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251 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
A specialist who can guide a provider in prescribing drugs is best defined as a...
Clinical Pharmacist
Each medication can be referred to by several names. Which of these drug names is used primarily by a chemist?
Chemical name
Whic statement is true regarding the role of a medical service tech. in medication administration?
Technicians are permitted to administer medications under the supervision of a nusre or physician.
The two essential patient history facts that must be obtained and documented before a medication is administered are
Allergies and current medications
Patients have legal and ethical rights. Which statement is not considered one of those rights when medications are administered?
Be informed of a drugs purpose
What is not one of the 5 rights of medication administration?
Right documentation
What is not included in the 5 rights of medication admin?
Documentation
What type of medication order state that a medication is to be administered immediately and only once?
Stat
A provider cand initiate a drug order in...
Two ways
What do many medicalt treatmenct facilities use to avoid errors when a drug order is copied?
Computer Generated Product
Drug administration is controlled primarily by...
Federal Law
What classification of drugs are not acceptable for medical use?
Scheule I
Narcotices such as codine, cocaine, and amphetamines, that have a high potential for abuse but have medical use are classified as....
Schedule II
What law requires a periodic inventory of all controlled substances?
Controlled Substances Act
Penicillan administered to treat and infection is an example of what category of drugs?
Curative
When a patient has an unusually low response to a drug, the condition is called...
Drug tolerance
A patient's weight is a factor in drug action due to...
Body fat absorbtion
Why are oral medications that are taken before meals generally faster acting?
Lower digestive system content
Whic statement is true regarding how ambient temperature can affect drug action?
Warmer temperatures increas circulation.
What is a a common reference source for drugs?
PDR
What publication contains a list of locally available medicatoins, recommended dispensing instructions and administrative guidlines?
Local facility formulary
On oily liquid used on the skin describes a type of medication preparation called a...
Linement
A finely ground drug that can be used internally or externally describes at type of medication preparation called a...
Powder
What type of medication is used to prevent or correct irregular heart action?
Antiarrythmics
What type of medication has aclensing action that produces a watery evacuation of intestinal content?
Cathartics
Why is route of administration a required part of a medication order?
Some medications are available in more than one form
Which statement is true regarding subcutaneous injections?
Only small amounts of drugs may be administered
The method of parenteral medication administration that involves injecting a drug into a muscle is...
IM
The parts of a syringe are the...
Barrel plunger and tip
Subcutaneous injection are commonly administered in the...
Upper arms
What administation method delivers medication directly inot he patients digestive tract?
Oral
To prevent contamination and accidental spill, liquid medications being administered to inpatients are usually poured...
at the patient's bedside
What is the first step when a medication is being prepared for administration?
Verify the Order
Which element is not required on a medication order?
Patients age
You are administering a tablet or lozenge bucally to a patient, to do this properly, you would place the medication...
between the upper molars and cheek of the patient
The poroper procedure for administering inhalations into the respiratory tract of a patient is to...
asses vital's before, during and after therapy
When adminstering eye medications, you should ensure the patient's treated eye is lower than the other. This will aid in...
Preventing the solution from running into the patients unaffected eye.
Into what body cavity are otic medications administered?
External Auditory Canal
To administer ear drops in a patient 3 years of age, you would gently pull the earlope..
Downward to straighten the canal.
Vaginal suppositories are...
administered to combat infection
You are administering a vaginal douche to a female patient. To od this properly, you would hang the bag...
12-18 inches above the patient's vagina
Whic event is characterized by dry mucous membranes, weak rapid pulse, orthostatic hpyotension and a low central venous pressure
Hypovolemia
Fatigue, weakness, anorexia, vomiting, and dysrhythmias are signs associated with which electorlyte imbalances?
Hypokalemia
What electrolyte deficit or excess can cause dysrhythmias, leading to cardiac or respiratory arrest?
Hperkalemia
Whic imbalance may be caused by starvation and diabetic acidosis?
Metabolic acidosis
The most direct approach for administering medication is...
Infusion
The basic purpose of infusion therapy is to...
administer fluids to the circulatory system
Intravenous solution bags normally range in size from...
100-2000 cc
What is used to prevent the mixing of primary and secondary infusions in a piggyback setup?
Back Check Valve
A scalp vein needle (commonly used on pediatric patients) is an example of a
Wing tipped needle
To avoid infections, you should change a patients hyperalimentaiton solution bag and tubing daily. In addition you should not allow the container to hang longer than...
8 hours
To reduce the possibility of infection and vessel damage on a patient scheduled for longterm therapy, you must change the IV site every...
48-72 hours
If a patient exhibits a mild allergic response to an IV solution you would...
slow the flow rate
Phlebitis is...
and inflamation of the vein
The slowest possible flow rate per hour you may set for an IV solution is
10-50 cc
With regard to blood transfusions, one of your responsibilities is to document the patient's transfusion on
a Standard form 518
What type of reaction is caused by a transfusion of contaminated blood or blood product?
Septic
What diet is usually inadequate in all nutrients and should not be given for more than 3 days is the...
clear liquid diet
Which precaution should be taken just prior to performing a procedure that uses the patient's NG tube?
Check for tube placement
Whic procedure is performed to cleanse the stomach of harmful substances?
Lavage
To prevent rapid decompression of the urinary bladder, the maximum amount of urine to remove during catherization is between...
750-1000 cc
During catheterization of a male patient, at what angle is the penis held, and how many inches is the catheter inserted?
90 degrees and 10 inches
When administering an enema, the patient is preferable positioned...
on their left side
The patient shoud retain teh solution of a cleansing enema for a time period of...
5 minutes
The patients colostomy bag should b e changed when it is...
One third full
The puropose of the colostomy irrigation is to...
establish fecal control
The normal arterial oxygen saturation range is...
95-98%
What condition occurs if CO2 builds u and mixes with water in the blood stream?
Respiratory acidosis
Which lung sound (heard upon inspiration and expiration) is a whistling sound caused by narrow airways?
Wheezing
For patients using a nonrebreating mask, the inspired O2 concentration is...
60-90%
Which mask is suggested for patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?
Venturi
For patients under 12 years of age, you would avoid using a...
flow restricted O2 powered ventilation device.
To prevent hypoxia, suctioning should be limited to...
15 seconds
Closed chest drainage is a drainage system used to...
Reexpand a collapsed lung
A patient describes a jumping, pounding or stomping of the heart withing the chest. This condition is called heart...
Palpitation
What cardiac related condition may be caused by a fall in cardiac output resulting in cerebral ischemia?
Syncope
To initiate defibrillation procedures due to ventricular fibrillation, you should first set the defribrillator at....
200-300 joules
Prior to insertion of a central venous pressure lin to decrease teh change in an air emoblism, the patient is taught the...
Valsalva maneuver
The wedge position is located in the...
Pulomary Vein
The best time to schedule patients activity is...
When the patient is energetic
Your are planning activities for a patient with psychological problems. In this situation, your primary goal would be to...
Develop a good rapport
What should you do to help patientswho become angry or hostile?
Allow them to channle their hostility through verbal expressoins.
What grade of decubitus ulcer has penetrated to the muscle causing distortion and loss of body fluids?
Grade III
To aid in preventing decubitus ulcers, patients should positioning should be changed every...
2 hours
Why shoudld your feet be parallel when you are standing?
Maintain balance and prevent back, hip and leg strain.
Your stability increasses as your center of gravity moves closer to your
Base of support
To use the internal girdle of support, you must...
simultaneously contract abdominal and buttocks muscles.
Which factors determin the technique you will use to move the patient up in bed?
Size of patient, capabilities of the patient
Which techniquefor moving the patient up in bed is contraindicated for a patient who has back or chest injuries?
Shoulder lift
When turning a patient, what is the most important precaution to take whether you are pusing or pulling?
Raise the far side rail
When transferring patients, you can reduce the chance of injury to yourself by...
using good teamwork and proper body mechanics
The person incharge of a bed to a stretcher transfer should be positioned...
At the head of the bed on the stretcher side.
The patient's feet must be placed on the floor or a footstool during dangling to prevent...
Pressure on the back of the legs
Which devices can be used to slide a patient from a bed to at stretcher?
Drawsheet and rollerboard
The crutch most commonly used ro fractures and other short term disabilities is the...
Axillary
Which gait is used by patients who can ber full body weight on one foot and partial or no wieght on the other?
Three point
Whic type of exercise would you provide for at patient who is unable or not allowed to exercise?
Passive
Isometric exercises are activities that involve muscle...
contraction without body movement
Which statement would be the responsibility of the medical technician during a routine patient admission to a nursing unit?
Obtain the patient's vital signs, height and weight
How many pounds of baggage are allowed for the patient being aeromedically evacutated to another facility?
66 lbs.
A patient who is authorized to live outside the hospitol while recieving treatment is considered...
Subsisting out
Which nursing activity is the main aspect of resolving nursing diagnosis?
Planning
When planning nursing activities, what is the main goal?
Help the patient reach the highest possible level of health.
Relative to the nursing process, what is a client goal?
A realistic and measuralbe statement of the expeceted changed in patient behavior
What is a way to help relieve most of the patients concerns prior to surgery?
Preoperative teaching
What action would you take when recovering a postoperative patient who is hypoxic due to respiratory depression from the anesthetic agent?
Adminster O2
Which position is the bed placed in to receive a postoperative surgical patient?
High
The postoperative patient is required to turn, cough, and deep breath every...
Two hours
What dressing is applied to a would when debriedment is needed?
Wet to damp
What size suture material is used to close an incision on the bottom of the foot?
2-0
A prolonged heat treatment can cause what reflex action in the human body?
Reflex vasoconstriciton
A fracture that results from disease, such as metastatic cancer of the bone is called...
Pathologic
Which type of traumatic fracture does whiplash cause?
Compression
Avoid semi-recumbent postion for long periods of time for the orthopedic patient because it...
promotes flexion deformities of the hip.
Whic term is used to describe the sound that bones make when they rub together?
Crepitus
Which procedure or treatment is used to prevent or alleviate irritation aroung the edge of a cast?
Petaling
what equipment is essential to have at the postoperative bedside after surgical amputation of a limb?
Tourniquet
During the acute stage of the stroke the primary goal is to...
sustain life
Which statement provides a hospitolized child with a sense of control?
Establishing daily rituals and routines.
The normal adaptive mechanism used by children when they loose their sense of control is...
Regression
When caring ofr a child with nausea and vomiting, a primary concern woiuld be...
Dehydration
The amount of sleep required by elderly patients is generally...
less because of frequent daytime naps
What is a signe of uremia
Oliguria
Moodiness, bad temper and extremem neatnes are influenced by what factor?
Environmental
Which psychiatric term defines an irresistible urge to perform apparently meaningless actions?
Compulsion
Whichu psychiatric term defines a mood disorder identified by feelins of elation and well being, flights of ideas and physical overacitivity?
Mania
A patient who feels unloved, uneeded, inferior and hurt displays a behavior of...
Withdrawal
When does the rehabilitation process beging?
As soon as the patient is admitted.
Psychotherapy usually includes all of the following except...
electronconvulsive therapy
What occurs in the third phase of spousal abuse?
Spouse states it will never happen again.
Which classification of harmful substance causes euphoria, excitement, dilated pupils, diaphoresis, tachycardia and rapid breathing?
Stimulant
If a patient is being restrained, what position shoud he/she be in if the patient is recovering from alcohol intoxictaion and is extremely agitated?
Prone
After questionin a patient, what should be don if the patient is still not sure whether or not he/she is allergic to an immunization?
a skin test
After receiving a vaccine, how long may it take for immunity to develop?
Days or weeks
A procotoscopy is an inspection of the
Rectum
The person who assumes the responisibility of patient education in the shaving clinic is the...
Aerospace Medical Service Tech.
What phase of treatment of pseudofolliculitis barbae begins when inflammation has subsided and ends with complete control of the problem?
phase II
How many inches from the test plate must the examinee be sitting for the PIP
30
How many inches is the Amsler's grid chart held away from the patient?
12
What is the unit of measurement for the near point accomodation test?
Diopters
What is that part of space that can be seen when the head and eyes are motionless?
Visual Field
What is a common visual field defect?
Depression
Noise assessment is conducted by...
BEF
How many years is teh certification of a hearing conservationst valid?
5
The measurement expressed in HZ refers to what principle of sound?
Frequency
When there is an apparent vehicle fire, how many feet should the ambulance be parked from the vehicle?
100
for accidents involving hazardous materials, where shoud you park the ambulance and how far away should you remain?
Upwind and 2000 ft.
The A in AVPU stands for...
Alert
If the patient is not alert and breathing is slower than eight breaths/min, provide...
Ventialtions with BVM with high flow O2
For what type of patient is a rapid trauma assessment performed and what is looked at?
Patient with significant Mech. of Injury; area of the body where the greatest threats to the patient are
When you ask a medical patient if the pain is constant or intermittent, you are question the...
Time
When you ask a medical patient wha may have triggered teh pain, you are quetioning about...
Provocation
A bruise behind the ears is called...
Battle signs
Within how many minutes isthe recommended interval for reassessment of a stable patient?
15 minutes
Patients breating adequately are placed in what postiont?
Comfort
Patients suffering from a flail chest will most likely exhibit...
paradoxical motion of the chest wall
The all emcompassing term used by EMT's to indicate any kind of problem with the heart is cardiac...
compromise
How many shocks are recommended to be delivered after analysis of a shockable rhythm by tehe operation of an auto or SAED?
a set of three stacked shocks
After a set of shocks, if the patients pulse does not return, your next step is to...
resume CPR and repeat cycle of shocks
Oral glucose is administered to the diabetic with and altered mental status who is able to swallow, becasuse it...
conteract sthe effects of low blood suger on the brain.
Activated charcoal should not be given when the patient has ingeseted...
Drain cleaner
How is the contact poison phosphorus removed from the skin?
Dust off
Alcohol is a drug that can have lethal effects on which nervous system?
Central
Within how many hours does a black widow spider victim develop systemic reaction?
24
Passive rewarmin involves...
simply covering the patient
A condition in which the placenta is formed low in the uterus and close to the cervical opening preventing the normal delivery of the fetus is called...
Placnet previa
A patients usual first emotion reaction to rape is...
Anger and hostility
Who is responsible for questionging and examining a rape patient or for notifying legal authorities?
Phsician
To open the airway of a child, you must never...
Hyperextend the childs neck
A detailed physical exam on a child is completed from...
toes to head
Bulging fontanelles on an infant indicate...
Head trauma
Your responsibilities of suspected child abuse include...
Notifying the Physician
A situation in which a patient exhibits abmorma behvior withing a given situation either due to extremes of emotion leading to violence or a psychological or phyiscal condition is called...
A behavioral emergency
What is the key to helping defuse a suicied attempt?
Personal interaction
For an adult, how much blood loss is considered serious?
1000cc
How many cc of blood is considered serious in an infant?
100 cc
The time within which surgery must take place fora successful resuscitation from shock is called the ...
Golden hour
Which type of shock is caused by loss of blood of body fluids?
Hypovolemic
The PASG can compensate for up to what percentage of blood loss?
30%
Which type of shock is an internal failure of the body to control the diameter of blood vessels?
Neurogenic
Which acronym is used by the EMT in the field to describe a possible fracture?
PSD
Which classifications of fracture are considered more serious because a greater blood loss is possible?
Open
With injuries in and around a joint, make sure that the splint immobilizes the...
bone above and below the injury.
There is a high rate of success for tooth replacement if a dentist carries out the procedure within how many minutes of the accident?
30
A burn is classified as moderate if it involves...
partial thickness burns that involve less than 15% of the body surface
When caring for a patient with electrical burns, your first priority is...
Protect yourself from the electricity.
One reason the flight surgeon conducts mishap investigations is to...
Prevent further mishaps.
Specifically, who makes the final determination on return to flying status when aircrew members are treated in other clinics or medical specialties?
Flight Surgeon
Flight surgeons review all mishap reports and summaries to...
Identify human factor elements pertinent to the flying mission.
What major commnand is responsible for intercontinental ballistic missle operations?
Space Command
Which of the following is a unique characteristic of the solid propellant used in most missle systems?
Once ignited, it cannot be extinguished.
Record mishaps as aircraft flight mishaps when...
there is an intent to fly.
What class of mishap results in reportable damage of $1,000,000 or more?
A.
The four triage categories are...
Minimal, immediate, delayed and expectant
What is the triage category for a patient with partial thickness burns of less than 15% of the body?
Minimal
Who must give permission to remove the fatalities following and off-base accident that involves a military aircraft?
Local civilian officials
At a crash site, if there is a possible hazard from life support equipment, what agency should be notified?
EOD
You must report any episode that produces abnormal physical, mental, or behavioral symptomsthat are noticed by individual crewmembers of by other during or after the flight, as what type of physiological event?
Class E
Class E physiological events are reported by message using the format found in...
AFI 91-204 Safety Investigations and Reporting
The overall purpose of flightline visits from the flight surgeon is to...
Promote flying safety
In addition to the providing flyers with medical care, which of the following services is also provided by teh flight surgeon and 4N0X1 in support of the flying mission?
Medical Indoctrination
Which of the following lists include rated officers only?
Navigators, pilots and flight surgeons
Who is responsible for completing an AF Form 1042?
The flight surgeon only
Waht do you do with the original AF Form 1042 after it's completed?
File in the individuals health record.
For transient personnel, how many copies of the AF Form 1042 are sent with the original to an individuals home base flight surgeon's office?
2
When must you start a new AF Form 1041?
First day of every month
Administration of the soft contact lenses (SCL) program is the responsibility of the...
Flight surgeons office
Who is responsible for training aircrew members on the emergency removal of soft contact lenses?
Optometry clinic
The primary reference for everyday Air Force writing is...
AFH 37-137 The tounge and quill
What type of paper is used for inrta-departmental memos and letters?
Plain bond paper
What do you do is you make a mistake while documenting information on a patient record?
Draw a single line through the error, make the correction and initial the error.
What is the primary device used to store information on a computer?
Hard disk drive
What program emphasiszes information protection precepts and promotes consistant application of security principles in the use of Air Force information systems?
IAAP
What administrative tool identifies eac and every record series maintained for and office of record, regardless of the record's location?
Files plan
The medical standars, the frequency, scope and instructions for completeing required physical examinations properly are speicified in...
AFI 48-123
The format and procedures for conducting and recording a physical examination are found in...
AFPAM 48-133
The medical standards, the frequency, scope and instructions for completing required physical examinations properly re specified in...
AFI 48-123
The format and prodcedures for concucting and recording a physical examination are found in...
AFPAM 48-133 Physical Examination Techniques
Whenever a memeber's qualification for continued service are questionable, the member's case is processed under the provisions provided in all of the following except...
AFPAM 148-133 Physical Examination Techniques
The prupos of the AF Form 422, Physical Profile Serial Report is to...
Communicate information to nonmedical authorities in layman terms
For members possessing 4T profiles, the AF Form 422, Physical Profile Serial Report, must be reviewed every...
30 Days
Including the "X"Factor, how many human funtion factors are condsidered in the physical serial profiel?
Seven
What is the main condsideration (function of the body part) under the physical profile factor "E"
Distant Acuity Vision
A strength aptitued test (SAT) is rated in profile factor...
X
Which organization authorixes an L suffix on AF Form 422, Physical Profile Serial Report?
HQ AFPC
When you use the Department of the ARmy (DA) Form 3349, Physical Profile Serial, in lieu ofthe AF Form 422, what must be done(if anything) tor the Army 3 porficle grade to idnetify and Air Force member as not compatible with worldwid assignment?
Change it to a 4
Whic of the following is the first step in the Air Force disability evaluation process to determing members who are not worldwide quailified?
Medical Evaluation Board (MEB)
Record review in lieu of boarad processing is accomplised when...
A defect is discovered as an incidental finding andthe evaluee seems qualified for continued military service.
The body responsible for determining if any member's physical defect or condition renders the member unfit to perform duties of their office or grade?
Physical Evaluation Board (PEB)
Who has the authority to retire or separate members who are found physically unfit to perform the duties of there office or grade?
The Secretary of the Air Force of a designated special assistant only.
Whic of the following is not a Physical Evaluation Board (PEB) recommended disposition?
Forward to Medical Evaluation Board (MEB)
Members may be retained on the temporary disability retired list (TDRRL) for no more than...
5 years
Teh physical, psychological and educational qualifications all members mus meet for each AFSC can be found in...
AFM 36-2108
Individuals applying for Personnel Reliability Program status must meet the medical requirements speicified in...
AFI 36-2104 Nuclear Weapons Personal Reliability Program
Potentially disqualifying information (PDI) is any information regaridng, but not limited to, a person's...
Physical, mental and emotional status
What action is taken when a disqualifying gefect is found during a flying class I physical examination?
Complete the exam regardless of the defect and send it to the appropriate certifying authority.
Teh ulitimate waiver authority forall medical waivers is...
HQ USAF/SG
The parts of the needle are...
Hub shaft and bevel
You have removed and IV Catheter. You should maintain pressure over the injection site for..
20-30 seconds
What diet is usually ordered for patients who have difficulty chewing or swallowing, or need to alter the amount of residue in the digestive tract?
Liquid.
What regulations govern the number, type, colors, and locations of the rotating beacons and warning lights on the ambulance?
State and Local
Which emergency response refers to an emergency with lights and sirens?
Code 3; hot
How much vacuum must suction units provide when the tube is clamped?
300mm Hg
At what speed does hydroplaning occur?
30 mph
Which is the correct order for applying a short spine immobilization device?
Position device, Secure torso, Evaluate torso fixation and pad neck, Secure patient's head
Which device is commonly used for patient transfers in wartim and disaster situations?
Army field litter
Mass casuatly victims are categorized according to...
Priority for treatment and transportation
Using the civilian four level triage system, a patient with complicated burns is classified as priority...
1
How are patients classified under the military triage system?
Minimal, delayed, immediate and expectant
Under military triage system, a patient with extensive burns is classified as...
expectant
Waht is used to document patient evaluation and treatment in wartime situations?
US Field Medic Card