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302 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What are the three structures that pass through the costocoracoid membrane?
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Thoracoacromial Artery
Lateral Pectoral Nerve Cephalic Vein |
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What are the first group of lymph nodes affected by metastatic breast cancer?
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Pectoral Nodes
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What is the major nerve of extension that supplies the posterior arm?
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Radial Nerve
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Damage of what nerve causes loss of abduction & numbness on a small part of arm?
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Axillary Nerve
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"Waiter's Tip" is due to injury of what?
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C5/6 - Upper Trunk of Brachial Plexus
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What is the vein typically used for venipuncture?
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Median Cubital Vein
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A fracture of the midshaft of the humerus will mostly likely damage which nerve?
Which presents as? |
Radial Nerve
Wrist Drop! |
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A fracture of distal humerus most likely causes damage to what nerve?
Which presents as? |
Median Nerve
Carpel Tunnel Syndrome, Loss of Pronation, & "Ape Hand" (permanent adduction and hyperextention) |
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A fracture of distal humerus posterior to medial epicondyle causes damage to what nerve?
Which presents as? |
Ulnar Nerve
Tingling/numbness & loss of fine hand movement |
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Injury of what nerve results in paralysis of arm, weakening of flexion & supination, along with loss of sensation of lateral forearm?
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Musculocutaneous Nerve
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If a patient is unable to extend the wrist or digits (aka wrist drop), what nerve is damaged?
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Radial Nerve
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What are the four CN's that receives ear pain?
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CN V, VII, IX, X
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True or False
The reflection of light (in the ear) radiates peripherally from the umbo directed posteriorily and inferiorly? |
False, Anteriorly and Inferiorly
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What part of the vestibular system is stimulated by linear acceleration and gravitational force?
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Utricle and Saccule
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What part of the vestibular system is stimulated by rotational motion?
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Semicircular Canal
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What would you expect in an adult if they have recurrent serous otitis media in the absence of an antecedent upper respiratory infection?
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Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma
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What are six causes of conductive hearing loss?
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Middle ear effusion (most common)
Otosclerosis Perforated Eardrum Cerumen Impaction Foreign Body in ear canal Otitis externa or otitis media |
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What does purulent otitis media most commonly develop from during an upper respiratory tract infection?
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Eustachian tube dysfunction
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If a patient presents with mild-to-moderate pain with a fever and a conductive hearing loss, what is the diagnosis?
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Purulent Otitis Media
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What are two factors that increase the likelihood of developing serous otitis?
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Allergic Inflammation
Overgrown Adenoidal Tissue |
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If a patient presents with lack of pain and the presence of straw colored fluid behind the TM what is the diagnosis?
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Serous Otitis Media
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If a patient presents with purely horizontal or vertical nystagmus that is present with no torsional component, which does not change with maintenance of position, and is NOT inhibited by visual fixation, what is the diagnosis?
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Central Vertigo - due to a lesion of brainstem, cerebellum, or cranial neuropathies
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What is the triad of Meniere's disease?
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Hearing loss, vertigo, and tennitus
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What are the three common causes of peripheral vertigo (peripheral vestibulopathy)?
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Acute labyrinthitis
Benign positional vertigo Meniere's disease |
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What sinuses drain into the middle meatus?
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Maxillary
Frontal Anterior Ethmoidal |
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What sinus drains into the superior meatus?
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Posterior Ethmoidal
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What are four common causes of a perforated nasal septum?
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Chronic infection due to sphyillis or TB
Cocaine abuse Nasal piercing |
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If a patient presents with clear nasal discharge, nsasal congestion, sneezing, itching nose & eye, and abnormal blue-grey or purple mucous membranes, what is the diagnosis?
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Allergic Rhinitis
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What is the main cause of posterior epistaxis?
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Severe system hypertension
Blood flows through inferior meatus |
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What are the four major manifestations of sinusitis?
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Facial pain & Tenderness
Purulent or bloody nasal discharge Maxillary toothache Messed up transillumination |
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What is the cause of hairy leukoplakia?
Where is it usually found? |
HIV - due to Eptsein Barr Virus infection
Lateral surface of tongue |
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What are the three common causes of Macroglossia?
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Systemic Amyloidosis
Down's Syndrome Hypothyroidism |
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What are the two most notable causes of hairy tongue?
What is it due to? |
Smoking & Oral antibiotics
Overgrowth & discoloration of filiform papillae |
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The loss of filiform papillae causes what clinical presentation?
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Geographic tongue
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If a patient reports no symptoms, a slight change in taste, burning of tongue, and the tongue appears to be pale/smooth/shiny, what is the diagnosis?
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Glossitis
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What are four causes that result in staining of teeth?
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Tetracylcine
Smoking Dead tooth Liquid Iron ingestion |
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If a patient is seen with fetid (bad) breath and ulcerative necrotic sloughing of gingiva, what is the diagnosis?
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Acute ulcerative necrotizing gingivitis
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What are the potential complications of periodontal disease and caries?
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Alveolar bone loss
& Loss of teeth |
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If a patient present with pharyngeal exudate, cervical lymphadenopathy, headache, nausea, and white spots on tonsils, what is the diagnosis?
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Strep throat
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What two muscles in the forearm are innervated by the ulnar nerve?
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Flexor Carpi Ulnaris
Flexor Digitorum Profundus |
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What is the most common oral malignancy?
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Carcinoma of the lip
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Spotty buccal hyperpigmentation in the mouth is characteristic of what syndrome?
What is it associated with in the GI? |
Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome
Intestinal Hamartomatous Polyps = obstruction |
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Thickening (hypertrophy) of the gums is most often caused by what disease?
What are some causes of it? |
Periodontal disease (gingivitis)
Vitamin C deficiency, phenytoin, cyclosporin A, or monomyelocytic leukemia |
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If a patient comes in with a history of recurrent otitis media and you suspect an occult cleft palate, what would you see on examination of the mouth?
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A bifid uvula
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If you see an ulcer that crosses the vermillion border what is the cause of that mouth ulcer?
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Herpes Simplex Virus
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What are the three sensory modalities carried in epicritics?
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Vibration
Proprioception Fine discriminative touch |
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What kind of cutaneous receptor detects high frequency vibrations & pressure?
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Pacinian Corpuscle
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What kind of cutaneous receptor serves as a mechanoreceptor for fine touch?
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Meissner's Corpuscle
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What are the four kind of stimuli that bare nerve endings sense?
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Pain
Temperature Itch Tickle All through fiber III-IV |
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What kind of sensory neuron fibers carry sharp pain and temperature sensation?
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Alpha Delta (III)
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What are the three receptors we have for proprioception?
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Joint Receptor
Golgi tendon organ Muscle Spindle |
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True or False
Neurons that have small receptive fields, provide high innervation density? |
True
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True or False
Large-diameter nerves are epicritics? |
True
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What are the three specific exams used to evaluate cortical sensory loss?
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Stereognosis
Graphesthesia Extinction |
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What is a major dorsal column-medial lemniscus (epicritic) disorder?
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Diabetic Neuropathy
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What are the structure that pass through the carpal tunnel (deep to the flexor retinaculum)?
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Flexor tendons & MEDIAN Nerve!
The ulnar artery & nerve DON'T |
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True or False
Sexual differentiation is UNRELATED to actions of estradiol? |
True
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The differentiation of external genitalia in males depends on what hormone?
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Dihydrotestosterone (DHT)
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True or False
Men or women with prolactin producing tumors are impotent? |
True
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What stage of sexual maturation is characterized by hypersensitivity to estradiol negative feedback?
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Stage II - Immature Quiescence
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What spinal cord level is the head supplied by?
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C2
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Lesion of what part of spinal cord will present in a a cape like distributin?
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Cervical Cord
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Posterior Cord Syndrome is most commonly due to?
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Vitamin B12 Deficiency
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The leydig cell testosterone production is controlled directly by the pulsatile secretion of what hormone from anterior pituitary?
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LH
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What hormone differentiates Wolffian ducts into vas deferens and accessory organs?
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Testosterone
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What hormone differentiates the external male genitalia to develop into a phallus and scrotum?
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Dihydrotestosterone (DHT)!!
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What hormone drives the proliferative/follicular phase of the female cycle?
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Estrogen
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What hormone drives the secretory/luteal phase of the female cycle?
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Progesterone
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Positive feedback of estradiol only occurs during what phase of the female cycle?
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Late Follicular Phase
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What hormone binds only to granulosa cells in the ovarian follicle to promote estradiol production?
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FSH
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What cells in the female reproductive system produce estradiol in very high concentration?
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Granulosa Cells
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The discharge of LH differentiates ________ cells from follicular cells into corpus luteum?
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Granulosa Cells
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What increases the risk up to four fold for developing cervical cancer?
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Smoking
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True or False
Prolonged use of oral contraceptives INCREASE a woman's risk of ovarian cancer |
False, DECREASE
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If a 60 yr old patient presents with postmenopausal bleeding what would you suspect?
What is the main cause of this condition? |
Endometrial (uterine) Cancer
Excess estrogen exposure |
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What is the function of the Bartholin's glands?
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Secrete mucous for lubrication
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Acute Bartholin abscesses are found where?
Are due to what? |
Found on labia minora
Due to gonorrhea or staphylococcus |
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A bluish color of the cervix indicates?
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Increased vascularity = pregnancy
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Nabothian cysts are found where?
Result from what? |
On cervix
Blocked secretions from columnar epithelium - NON PATHLOGICAL |
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What segment of rods and cones contain the light transducing apparatus?
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Outer segment
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Closing of what channels causes photoreceptors to hyperpolarize?
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cGMP-gated Na channels
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True or False
When light enters the eye "light adapted", there is NO inward Na current? |
True
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Which nuerons in the lateral geniculate body (laminae III & IV) are functionally color selective and have low contrast sensitivity w/ high resolution?
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Parvocellular Nuerons
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Lower visual fields terminate in the ________, above the calcarine sulcus, while upper visual fields terminate in the ________, below the calcarine sulcus
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Cuneus
Lingual Gyrus |
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In what layer of the visual cortex do optic radiations terminate?
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Layer IV
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Elevated serum levels of _________ mediates the significant rise in basal body temperature - which is indicator of ovulation
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Progesterone
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What hormone is important fo the differentiation of the male external genitalia?
What enzyme catalyzes its formation? |
Dihydrotestosterone
5 alpha reductase |
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What hormone is important for the initiation of spermatogenesis?
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FSH from Sertoli Cells
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The consensual light response is mediated by fibers crossing where?
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Optic Chiasm & Posterior Commissure
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What artery is involved with macular sparing?
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PCA - Posterior Cerebral Artery
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If a patient present with a "curtain/shade" being pulled over their eyes for 5-10 minutes, what is this called?
What is it caused by? |
Amaurosis Fugax
Transient Ischemic Attack b/c of carotid thrombus |
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If a patient presents with eye pain, central scatoma, optic disc pallor, red eye, and maybe even MS, what is the diagnosis?
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Optic Neuritis
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ONLY ____________ is produced from the fetal adrenal gland!
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16-OH DHEAS -> Estriol
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What hormone is important for the rescue of the corpus luteum, "maternal recognition of pregnancy"?
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HCG
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True or False
Pregesterone primarily from the placenta decreases myometrial contractility? |
True
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Maternal metabolism, specifically alterations in glucose metabolism is induced by what hormone?
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hPL
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The decrease of uterine contractility (like to stop pre-term labor) is mediated by what 4 agents?
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Beta agonists -> cAMP
Nitric Oxide cGMP Prostaglandin I2 (PGI2) |
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Fetal lung maturation is a process that can be enhanced by maternal administration of?
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Glucocorticoids
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What are the 3 hormones which increase PRL (prolactin) secretion?
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Progesterone
Estrogen Testosterone |
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What hormone plays a permissive role in lactation?
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Cortisol
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True or False
The mild "let-down" reflex can be blocked by specific neural lesions & CATECHOLAMINES |
True
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What female hormone can increase edema through the action of aldosterone?
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Estrogen -> Estradiol
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What are the five hormones that promote lactogenesis?
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Prolactin
hPL Cortisol Insulin Thyroid Hormones |
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The KOH prep used during the female specimen collection, is used to detect?
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Fungus - Candida Vulvovaginitis
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Cervical motion tenderness can indicate what?
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PID (Pelvic Inflammatory Disease)
Ruptured Tubal Pregnancy |
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To feel an anteverted uterus you place your fingers within which fornix?
What specific part of uterus do you feel? |
Anterior Fornix
Fundus |
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True or False
Fallopian tubes should normally be palpable? |
False
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What technique might be the only way to palpate a retroflexed uterus?
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Rectovaginal Exam
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True or False
A -2 station is closer to delivery than a +2 station? |
False, a +2 station is closer
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What two organs are prime examples of involution?
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Uterus & Breast
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What is the term, for early symptoms of a disease that appear usually before diagnostic features are manifest?
AKA - indicate onset of disease.... |
Prodrome
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What is the difference b/w hamartoma & ectopia?
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Hamartoma - tumor like overgrowth of tissue that is native to that site
Ectopia - normal tissue in an ABNORMAL location |
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What is a major physiologic cause of atrophy?
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Aging
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What are six causes of pathologic atrophy?
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Loss of hormonal stimulation
Inadequate nutrition Increased demand for protein degradation Decreased workload Loss of innervation Loss of blood supply |
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True or False
Hypertrophy is the increase in NUMBER of cells or organs? |
False, increase in size
hyperplasia is an increase in number |
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True or False
In the esophagus of patients w/ chronic gastric reflux (squamous cells -> goblet cells), you would name this INTESTINAL METAPLASIA? |
True
This is called Barrett's esophagus |
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What are the 4 mechanisms of hypoxia?
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Decreased blood supply
Poisoned oxidative enzymes Diminished blood carrying capacity Impaired air exchange |
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What group of cells have the highest susceptibility to hypoxia?
What group of cells have the lowest susceptibility to hypoxia? |
Nuerons
Fibrocytes, osteocytes, skeletal muscle |
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What are the two reversible events in hypoxic injury?
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Decreased ATP pump = edema
Decreased protein synthesis = fat buildup |
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What is the hallmark of progression to cell death due to hypoxia?
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Mitochondrial Swelling b/c of caspaces leaking out = apoptosis
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What is the difference between karyloysis & Karyorrhexis?
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Karylosis - nucleus dissolves evenly
Karyorrhexis - nucleus fragments |
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In what two sites does liquefactive necrosis occur?
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Brain
Abscesses |
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What disease is indicative of caseous necrosis ?
What are the two most common sites it occurs? |
TB
Lung & lymph nodes |
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In what two sites does fat necrosis usually occur?
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Pancreas & Breast
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Gas gangrene is caused by an infection of what organism?
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Clostridia sp.
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What is the first ultrastructural sign of irreversible injury?
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Swilling of mitochondria (high amplitude swelling) w/ amorphous densities & calcium deposits
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True or False
Re-perfusion injury occurs following ischemia of LONG DURATION |
False, intermediate duration
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Lipid laden macrophages at the periphery of a lesion is indicative of what?
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Liquefactive Necrosis - in brain or abscesses
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What are the two exceptions in the presentation of infarcts?
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Usually it is coagulative necrosis, but NOT in brain or septic infarct = liquefactive necrosis
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What are the risk factors for testicular cancer?
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Between 20-35 yrs old
Caucasian Race Cryptorchidism (undescended testis) Mumps Orchitis Inguinal hernia in childhood |
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If a patient presents with a lump in the scrotum, scrotal hardness, scrotal heaviness, scrotal pain, and DOESN'T transluminate, what is the diagnosis?
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Testicular Cancer
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If a patient presents with burning or pain on urination, decreased urinary stream, increased urinary frequency, hematuria, and back or pelvic pain, what is the diagnosis?
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Prostate Cancer
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What is the term for the inability to replace the foreskin over the glands?
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Paraphimosis
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What are the contents of the scrotum?
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Spermatic cord = testicular artery, pampiniform plexus, vas deferens
Testis |
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True or False
A hernia that descends through the internal and external inguinal canal and lies in front of spermatic cord, is an INDIRECT HERNIA? |
True
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True or False
A varicocele WILL transilluminate? |
False, it will NOT
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A varicocele that occurs exclusively on the right is indicative of what?
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Inferior Vena Cava Obstruction
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If a patient presents with a red hot tender scrotum that does NOT transilluminate, and has systemic fever and chill, what is the diagnosis?
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Orchitis
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If a patient presents with a red hot tender swelling posterior and superior to the testicle, with systemic fevers and chills, what is the diagnosis?
Will the scrotal sac transilluminate? |
Epididymitis
NO transillumination |
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True or False
Testicular cancer is painless and does NOT transilluminate? |
True
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What are the two necessary features for BPH to occur?
|
Aging
Presence of Dihydrotestosterone |
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True or False
Many patients with early prostatic cancer are asymptomatic |
True
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What is the most common ligament affected in a sprained ankle?
|
Anterior Talofibular Ligament
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Pain in the shoulder that is aggravated by supination against resistance is indicative of what?
|
Bicipital Tendinitis
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What are the muscles of the rotator cuff?
Which one is most commonly injured? |
S- Supraspinatus (commonly injured)
I- Infraspinatus T - teres minor S - Subscapularis |
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If a patient presents with shoulder pain w/ full range of motion and no associated pain, what is the diagnosis?
|
Cervical disc disease
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If you see subcutaneous nodules on the extensor surface of the arm, what is the diagnosis?
|
Rheumatoid Arthritis
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True or False
Rheumatoid Arthritis affects the joints in a symmetric fashion? |
True
|
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If a patient presents with tenderness and warmth in the antero-lateral shoulder with pain that is aggravated by abduction of the shoulder and when trying to reach back pocket, what is the diagnosis?
|
Subacromial & Subdeltoid bursitis
Impingement Syndrome |
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If a patient presents with pain in one or both shoulder w/ exertion or with emotional upset, what is the diagnosis?
|
Angina due to ischemic heart disease
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True or False
The PIP joints are typically spared in rheumatoid arthritis? |
False, DIP
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What is the most common manifestation of idiopathic osteoarthritis?
|
Heberden's nodes - bony overgrowth of DIP
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Pain in the posterior hip and buttocks that is described as sharp or "lightening like" is most indicative of what dz?
|
Herniated lumbar disc
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What are the nonarticular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis?
|
Splenomegaly -enlarged spleen
Neutropenia (low rbc count) Anemia |
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A person with a dupytren’s contracture is indicative of what underlying cause?
|
Alcoholic Liver Disease
|
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What are the defining cells of granulomatous inflammation?
|
Epitheliod cells
Histiocytic giant cells (active macrophages) |
|
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What is the defining cell of acute inflammation?
|
Neutrophils in protein rich exudates
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If on a slide you see a combination of neutorphils & lymphocytes what is the type of inflammation?
|
Active chronic inflammation
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What are the 4 results of increased vascular permeability in acute inflammation?
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Exudation
Edema Slowing of circulation (stagnation) WBC margination |
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What are the first cells to respond to chemotactic stimuli in inflammation?
|
Neutrophils
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Neutrophils are the inflammatory cells in pus, which use ____________ as a major bacterial killing mechanism?
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Myeloperoxidase
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What cells are important for antigen processing and presentation in chronic inflammation, they do this by producing IL-1 & TNF?
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Macrophage/monocyte
|
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What cells are important in allergic reaction and parasitic infection in chronic inflammation?
|
Eosinophils
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What are the major inflammatory products of complement?
|
C3a - release histamine
C3b- opsonization C5a - release histamine |
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What two cells release histamine from pre-formed granules?
|
Basophils
Mast cells |
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What plasma antiprotease is the most important in holding in check the proteases that "leak" out from lysosomes?
|
Alpha-1-antitrypsin
|
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NSAIDS inhibit which eicosanoid path?
Which inhibit production of what? |
Cyclooxygenase
Prostaglandins & Thromboxanes |
|
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What are the 3 major inflammatory cytokines which cause fever & increased leukocyte adherence?
|
IL-1
TNF alpha IL-8 |
|
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What are the 3 leukocyte activators?
|
TNF alpha
C5a Platelet Activating Factor (PAF) |
|
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What is the thermoregulatory center of the brain?
|
Hypothalamus
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What are the two factors that mediate pain by stimulating local nerve endings during inflammation?
|
Bradykinin
Prostaglandins |
|
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Damage to which organ would eliminate the compliment fragments that mediate vascular permeability?
|
Liver
|
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What is the cytokine that induces the activation of macrophages in granulomatous inflammation?
|
IFN - Gamma
|
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What are the five pillors of inflammation?
|
Calor
Dolor Rubor - redness Tumor - swelling Loss of fxn |
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In what cell type do you primarily find the H2O2 – Myeloperoxidase-Halide System?
|
Neutrophils (some also in macrophages)
|
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What are the two functions of thrombin?
|
Enhance WBC adhesion
Fibroblast proliferation |
|
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Histamine is mostly released from what cells?
|
Mast cells (also a little from basophils)
|
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What chemokine promotes chemotaxis?
|
IL-8
|
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True or False
Scarring/replacement of epithelium with fibrous connective tissue DOESN'T OCCUR even in tissues capable of regeneration? |
False, it DOES OCCUR
|
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Early in wound healing what provides the "scafolding" for cell migration into the wound?
|
Fibronectin
|
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Which type of collagen is produced first in wound healing?
|
Type III
|
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How many months after injury does peak collagen deposition occur/ when does the scar have its fullest strength?
|
2-3 months
|
|
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True or False
Wound contraction is most important in PRIMARY intention healing? |
False, Secondary intention
|
|
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What is the major factor that regulates all other cytokines and growth factors involved in repair?
|
TGF-Beta
It indues formation of granulation tissue & promotes fibroblast proliferation |
|
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What factor causes migration and proliferation of fibroblasts in wound healing?
|
Platelet Derived Growth Factor (PDGF)
|
|
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What factor induces angiogenesis?
|
VEGF
|
|
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True or False
Neutropenia slows healing? |
False, Leukopenia
|
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True or False
Corticosteroids reduce inflammation? |
True
|
|
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After how many days during wound healing can you remove temporary sutures?
|
10 Days
|
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True or False
During a fever initially the bodies set point goes DOWN |
False, it goes up
|
|
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True or False
During a "hot flash", initially the bodies set point goes UP |
False, it goes down
|
|
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What are the four structure components of amyloidosis?
|
P - Protein
A - Amyloid P Component G - Glycosaminoglycan E - Apo E |
|
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Rheumatoid arthritis and TB are examples of what kind of amyloidosis?
|
Secondary Amyloidosis (AA type)
|
|
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What is the most common cause of death in amyloidosis?
|
Renal Failure
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What is the secondary structure of fibrillary proteins in amyloid?
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Beta-pleated sheets
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What is the most important stain to identify amyloidosis?
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Congo Red w/ apple green birefringence
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What is the most common location of amyloidosis?
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In subendothelial locations in or around blood vessels
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What are the two localized diseases associated with amyloidosis?
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Alzheimer's & senile cardiac amyloidosis
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Mutliple myeloma causes what type of amyloidosis?
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Secondary Type - AL
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Macroglossia is found in ONLY what type of amyloidosis?
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Type AL
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An twisting injury will result in a tear of what knee ligament?
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Anterior Cruciate Ligament
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A dashboard injury, or if a person falls on a bend knee, what ligament of the knee would be torn?
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Posterior Cruciate Ligament
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A positive anterior drawer sign, occurs when the tibia slides forward by _____ cm?
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2 cm
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Pain and tenderness along the medial joint line midway between the front and back of the knee is common with a torn what?
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Medial Meniscus
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If a patient presents with anterior knee pain that gets worse during stair climbing or arising from a sitting position, what is the diagnosis?
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Chondromalacia
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If a paitent complains of tightness and burning pain over the lateral knee after running or cycling, along with tenderness over the lateral epicondyle, what is the diagnosis?
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Iliotibial band syndrome - due to an inflammed bursa
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Pain tha tis referred to the calf or hip, is indicative of a problem in what joint?
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Knee joint
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What joint allows for the flexion and extension of the ankle?
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Tibiotalar Joint
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A strong forceful eversion of the what ligament, may result in an avulsion?
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Deltoid ligament
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True or False
Heal spurs contribute to the pain in plantar fasciitis? |
False, they form as a result of the problem
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Pain that is worse upon arising and walking down stairs is indicative of what?
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Achilles tendonitis
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In sciatica, elevation of the leg b/w how many degrees will elicit a positive straight leg test, which presents as pain in buttock or low back?
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40-60 degrees
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What are two diseases that show complete penetrance?
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Achondroplasia (dwarfism) and Neurofibromatosis type 1
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True or False
NO cytotrophoblasts in mature teritary villi |
True
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What are the two layers that separate the fetal and maternal circulations?
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Thinned Synctiotrophoblasts
Endothelium |
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What part of the brain detects TIME differences in low frequencies arriving to the two ears?
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Superior Olivary Nucleus
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If you have hearing loss from only one ear where does the lesion have to be?
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Inner ear or tympanic membrane
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True or False
Lesions of the central auditory pathway DO result in monaural disability? |
False, DO NOT cause monaural disability
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What part of the brain is responsible for the reflex area auditory information?
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Inferior Colliculus
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Lesion of auditory cortex, effect the _________ of sound
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Localization
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In order to have a tumor, what kind of "plasia" has to occur first?
Metaplasia or Dysplasia? |
Metaplasia
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If you have a tumor in the colon - where would it metastasize to first, if it metastasized by blood?
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Liver, ALL metastasis by blood goes to the liver!
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What anti-angiogenic factor do tumors normally suppress, in order to get the blood supply they need?
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Thrombospondin
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Most "oma's" are benign, but are the four malignant oma's?
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Lymphoma
Mesothelioma Melanoma Seminoma |
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If you see Reed-Sternberg cells (big cell w/ bi-nuclei, “owl eye cell”), what is the diagnosis?
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Hodgkins Lymphoma
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In terms of metastasis, unbound or free catenins induce what?
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Induce cellular proliferation
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What transmembrane molecules initiate penetration of basement membrane by secretion of proteolytic enzymes?
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Integrins
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What type of collagen is found in ECM?
What cells help metastasis by invading the ECM? |
Type I Collagen
Fibroblasts |
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According to the Walburg Effect, tumor cells have increased glucose need b/c of what?
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Use direct aerobic glycolysis which is very inefficient
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Fractures in what area of the bone, tend to affect growth of bone most later in life?
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Epiphyseal bone
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Damage to what nerve would result in "foot drop"?
What dislocation can cause this? |
Sciatic Nerve -> Deep Fibular Nerve
Posterior Hip dislocation |
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If a patient presents with pain present on passive stretching of muscles, loss of sensory function distally, and decreased capillary filling, what is the cause?
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Compartment Syndrome
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If a patient presents with fever, tachycardia, tachypnea, mental confusion, and axillary petechiae, what is the diagnosis?
What probably caused these symptoms? |
ARDS (Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome)
Long bone fracture <72 hours ago |
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True or False
You get EXTERNAL rotation of the leg from a complete femoral neck fracture? |
True
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If a 4 year old presents with pain in groin area and limps upon walking what is the diagnosis?
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Legg-Calve-Perthes Syndrome
-due to avascular necrosis of femoral head |
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What are the 3 cancers that are more common in females, instead of males?
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Thyroid
Salivary Gland Gallbladder |
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True or False
Phenolic compounds, estrogen, progesterone, androgens (testosterone), antigens of H.pylori are all examples of INITIATION carcinogens |
False, promotion oncogenes
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What two suppressor genes do DNA viruses inhibit?
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Rb & p53
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What are the top 5 causes of death in the US?
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Heart Disease
Cancer Cerebrovascular Dz Chronic Lower Respiratory Dz Accidents (unintentional) |
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What is the only RNA virus known to cause cancer?
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HTLV-1
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UV-B light induces the formation of _____ in DNA?
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Pyrimidine Dimers
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What are the essential parts of a fetal exam?
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Heart
Eyes Pulses Hips Genitourinary |
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At what Tanner stages does peak height velocity occur in girls?
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Tanner Stages II - III
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At what Tanner stages does peak height velocity occur in boys?
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After Tanner Stage IV
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At what Tanner stage does menarche occur in girls?
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Tanner Stage IV
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If a child's growth chart shows weight decrease, followed by height decrease, and ultimately head circumference decrease, what is the diagnosis?
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Failure to thrive
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Craniosynostosis (when sutures close early) is due to a problem with what?
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FGF receptors
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The bones of the face (viscerocranium) develop from what?
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Neural Crest Cells
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Straight up limb outgrowth is regulated by what factor?
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Fgf 8
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Dorsal/Ventral limb development is determined by what factor?
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Wnt7a
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Potter's sequence is an example of what category of congenital anomalies?
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Deformation
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Amniotic banding can cause what category of congenital anomalies?
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Disruption
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What is the embryological contribution to the epidermis?
to the dermis? |
Ectoderm
Somatic LP mesoderm & somites (paraxial mesoderm) |
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What is the composition of vernix caseosa?
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Desquamated skin & sebum
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What structures are derived from skin (ectoderm)?
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Hair, glands, mammary tissue, nails, teeth
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Disruption of dorsoventral patterning is due to a mess up in what transcription factor?
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Lmx1B
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Abnormalities to form/body structure usually occur if the teratogen is present during what period of fetal development?
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Organogenesis (3-8 wks)
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Teratogens present b/w the first three weeks of fetal life result in?
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Death
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Teratogens present beyond 8 weeks of gestation or during the fetal period, result in?
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Growth & Mental Dysfunction
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What kind of diagnostic method would be best used to identify targeted translocations & identify gene localization?
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FISH
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What kind of diagnostic method would be best used to sequence a region of potential mutation and identify a specific translocation?
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PCR
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A sudden myocardial infarction leading to sudden heart failure and a string around a finger is an example of what congestion?
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Active Passive Congestion
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Nutmeg liver and CHF is an example of what kind of congestion?
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Chronic Passive Congestion
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True or False
Sodium is the major determinant of osmolality of INTRACELLULAR fluid? |
False, Extracellular fluid
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Inflammation and lymphatic obstruction produce localized or generalized edema?
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Localized edema
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True or False
Excess coricosteroids or hypo-vitaminosis can cause HEMORRHAGE? |
True
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What is the most common cause of anemia?
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Iron deficiency
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Decreased levels of what protein, will lead to accumulation of Triglycerides = hepatic steatosis?
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Apoprotein
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Fatty infiltration of the RV of the heart, is usually do to?
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Obesity
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An exogenous black pigment found on surface of lungs is the accumulation of what?
What is this called? Does it interfere w/ cell function? |
Carbon
Anthracosis No |
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To what part of the cerebellum do the vestibular fibers go to?
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Floccular-nodular Lobe - through mossy fibers
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True or False
The vestibularcerebellar nerve projects to fastigial nuclei mainly CONTRALATERLY |
False, Ipsilateral
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True or False
Thrombi form AFTER blood stops flowing? |
False, blood clots form after
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True or False
There are NO lines of Zahn in blood clots? |
True
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What are 3 events that result from disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?
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Consumption of clotting factors & platelets
Fragmented red cells (schistocytes) Increased fibrin split products (FSP's) |
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Multiple fractures of long bones cause what kind of emboli?
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Fat emboli
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Petechiae found ONLY in white matter is due to what kind of emboli?
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Fat emboli
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At how many months of age, should the infant steadily hold the head forward in a sitting position?
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4 Months
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What do you call a diffuse boggy swelling of the scalp brought on by pressure that usually disappears by the first day or two of life? DOES cross suture line
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Caput Succadaneum
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Macular development is NOT complete until how many years of age?
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6 or 7
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What is the first sign of glaucoma in babies?
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Photophobia
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What is the most frequent cause of visual loss in children?
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Amblyopia
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Decreased mobility of the tympanic membrane is the most sensitive indicator of?
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Effusion
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If a child is less than 10 yrs old and has nasal polyps what would you suspect?
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Cystic Fibrosis
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Children with cleft palates are at increased risk for?
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Recurrent otitis media
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True or False
The splitting of S2 may be heard normally at the cardiac apex in many infants and small children? |
True
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What are the 4 manifestations of the Tetralogy of Fallot?
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Ventricular Septal Defect
Right Ventricular Outflow Obstruction (pulmonary stenosis) RV Hypertrophy Overriding Aorta |
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In children the liver edge is normally palpable how many cm below the right costal margin at the MCL?
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2 cm
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Ambiguous genitalia is most often due to?
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Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia
(21 hydroxylase deficiency) |
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By how many months should an infant be transferring objects from hand to hand and be able to sit alone?
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7 Months
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What are the cranial nerves that innervate the taste buds?
To what common nucleus in the medulla do these fibers project? |
CN VII, IX, X
Nucleus Solitarius |
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What is the only sensation that DOES NOT synapse at the thalamus before it projects to the neocortex?
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Olfaction - smell
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All olfactory receptors use what kind of second messenger to elicit a response?
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G proteins
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If a pt has pain in shoulder with limited range of motion, especially at some point the shoulder simply stops and won't go any further, what is the diagnosis?
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Frozen shoulder (adhesive capsulitis)
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If a pt complains of pain in the anterior shoulder that is aggravated w/ activity and relieved with rest, plus is accompanied by grating sensations, what is the diagnosis?
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Arthritis of glenohumeral joint
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If a patient has pain along medial side of arm and diminished brachioradialis reflex, what is the problem?
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C6 irritation
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Morning stiffness of at least 1 hour of duration is characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis or osteoarthritis?
AKA prolonged morning stiffness =? |
Rheumatoid Arthritis
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Joint deformaties like ulnar deviation of digits, swan neck deformity, and boutonniere deformity is a hallmakr of what dz?
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Rheumatoid Arthritis
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What kind of arthritis primarily affects the DIP joints?
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Osteoarthritis
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If the patient has pain that occurs laterally over the hip just posterior to the greater trochanteric bursa (radiates down lateral leg), and is worse upon arising but gets better with limited walking, what is the diagnosis?
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Greater Trochanteric Bursitis
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A patient who is being treated for a pulmonary embolism presents with anterior thigh/hip pain, what is the diagnosis?
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Retroperitoneal bleeding
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If a baby presents with cyanosis and distress within the first two days of life, and crying doesn't make it better, what is the diagnosis?
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Pulmonary Atresia
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