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220 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Where is the repository for all mishap investigation reports?
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AFSC
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What are the 4 specific disiplines in the USAF safety program?
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1.Flight safety
2.Ground safety 3.Weapons safety 4.Systems safety |
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At the local level, who is responsible for implementing safe practices to prevent mishaps?
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everyone
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What are annual physical examinations and routine medical care designed to do for aircrew members?
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Monitor and maintain the health of the crew
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What general topics should be discussed periodically during the unit flying safety briefings?
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-Self-medication
-Environmental stresses -Cardio risk factors -Self-imposed stresses |
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What major command is responsible for missle operations?
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Space Command
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What are the primary hazards associated with a missle launch facility?
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Tripping
Falling Confined spaces Noise |
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What are common personnel issues affiliated within a missle alert facility?
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Extended duty rotations
Boredom Fatigue Interpersonal problems |
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How does the AF catergorizes mishaps?
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By the environment in which they occur so personnel who specialize in these mishap environments can process them.
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When does "intent for flight" exist?
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When aircraft bakes are released/when take-off power is applied.
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Which class of mishap exists when reportable damage to an aircraft is $1,000,000 or more?
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A
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Which type of event is deemed important enough to trend for mishap prevention despite the fact they do not meet other mishap class reporting criteria?
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E
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From what direction should the ambulance approach an accident site?
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Upwind direction
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What procedure is used to classify the type and severity of an injury?
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Triage
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What are the 4 triage categories, and which classification has the highest priority?
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1.Minimal
2.Delayed 3.Expectant 4.Immediate |
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What are the advantages of establishing a casualty holding area?
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Permit more effective use of supplies and skills of medical personnel and simplifies transportation.
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When may the ambulance team leave an accident site?
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When the fire chief declares the area safe and rescue and recovery personnel have left the area.
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What is the purpose of the 72-hour activities report?
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To determine the presence of adverse physiological factors in the crewmembers and whether they met medical qualifications to perform flying duties.
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Who has the responsibility of search and recovery of human remains at an accident site?
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The morturary affairs officer
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Why should you avoid using alcohol-based solutions during autopsies?
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It can contaminate the sample and cause false levels of alcohol in the deceased.
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When an off-base accident occurs, who has the authority to release the remains for transportation to the MTF?
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Local officials
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Why does the AF investigate mishaps?
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To determine their cause and to recommentd changes to prevent recurrence of similar mishap or injury.
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What report is used to document all physiological episodes?
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AF Form 711GC
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Define physiological episode.
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Any in-flight episode of a physical, physiological,medical, pathological, psychological, pharmalogical or toxicological nature, which compromises performance.
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Name a mishap investigation responsibility that would reside with the flight surgeon and not the MAJCOM?
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Identify and prevent future mishaps.
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Locally, who is responsible for implementing safe practices to prevent mishaps?
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Each individual
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Specifically, who makes the final determination on return to flying status when aircrew are treated in other clinics?
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Any flight sugeon
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What is a unique characteristic of the solid propellant used in most missle systems?
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Once ignited, it cannot be extinguished.
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Which of the following concerns would be considered primary physical hazards for personnel assigned to Missle Alert Facilities?
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Sanitation
Food Water Facility safety |
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What are the primary operational hazards for personnel who work at a Missile Alert Facility or Launch Facility?
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Motor vehicle accidents and the environment.
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Record mishaps as aircraft flight mishaps when
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There is an intent for flight.
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Whenever a mishap results in reportable damage of $1,000,000 or more, you must report it as what class of mishap?
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A
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If an Unmanned Aerial Vehicle crashes in Afghanistan, what is the procedure for determining whether it is reportable as an Unmanned Aerial Vehicle mishap?
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Determine if another DoD aircraft was involved.
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When responding to a mishap, you should approach the scene from what direction?
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Upwind
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What action should you take prior to removing human remains from the scene of an aircraft mishap?
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Photograph the site.
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What solution should you use when preparing tissue and skin samples for autopsy analysis?
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Betadine
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What steps need to be completed before completing an aircraft mishap report?
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Compile all necessary data
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How should you report an event that is categorized as a physiological episode?
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Class E mishap
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Class E physiological events are reported by message using the format found in
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AFI 91-204, Safety Investigations and Reports
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What are the objectives of visiting flight-related environments?
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Promoting flying safety
Provides med. indoctrination Inspect facilities |
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What are 5 specific areas you may be required to visit and evaluate?
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1.Squadron and Alert facilities
2.Sir traffic control facilities 3.Life support sections 4.Flight-line 5.Missile launch facilities |
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What four things should aerospace personnel be alert for nd try to improve, in regard to flying personnel?
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-Health
-Morale -Safety -Flying efficiency of aircrew members |
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Who can initiate an AF Form 1042 for the purpose of RTS?
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Flight surgeons
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A 2 digit system used to monitor and manage aircrew member's incentive pay
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Aviation service code
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A local administrative act used to show a member on flying status who is medically unfit to perform flying duties
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Medical restriction from flying or special operational duty.
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Pilots, navigators and flight surgeons
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Rated officers
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An enlisted member assigned to a unit manning document position that requires flying duty
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Aircrew member
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Service authorized by aeronautical orders to perform inflight duties
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Aviation service
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An administrative act taken when a rated officer's disqualification extends beyond 365 days
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Disqualification for aviation service
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Responsible for publishing aeronautical orders
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Host operations system management office
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List at least 3 situations that require preparation of an AF Form 1042
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1.DNIF
2.Initial clearance 3.Annual clearance 4.RTFS |
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Where are copies of the AF Form 1042 distributed?
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HOSM office
Member's unit |
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When flying personnel away from home station are found to have a serious medical condition, what should the treating flight surgeon do?
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Notify the home base flight surgeon by telephone
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What is the purpose of the AF Form 1041?
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Monthly log of AF Form 1042 actions
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When is a new AF Form 1041 prepared?
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1st day of each month
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How long are you required to keep AF Forms 1041 on file?
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2 yrs (Current yr +1)
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List the aspects of a productive SCL program.
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-Early identification of personnel wearing lens.-An accurate database.-Initial and routine evaluations.-Documentation
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Which office has the responsibility to brief the Aircrew SCL program?
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Flight Med
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Which office has the responsiblity to maintain updated lists of approved SCL and solutions?
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Opto
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Define the term information.
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Includes and statement or reception of nowledge, such as facts, data or opinions.
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List three ways to store data.
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1.Floppy disk
2.CD-ROM 3.External hard drives |
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Explain the security awareness training and education (SATE) program.
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Single, inergrated communications awareness, training and education effort covering COMSEC, COMPUSEC and EMSEC disciplines.
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Describe the purpose of PEPP?
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To manage and track physical exams actions for AF flying and special duty personnel and applicants for these duties.
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What exams require the use of PEPP?
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All exams that require an AF Form 88 or DD Form 2808 and SF Form 93 or DD Form 2807-1 to include commisioning and flying class physicals.
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How do you access PEPP?
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Through the AF Portal (Knowledge Exchange)
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What is the purpose of the PIMR software?
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An automated way of recording, verifying and storing vital information about individual medical readiness metrics, PHA, PE standards and clinical prevention services standards.
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What should be the outcome of PIMR?
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A medically fit and ready force
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How often are Occupational Health Exams conducted
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Annually
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What does IMR status RED represent?
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Imminent, missing or out of date. PHA more than 18 mos ago. Dental class 3 or 4. Lab requirements missing. Deployment limiting profile
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Describe AFCITA.
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An automated database program that records, verifies and stores clinical and readiness information about immunizations.
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Under what tab can you access an individual's name, SSN or use the "Find Personnel List"?
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Edit individual
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What does VAERS stand for and how is it used?
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Vaccine Adverse Event Reporting System
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What is the purpose of AMWTS?
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Provides the tracking and management tool for waiver disposition of flying and special duty personnel.
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Who is the primary component in the AIMWTS process?
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Medical tech
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What determines the tools that an individual is allowed to use?
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The authority the individual user has for the AIMWTS program
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What are the basic permissions set that the 4N should have to AIMWTS?
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Technician permissions
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The overall purpose of flight line visits is to
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Promote flying safety
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What is your specific responsibility to the Life Support Section?
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Provide advice to unit personnel of protective equipment programs.
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Who are rated officers?
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Navigators
Pilots Flight surgeons |
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What do you do with the original AF Form 1042 after it is completed?
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File it in the individual's health record
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How many years must the AF Form 1041 be kept on file?
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2
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Who is responsible to train aircrew in the emergency removal of soft contact lenses?
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Opto
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What steps are necessary to a safe and productive soft contacts lens program?
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Identification
Documentation Evaluation |
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What is the primary device a computer uses to store information?
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Hard disk drive
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What program emphasizes information protection precepts and promotes consistent application of security princilples in the use of AF information systems?
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SATE
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What administrative tool shows every record series maintained for an office of record?
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File plan
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What is the purpose of PEPP?
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Track physicals for flying and special ops personnel
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Once you arrive at the Knowledge Exchange webpage, what should be the next step to begin training on the PEPP database?
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Click on the "Aerospace Medicine" tab
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What step must you take before you can use the PEPP database?
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Set-up an account through the AF Portal
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When you input medical information on military member into PIMR, to what system does it connect?
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AFCHIPS
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What can you determine when you review a military member's Individual Medical Readiness status is yellow?
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Items are outdated or need attention.
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A supervisor has access to what additional tabs in AFCITA?
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Set-up and Data Management
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What step should you take if you have a pt. that experiences an adverse reaction?
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Go to the menu bar to access the VAERS website.
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What steps might you need to take before you can access AFCITA?
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You must see your local AFCITA program manager, have an account established and have the program loaded on your computer.
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What function does the AIMWTS serve?
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Tracks waivers for personnel on flying or special operations status.
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What step must you complete first to complete initial waivers within AIMWTS?
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Enter the pt's demographics
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What do you do once AIMWTS process is completed?
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Place information in pt. record
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What is the purpose of medical standards and physical examinations?
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To ensure the aquisition and retention of members who are medically acceptance for military life.
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In what written publication would you find the different types of medical examinations and their scope and frequency?
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AFI 48-123
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During and examination, what dictates the depth of the evaluation of a body system?
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The type or class of the medical examination being processed
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Accession physicals are governed by what policy?
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Respective DODMERB and MEPS policy
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What are medical standards for flying duty designed to do?
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Avoid compromise of flying safety mission completion or the member's well being.
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What is the purpose of the AF Form 422?
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For communicating information to non-medical authorities in layman terms on the general physical condition or specific duty limitations
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When is a person on an assignment limitation code-C re-evaluated?
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At intervals determined by HQ AFPC
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How often are 4T profiles reviewed?
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Every 30 days
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Upper back injury causing moderate functions interference, yet capable of strong effort for short periods.
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U3
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Slightly limited mobility of joints which do not prevent moderate marching
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L2
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Range of movement of the lumbar vertebrae severely compromised.
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L4
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Vision is correctable to 20/40 in one eye and 20/70 in the other.
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E2
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Infectious diseases, diabetes and seizure disorders.
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P4
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20/100 vision correctable to 20/20.
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E1
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Free of any identified organic defect.
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P1
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Able to do hand-to-hand fighting.
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U1
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What does the absence of a suffix indicate?
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Profile is permenant
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List the 3 categories of the assignment availability roster.
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31-All 4 profiles
37-MEB/PEB actions 81-Preggo |
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When utilizing the Army's DA Form 3349, Physical Profile Serial, what must a 3 profile grade be converted to?
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4
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What law charges each of the military service secretaries with the responsibility for maintaining a fit force?
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Public law
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What are the duties of the PEB liasion officer?
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Ensure each case is complete, accurate and fully documented when sent to PEB
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When is a LOD determination required?
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When a member, whether hospialized or not, has a disease or injury which results in inability to perform military duty for more than 24 hours or there is a likelyhood of permenant disability.
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How does the use of the AF TDRL protect the government and the member?
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Government-From permentantly retiring a member who may partially or fully recover at a later date. Member-From being permenately retired at a level that may worsen in the future
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What is the general intent of a health record review?
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Identifing and preventing illness and injury to maintain a healthy work environment.
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What are the 3 catergories of records?
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1.Nonfly
2.Flying 3.SOD |
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What specific task requires you to review AFM 36-2108, Airman Classification?
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Processing retraining requests and special duty applications.
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Why do you review the medical record of an active duty member when thy are discharged from the hospital?
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To ensure proper profiling and administrative disposition of active duty personnel.
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Briefly explain potentially disqualifying information.
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Any information regarding, but not limited to a person's physical, mental or emotional status, on/off duty, which may cast doubt on his/her ability to perform nuclear weapons related duties.
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How many primary purposes does the medical record serve?
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-Provides a means of documentation.-Required legal information,observations,diagnoses and procedures.-Ensures continuity of care.-Serves as legal documentation.
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Who is the custodian of the military health record?
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MTF Commander
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Who determines what information is pertinent for release in regard to a pt's medical record?
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Director of base medical services or designee
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Who should medical personnel consult with in regardto laws affecting the disclosure of medical information?
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Staff Judge Advocate
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What is the 2 digit family prefix number code for an active duty member?
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20
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What patient data must be on each document in a medical record?
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Pt name
Prefix SSN |
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Under whose SSN is dependent child's health record filed?
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Sponsor
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Where is the DD Form 2766, Adult Preventitive and Chronic Care Flowsheet, located in the health record?
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Sec 1
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Where is the AF Form 137, Footprint Record, filed for an individual on flying status?
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Sec 3
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How is the Standard Form 520, Clinical Record- ECG record filed
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Sec 3 w/physical, if not Sec 4
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What filing system does the AF use for military health records?
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Terminal digit
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The medical standards, the frequency,scope and instructions for completing required physical exams properly are specified in
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AFI 48-123
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During a physical, the depth of evaluation of any body system depends primarily on the
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Type of medical examination
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The format and procedures for conducting and recording a physical are found in
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AFPAM 48-133
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Wher is the AF Form 422 established on officers entering the AF?
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First permanent duty station
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Members with 4T profiles must have the AF Form 422 reviewed every
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30 days
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How many human function factors are considered in the physical profile serial?
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6
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Which factor would spply to an individual who has organic defects of the ears?
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P-physical condition
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What is the main consideration under the E profile factor?
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Distant visual acuity only
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A strength aptitude test is rated in which profile factor?
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X
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What organization authorizes an L suffix on AF Form 422?
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HQ AFPC
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Members may be retained on the temporary disability retired list for no more than
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5 years
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What is the first step in the AF disability evaluation process?
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Initiate a MEB
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When would disability compensation not be authroized?
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Injury occurred during an unauthorized absence
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What step must be taken if a military member has been discharged after being admitted to a hospital?
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Records must be reveiwed to identify correct profile actions
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What should you do if potentially disqualifying information is discovered during a records review?
|
Refer the case to a flight surgeon
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Who owns the health records?
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US Government
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What must occur to ensure health records are maintained according to AF and JCAHO standards?
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MTF reviews
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Where is the original medical record maintained on deployed active duty and ARC personnel?
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Home base MTF
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In which section of the out patient record is every completed SF 600 filed?
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2
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You encounter a record of a member on flying status that has not been identified correctly.
|
Stamp the word "Fly" in 2 inch block letters in the upper left corner of the front cover.
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Define the term atmosphere.
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A gaseous envelope that surrounds the earth.
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What are the divisions of the atmosphere?
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Troposphere
Tropopause Stratosphere Ionosphere Exosphere |
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How does the Troposphere differ for the other layers of the atmosphere?
|
Weather mostly occurs there
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What are the high velocity winds found in the stratosphere called?
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Jet Streams
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Of all the differnent gases in the atmosphere, which 2 comprise the greatest amounts?
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Nitrogen and oxygen
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What 2 essentials does the atmosphere provide that are necessary for life?
|
Pressure and oxygen
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What is barometric pressure?
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The combined weight of all atmosphere gases creating a force upon the surface of the earth.
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It can form the conditions in joints that lead to altitude-induced decompression sickness.
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Henry's Law
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Since the body's temp. remains constant, if the pressure is reduced 1/2, the gas in the GI tract will increase to twice its volume.
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Boyle's law
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This law explains the way in which ascent to altitude induces hypoxia.
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Dalton's law
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Has minimal physiological significance.
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Charles's law
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What is the main cause of inflight noise?
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The boundry layer of air rushing over the canopy and fuselage.
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Why are special alphabets and standard phrases used in aviation?
|
To make info transfer safer and less fatiguing.
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What special test is done on pilots who have mild hearing deficits?
|
An inflight test of hearing.
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What environmental stresses have the greatest influence on G intolerance?
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Heat and Dehydration
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Why do some aircrew members require special diet control?
|
To reduce the incidence of gas pains and improve crew effectiveness in high altitudes.
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Define desynchrony.
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A state in which a person's circulation rhythm is inconsistent w/ the local environmental cues.
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What causes desynchrony?
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Traveling to rapidly to permit immediate adjustment to the new environmental cues, usuallyby crossing 4 or more time zones.
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What is the most common cause of airsickness during pilot training?
|
Lack of adaptation
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What is the desired timeframe for treating combat stress?
|
24-72 hours
|
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What is usually the first emotional response to a combat or survival situation?
|
Disbelief or emotinal numbing
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What is hypoxia?
|
An oxygen deficency in the blood or tissue sufficent to impair normal body function.
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What is the most common type of hypoxia seen in aircrew members?
|
Hypoxic hypoxia
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Causes of Hypemic hypoxia.
|
Carbon monoxide
|
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Causes of Hypoxic hypoxia
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Cabin decompressurization
Oxygen equipment malfunction |
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Causes of Stagnant hypoxia
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Shock
G forces Heart failure |
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Causes of Histotoxic hypoxia
|
Drugs
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What is hyperventilation?
|
A condition in which the respiatory rate increases abnormally, resulting in an excessive loss of CO2
|
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A reversing of ou breathing cycle.
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Pressure breathing
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Voluntarily increasing the breathing rate.
|
Cerebral control
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Hyperventilation resulting in hypcapnia.
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Hypoxia
|
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Reduced oxygen tension in the lungs and blood.
|
Hypoxia
|
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Hypoxia treatments
|
-100% oxygen
-Descent to lower altitude -Positive pressure oxygen -Check/monitor oxygen equipment -Correct oxygen equipment malfunctions |
|
|
Hyperventilation treatments
|
Increased CO2 level
"Paper bag" method Reduce breathing rate |
|
|
Decompression sickness in flight depends on what factors?
|
-Altitude time at altitude.-Rate of asent.-Physical activity at altitude.-Age.-Body build.-Individual suseptibility.-Cabin pressurization and SCUBA diving before flying.
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What affect does rapid ascent have in regard to decompression sickness?
|
The more rapid the asent the sooner the symptoms appear.
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How does body fat affect an individuals tolerance for decompression sickness?
|
Pain associated w/ the bends is more severe and likelyhood greater as the proprotion of body fat increases.
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How does physical activity relate to decompression sickness?
|
Lowers the altitude or time thresholds for all manefestations particularly the bends
|
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At what altitude does the incidence of decompression sickness increase?
|
Above FL 250(25,000 ft)
|
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How many hours should someone wait to fly following diving activities?
|
24 hours
|
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What are the usual sites for pain associated with bends?
|
Shoulders, elbows, knees and ankles.
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|
State 3 factors that affect the degree of bends pain.
|
1.Exercise
2.Time @ altitude 3.Increased altitude |
|
|
State 2 methods of eliminating bends pain.
|
1.Increase the barometric pressure on the body.
2.Continue breathing 100% oxygen |
|
|
Where are the bubbles that cause chokes primarily located?
|
In the lungs
|
|
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What is the treatment for chokes inflight?
|
Immediate descent.
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How do you differentiate between chokes and false chokes?
|
Chokes presents a sharp pain under the sternum, false don't.
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List at least 4 symptoms fo neurological decompression sickness.
|
1.Disturbance of vision
2.Dull persistent headache 3.Inability to speak or hear 4.Disorientation |
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How would you differentiate between the numbness and tingling of hypoxia or hyperventilation and neurological decompression sickness?
|
With the first 2 both numbness and tingling always occur bilaterally in decompression sickness they occur unilaterally
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When can a diagnosis of vasomotor manifestation, rather than simple fainting, be confirmed?
|
If the pt doesn't recover within a few minutes after returning to ground leel and resting in a flat position
|
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Where are the bubbles that cause skin manifestation believed to be located?
|
Under the skin
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|
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What types of sensations are associated with skin manifestations?
|
Itching
Hot or cold feelings Tingling |
|
|
Why is mottling a dangerous sign?
|
It may precede neuro-circulatory collapse.
|
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What is denitrogenation?
|
Pre-breathing 100% oxygen before exposure to low barometric pressure.
|
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Aircraft flight altitude is restricted to what cabin pressure?
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FL 250 (25,000 ft) or less
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How has denitrogenation affected the incidence of decompression sickness in the altitude chamber?
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Reduced the incidence enormously
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What is the maximum flying altitude when transporting a pt suffering from DCS in a helicopter or other unpressurized aircraft?
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800-1,000 ft
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How long must someone suffering joint pain due to DCS be grounded?
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72 hrs following complete resolution of symptoms
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What does the term G Force mean?
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A measurement of the force imposed on the body resulting from linear, angular and radial acceleration.
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What G Force pushes the flyer into the seat?
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Positive
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What 3 areas in the body are affected by positive G forces?
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The body as a whole, the visera and the cardiovascular system.
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What G force produces from foot to head?
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Negative
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What G force may be characterized by a report of "red out"?
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Negative
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How is the anti-G straining maneuver performed?
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By vigorisly tensing the leg and arm muscles and the chest and abdominal muscles during the exiratory phase against a completely closed glottis.
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What causes the anti-G straining maneuver to be unreliable?
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It is very tiring ro maintain the effort
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