Study your flashcards anywhere!

Download the official Cram app for free >

  • Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

How to study your flashcards.

Right/Left arrow keys: Navigate between flashcards.right arrow keyleft arrow key

Up/Down arrow keys: Flip the card between the front and back.down keyup key

H key: Show hint (3rd side).h key

A key: Read text to speech.a key

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/99

Click to flip

99 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
A specialist who can guide a provider in prescribing drugs is best defined as a
clincal pharmacist
Each medication can be referred to by several names. Which of these drug names is used primarily by chemists?
chemical name
Which statement is true regarding the role of a medical service technician in medication administration?
Technicians are permitted to administer medications under the supervision of a nurse or physician.
The two essential patient history facts that must be obtained and documented before a medication is administered are
allergies and current medications.
Patients have legal and ethical rights. Which statement is not considered one of those "rights" when medications are administered?
Choose the method of administration
Which is not included in the "Five Rights" of medication administration?
Right documentation.
What type of medication order states that a medication is to be administered immediately and only once?
Stat
A provider can initiate a drug order in
two ways
What do many medical treatment facilities use to avoid errors when a drug order is copied?
Computer-generated product.
Drug administration is controlled primarily by
federal law.
What classification of drugs are not acceptable for medical use?
Schedule I
Narcotics, such as codeine, cocaine, and amphetamines, that have a high potential for abuse but have acceptable medical uses are classified as
Schedule II drugs
What law requires a periodic inventory of all controlled substances?
Controlled Substances Act
Penicillin administered to treat an infection is an example of what category of drugs?
Curative.
When a patient has an unusually low response to a drug, the condition is called
drug tolerance.
A patient's weight is a factor in drug action due to
body fat absorption.
Why are oral medications that are taken before meals generally faster acting?
Lower digestive sytem content.
Which statement is true regarding how ambient temperature can affect drug action?
Warmer temperatures increase circulation.
Which of these is a common reference source for drugs?
PDR
What publication contains a list of locally available medications, recommended dispensing instructions, and administrative guidelines?
Local facility formulary
An oily liquid used on the skin describes a type of medication preparation called a
liniment
A finely ground drug that can be used internally or externally describes a type of medication preparation called a
powder.
What type of medication is used to prevent or correct irregular heart action?
antiarrhythmics.
What type of medication has a cleansing action that produces watery evacuation of intestinal content?
cathartics.
What is the first step to perform when a medication is being prepared for administration to a patient?
Verify the order.
Which element is not required on a medication order?
Patient's age.
Why is the route of administration a required part of a medication order?
Some medications are available in more than one form.
Which one of these statements is true regarding subcutaneous injections?
Only small amounts of a drug may be administered.
The method of parental medication administration that involves injecting a drug into a muscle is
IM.
The parts of a syringe are the
barrel, plunger, and tip.
The parts of a needle are the
hub, shaft, and bevel.
Subcutaneous injections are commonly administered in the
upper arms.
What administration method delivers medication directly into a patient's digestive system?
Oral
To prevent contamination and accidental spills, liquid medications being administered to inpatients are usually poured
at the patient's bedside.
You are administering a tablet or lozenge buccally to a patient. To do this properly, you would place the medication
between the upper molars and the cheek of the patient.
The proper procedure for administering inhalations into the respiratory tract of a patient is to
assess patients vital signs before, during, and after therapy.
When administering eye medications, you should ensure the patient's treated eye is lower than the other. This will aid in
preventing the solution from running into the patient's unaffected eye.
Into what body cavity are otic medications administered?
External auditory canal.
To administer ear drops in a patient under 3 years of age, you would gently pull the earlobe
downward to straighten the canal.
Vaginal suppositories are
administered to combat infection.
You are administering a vaginal douche to a female patient. To do this properly, you would hang the bag.
12 to 18 inches above the patient's vagina.
Which event is characterized by dry mucous membranes, weak and rapid pulse, orthostatic hypotension, and a low central venous pressure.
Hypovolemia
Fatigue, weakness, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and dysrhythmias are signs and symptoms associated with which electrolyte imbalnces?
Hypokalemia.
What electrolyte deficit or excess can cause dysrhythmias, leading to cardiac or respiratory arrest?
Hyperkalemia.
Which imbalance may be caused by starvation and diabetic acidosis?
Metabolic acidosis.
The most direct approach for administering medication is
infusion.
The basic purpose of infusion therapy is to
administer fluids into the circulatory system
Intravenous (IV) solution bags normally range in size from
100 to 2,000 cc.
What is used to prevent the mixing of primary and secondary infusions in a piggyback setup?
Back-check valve.
A scalp vein needle (commonly used in pediatric patients) is an example of a
wing-tipped needle.
To avoid infections, you should change a patient's hyperalimentation solution bag and tubing daily. In addition, you should not allow the container to hang longer than
8 hrs.
To reduce the possibility of infection and vessel damage on a patient scheduled for long term therapy, you must change the intravenous (IV) site every
48 to 72 hours.
If a patient exhibits a mild allergic response to an intravenous (IV) solution, you would
slow the flow rate.
Phlebitis is
an inflammation of a vein.
The slowest possible flow rate per hour you may set for an intravenous (IV) solution is
10 to 50 cc.
You have removed an IV catheter. You should maintain pressure over the injection site for about
20 to 30 seconds.
With regard to blood transfusion, one of your responsibilities is to document a patient's transfusion on
a Standard Form 518.
What type of reaction is caused by a transfusion of contaminated blood or blood product?
Septic.
What diet is usually ordered for patients who have difficulty chewing or swallowing, or need to alter the amount of residue in the digestive tract?
Liquid.
The diet that is inadequate in all nutrients and should not be given for more than 3 days is the
clear liquid.
Which precaution should be taken just prior to performing a procedure that uses the patient's NG tube?
Check for tube placement.
Which procedure is performed to cleanse the stomach of harmful substances?
Lavage.
To prevent rapid decompression of the urinary bladder, the maximum amount of urine to remove during catherization is between
750 to 1000 cc.
During catheterization of a male patient, at what angle is the penis held, and how many inches is the catheter inserted?
90 degrees, 6 to 10 inches.
When administering an enema, the patient is preferably positioned
on their left side.
The patient should retain the solution of a cleansing enema for a time period of
5 minutes.
The patient's colostomy bag should be changed when it is
one-third full.
The purpose of a colostomy irrigation is to
establish fecal control.
The normal arterial oxygen saturation range is
95 to 98%.
What condition occurs if CO2 builds up and mixes with water in the blood stream?
Respiratory acidosis.
Which lung sound (heard upon inspiration or expiration) is a whistling sound caused by narrow airways?
Wheezing.
For patients using a nonrebreathing mask, the inspired oxygen concentration is
60 to 90 percent.
Which mask is suggested for patients with chronic obstructive pulmanory disease (COPD)?
Venturi
For patients under 12 years of age, you would avoid using a
flow restricted oxygen powered ventilation device.
To prevent hypoxia, suctioning should be limited to
15 seconds.
Closed-chest drainage is a drainage system used to
reexpand a collapsed lung.
A patient describes a jumping, pounding, or stopping of the heart within of his or her chest. This condition is called heart
palpitation.
What cardiac related condition may be caused by a fall in cardiac output resulting in cerebral ischemia?
Syncope.
To initiate defibrillation procedures due to ventricular fibrillation, you would first set the defibrillator at
200 to 300 joules.
Prior to insertion of a central venous pressure line to decrease the change of an air embolism, the patient is taught the
Valsalva maneuver.
The best time to schedule patient activities is
when the patient is energetic.
You are planning activities for a patient with psychological problems. In this situation, your primary goal would be to
develop a good rapport.
What should you do to help patients who become angry and hostile?
Allow them to channel their hostility through verbal expression.
What grade of a decubitus ulcer has penetrated down to the muscle causing distortion and loss of body fluids?
Grade III.
To aid in preventing decubitus ulcers, patient positioning should be changed every
2 hours.
Why should your feet be parallel when you are standing?
Maintain balance and prevent back, hip, and leg strain.
Your stability increases as your center of gravity moves closer to your
base of support.
To use the internal girdle of support, you must
simultaneously contract abdominal and buttocks muscles.
Which factors determine the technique you will use to move the patient up in bed?
Size and capabilities of the patient.
Which technique for moving the patient up in bed is contraindicated for a patient who has back or chest injuries?
Shoulder-lift
When turning a patient, what is the most important precaution to take whether you are pushing or pulling the patient?
Raise the far side rail.
When transferring patients, you can reduce the chance of injury to yourself by
using good teamwork and proper body mechanics.
The person in charge of a bed to a stretcher transfer should be positioned
at the head of the bed on the stretcher side.
A patient's feet must be placed on the floor or a footstool during "dangling" to prevent
pressure on the back of the legs.
Which devices can be used to slide a patient from a bed to a stretcher?
Drawsheet and roller board.
The crutch most commonly used for fractures and other short-term disabilities is the
axillary
Which gait is used by patients who can bear full body weight on one foot and partial or no weight on the other?
Three-point.
Which type of exercise would you provide for a patient who is unable or not allowed to exercise?
Passive.
Isometric exercises are activities that involve muscle
contraction without body movement.