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99 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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A specialist who can guide a provider in prescribing drugs is best defined as a
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clincal pharmacist
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Each medication can be referred to by several names. Which of these drug names is used primarily by chemists?
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chemical name
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Which statement is true regarding the role of a medical service technician in medication administration?
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Technicians are permitted to administer medications under the supervision of a nurse or physician.
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The two essential patient history facts that must be obtained and documented before a medication is administered are
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allergies and current medications.
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Patients have legal and ethical rights. Which statement is not considered one of those "rights" when medications are administered?
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Choose the method of administration
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Which is not included in the "Five Rights" of medication administration?
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Right documentation.
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What type of medication order states that a medication is to be administered immediately and only once?
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Stat
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A provider can initiate a drug order in
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two ways
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What do many medical treatment facilities use to avoid errors when a drug order is copied?
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Computer-generated product.
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Drug administration is controlled primarily by
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federal law.
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What classification of drugs are not acceptable for medical use?
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Schedule I
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Narcotics, such as codeine, cocaine, and amphetamines, that have a high potential for abuse but have acceptable medical uses are classified as
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Schedule II drugs
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What law requires a periodic inventory of all controlled substances?
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Controlled Substances Act
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Penicillin administered to treat an infection is an example of what category of drugs?
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Curative.
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When a patient has an unusually low response to a drug, the condition is called
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drug tolerance.
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A patient's weight is a factor in drug action due to
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body fat absorption.
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Why are oral medications that are taken before meals generally faster acting?
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Lower digestive sytem content.
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Which statement is true regarding how ambient temperature can affect drug action?
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Warmer temperatures increase circulation.
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Which of these is a common reference source for drugs?
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PDR
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What publication contains a list of locally available medications, recommended dispensing instructions, and administrative guidelines?
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Local facility formulary
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An oily liquid used on the skin describes a type of medication preparation called a
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liniment
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A finely ground drug that can be used internally or externally describes a type of medication preparation called a
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powder.
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What type of medication is used to prevent or correct irregular heart action?
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antiarrhythmics.
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What type of medication has a cleansing action that produces watery evacuation of intestinal content?
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cathartics.
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What is the first step to perform when a medication is being prepared for administration to a patient?
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Verify the order.
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Which element is not required on a medication order?
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Patient's age.
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Why is the route of administration a required part of a medication order?
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Some medications are available in more than one form.
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Which one of these statements is true regarding subcutaneous injections?
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Only small amounts of a drug may be administered.
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The method of parental medication administration that involves injecting a drug into a muscle is
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IM.
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The parts of a syringe are the
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barrel, plunger, and tip.
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The parts of a needle are the
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hub, shaft, and bevel.
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Subcutaneous injections are commonly administered in the
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upper arms.
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What administration method delivers medication directly into a patient's digestive system?
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Oral
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To prevent contamination and accidental spills, liquid medications being administered to inpatients are usually poured
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at the patient's bedside.
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You are administering a tablet or lozenge buccally to a patient. To do this properly, you would place the medication
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between the upper molars and the cheek of the patient.
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The proper procedure for administering inhalations into the respiratory tract of a patient is to
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assess patients vital signs before, during, and after therapy.
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When administering eye medications, you should ensure the patient's treated eye is lower than the other. This will aid in
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preventing the solution from running into the patient's unaffected eye.
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Into what body cavity are otic medications administered?
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External auditory canal.
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To administer ear drops in a patient under 3 years of age, you would gently pull the earlobe
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downward to straighten the canal.
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Vaginal suppositories are
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administered to combat infection.
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You are administering a vaginal douche to a female patient. To do this properly, you would hang the bag.
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12 to 18 inches above the patient's vagina.
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Which event is characterized by dry mucous membranes, weak and rapid pulse, orthostatic hypotension, and a low central venous pressure.
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Hypovolemia
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Fatigue, weakness, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and dysrhythmias are signs and symptoms associated with which electrolyte imbalnces?
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Hypokalemia.
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What electrolyte deficit or excess can cause dysrhythmias, leading to cardiac or respiratory arrest?
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Hyperkalemia.
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Which imbalance may be caused by starvation and diabetic acidosis?
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Metabolic acidosis.
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The most direct approach for administering medication is
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infusion.
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The basic purpose of infusion therapy is to
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administer fluids into the circulatory system
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Intravenous (IV) solution bags normally range in size from
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100 to 2,000 cc.
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What is used to prevent the mixing of primary and secondary infusions in a piggyback setup?
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Back-check valve.
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A scalp vein needle (commonly used in pediatric patients) is an example of a
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wing-tipped needle.
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To avoid infections, you should change a patient's hyperalimentation solution bag and tubing daily. In addition, you should not allow the container to hang longer than
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8 hrs.
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To reduce the possibility of infection and vessel damage on a patient scheduled for long term therapy, you must change the intravenous (IV) site every
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48 to 72 hours.
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If a patient exhibits a mild allergic response to an intravenous (IV) solution, you would
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slow the flow rate.
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Phlebitis is
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an inflammation of a vein.
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The slowest possible flow rate per hour you may set for an intravenous (IV) solution is
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10 to 50 cc.
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You have removed an IV catheter. You should maintain pressure over the injection site for about
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20 to 30 seconds.
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With regard to blood transfusion, one of your responsibilities is to document a patient's transfusion on
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a Standard Form 518.
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What type of reaction is caused by a transfusion of contaminated blood or blood product?
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Septic.
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What diet is usually ordered for patients who have difficulty chewing or swallowing, or need to alter the amount of residue in the digestive tract?
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Liquid.
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The diet that is inadequate in all nutrients and should not be given for more than 3 days is the
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clear liquid.
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Which precaution should be taken just prior to performing a procedure that uses the patient's NG tube?
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Check for tube placement.
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Which procedure is performed to cleanse the stomach of harmful substances?
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Lavage.
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To prevent rapid decompression of the urinary bladder, the maximum amount of urine to remove during catherization is between
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750 to 1000 cc.
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During catheterization of a male patient, at what angle is the penis held, and how many inches is the catheter inserted?
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90 degrees, 6 to 10 inches.
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When administering an enema, the patient is preferably positioned
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on their left side.
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The patient should retain the solution of a cleansing enema for a time period of
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5 minutes.
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The patient's colostomy bag should be changed when it is
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one-third full.
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The purpose of a colostomy irrigation is to
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establish fecal control.
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The normal arterial oxygen saturation range is
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95 to 98%.
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What condition occurs if CO2 builds up and mixes with water in the blood stream?
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Respiratory acidosis.
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Which lung sound (heard upon inspiration or expiration) is a whistling sound caused by narrow airways?
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Wheezing.
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For patients using a nonrebreathing mask, the inspired oxygen concentration is
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60 to 90 percent.
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Which mask is suggested for patients with chronic obstructive pulmanory disease (COPD)?
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Venturi
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For patients under 12 years of age, you would avoid using a
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flow restricted oxygen powered ventilation device.
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To prevent hypoxia, suctioning should be limited to
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15 seconds.
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Closed-chest drainage is a drainage system used to
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reexpand a collapsed lung.
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A patient describes a jumping, pounding, or stopping of the heart within of his or her chest. This condition is called heart
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palpitation.
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What cardiac related condition may be caused by a fall in cardiac output resulting in cerebral ischemia?
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Syncope.
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To initiate defibrillation procedures due to ventricular fibrillation, you would first set the defibrillator at
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200 to 300 joules.
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Prior to insertion of a central venous pressure line to decrease the change of an air embolism, the patient is taught the
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Valsalva maneuver.
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The best time to schedule patient activities is
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when the patient is energetic.
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You are planning activities for a patient with psychological problems. In this situation, your primary goal would be to
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develop a good rapport.
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What should you do to help patients who become angry and hostile?
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Allow them to channel their hostility through verbal expression.
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What grade of a decubitus ulcer has penetrated down to the muscle causing distortion and loss of body fluids?
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Grade III.
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To aid in preventing decubitus ulcers, patient positioning should be changed every
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2 hours.
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Why should your feet be parallel when you are standing?
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Maintain balance and prevent back, hip, and leg strain.
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Your stability increases as your center of gravity moves closer to your
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base of support.
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To use the internal girdle of support, you must
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simultaneously contract abdominal and buttocks muscles.
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Which factors determine the technique you will use to move the patient up in bed?
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Size and capabilities of the patient.
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Which technique for moving the patient up in bed is contraindicated for a patient who has back or chest injuries?
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Shoulder-lift
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When turning a patient, what is the most important precaution to take whether you are pushing or pulling the patient?
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Raise the far side rail.
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When transferring patients, you can reduce the chance of injury to yourself by
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using good teamwork and proper body mechanics.
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The person in charge of a bed to a stretcher transfer should be positioned
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at the head of the bed on the stretcher side.
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A patient's feet must be placed on the floor or a footstool during "dangling" to prevent
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pressure on the back of the legs.
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Which devices can be used to slide a patient from a bed to a stretcher?
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Drawsheet and roller board.
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The crutch most commonly used for fractures and other short-term disabilities is the
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axillary
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Which gait is used by patients who can bear full body weight on one foot and partial or no weight on the other?
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Three-point.
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Which type of exercise would you provide for a patient who is unable or not allowed to exercise?
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Passive.
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Isometric exercises are activities that involve muscle
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contraction without body movement.
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