammography is a particularly valuable method for the reduction of breast
cancer mortality, because: A it does not frighten female patients away from being examined B it can the detect the disease at an early stage C there are no false positive results D it is a painless procedure E it is a particularly specific test in young females |
(B)
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192. What is the percentage of breast cancer among all the malignancies occurring
in females? A 5% B 10% C 25% D 20% E 30% |
(C)
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193. The incidence of which of the following cancer types has decreased over the
last 40 years? A Breast cancer B Lung cancer C Colon cancer D Stomach cancer E Bone marrow cancer |
(D)
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194. From the following options which is true for Sentinel Node Biopsy in breast
cancer? A The sentinel node(s) can be identified using a radioactive tracer or special dye B At least 5 lymph nodes has to be removed for correct histological sampling C The axillary dissection has to be performed even if the sentinel nodes were found to be tumor-free D Clinically detectable axillary lymph node enlargement requires Sentinel Node Biopsy |
(A)
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195. Which is the least frequent from the following types of thyroid cancer?
A Papillary cancer B Anaplastic cancer C Follicular cancer D Medullary cancer |
(B)
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196. The most frequent cause of a palpable breast lump above 50 years is:
A Abscess B Benign breast change C Cancer D Cyst E Fibroadenoma |
(C)
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31. Using of which anticoagulants requires close monitoring of the hemostatic
parameters? A Aspirin B Clopidogrel C Ca-Heparin D Low molecular weight heparin |
(C)
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32. Select the FALSE statement!
A Indirect inguinal hernia is the most common of the external abdominal wall hernias B Incisional hernia can develop wherever there is a scar on the abdomen C Obesity and liver cirrhosis can aggravate the development of umbilical hernias D Reducible hernias require urgent operation within 12 hours |
(D)
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33. Select the diseases that pose an absolute indication for surgery.
A Obstructing colonic cancer B Enlarged axillary lymph nodes C Duodenal ulcer D Large, symptomatic pancreatic pseudocyst E Stones in the common bile duct causing jaundice |
(A)
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34. Which pathogen is the common cause of gas gangrene?
A Aspergillus B Streptococcus C Clostridium D Pseudomonas |
(C)
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35. From the following options which factor does NOT impair the wound-healing
process? A Chemotherapeutic drugs B Anemia C Jaundice D Mobilization of the patient |
(D)
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36. The most significant advantage of the tension-free inguinal hernia repair over the
conventional techniques is: A The rate of recurrence is lower B The patient can leave the hospital sooner C Yields better cosmetic results D It’s cheaper than the Bassini operation |
(A)
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37. Which is NOT considered a wound healing complication?
A Dehiscence B Seroma C Primary wound healing D Keloid formation |
(C)
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38. The most frequent cause of lung abscess is:
A the aspiration of infective material from the oral cavity or pharynx B a blood-borne infection C lymphatic spread from an infective focus D a penetrating chest injury E bronchogenic carcinoma |
(A)
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39. A lung abscess develops most frequently in the:
A left-upper lobe B left-lower lobe C lingular segment D upper-dorsal segments of the right lung E right-middle lobe |
(D)
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40. The chest x-ray of a 30-year-old patient with a simple rib fracture shows a 50%
pneumothorax. The first line of treatment should be: A external fixation with adhesive tape B the infiltration of the injured intercostal nerve with a local anesthetic C coughing and respiratory exercises D the administration of analgesics E tube thoracostomy |
(E)
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41. A solitary mass in the lung of a middle-aged patient is most likely a:
A granuloma B malignancy C adenoma D tuberculotic lesion E secondary neoplasm |
(A)
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42. All of the following conditions are complications of empyema, EXCEPT: (
A bronchopleural fistula B pleural adhesions C pericarditis D osteomyelitis E circumscribed pneumonia |
D)
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43. The treatment of choice for hemothorax with an effusion of 500 cm3 or more is by:
A needle aspiration B intercostal tube thoracostomy C thoracotomy and ligation of the ruptured blood vessel D supportive therapy with monitoring E transfusion of fresh blood |
(B)
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44. The most frequent cause of thoracic empyema is:
A pneumonia of the ipsilateral lung B the rupture of an emphysematous bleb C a penetrating chest injury D a subphrenic abscess E ruptures of the thoracic segments of the esophagus |
(A)
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45. All of the following represent an indication for resection in pulmonary tuberculosis,
EXCEPT: A an open cavity with positive sputum despite 3-6 months of therapy B a negative sputum with destroyed segment residue C a local infection caused by atypical acid-fast bacteria D a new lesion with positive sputum E tuberculotic bronchiectasis of the middle and lower lobes |
D
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46. All of the following statements are valid regarding lung cancer, EXCEPT:
A lung cancer is never symptom-free B on X-ray it can occur as a coin lesion (round shadow) on the periphery of the lung C hemoptysis is common in lung cancer D a dry, distressing, unproductive cough may often be the only symptom of lung cancer E a partial or complete airway obstruction may predispose to lung infection |
(A)
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47. All of the following are manifestations of the superior vena cava syndrome, EXCEPT:
A increased venous pressure B edema of the head and neck C enlarged veins which are visible on the anterior chest wall D cyanosis E dyspnea |
(E)
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48. All of the following are diagnostic signs of cardiac tamponade, EXCEPT:
A increased venous pressure B shock C a reduced cardiac output D increased filling volume of the heart during diastole E a reduced blood pressure |
(D)
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49. The 5-year survival of all lung cancer cases is not higher than:
A 10% B 20% C 30% D 40% E 50% |
(A)
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50. The most common malignancy of the bony chest wall is:
A solitary bone metastasis B osteogenic sarcoma C multiple myeloma D Ewing's sarcoma E chondrosarcoma |
(E)
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51. A possible etiologic factor in the development of pleural mesothelioma is:
A pneumoconiosis B asbestosis C anthracosis D hereditary disposition E peritoneal mesothelioma |
(B)
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52. Hemoptysis can result from all of the following, EXCEPT:
A bronchial carcinoma B bronchial asthma C bronchiectasia D pulmonary infarction E pulmonary tuberculosis |
(B)
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53. The most common cause of the superior vena cava syndrome is:
A a bronchial carcinoma arising from the upper-right lobe B a neoplasm of the thymus C thyroid cancer D mediastinal fibrosis E multinodular goiter |
(A)
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54. The therapy of choice for patients with tension pneumothorax associated with dyspnea
is: A intravenous volume replacement B administration of oxygen by mask C immediate release of the air from the pleural cavity D administration of analeptic drugs E immediate intubation |
(C)
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55. Choose the most appropriate therapy of non-metastatic Non Small Cell Lung Cancer
from the following options. A Lung resection with lymphadenectomy, adjuvant chemo and/or radiotherapy B Chemo and radiotherapy C Lung resection alone D Wait-and-see strategy |
(A)
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56. What kind of operation is preferred in the treatment of pectus excavatum?
A Urgent thoraco-laparotomy B Videothoracoscopic Nuss operation C Reconstruction of the sternum with open operation D Videothoracoscopic Nissen operation |
(B)
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57. What is the preferred operation for spontaneous pneumothorax?
A Thoracotomy and resection of the ruptured bulla and pleurodesis B Peritoneal tube drainage C Videothoracoscopic resection of the ruptured bulla and pleurodesis D Videothoracoscopy and pleurodesis |
(C)
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58. Which operation can be performed in isolated pulmonary metastasis from colorectal
cancer? A Subtotal pulmonectomy B Lobectomy with lymphadenectomy C Metastasectomy and/or tissue-sparing lung resection with lymphadenectomy D Segmentectomy with lymphadenectomy |
(C)
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59. From the following options which is NOT a typical sign of a Zenker’s diverticulum?
A Dysphagia B Regurgitation of undigested food C Sharp pain when swallowing D Gurgling sounds when swallowing |
(C)
|
|
60. Which diagnostic modality CANNOT be used to assess the depth of malignant
infiltration in esophageal cancer? A Endoscopy and biopsy B CT scan C Endosonography D PET-CT |
(A)
|
|
61. In hiatal hernia the most important examination to determine the type of the planned
fundoplication is: A 24-hour Ph monitoring and manometry B Barium swallow and 24-hour Ph monitoring C Endoscopy D Endoscopy and manometry |
(A)
|
|
62. What is the therapy of lung metastases?
A Lobectomy B Lobectomy with lymphadenectomy C Metastasectomy and/or lung resection with lymphadenectomy D Segmentectomy with lymphadenectomy |
(C)
|
|
63. The treatment of malignant chest wall tumors is:
A excision B radical resection C radical resection with chest wall reconstruction D radiotherapy |
(C)
|
|
64. Which of the following conditions requires urgent surgery? )
A Paraesophageal hernia with erosion B Paraesophageal hernia with incarceration C Paraesophageal hernia with severe reflux D Large symptomatic paraesophageal hernia |
(B
|
|
65. What is the most common type of surgery in esophageal malignancies?
A Mucosal excision B Total esophageal resection C Segmental esophageal resection D Subtotal esophageal resection |
(D)
|
|
66. In an operable pancreatic head malignancy which is considered the most successful
operation? A Pancreatoduodenectomy B Total pancreatectomy C Biliodigestive bypass |
(A)
|
|
67. What is the gold standard treatment of symptomatic cholelithiasis?
A Open cholecystectomy B Laparoscopic cholecystectomy C Single-port cholecystectomy D Endoscopic retrograde cholangio-pancreatograpy E Shock wave lithotripsy |
(B)
|
|
68. What percent of the small intestine can be removed without severe consequences on
digestive capacity and the subsequent risk of metabolic disorders? ) A 5% B 10% C 30% D 70% E 90% |
(D
|
|
69. Which is an absolute contraindication of laparoscopic cholecystectomy?
A Previous upper abdominal surgeries B Gallbladder longer than 10cm C Old age D Second trimester pregnancy E Inability to tolerate general anesthesia |
(E)
|
|
70. Which is the most common form of the gallbladder perforation?
A Localized perforation with pericholecystic abscess B Free perforation with diffuse peritonitis C Development of a cholecysto-enteric fistula D Development of a cholecysto-phrenic fistula |
(A)
|
|
71. Which vessel provides the blood supply of the pancreas?
A Celiac trunk B Superior mesenteric artery C Both |
(C)
|
|
72. All of the following statements are valid regarding gastric polyps, EXCEPT:
A gastric polyps have a propensity for multiple occurrence B gastric polyps develop on atrophic gastric mucosa C gastric polyps may develop first after puberty D gastric polyps can develop as a feature of familial disease E gastric polyps are not expected to undergo malignant transformation |
(E)
|
|
73. Metabolic consequences of a gastric resection include:
A macrocytic anemia B iron-deficiency anemia C metabolic alkalosis D calcium deficiency E steatorrhea |
(A)
|
|
74. Intestinal diverticula develop most frequently in the:
A duodenum B jejunum C transverse colon D descending colon E sigmoid colon |
(E)
|
|
75. Which is not a typical complication of laparoscopic cholecystectomy?
A Common bile duct lesion B Dissection of the cystic duct C Hematoma under the liver D Postoperative bile leakage |
(B)
|
|
76. Approximately what is the normal diameter of the common bile duct in adults?
A 1-2mm B 2-4mm C 4-6mm D 6-8mm E 10-12mm |
(D)
|
|
77. Which of the following procedures are performed on the stomach?
A Selective vagotomy B Choledochojejunostomy with Roux-en-Y anastomosis C Miles operation D Wilson fundoplication |
(A)
|
|
78. From the following options which is the most common type of weight reduction
surgery? A Bilateral femoral amputation B Laparoscopic adjustable gastric banding C Laparoscopic adjustable esophageal banding D Total gastrectomy with Roux-en-Y anastomosis E Billroth-I resection with jejunal loop |
(C)
|
|
79. All of the following signs are present in mesenteric artery obstruction, EXCEPT:
A a sudden pain around the umbilicus B the pain is disproportionally intense compared to the severity of physical signs C an urge to defecate D bloody stool E bowel sounds reflecting permanently hyperactive peristalsis |
(E)
|
|
80. All of the following are true for the pain associated with pancreatitis, EXCEPT:
A an abrupt onset B diffuse mid-abdominal pain C unremitting (generalized) pain D the pain radiates through to the back E colic subcostal pain |
(E)
|
|
82. A 45-year-old female patient has undergone a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Three
days following the procedure, she gradually develops signs of acute abdomen and has fever. The possible cause may be, EXCEPT: A injury of the common bile duct B injury of the hepatic duct C perforation of the transverse colon D pulmonary embolism E development of acute pancreatitis |
(D)
|
|
83. Stress ulcers have been observed in all of the following conditions, EXCEPT:
A after severe burns B in central nervous system lesions C after alcohol ingestion D after salicylate ingestion E during penicillin administration |
(E)
|
|
84. The landmark delineating the junction of the antral and fundic regions on the lesser
curvature of the stomach is the: A angular incisure B Mayo-vein C left gastric artery D gastroduodenal artery E gastroepiploic artery |
(A)
|
|
85. The most severe complication after a Billroth-II gastric resection is:
A thrombophlebitis B dehiscence of the duodenal stump C dehiscence of the esophageal stump D dehiscence of the Roux-en-Y anastomosis E hemorrhage |
(B)
|
|
86. All of the following are extraintestinal manifestations of Crohn's disease, EXCEPT:
A erythema nodosum B arthritis C uveitis D portal fibrosis E an increased risk of malignant transformation |
(E)
|
|
87. What is NOT a typical symptom of in peptic ulcer disease?
A Abdominal or epigastric pain B Bloating C Fresh blood in the stool D Melena E Nausea, vomiting |
(C)
|
|
88. All of the following are intestinal complications of Crohn's disease, EXCEPT:
A perforation B fistula formation C rectal bleeding D intestinal obstruction E colonic polyposis |
(E)
|
|
89. Which operation is the most commonly accepted in acute necrotizing pancreatitis?
A Cholecystectomy + drainage of the cystic duct B Necrectomy + drainage C Pancreatic resection + drainage D Pancreatoduodenectomy |
(B)
|
|
90. What is NOT considered a frequent complication after splenectomy?
A Subphrenic abscess B Postsplenectomy fever C Pulmonary embolisation D Bleeding |
(C)
|
|
91. Which statement is NOT true for gastric cancer in general?
A The most frequent signs are weight loss, abdominal pain, vomiting or bleeding B In linitis plastica only total gastrectomy is considered oncologically radical C A CT scan helps to assess the infiltration of the surrounding organs/tissues D The generally accepted complex treatment of gastric cancer is surgery, irradiation, chemotherapy and hormone therapy |
(D)
|
|
92. In which disease is the "string sign" a characteristic feature?
A Ulcerative colitis B Mesenteric infarction C Volvulus of the sigmoid colon D Crohn’s disease E Rectal cancer |
(D)
|
|
93. In Crohn's disease, the most frequent indication for surgery is:
A development of an intraabdominal fistula B development of a perianal fistula C an intra-abdominal mass D stagnant bowel syndrome E intestinal obstruction |
(E)
|
|
94. Which of the following is the anatomic border between the left and right lobes of the
liver? A The line connecting the falciform ligament and the inferior vena cava B The line connecting the falciform ligament and the "bare area" C The line connecting the fossa of the gall bladder and the fossa of the inferior vena cava D The line connecting the fossa of the gall bladder and the "bare area" E The line connecting the "ligamentum teres hepatis" and the inferior vena cava |
(C)
|
|
95. Which of the following disorders is associated with an elevated serum a-fetoprotein
level? A Carcinoma of the liver B Carcinoma of the colon C Crohn's disease D Carcinoma of the pancreas E Carcinoma of the gall bladder |
(A)
|
|
96. The pathologic lesion characteristic of the Mallory-Weiss syndrome is: )
A rupture of the esophagus B rupture of the gastric mucosa C laceration of the mucosa at the gastroesophageal junction D hemorrhage from a gastric polyp E acute gastritis |
(C
|
|
97. Regarding the prognosis of gastric adenocarcinoma, which of the following statements
is FALSE? A The polypoid macroscopic type carries a better prognosis than the diffusely infiltrating type B The intestinal histological type carries a better prognosis than the diffuse type C Cure rates of 80 to 90 % are obtained for lesions confined to the mucosa D Length of survival is improved by chemotherapy and radiation therapy after curative resection |
(D)
|
|
98. All of the following procedures are appropriate for the treatment of verified
choledocholithiasis, EXCEPT: A choledochotomy and T-tube drainage B endoscopic papillotomy and extraction of biliary calculi C transduodenal sphincteroplasty D percutaneous extraction of biliary calculi using a Dormia-basket |
(D)
|
|
99. From the following options which CANNOT be used in the treatment of achalasia?
A Intraluminal cryotherapy B Balloon dilatation C Heller’s myotomy D Self-expandable stent implantation |
(A)
|
|
100. Gastric carcinoma develops most frequently in the region of the:
A fundus B cardia B corpus D pyloric and antral region E gastroesophageal junction |
(D)
|
|
101. In people over the age of 50, the incidence of colonic diverticula is
approximately: A 0-5% B 5-10% C 10-20% D 20-30% E 30-40% |
(E)
|
|
102. Which of the following disorders may cause paralytic ileus?
A Obstructing colonic cancer B Annular pancreas C Diffuse peritonitis D Volvulus E Intussusception/invagination |
(C)
|
|
103. The most common factor in the etiology of acute appendicitis is:
A bacterial infection B mechanical obstruction C local circulatory insufficiency D the role of chemical substances E the lymphatic hyperplasia in the processus vermiformis |
(B)
|
|
104. What is the least prevalent site for the development of intraperitoneal
abscesses? A The pelvis B The right subhepatic compartment C The left subphrenic compartment D The peritoneal sac E The right subphrenic compartment |
(D)
|
|
105. Spontaneous rupture of the spleen may occur in all of the following conditions,
EXCEPT: A infectious mononucleosis B malaria C leukemia D polycythemia vera E portal hypertension |
(E)
|
|
106. A splenectomy has a beneficial effect in all the following hemolytic conditions,
EXCEPT: A hereditary spherocytosis B hereditary elliptocytosis C hemolytic anemia due to glucose-6-phosphate deficiency D thalassemia E sickle-cell disease |
(C)
|
|
107. Characteristic features of thrombocytopenic purpura include all of the
following, EXCEPT: A it is more prevalent in females B petechiae, ecchymoses or hemorrhages occur C significant splenomegaly is present D subnormal platelet count in peripheral blood E the megakaryocyte count in the bone marrow is normal or increased |
(C)
|
|
108. All of the following are present in long-standing ulcerative colitis, EXCEPT:
A a shortening of the gut B shrinkage and thickening of the mesentery C enlarged masses comprised of lymph node conglomerates D a dull, grayish mucosal surface E perforation and abscesses along the mesenteric margin |
(C)
|
|
109. Characteristic features of ischemic colitis are influenced by all of the following
factors, EXCEPT: A the extent of vascular obstruction B the duration of obstruction C the patency of the collateral circulation D the extent of bacterial invasion E the intensity of the inflammation |
(E)
|
|
110. All of the following are appropriate in the treatment of pseudomembranous
colitis, EXCEPT: A discontinuing the causative antibiotic(s) B the correction of electrolyte- and fluid losses C metronidazole therapy D vancomycin therapy E corticosteroid therapy |
(E)
|
|
111. Which of the following statements is the most appropriate following the
resection of a carcinoma of the descending colon? A Abdominal US and colonoscopy repeated every 6 months B Abdominal US and barium enema repeated every 6 months C Monitoring of the serum CEA, US and colonoscopy at regular intervals D Sulfasalazine (Salazopyrine) and prednisone therapy E Checking the stool for occult bleeding every 3 months |
(C)
|
|
112. All of the following drugs can induce gastrointestinal bleeding, EXCEPT:
A salicylates B corticosteroids C alcohol D phenothiazines E anticoagulants |
(D)
|
|
113. The most common cause of a massive rectal bleeding is:
A a carcinoma of the descending colon B colonic diverticulosis C ulcerative colitis D a carcinoma of the ascending colon E stage-II hemorrhoids |
(B)
|
|
114. Which of the following compounds is contraindicated following a liver
resection? A Carbohydrates B Albumin C Vitamin K D Hypnotic analgesics E Antibiotics |
(D)
|
|
115. The incidence of biliary stones is supposed to increase after which of the
following operations? A Resection of a liver lobe B Subtotal gastrectomy C Splenectomy D Resection of the jejunum E Resection of the ileum |
(E)
|
|
116. Mechanical ileus due to obstruction by a biliary stone develops most frequently
in the: A duodenum B jejunum C ileum D sigmoid colon E anorectal junction |
(C)
|
|
117. What is the most severe possible complication of acute cholangitis?
A Prolonged jaundice B Development of stones in the common bile duct C Acute pancreatitis D Hepatic abscess E Duodenal perforation |
(D)
|
|
118. Which of the following features reflect a poor prognosis in acute pancreatitis?
A High surges of serum amylase levels B Hyperglycemia and glycosuria C High urinary amylase level D Prolonged coagulation time E Reduced serum calcium level |
(E)
|
|
119. All of the following factors cause acute pancreatitis, EXCEPT:
A alcohol B hypercalcemia associated with parathyroid dysfunction C biliary stones D hyperlipidemia E hemochromatosis |
(E)
|
|
120. The most appropriate surgical intervention for a rectal cancer located 3
centimeters above the anal verge is: A anterior resection with primary anastomosis B rectal resection with the "pull-through" procedure C abdominoperineal resection of the rectum D posterior resection E two-stage resection |
(C)
|
|
121. In which of the following conditions is a "drain-pipe" colon a characteristic
feature visible on X-ray taken after a barium enema? A Amebiasis B Ulcerative colitis C Tuberculosis of the colon D Granulomatous enteritis E Familial polyposis |
(B)
|
|
122. All of the following statements are true regarding thrombosed hemorrhoids,
EXCEPT: A the abrupt appearance of a painful external bulge in the anal region B the appearance of a tense, bluish, tender induration on the anal border C an untreated lesion has a tendency to ulcerate and bleed D hemorrhoids usually resolve within 24 hours E prompt surgical decompression brings symptomatic relief |
(D)
|
|
123. Which of the following procedures is appropriate for the definitive diagnosis of
congenital megacolon? A Stool culture and parasitology B Rectal biopsy C Radiographic examination D Pancreatic enzyme activity measurements from stool E Sweat test |
(B)
|
|
124. The operation of choice for congenital megacolon is:
A a colostomy B an enterostomy C a splanchnicectomy D a total colectomy E none of the above |
(E)
|
|
125. From the following options which is true for Inflammatory Bowel Diseases?
A Severe rectal bleeding is more common in ulcerative colitis than in Crohn’s disease B The exact pathomechanism of the disease is well established C The typical age at the onset of the disease is around 60-70 years D The most common symptoms are epigastric pain and vomiting |
(A)
|
|
126. The most prevalent type of colorectal polyps is:
A villous polyp B postinflammatory polyp C tubular adenoma D juvenile polyp E hereditary multiple polyp |
(C)
|
|
127. The anatomical border between the anus and the rectum is the:
A lateral hemorrhoidal groove B interhemorrhoidal groove C dentate line D serrate line E anorectal ring |
(C)
|
|
128. From the following procedures which can be performed in a rectosigmoid
cancer causing incomplete obstruction? A Resection with primary anastomosis B Total colectomy with ileo-anal anastomosis C Abdominoperineal resection D Percutaneous bowel decompression |
(A)
|
|
129. Colonic obstruction due to a sigmoid cancer is best treated by:
A a primary abdomino-perineal amputation B decompression by colostomy only C a primary anterior resection D resection and temporary colostomy E resection and permanent colostomy |
(D)
|
|
130. Elevated CEA (carcinoembryonic antigen) levels have been observed in all of
the following conditions, EXCEPT: A carcinoma of the pancreas B breast cancer C colonic cancer D lung cancer E myeloma |
(E)
|
|
131. What is the role of postoperative irradiation in colonic cancer?
A Irradiation is not part of the routine therapeutic practice B Irradiation should be used in lymph node positive cases C Irradiation should be used in metastatic cases D Irradiation should be used in every patent with inoperable cancer |
(A)
|
|
132. What is the currently accepted surgical treatment of an anal fissure?
A Anterior resection B Parks hemorrhoidectomy C Anal dilatation D Lateral internal sphincterotomy |
(D)
|
|
133. Select the condition which is most likely to be candidate for laparoscopic
splenectomy: A idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura B polycythemia Vera C splenic infiltration of pancreatic malignancy D thalassemia with significant splenomegaly E portal hypertension |
(A)
|
|
134. The treatment of choice for a symptomatic pancreatic abscess is:
A cystogastrostomy B cystoenterostomy C external drainage D antibiotic therapy without drainage E pancreatic resection |
(C)
|
|
135. What is the Hartmann’s procedure?
A Two-staged bowel resection with the formation of a temporary ostomy B Two-staged bowel resection with the formation of a definite ostomy C Two-staged gastric resection with the formation of a definite gastrostomy D Two-staged gastric resection with the formation of a temporary gastrostomy E Two-staged esophageal resection with the formation of a temporary esophagostomy |
(A)
|
|
136. The most prevalent cause of mortality due to a duodenal ulcer can be:
A hemorrhage B peritonitis resulting from acute perforation C pyloric obstruction and inanition D an untreatable disease E an esophageal rupture associated with the regurgitation of the acidic gastric contents |
(A)
|
|
81. The most important sign of appendicitis is:
A right upper abdominal pain B an elevated body temperature C elevated inflammatory markers D right lower abdominal quadrant pain E diffuse mid-abdominal pain |
(D)
|
|
137. Regarding hepatic diseases, which statement is true?
A The liver has 7 functional segments B Focal nodular hyperplasia usually turns into a hepatic malignancy C When in doubt about the nature of a hepatic hemangioma, a percutaneous needle biopsy is recommended to confirm the diagnosis D The liver has such a good regeneration potential that often as much as 75-80% of the hepatic volume can be removed during surgery |
(D)
|
|
138. The most frequent severe complication of a Roux-en-Y type gastric resection
is: A dehiscence of the ileal stump (anastomotic leakage) B dehiscence of the duodenal stump (anastomotic leakage) C hemorrhage D septic shock E dumping syndrome |
(B)
|
|
139. Which is the most reliable physical finding in acute appendicitis?
A Localized right lower quadrant tenderness B Rebound tenderness C Right lower quadrant hypesthesia D Tenderness on rectal examination E All of the above are equally reliable |
(A)
|
|
140. Which of the following is the characteristic feature of the Mallory-Weiss
syndrome? A Mucosal rupture in the esophagus B Rupture of the gastric mucosa C Rupture of the esophageal mucosa and the gastric mucosa in the region of the cardia D Bleeding from a gastric polyp |
(C)
|
|
141. All of the following statements are valid regarding perforated appendicitis,
EXCEPT: A the incidence of this condition is higher in very young or old patients B it is more prevalent among the poor C in acute appendicitis, early antibiotic therapy prevents the perforation of the processus vermiformix D perforated appendicitis still carries significant mortality and morbidity rates |
(C)
|
|
142. All of the following statements are valid regarding the development of cancer
in patients with ulcerative colitis, EXCEPT: A the incidence of cancer increases proportionally to the duration of the disease B the age of onset of ulcerative colitis determines the incidence of any associated cancer C the malignant neoplasms develop from pseudopolyps D the neoplasms are multiple, circumscribed and invasive E the prognosis is poor |
(C)
|
|
143. Villous adenomas (hairy polyps) of the rectum are best treated by:
A repeated rectosigmoidoscopies B abdominoperineal resection C local excision of the lesion D infusion of electrolyte solutions E drug therapy |
(C)
|
|
144. Which condition is NOT associated with an increased risk of gastric cancer?
A Adenomatous gastric polyps B Atrophic chronic gastritis C Acute alcoholic gastritis D Helicobacter pylori infection |
(C)
|
|
145. From the following options which characteristics or studies can preoperatively
distinguish a benign gastric ulcer from a cancer? A Diameter (more than 2 cm) B Distance from the pylorus C Acid secretory studies D Multiple biopsies E Clinical response to PPI treatment |
(D)
|
|
146. An increased risk of developing colonic cancer is associated with the following
conditions, EXCEPT: A Crohn’s disease B Diet low in animal fat and protein C Ulcerative colitis D Familial polyposis E Diabetes mellitus |
(B)
|
|
147. In which of the following primary malignancies has the resection of hepatic
metastases the most pronounced effect on survival? A Colorectal B Breast C Gastric D Ovarian E Pancreatic |
(A)
|
|
148. Which of the following conditions Helicobacter pylori infection is NOT
associated with? A Duodenal ulcer B Gastric ulcer C Chronic gastritis D Gastric cancer E Acute gastritis |
(E)
|
|
149. Concerning the clinical presentation of peritonitis, which of the following
statements is true? A Patients with peritonitis frequently shift position in order to relieve the pain B High-pitched bowel sound become prominent as bowel wall edema leads to progressive compromise of the intestinal lumen C Peritonitis is always associated with marked elevations of the white blood cell count D Temperature elevation may be only minimal in infants and debilitated elderly patients E Before the diagnosis can be confirmed, there must be x-ray evidence of ileus and obliteration of the psoas shadow |
(D)
|
|
150. Which disease is treated by the Heller operation?
A Congenital megacolon B Esophageal carcinoma C Achalasia of the cardia D Crohn’s disease E Hiatal hernia |
(C)
|
|
151. Regarding Crohn’s disease, which of the following statements is correct?
A It is characterized by transmural inflammation and skip lesions B The long-term base therapy is based on administration of systemic steroids C The disease involves the proximal ileum in the majority of the cases D The risk for malignant transformation decreases over the course of disease |
(A)
|
|
152. Which is the most characteristic sign of gastric perforation in the first hour?
A Fever B Sharp epigastric pain C Sharp lower right quadrant pain D Colic right upper quadrant pain E Diarrhea |
(B)
|
|
153. Which of the following conditions presents an indication for hepatic resection?
) A Hepatitis B infection B Hepatitis C infection C Solitary liver metastasis D Primary biliary cirrhosis E Budd-Chiari syndrome |
(C
|
|
154. From the following treatment options which is the most appropriate for a
patient with suddenly developing jaundice, proven gallstones and no signs of acute abdomen? A Immediate open cholecystectomy with common bile duct exploration B Urgent ERCP followed by laparoscopic cholecystectomy C Delayed open cholecystectomy with common bile duct exploration D Urgent laparoscopic cholecystectomy followed by ERCP E Conservative treatment with antibiotics |
(B)
|
|
155. Which of the following statement is NOT true for laparoscopic
cholecystectomy when compared to an open procedure? A Yields better cosmetic results B Rate of complications is lower C Requires shorter hospitalization time D Postoperative pain is less severe |
(B)
|
|
156. Partial gastric resection is indicated in the following case:
A linitis plastica B small antrum tumor with diffuse type Lauren classification C small antrum tumor with intestinal type Lauren classification D large peptic ulcer as a first line of treatment |
(C)
|
|
157. From the following options which is the most typical complication of a cancer
in the head of the pancreas? A Obstruction of the proximal ileum B Obstruction of the common bile duct C Obstruction of the hepatic duct D Obstruction of the celiac trunk |
(B)
|
|
158. Which one is the proper treatment in fecal peritonitis caused by a perforating
sigmoid tumor? A Double-barrel colostomy B Hartmann’s procedure C Resection with primary anastomosis D Right hemicolectomy E Abdominoperineal resection |
(B)
|
|
159. From the following options select the scoring system currently used to help
predict the severity of acute pancreatitis: A APACHE-II B SAPS-II C ASA D SIRS-I |
(A)
|
|
160. From the following options which is the most frequent cause of mechanical
ileus? A Large colonic polyp B Parkinson’s disease C Intussusception D Obstructing tumor E Gallstone ileus |
(D)
|
|
161. Which one is NOT a sign of peritoneal irritation in appendicitis?
A Blumberg sign B Rowsing sign C Horner sign D Psoas sign |
(C)
|
|
162. Which is the proper treatment from the following options for a large cecal
tumor infiltrating the abdominal wall? A Double-barrel sigmoidostomy B Hartmann’s procedure C Palliative resection with primary anastomosis D Bilio-digestive bypass E Abdominoperineal resection |
(C)
|
|
163. Which statement is true for acute pancreatitis?
A The basic pathomechanism is the bacterial digestion of the pancreatic tissue B Surgery should be performed as early as possible in complicated pancreatitis C The most common causes are alcohol abuse and biliary tract disorders D ERCP is contraindicated in acute gallstone pancreatitis |
(C)
|
|
164. Please select the structures that surgeons dissect during a normal laparoscopic
cholecystectomy. A Cystic duct and common bile duct B Common bile duct and hepatic duct C Right hepatic artery and cystic duct D Cystic duct and cystic artery E Cystic artery and common bile duct |
(D)
|
|
165. Which of the following signs and symptoms is NOT characteristic to a
proximal mechanical ileus? A Rectal bleeding B Nausea and vomiting C Abdominal pain D Abdominal distension |
(A)
|
|
166. Which statement is true for pancreatic cancer in general?
A Regarding histological types, 30% is ductal adenocarcinoma B The majority of the tumors are located in the body of the pancreas C The traditional procedure for a resectable pancreatic head malignancy is the Whipple operation D Thanks to the modern oncologic treatment modalities, the average survival now exceeds 2 years even in unresectable cases |
(C)
|