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167 Cards in this Set

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General Orders
1. I will guard everything within the limits of my post and quit my post only when properly relieved.

2. I will obey my special orders and perform all of my duties in a military manner.

3. I will report violations of my special orders, emergencies, and anything not covered in my instructions to the commander of the relief.
General Order number one.
I will guard everything within the limits of my post and quit my post only when properly relieved.
General Order number two.
I will obey my special orders and perform all of my duties in a military manner.
General order number three
I will report violations of my special orders, emergencies and anything not covered in my instructions to the commander of the relief.
NCO Support Channel
Squad Leader
Platoon Sergeant
First Sergeant
Hospital Command Sergeant Major
Brigade Command Sergeant Major
807th MCDS Command Sergeant Major
USAR Command Sergeant Major
Sergeant Major of the Army
Chain of Command
Company Commander
Hospital Commander
Brigade Commander
807th Commander
USAR Commander
Chief of Staff of the Army
Secretary of the Army
Secretary of Defense
President
What is Enhanced First Aid?
Enhanced first aid is administerd by the combat lifesaver. It inculdes measures which require and additional level of training above self-aid and buddy aid, such as the initation of intravenous (IV) fluids.
What is Medical evacuation?
Medical evacuation is the timely, efficient movement of the wounded, injured or ill service members from the battlefiled and other locations ot medical treatment facilites (MTFs). Medical personnel provide en route medical care during the evacation. Once the casuality has entered the medical stream thre rolde of first aid in the care of the casualty ceases and the casualty becomes the responsibility of the health service support chain (HSS). Once he has entered the HSS chain he is referred to as a patient.
What are the four locations to check the pulse on a patient?
Carotid (inside of neck)
Femoral (groin)
Radial (wrist)
Posterior Tibial (Ankle)
Define shock and give its adverse reactions.
Shock is inadequate blood flow to the vital tissues and organs. Shock that remains uncorrected may result in death even though the condition or situation causing shock is not otherwise fatal.
What causes shock?
Shock can result from many causes, such as loss of blood, loss of fluid from deep burns, pain, and reaction to the sight of a wound or blood.
What are basics of first aid?
Breathing, bleeding and Shock.
Breathing (in ref. to the basics of first aid)
Check for breathing: Lack of oxygen intake (through a compromised airway or inadequate breathing) can lead to brain damage or death in very few minutes.
Bleeding (in ref. to the basics of first aid)
Check for bleeding: life cannot continue without an adequate volume of blood to carry oxygen to tissues.
Shock (in ref. to the basics of first aid)
Check for shock: Unless shcok is prevented, first aid perforemd, and medical treatment provided, death may result even though the injury would not otherwise be fatal.
What are the eight steps to evaluating a casualty?
Check for:
Responsiveness.
Breathing.
Pulse.
Bleeding.
Shock.
Fractures.
Burns.
Possible head injury.
What should you do with a casualty lying on his chest?
The casualty lying on his chest (prone) needs to be cautiously rolled over as a single unit so that the body does not twist (which may further complicated a back, neck, or spinal injury) so that they may be properly evaluated.
What is the single most common cause of an airway obsturction?
The tongue is the single most common airway obstruction. In most cases, simply using the head-tilt/chin-lift technique can clear the airway.
What are the three steps in assessment of a casualty?
Check for responsiveness - "are you okay?"
Call for help.
Position the unconscious casualty so that he is lying on his back and on a firm surface.
What does the acronym SINCGARS stand for?
SINCGARS is the single-channel ground and airborne radio system.
What are the two modes in which SINCGARS operate?
The SINCGARS operate on either SC (single channel) or FH (frequency hopping) modes. It is compatible with all current US and multinational VHF (very high frequency) radios in the SC non-secure mode. They are compatible with other USAF, USMC, and USN SINCGARS in FH mode.
How many channels can a SINCGAR operate on?
A SINCGAR operates on any of 2.320 channels between 30-88 MHz, with channel seperations of 25 kilohertz. It is designed to operate in nuclear and hostile enviroments.
What are the steps in calling in a 9-line MEDEVAC?
LINE 1. Location of the pick-up site.
LINE 2. Radio frequency, call sign, and suffix.
LINE 3. Number of Patients by precedence
LINE 4. Special equipment required
LINE 5. Number of Patients
LINE 6. Security at pick-up site
LINE 7. Method of marking pick-up site
LINE 8. Patient nationality and status
LINE 9. NBC Contamination
Line one of a 9 Line MEDEVAC.
Location of the pick-up site.
Line two of a 9 line MEDEVAC
Radio frequency, call sign, and suffix
Line three of a 9 line MEDEVAC
Number of Patients by Precedence:
A - Urgent
B - Urgent Surgical
C - Priority
D - Routine
E - Convenience
Line four of a 9 line MEDEVAC
Special equipment required:
A- None
B- Hoist
C- Extraction Equipment
D- Ventilator
Line five of a 9 line MEDEVAC
Number of patients:
A - Litter
B - Ambulatory
Line six of a 9 line MEDEVAC
Security at the pick-up site
N- No enemy troops in the area
P - Possible enemy troops in the area (approach with caution)
E - Enemy troops in the area (approach with caution)
X - Enemy troops in the area (armed excort required)

***** In Peacetime numer and types of wounds, injuries, and illnesses
Line seven of a 9 line MEDEVAC
Method of marking pick-up site:
A - Panels
B - Pyrotechnic signal
C- Smoke signal
D - None
E - Other
Line eight of a 9 line MEDEVAC
Patient nationality and status:
A - US Military
B - US Civilian
C - Non-US Military
D - Non-US Civilian
E - EPW
Line nine of a 9 line MEDEVAC
NBC Contamination:
N - Nuclear
B - Biological
C - Chemical

** In peacetime - terrain description of pick-up site
What is the mathematical scale of a map?
A mathematical scale of a map is the ratio or fraction between the distance on a map and the correspoding distance on the surface of the earth. The map distance is the numerator and ground distance the denominator.
What are the three catagories that a map is classified into?
Maps are classified as small, mediume and large depending on their scale size.

small
medium
large
What are the different types of maps?
Planimetirc map
Topographic map
Photomap
Joint operations graphics
Photomosaic
Terrain Model
Military City Map
Special Maps
Describe a Plainmetric map
Plainmetric map - Presents only the horizontal position for the features represented, also known as a line map.
Define a Topographic map
Portrays terrain features ina measurable way, as well as the horizontal positions of the features represented
Describe a Photomap
Reproduction of an aerial photograph upon which grid lines, marginal data, place names, route numbers, important elevations, boundaries, and approximate scalre and directions have been added.
Describe Joint Operations Graphics
Joint operations graphics are based on the format of standard 1:250,000 medium-scale military topographic maps, but they contain additiona information needed in joint air-ground operations.
Describe a photomosaic map
A photomosaic map is an assembly of aerial photographs that is commonly called a mosaic in topographic usage.
Describe a Terrain Model map
A terrain model is a scale model of the terrain showing fatures, and in large-scale models showing industrial and cultural shapes.
Describe a military city map
A military city map is a tophographic map showing details of a city.
Describe special maps.
Special maps are for special purposes such as traficability, communications, and assualt maps.
Waht is the military principle for reading a map?
One must read a map from the right then move up.
What are conditions that can impact or affect your pace count?
Conditions that can affect a pace count include slopes, winds, terrain surface, elements (rain, snow, ect), clothing, and visibility.
What is resection?
Resection is the method of locating ones position on a map by determining the grid azimuth to at least two well-defined locations that can be pinpointed on the map. For greater accuracy, the desired method of resection would be to use three or more well-defined locations.
What is intersection?
Intersection is the location of an unknown point by successively occupying at least two (pereferably three) known positions on ground and then the map sighting on the unknown location. It is used to locate distant or inaccessible points or objects such as enemy targets and danger areas.
What are the two methods of intersection?
The two methods of intersection:
The map and compass method and
the straighedge method
What does JLIST stand for?
JLIST:
Joint Service Lightweight Integrated Suit Technology
What does MOPP stand for?
MOPP:
Mission Oriented Protective Posture
What does C.B.R.N stand for?
C.B.R.N.:
Chemical, Biological, Radiological and Nuclear
What are two primary componets of a marksmanship training strategy?
Initial training and sustainment training
The procedure in which firers use standard issue ammunition to align the sights with the weapons barrel. When this is accomplished correctly, the aim point and impact point are the same at a given range. What is this commonly known as?
Zeroing.
Waht is the main characteristic difference between the M16A2 and M16A3 rifles?
When operating an M16A2 Rifle, the firer can move the slector lever to fire a semiautomatic or a three- round burst. (safe, semi, burst)
The M16A3 has the same characteristics as the A2, with the exception of the selector lever and the additon of the automatic mode.(Safe, semi, Auto)
Describe battle sight zero
To battlesight zero an M16A2/A3 rifel, turn the elevation knob counterclockwise until the rear sight assemply rests flush with the carrying handle and the 8/3 marking is alinged with the index line on the left side of the carrying handle. Turn the elevation one more click clockwise. Position the apetures so the unmakred apeture is up and the 0-200 meter aperture is down. Turn the windage knob to align the index mark on the 0-200 meter aperture with the long center index line on the rear sight assembly.
A malfunction could be the result of about 8 items. Name them.
Excess accumulation of dirt or fouling in and around the bolt and bolt carrier.
Defective magazine (dented, bulged, or a weak magazine spring).
Improperly loaded magazine.
Defective round (projectile forced back into the cartridge case, which could result in a stubbed round, or the base of the previous cartridge could be separated, leaving the reaminder in the chamber)
Damaged or broken action spring
Exterior accumulation of dirt in the lower receiver extension
Fouled gas tube (resulting in short recoil)
A magazine resting on the ground or pushed forward (causing an improper lock)
What can usually correct a firing malfunction on a M16 rifle?
Immediate action
When a round has been chambered and the trigger has been pulled, and the sear has released the hammer but the cartridge fails to fire is the result of what?
The firing pin fails to strike the primer with enough force or the ammunition is defective.
When lack of time prevents completely destroying equipment, solders must destory the same essential parts on all like equipment. What are they and what order are they destroyed?
Bolt carrier group.
Upper reciever group.
Lower reciever group.
Using two soldiers of equal firing proficiency and experience to assist each other during marksmanship training is an example of what?
Peer coaching
What is double interval?
The lateral space between soldiers measured from right to left by raising both arms shoulder high with the fingers extended and joined (palms down) so that fingertips are touching the fingertips of the soldiers to the right and to the left.
What command is given to revoke a preparatory command?
As You Were.
Who is responsible for training and appearance of the color guard?
CSM
What is a guideon?
A guideon is a swallow-tailed flag carried by companies batteris, troops and certian detachments.
What are the three methods used to teach Drill?
Step-by-step
By-the-numbers
Talk-through method
What 4 movments in marching require a 15-inch tep?
Half-step, Left step, Right step, Backward March.
How many steps should seperate platoons when a company is formed?
5 steps.
Can a command be changed after the command of execution has been given?
No.
How far in front of the Honor company or color company do the colors halt?
Ten steps
Where does the CSM stand during the change of command ceremony?
Behind the colors.
Define Army physical rediness
The ability to meet the physical demands of any combat or duty position, accomplish the mission, and continue to fight and win.
What is the purpose of the PRT program?
To develop and maintain a high level of unit physical readiness appropriate to duty position and for the conduct of full spectrum operations.
What is the goal of PRT?
To develop soldiers who are physically capable and ready to perform their duty assignments or combat roles.

To improve each soldiers physical ability to survive, be resilient and win on the battlefield.
The PRT system consists of three training phases, name the three training phases in PRT.
Initial conditiong phase - Prepares future soldiers to learn and adapt to army PRT.

Thoughening phase - develop foundational fitness and fundamental movement skills that prepare soldiers to transition ot the sustaining phase.

Sustaining phase - develop a higer level of physical readiness required by duty position and/or C- or D-METL.
What is the objective of the reconditiong program in PRT?
To restore physcial fintess levels that enable soldiers to reenter the toughening or sustaining phase safely, and then progress to their previous levels of conditioning.
The PRT system incoporates three fundamental componest of PRT. Name the three fundamental componets of PRT?
Strength - the ability to overcome resistance.
Endurance - the ability to sustain activity.
Mobility - The functional application of strength and endurance.
Name the different strength and mobility drills and activites used in PRT
Conditioning Drill 1-3 (CD1, CD2, CD3)
Push-up and Sit-up drill (PSD)
Climbing drill 1-2 (CL1, CL2)
Strength Training Circut (STC)
Guerrilla Drill (GD)
Name the different Endruance and mobility activies used in PRT?
Running
Military movement drills 1 and 2
30:60's and 60:120s
300 yard shuttle run (SR)
Hill Repeats (HR)
Ability group run (AGR)
Unit formation run (UFR)
Release Run (RR)
Terrain Run (TR)
Foot March (FM)
Condition Obstacle Course (CDOC)
Endurance Training Machines (ETM)
The PRT system incoperates three types of training. Name the three types of training.
On-ground training
Off-ground training
Comabtives training
What is on-ground training in realtion to PRT?
On-ground training : activites in which soldiers maintain contact with the ground.

marching
speed running
sustained running
calisthentics and
resistance training
What is off-ground training in relation to PRT?
Off ground training:
Activies that take place off the ground briefly

Jumping and landing
High jumper
power jump and
verticals

OR activies that take place while suspended above ground for longer peroids

climbing bars,
navigation of high obstacles -
reverse climb
cargo net
pull-up
leg tuck.
What is combatives training in relation to PRT?
Combatives training:
Techniques that deter or defeat opponets uisng projectile (weapons) striking and/or close range (grappling).
Soldiers diagones as pregnant or who are recovering from childbirth are exempt from regular unit physical training and APFT for how long?
The duration of the pregnancy and 180 days past the end of their pregnacny.
PRT sessions consist of three elements. Name the three elements.
Preperation - warm-up consisting of ten exercises that appropriately prepare soldiers for more intense PRT activites.

Activites - address specific PRT goals in the areas of strength, endurance, and mobility.

Recovery - includes walking (after running activies) and the performance of the recovery drills at the end of all PRT sessions.
Name the ten preparation drills.
Bend and reach (4 count slow)
Rear lunge (4 count slow)
High jumper (4 count moderate)
Rower (4 count slow)
Squat bender (4 count slow)
Windmill (4 count slow)
Forward Lunge (4 count slow)
Prone row (4 count slow)
Bent-Leg-Twist (4 count slow)
Push-Up (4 count moderate)
Name the five recovery drills
Overhead arm pull (20-30 seconds)
Rear lunge (20-30 seconds)
Extend and flex (20-30 seconds)
Thigh Strech (20 -30 seconds)
Single-Leg Over (20-30 seconds)
What are the two types of commands used in PRT?
Preparatory commands
commands of execution
When exercises are performed, soldiers assume the proper starting position of each exercise on what command and are commanded to retun to what position from the terminating position of the exercise?
Starting position "MOVE"
Posistion of attention, "move"
When conducting the APFT, Soldiers are allowed a minimum and a maximum of how many minutes rest between events?
Minimum of 10
Maximum of 20
The army Physical Fitness test must be conducted within what time frame?
All three events must be completed within 2 hours.

The test peroid is defined as the period of time that elapses from the start to the finish of the three events (from the first push-up perfomed to the last Soldier crossing the finish line of the 2-mile run event)

Under no circumstances is the APFT valid if soldiers cannnot begin and end all three events in two hours.
Soldiers must attain a score of at least how many points on each event and an overall score of at least how many points to attain a pass?
60 pts per event
180 pts overall
What is the maximum score a soldier can attain on the APFT?
300 pts, the use of the extended scale IS NOT authorized.
The Army physical fitness test results will be recorded on what form?
DA Form 705
What personnel are included in Full Military Funeral Honors?
a 9 member team:
-6 pallbearers and/or firing party
-chaplin
-officer and/or NCO in charge
-a bugler (if available)

The team serves as pallbeares and the firing party, folds and presents the American flag to the next of kin, and plas taps., A member of the decedents parent military service will present the flag.
Enlisted members generally do not exchange salutes, what are some examples of when they would exchange salutes?
When rendering reports in formation
When reporting to an enlisted president of a board
When lowering the flag (retreat) the flag is folded (cocked hat) and treated as a cased color. Do persons meeting the flag detail salute the flag?
No.

Once the flag has been folded (cocked hat) it is treated as a cased color and not saluted by persons meeting the flag detail. The flag will be treated with the utmost dignity and respted but not be renderd any sort of honors.
At the last note of retreat what will happen?
A gun will be fired, (if available) on military installiatons, followed by the playing of the national anthem or sound of "ToTheColor" (using a drum and bugle corps, a bugler, or recorded music) concurrent with the lowering of the flag. The flag will be lowered to ensure completion at the last note of the music. The same respect will be observed by all military personnel whether the national anthem is played or "To the Color" is sounded.
What are the courtesies rendered by individuals during Retreat and to the color if they are in uniform and not in formation either with or without headgear?
At the first note of retreat, face the flag and stand at attention (if the flag is not in view, face the direction of the music).

At the first note of "To the Colors" if outdoors, render hand salute; if indoors hold the position of attention.
Who exits a military vehicle first?
The senior person, then in ascending order.
When do our soldiers recite the Pledge of Allegiance?
During military ceremonies, solider will not recite the pledge of allegiance.

At official functions, socical events, and sporting events, soldiers should --
- When in uniform, outdoors, stand at attention, remain silent, face the flag and render the hand salute.
-When in uniform indoors, stand at attention, remain silent and face the flag.
-When in civilain attire, stand at attention, face the flag with the right hand over the heart and recite the Pledge of Allegiance. Headgear should be removed with the right hand held over the left shoulder, the hand being over the heart.
What is the name of the offical song of the US Army, and when is it played?
"The Army Goes Rolling Along" The Army song concludes all reviews, prarades and honor guard ceremonies.

Individals wills stand at attention and sing the lyrics of the Army song when the Army song is played.
Can funeral honors be denied?
YES.
-Ordinarily, no funeral honors will be provided to a member absent without authority in excess of 30 days or for an individual declared a deserter at the time of death by a competent authority.
-Military honors at the funeral or burial of a person who has been convicted of a capital offense under Federal or State law for which the person was sentenced to death or life imprisionment without parole is prohibited (see 10 USC 985). Military funeral support of any kind may be withheld from an indicidual otherwise entitled to recieve such support who has been conviced of a serious offense.
-uenra honors shall not be provided to indviduals who at any time have been discharged or released from military service with any of the following:
(1) A dishonorable discharge.
(2) A bad conduct discharge.
(3) A dismissal awarded by court-martial.
(4) An under other than honorable conditons discharge.
When saluting who salutes first?
The junior person shall salute first.
What words should be exchange when rendering a salute as directed by the III Corps handbook?
Acoompanying the rendering of the hand salute with an appropirate greeting such as "Good Morning, Sir" or "Good Morning, Ma'am" is encouraged.

(III Corps handbook states the appropriate greeting is the unit motto)
When do you salute inside a building
-When reporing to your commander
-When reporting to a pay officer
-When reporting to a military board
-At an indoor ceremondy
-At sentry duty indoors
When do you salute officers in vehicles?
The practice of saluting officers in official vehicles (recognized individually by rank or identifiying vehilce plates and/or flags) is considered an appropriate courtesy and will be observed.

Salutes are not required to be rendered by or to personnel who are drivng or riding in privately owned vehicles, except by gate guards who will render salutes to recognized officers in all vehicles unless duties are of such a nature as to make the salute impratical.

When military personnel are acting as drivers of a moving vehicle, the should not initiate a salute.
Where are the DA saluting stations designated to return salutes of foreign cessels of war in the ports and territorial waters of the United States
Fort Lewis, Tacoma, WA 98433-9500

Fort Monroe, Hampton, VA 23651
What time is reveille and retreat played daily, and who determines those times.
Installation commaders will set the time of sounding reveille and retreat.
How many service members will be provided at a minimum to conduct funeral honors for a veteran?
Veterans will be provided at least two uniformed service members to perform the minimum mandatory funeral honors consisting of the ceremonial folding and presentation of the American flag and the playing of Taps.
At least one of the uniformed military representatives will be of the parent Service of the deceased veteran. They will participate at this ceremony and will present the flag to the family or other appropriate indicidual.

A bugler is preferred, either military or civilian. Bugler support may be contracted or voluntary. The command or activity responsible for providing Military Funeral Honors will ensure there is an active search for a bugler. If none is available, the designated pewrson responsible for the funeral honors may authorize the playing of a recoding of "Taps" and will ensure that a quality recording is available.
Name 7 of the 12 problem areas that are considered acceptable for Army Emergency Relife assistance:
a. Nonreciept of pay. (includes allowances and allotments)
b. Loss of funds. (Includes loss of pay or other funds.) Normally attributable to theft or not safeguarding funds.
c. Medical, dental, and hospital expenses.
d. Funeral expenses. Assistance is authorized for funeral expenses incurred for dependent family members.
e. Required travel expenses.
f. Rent
g. Food. Assistance may be provided for food and food stamps to prevent privation
h. utilities
i. POV
J. Clothing. Assistance for clothing is provided only when the clothing is needed for everyday living.
K. Fire or other disaster.
L. Privation.
When can soldiers, beyond their second term of enlistment, extend AER lona repayments beyond their ETS date?
-The individual states intent to reenlist without a break in service.
-The soliders unit commander indicates no current bar to reenlistment
-The allotment request will be processed as specified in other AER publications.
-The AER officer will set up procedures with the local FAO for notification if an allotment is being terminated before the loan is repaid.
-Prior to receiving AER assistance, solders pending separation, board action or within 6 months of ETS, must sign a completed DD form 139 for subsequent use if appropriate.
When will commanders process Soldiers for separation in accordance with the Army Substance Abuse Program?
-When a soldier is identified as an illegal drug abuser.
-When a soldier is involved with two serious incidents of alcohol-related misconduct within a 12-month peroid.
(a serious incident of alcohol-related misconduct is defined as any offense of a civil or military nature that is punishable under the UCMJ by confinement for a term exceeding one year).
-Involed in illegal trafficking, distribution, possesion with intent to distribute, or sale of illegal drugs.
-Tested positve for illegal drugs a second time during their career.
-Convicted of DWI or DUI a second time during their career.
There are nine purposes for ordeing urinalysis testing of soldiers.
a. Inspection
b. Search or seizure/probable cause (PO)
c. Compentence for duty (CO)
d. Rehabilitarion (RO)
e. Mishap or saftey inspection (AO)
f. Consent (VO)
g. Medical examination (MO)
h. New entrant (NO)
i. Other (OO). An inspection directed by HQDA for another authorized purpose.
Define rehabilitation failure.
Rehabilitation failure includes soldiers with subsequent alcohol or drug-related incident of misconduct at any time during the 12-month perodi following sucessfule completion of the ASAP or duing the 12-month peroid following removal from the program.
What are the five programs listed under the Functional Academic Skills Training (FAST) program?
-Basic Skills Education Program (BSEP).
-General Technical (GT) Improvement.
-General Education Development (GED) Test Preparation.
-Reading Skill Development.
-Preparation for College
When are Soldiers required to take the Testing of Adult Basic Education assessment?
Testing of Soldiers with a GT of 100 or below is mandatory within 30 days of reporting to first duty station.
Explain the GI to Jobs program.
GI to Jobs improves credentialing opportunities for Soldiers. Aimed at non-degree seeking Soldiers, this initiative offers expanded areas for Soldiers to earn civilian credentials related to their MOS.
Name the personnel eligible for ACS services.
-All active duty and retired military personnel and their Family members.
-Members of the Army National Guard (ARNG) and U.S. Army Reserve (USAR) when on active duty and during post deployment (not to exceed one year after deployment) and their Family members
-Army appropriated fund (APF) and non-appropriated fund (NAF) civilian employees, and their Family members.
-Family members of prisoners of war or personnel missing in action.
-Surviving Family members of military personnel who died while on active duty.
When should a Bar to Reenlistment be initiated?
The bar to reenlistment should be initiated prior to a separation or judicial/non-judicial action because it is intended to put the soldier on notice that --

--He or she is not a candidate for reenlistment.
--He or she may be a candidate for separation if the circumstances that led to the Bar to Reenlistment are not overcome. Soldiers will be advised exactly what is expected in order to overcome the Bar to Reenlistment and be given explicit timetables to overcome the reasons for the bar.
Provide 5 reasons a Soldier could be barred to reenlist.
-Lateness to formations, details, or assigned duties.
-AWOL for 1-to 24-hour periods
-Losses of clothing and equipment
-Substandard personal appearance/hygiene
-Continuous indebtedness, reluctance to repay, or late payments
-Article 15 (s)
-Frequent traffic violations
-An excessive number of sick calls without medical justification
-Lateness returning from pass or leave
-Cannot follow orders; shirks responsibilities; takes too much time; is recalcitrant
-Cannot train for a job; apathetic; disinterested.
-Cannot adapt to military life; is uncooperative; involved in frequent difficulties with fellow soldiers
-Failure to manage personal, marital, or family affairs. This includes failure to respond to duty requirements because of parenthood or custody of dependents
-Causes trouble in the civilian community
Provide 5 reasons a Soldier could be barred to reenlist (ctd.)
-Involvement in immoral acts
-Personal behavior brings discredit upon his unit or the Army
-Failure to achieve individual weapons qualification
-Failure to pass Army's Physical Fitness Test for record.
-Loss of qualification in PMOS when HRC-Alexandria (AHRC-EPR-F) has determined that reclassification is not appropriate because the soldier cannot be retrained into a new MOS.
-Non-competitive for promotion
What is the course of action of commanders will take following a second 3-month bar to reenlistment review disapproval?
Unit Commanders will initiate separation proceedings under AR 635-200 upon completion of the second 3-month review, unless a recommendation for removal is submitted and approval by proper authority.
What will sponsors develop with first-term Soldiers?
Sponsors of first-term Soldiers will develop a sense of responsibility for their fellow Soldiers in order to improve safety and reduce the likelihood and opportunity for sexual assault, misconduct, and suicide gestures/attempts during the Soldier's first year in the unit.
What Army regulation covers the wear and appearance of the military uniform?
AR 670-1
Why is the flag worn on the right shoulder of the utility uniform?
The flag is worn on the right shoulder to give the effect of the flag flying in the breeze as the wearer moves forward.
Why are all Soldiers in the U.S. Army now authorized to wear the Reverse-Side-Full-Color U.S. Flag Cloth Replica upon gaining permission form their commander?
The Nation is at war and will be for the foreseeable future. As an expeditionary Army, our Soldiers' commitment to fight and win our Nation's War, at home and abroad is best exemplified by permanently wearing the U.S. Flag insignia on the utility uniforms.
When is the only time that commercially designed protective headgear is authorized for wear with the uniform?
When operating motorcycles, bicycles or like vehicles but once the travel is complete protective headgear must be removed and army headgear donned.
When must Identification Tags be worn?
When directed by the commander, engaged in field training, in an aircraft, or OCONUS
What does "ECWCS" stand for?
Extended Cold Weather Clothing System
Exposed pens in pockets are allowed on which uniforms?
-Hospital duty uniform
-Food Service Uniforms
-Flight uniforms
-ACUs
How is the beret properly worn?
The beret is worn so that the headband (edge binding) is straight across the forehead, 1 inch above the eyebrows. The flash is positioned over the left eye, and the excess material is draped over to the right ear, extending to at least the top of the ear and no lower than the middle of the ear. Personnel will cut off the ends of the adjusting ribbon and secure the ribbon knot inside the edge binding at the back of the beret. When worn properly, the beret is formed to the shape of the head; therefore soldiers may not wear hairstyles that cause distortion of the beret.
Who is authorized to wear insignia of branch on the Patrol cap
Chaplin
When is the wear of Army uniforms prohibited?
-In connection with the furtherance of any political or commercial interest, or when engaged in off-duty civilian employment.
-When participating in public speeches, interviews, picket lines, marches, rallies, or public demonstrations, except as authorized by competent authority.
-When attending any meeting or event that is a function of, or is sponsored by, an extremist organization.
-When wearing the uniform would bring discredit upon the Army.
-When specifically prohibited by Army regulations
How will service ribbons be worn on the male Class A uniform?
The ribbons will be centered 1/8 inch above the left breast pocket. Ribbons will remain centered above the pocket even if the top ribbon row is offset.
How will service ribbons be worn on the female Class A uniform?
The ribbons centered on the left side, with the bottom row positioned parallel to the bottom edge of the nameplate. Females may adjust the placement of the ribbons to conform to individual body-shape differences.
Where are unit awards won on the male Class A uniform?
Emblems with or without frames are worn centered with the bottom edge of the emblem 1/8 above the right breast pocket flag.
Where are unit awards worn on the female Class A uniform?
Emblems with or without frames are worn centered on the right side of the uniform, with the bottom edge 1/2 inch above the top edge of the nameplate.
What are the dimensions of the dress uniform nameplate?
1 x 3 x 1/16 of an inch
How are marksmanship badges worn on the male Class A uniform.
Marksmanship badges are worn on the upper portion of the left breast pocket flap, or on the lower portion of the pocket flap, if special skill badges are worn.
How are marksmanships badges worn on the female Class A uniform?
Marksmanship badges are worn on the left side, 1/4 inch below the bottom ribbon row, or in a similar location if ribbons are not worn. Personnel may adjust the placement of badges to conform to individual body-shape differences.
Which direction does the belt tab on the army belt extend to on the male class A uniform?
The wearers left.
Which direction does the belt tab on the army belt extend to on the female Class A uniform?
The wearers right
How many marksmanship badges are authorized for wear at one time on the class A Uniform
No more than 3.
What is the maximum number of clasps that can be attached to each marksmanship badge?
No more than 3.
How are service ribbons worn on the male Class A uniform
The ribbons centered 1/8 inch above the left breast pocket. Ribbon mounts will remain centered above the pocket even if the top row is offset.
How are service ribbons worn on the female Class A uniform?
The ribbons centered on the left side, with the bottom row positioned parallel to the bottom edge of the nameplate. Females may adjust the placement of ribbons to conform to individual body-shape differences.
How is the Regimental Distinctive Insignia (RDI) worn on the male Class A uniforms?
The RDI centered 1/8 inch above the top of the pocket flap, or 1/4 inch above any unit awards or foreign badges that are worn. When the coat lapel obscures the insignia, soldiers may wear the RDI aligned to the right edge of unit awards or the nameplate.
How is the Regimental Distinctive Insignia (RDI) worn on the female Class A uniform?
The RDI centered 1/2 inch above the nameplate, or 1/4 inch above any unit awards or foreign badges that are worn. When the coat lapel obscures the RDI, soldiers may wear the RDI aligned to the right edge of unit awards or the nameplate.
How are service stripes placed on the Class A uniform?
The service stripes are worn centered on the outside bottom half of the left sleeve on the Army green uniform coat. The service stripe is placed at an angle of 45 degrees with the lower end toward the inside seam of the sleeve, and it is placed 4 inches from the bottom of the sleeve. For each additional period of 3 years honorable service, , another service stripe is added above and parallel to the first stripe, with a 1/16 - inch space between stripes.
As a "rite of passage" when a Soldier progresses in rank and enters the NCO corps, what is added to the Army Blue Service Uniform.
The trousers will have a gold stripe added and the wear of the beret will be replaced with a Service Cap.
When the ACU trouser leg is bloused, what is the maximum distance that it may extend down the boot?
The bloused trouser legs should not extend below the third eyelet from the top of the boot
What are the components of the IPFU?
-Jacket, running; grey and black
-Pants, running; black
-Trunks, running; black, moisture-wicking
-T-shirt, gray, short-sleeve/long-sleeve
-Cap
Does a person have to accept an article 15?
No, he or she has the right to demand a trial by court martial.
What kid of extra duty is an NCO given by an article 15?
Supervisory duty only, except when the only one on extra duty
What is UCMJ?
Uniform code of military Justice (the statute that prescribes criminal law for soldiers)
How many articles are there in the UCMJ?
There are 146 articles in the UCMJ. There are also sub-articles which total 12, nested within the UCMJ such as the following example:
Article 106 deals with "Spies", but Article 106a deals with "Espionage". It would be more accurate to state a total of 158 Articles in the UCMJ (The 146 Articles + 12 sub-articles = 158)
When was the UCMJ enacted?
1950, Congress enacted the UCMJ, which was based upon and replaced the Articles of War, which had been around in various forms since 1775
Who may impose an article 15?
Any commanding officer, including a warrant officer exercising command
What does the UCMJ establish?
It declares what conduct is a crime, establishes the various types of courts and sets forth the basic procedures to be followed in the administration of military justice.
What are the three classifications of Article 15s?
Summarized
Company Grade
Field Grade
What form is used to record Summarized Article 15 proceedings?
DA Form 2627-1
What are articles 77 through 134 of UCMJ known as?
Punitive Articles
What are three types of Court Martial?
Summary
Special
General
What are the maximum punishments that company commanders may impose?
- 14 days extra duty
-14 days restriction
-7 days correctional custody (E3 and below)
-7 days forfeiture of pay
-1 Grade reduction for E4 and below
-Oral or written letter of reprimand
Who is the highest military court?
The court of military appeals
Under what article is non-judicial punishment imposed?
Article 15
There are three major categories of development counseling, what are they?
Event oriented counseling
Performance counseling
Professional growth counseling