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208 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What is the Joint Force concept?
a. Force composed of assigned or attached, to two or more military departments operating under a singlejoint force commander. b, Force composed of significant elements, assigned or attached, to two or more military departments operating under a single joint force commander. c. Force composed of significant elements, assigned or attached, to two or more military departments operating under several joint force commanders. d. Force composed of significant elements, to two or more military departments operating under a single joint force commander, |
b, Force composed of significant elements, assigned or attached, to two or more military departments operating under a single joint force
commander. |
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All of the following are basic instruments of national power except:
a. Strategic. b. Diplomatic. c. Economic. d, lnfomrational. |
a. Strategic.
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What are the four basic instruments of power?
a. Political, Diplomatic, Military, Force b. Air, Land, Sea, Policy c. Military, Political, lntemational Law, Policies d. Diplomatic, economic, informational, and military |
d. Diplomatic, economic, informational, and military
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Describe Joint Operations Planning and Execution Segments (JOPES)
a. ls the DOD-directed single, integrated joint command and control (C2) system for conventional operation planning and execution (to include theater level nuclear and chemical plans), It includes policies, procedures, reporting structures, and personnel supported by the command, control , communications, computers and intelligence (C4l) systems and used by the joint community to conduct joint planning during peace and crisis b. ls a standalone system used solely by the Air Force to conduct operational planning during peace and crisis c. ls the DOD-directed multiple integrated joint control system for normal operation planning and execution (not to include theater level nuclear and chemical plans), lt includes policies, procedures, reporting structures, and personnel supported by the command, control , communications, computers and intelligence (C4l) systems and used by the joint community to conduct joint planning during peace .u and crisis d. ls the DOD-directed command and control (C2) system for conventional operation planning and execution. lt does not includes policies, procedures, reporting structures, and personnel supported by the command, control , communications, computers and . intelligence (C4l) systems and used by the joint community to conduct joint planning during peace and crisis |
a. ls the DOD-directed single, integrated joint command and control (C2) system for conventional operation planning and execution (to
include theater level nuclear and chemical plans), It includes policies, procedures, reporting structures, and personnel supported by the command, control , communications, computers and intelligence (C4l) systems and used by the joint community to conduct joint planning during peace and crisis |
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American military power plays a vital role in all ofthe following except:
a. Peace. b. Politics. c. Crisis. d. Conflict. |
b. Politics.
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During what times does the American military power play a vital role?
a, During peace time only b. During crisis only c. In peace, crisis, and conflict d. In peace and conflict only |
c. In peace, crisis, and conflict
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Joint operations planning is conducted within the chain of command that runs from the president through the:
a. Vice President. b. Chief of Staff c. Secretary of Defense. d. Chief Master Sergeant of the Air Force. |
c. Secretary of Defense.
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All of the following are examples of planning activities that support the development of operations plans, concept plans, functional plans, and operation orders except:
a. Sustainment. b. Employment. c. Mobilization. d. Reconstitution. |
d. Reconstitution.
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The Air National Guard is administered by what agency?
a. The parent/servicing MAJCOM b. The National Guard Bureau, a joint bureau of the departments of the Army and Air Force c, The State Department d. The Air National Guard Bureau, bureau of the Departments ofthe Air Force |
b. The National Guard Bureau, a joint bureau of the departments of the Army and Air Force
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What does the term "second community" mean in regards to the reserves?
a. Many resewist who live within the state develop a sense of "second community" within their unit b. Many reservists who live in outlying areas or other states develop a sense if "second community" over the period they serve in their unit because they spend a good portion of their lives there c. Many reservists who live in outlying areas or other states develop a sense if "second community" over the period they serve in their unit because they spend a no portion of their lives there d. “Second community" refers to were a reservists service all portions or their lives |
b. Many reservists who live in outlying areas or other states develop a sense if "second community" over the period they serve in their
unit because they spend a good portion of their lives there |
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The total force is represented by
a. Guard and Reserves. b. Active duty, Guard, and Reserves. c. Active duty Air Force and active duty Navy. d. Active duty Air Force and active duty Army. |
b. Active duty, Guard, and Reserves.
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The Air National Guard uses what symbol to symbolize their great pride in their militia heritage?
a. The Minuteman symbol to stand for their great pride in their militia heritage b. The Minuteman shield showing great pride in their traditions c. The Fl6 Fighter Jet showing their strength and honor d. The A—l0 Warhog indicating their air superiority |
a. The Minuteman symbol to stand for their great pride in their militia heritage
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The Air National Guard is a very important component
of the total force in: a. Defensive and relief operations. b. Offensive and defensive operations. c. Offensive, defensive, and relief operations. d. Offensive, defensive, and world operations. |
c. Offensive, defensive, and relief operations.
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Friendships and sense of teamwork that develop over time provide what two things?
a. Increased morale and esprit—de-corps b. Stability and increased morale c. Stability and esprit-de-corps to the unit d. Unit strength and stability |
c. Stability and esprit-de-corps to the unit
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Most Air National Guard flying units can trace their lineage back to the:
a. 1900s and 10s. b. 1910s and 20s. . c. 1920s and 30s. d. 1039s and 40s. |
c. 1920s and 30s.
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16. (202) The Reserves bring what three things to the military environment from their civilian employment?
a. Manpower, people, and camaraderie. b. Citizen Airmen, community connections, and personnel stability. e. Family, personnel stability, and community connections. d. Talent, depth, and experience. |
d. Talent, depth, and experience.
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What is the seventh duty of the personnel craftsman?
a. Perform Personnel Accountability b. Perform Customer Support c. Perform CSS Support d. Perform personnel support for contingency operations (PERSCO) |
d. Perform personnel support for contingency operations (PERSCO)
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All of the following are wartime responsibilities of the personnel craftsman except:
a. Personnel briefings. b. Personnel reporting. c. Personnel accountability. d. Preparation for movement. |
a. Personnel briefings
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How many responsibilities fall under the seventh duty?
a. Four b. Five c. Six d. Seven |
b. Five
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Which activity is responsible for maintaining accurate strength data on personnel resources?
a. Personnel reporting. b. Personnel accountability. c. Force sustainment. d. Personal support |
b. Personnel accountability.
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What is the most important responsibility that falls under the seventh duty?
a. Personnel accountability b. Customer Support c. Commander Support Staff (CSS) d. PERSCO |
a. Personnel accountability
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What is the name of the document that reflects all the positions for a TDY location'?
a. Personnel support for contingency operations document. b. Employed requirements manning document. c. Deployed requirements manning document. d. Red cross manning document. |
c. Deployed requirements manning document.
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Why is it important to take care of your mental health?
a. A member who is mentally healthy will perform better to take care of the mission b. A mentally healthy individual will be able to take care of themselves, their family, and the mission c. A member who is happy and healthy in mind, body, and spirit will be able to do a betterjob taking care ofthe mission d. A member who is mentally healthy will perfomi with increased energy and make better decisions |
c. A member who is happy and healthy in mind, body, and spirit will be able to do a betterjob taking care ofthe mission
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lf a member’s legal, fiscal, morale, and informational needs are not being met, what responsibility is the personnelist not fulfilling?
a. Physical health. b. Spiritual health. c. Mental health. d. Personal support. |
d. Personal support.
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What is the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) concept?
a. A four-month cycle for sustainment scheduling b. A four-month sustainment and a six-month enabling cycle c. Schedule for 4 and 6 month sustainment, enabling, and training cycle d. How the Air Porce organizes, trains, equips, and sustains itself by creating a mindset and cultural state that embraces the unique characteristics of aerospace power |
d. How the Air Porce organizes, trains, equips, and sustains itself by creating a mindset and cultural state that embraces the unique characteristics of aerospace power
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In order to meet the national security challenges of the 21" century the air and space expeditionary force concept was designed to do all
of the following except a. Organize b. Train c. Equip d. Manage |
d. Manage
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ln an effort to work the Air Porce assignment with the AEF rhythm, what will commanders pay particular attention to in regards to
members leaving their units? a. Normal training is approximately 12 months, preparation is approximately 6 months, and the on-call or deployment period is approximately 6 months b. Normal training is approximately 14 months, preparation is approximately 2 months, and the on-call or deployment period is approximately 4 months c. Normal training is approximately 12 months, preparation is approximately 2 months, and the on-call or deployment period is approximately 4 months ’ d. Normal training is approximately 14 months, preparation is approximately 6 months, and the on-call or deployment period is approximately 6 months |
b. Normal training is approximately 14 months, preparation is approximately 2 months, and the on-call or deployment period is
approximately 4 months |
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What are the 2 fundamental principles of the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) concept?
a. A to meet national commitments through a structured approach which enhances Total Force readiness and sustainment. b. To provide trained and ready aerospace forces for national defense. c. Both A & B. d. Neither A or B. |
c. Both A & B.
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The Air Force organized its total force into how many air and space expeditionary forces?
a. 10. b. 15. c. 20. d. 25. |
a. 10.
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Where can we get additional air and space expeditionary forces (AEF) to employ'?
a. By reaching forward to respond to crisis and contingency requirements b. Air Reserve Component c. The Air National Guard Bureau d. None of the above |
a. By reaching forward to respond to crisis and contingency requirements
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The goal of the Air and Space Expeditionary Porce (AEF) concept is to
a. Win the war. b. Place capable personnel in the area of responsibility. c. Equitably align available Air Force UTCs across 10 AEPs so each possesses equal capabilities. d. Equitably align available Air Force UTCs across 5 AEFS so each possesses equal capabilities. |
c. Equitably align available Air Force UTCs across 10 AEPs so each possesses equal capabilities.
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The 20-month air and space expeditionary force (AEF) cycle includes periods of normal training, preparation, and on—call or
deployment eligibility. How long is each period? a. Normal training is approximately l2 months, preparation is approximately 3 months, and the on-call or deployment period is approximately 4 months. b. Normal training is approximately 14 months, preparation is approximately 2 months, and the on-call or deployment period is approximately 4 months. c. Normal training is approximately 11 months, preparation is approximately 4 months, and the on-call or deployment period is approximately 4 months. d. Normal training is approximately 15 months, preparation is approximately l month, and the on-call or deployment period is approximately 4 months. |
b. Normal training is approximately 14 months, preparation is approximately 2 months, and the on-call or deployment period is
approximately 4 months. |
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Where the Air and Space Expeditionary Task Force is responsible for sustaining all base operating and support functions, it will
normally organize as an: a. Air and space expeditionary squadron. b. Air and space expeditionary group. c. Numbered expeditionary air force. d. Air and expeditionary wing. |
d. Air and expeditionary wing
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Which group in the air and space expeditionary force construct may be formed to conduct missions that do not involve flying operations?
a. Air and space expeditionary group. b. Expeditionary combat support. c. Unit type codes. d. Command and control |
a. Air and space expeditionary group.
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What detennines what AEF association you are assigned to?
a. Airmen are assigned to unit personnel manning roster (UPMR) authorizations and the UPMR authorizations are postured in UTCs. These UTCs are aligned in one ofthe AEF or Enabler libraries. b. Airmen are assigned to SORTS and the authorizations are postured in UTCs. These UTCs are aligned in one of the AEF or Enabler libraries. c. The unit commander. d. Airmen are assigned to unit manpower document (UMD) authorizations and the UMD authorizations are postured in UTCs. These UTCs are aligned in one ofthe AEF or Enabler libraries. |
d. Airmen are assigned to unit manpower document (UMD) authorizations and the UMD authorizations are postured in UTCs. These
UTCs are aligned in one ofthe AEF or Enabler libraries. |
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Once an Airman arrives at a base, they are required to report to the:
a. Security forces squadron. b, Medical treatment facility. c. Military personnel section/military personnel flight. d. Unit deployment manager |
c. Military personnel section/military personnel flight.
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What are the 2 reasons why an Airman’s AEF alignment can change?
a. Both B & C. b. lf an Airman is reassigned to another base, permanent change of station (PCS), the Airman should be assigned to the base’s AEF that allows the most time before deploying. c. HQ USAF may direct an AEF realignment between AEF cycles. d. Neither B or C. |
a. Both B & C.
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Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) alignment is documented in the military personnel data system and each Airman is issued a/an
a. Deployment documents package. b. lnprocessing package. c. Set of dog tags. d. AEF identification card. |
d. AEF identification card.
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Once the MAJCOM/CV waives a request for an Ainnan who wishes to deploy outside of their normal AEF association, where is the approved waiver filed?
a. On file in the IPR ofhce b. On file in the member’s UPRG c. On file in the unit d. On file in the member’s office desk |
c. On file in the unit
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The Air and Space Expeditionary Force construct was designed where Airmen should not have to deploy more than once every
a. 20 months. b. 25 months. c. 30 months. d. 35 months. |
a. 20 months.
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What is a unit type code?
a. Shows training and requirement b. A unit’s typical break down c. A requirement identifying a unit’s training needs d. Depicts a force capability with personnel and/or equipment requirements |
d. Depicts a force capability with personnel and/or equipment requirements
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What is the basic building block used in force planning and the deployment of air and space expeditionary task forces?
a. Time phased force deployment data. b. Deliberate crisis action planning and execution segments. c. Unit type code. d. Air and space expeditionary force mapping documents. |
c. Unit type code.
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Define the 7 different types of UTCs?
a. Non-deployable, deployable, available to deploy, ready to deploy, in-place requirement, employed at home station, deployed within assigned theater only b. Go, no go, deployable only within the CONUS, in-place requirement, deployed within assigned theater only, no filled requirement, employed at home station c. There are not 7 different UTCs d. All UTC fall within the same requirement of deployable |
a. Non-deployable, deployable, available to deploy, ready to deploy, in-place requirement, employed at home station, deployed within assigned theater only
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ln order to provide trained and ready air and space forces to meet national commitments through a structured approach that enhances
Total Force readiness and sustainment, how did the Air Force structure its Total Forces? a. Into 6 AEFs (3 AEF pairs) and 2 enabler Forces. b. Into 10 AEFs (5 AEF pairs) and 1 enabler Force. c. Into 8 AEF s (4 AEF pairs) and 1 enabler Forces. d. Into 4 AEFs (2 AEF pairs) and 1 enabler Force. |
b. Into 10 AEFs (5 AEF pairs) and 1 enabler Force.
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Planners use unit type codes to document total funded manpower and fund logistics requirements needed to support the
a. Deliberate crisis action planning and execution segments. b. National military strategy during contingency. c. National military strategy during contingency and crisis action. d. National military strategy during contingency, crisis action, and rotational planning. |
d. National military strategy during contingency, crisis action, and rotational planning.
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The AEF library data is currently resident in which two locations? ·.
a. War and Mobilization Plan (WMP)-3 Part 2 Air Force-Wide UTC Availability System (AFWUS) and the Joint Operations Planning and Execution Segments (JOPES). b. War and Mobilization Plan (WMP)-3 Part 1 Air Force-Wide UTC Availability System (AFWUS) and the Joint Operations Planning . and Execution Segments (JOPES). c. War and Mobilization Plan (WMP)-3 Part 5 Air Force-Wide UTC Availability System (AFWUS) and the Joint Operations Planning and Execution Segments (JOPES). d. War and Mobilization Plan (WMP)-3 Part l Air Force-Wide UTC Availability System (AFWUS) |
a. War and Mobilization Plan (WMP)-3 Part 2 Air Force-Wide UTC Availability System (AFWUS) and the Joint Operations Planning
and Execution Segments (JOPES). |
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The Air Force has organized its total force into 10 air and space expeditionary forces and
a. One enabler force. b. Two enabler forces. c. Three enabler forces. d. Four enabler forces. |
a. One enabler force.
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Deviations to the Air and Space Expeditionary Force construct may be implemented on a ease-by-case basis with whose approval?
a. Air and Space Expeditionary Center. b. Chief of Staff c. President of the United States. d. Secretary of Defense. |
b. Chief of Staff
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Describe partial mobilization
a. The Active Armed Forces may be expanded as a result of the action by Congress or by the President (not more than 1,000,000 for not more than 24 consecutive months) to mobilize ready Reserve component units, individual Reservists, and the resources needed for their support to meet the requirements of a war or other national emergency involving an external threat to the national security b. The Active Armed Forces may be expanded as a result of the action by Congress or by the President (not more than 2,000,000 for not more than 12 consecutive months) to mobilize ready Reserve component units, individual Reservists, and the resources needed for their suppon to meet the requirements of a war or other national emergency involving an external threat to the national security c. The Active Armed Forces may be expanded as a result of the action by Congress or by the Security of the Air Force (not more than 1,000,000 for not more than 24 consecutive months) to mobilize ready Reserve component units, individual Reservists, and the resources needed for their support to meet the requirements of a war or other national emergency involving an external threat to the national security d. The Active Armed Forces may be expanded as a result of the action by the Congress or bythe Security of the Air Force (not more than 1,000,000 for not more than 12 consecutive months) to mobilize ready Reserve component units, individual Reservists, and the resources needed for their support to meet the requirements of a war or other national emergency involving an external threat to the national security |
a. The Active Armed Forces may be expanded as a result of the action by Congress or by the President (not more than 1,000,000 for not more than 24 consecutive months) to mobilize ready Reserve component units, individual Reservists, and the resources needed for
their support to meet the requirements of a war or other national emergency involving an external threat to the national security |
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Describe full mobilization?
a. The Active Armed Forces may be expanded as a result of action by only Congress to mobilize all Reserve component units and individuals in the existing approved force structure, as well as all retired military personnel, and the resources needed for their support to meet the requirements of a war or other national emergency involving an external threat to the national security, Reserve personnel can be placed on active duty for the duration of the emergency plus three months b. The Active Armed Forces may be expanded as a result of action by Congress and the President to mobilize all Reserve component units and individuals in the existing approved force structure, as well as all retired military personnel, and the resources needed for their support to meet the requirements of a war or other national emergency involving an extemal threat to the national security, Reserve personnel can be placed on active duty for the duration of the emergency plus six months c. The Active Armed Forces may be expanded as a result of action by only the President to mobilize all Guard component units and individuals in the existing approved force structure, as well as all retired military personnel, and the resources needed for their support to meet the requirements of a war or other national emergency involving an external threat to the national security, Reserve personnel can be placed on active duty for the duration of the emergency plus six months d. The Active Armed Forces may be expanded as a result of action by the Secretary of Defense s to mobilize all Reserve component units and individuals in the existing approved force structure, as well as all retired military personnel, and the resources needed for their support to meet the requirements of a war or other national emergency involving an external threat to the national security, Reserve personnel can be placed on active duty for the duration of the emergency plus six months |
b. The Active Armed Forces may be expanded as a result of action by Congress and the President to mobilize all Reserve component
units and individuals in the existing approved force structure, as well as all retired military personnel, and the resources needed for their support to meet the requirements of a war or other national emergency involving an extemal threat to the national security, Reserve personnel can be placed on active duty for the duration of the emergency plus six months |
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According to Joint Pub 1-02, DOD Dictionary of Military and Associated Terms, mobilization is defined as what?
a. Neither C or D. b. Both C & D. c. The act of assembling and organizing national resources to support national objectives in time of war or other emergencies. d. The process by which the Armed Forces or part of them are brought to a state of readiness for war or other national emergency. |
b. Both C & D.
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The concept of mobilization is associated with "calling up" Reserve component forces. What does "calling up" do to the active duty’s military capability?
a. Decreases military capability b. Military capability stays the same c. Increases military capability d. Enhances the number of Reserve component forces |
c. Increases military capability
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The concept of mobilization can be associated with all activities necessary for the orderly transition of both active and Reserve component forces from
a. Peacetime to partial mobilization. b. Peacetime to full mobilization. c. Peacetime to reconstitution. d. Peacetime to wartime posture. |
d. Peacetime to wartime posture.
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If the President or Congress would expand the active armed forces not to exceed 1,000,000 forces for not more than 24 consecutive months, they would elect what type of mobilization?
a. Partial. b. Full. c. Incremental. d. Reserve. |
a. Partial.
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Title 10 United States Code (Title 10 U.S.C) most often used the term mobilization as it applies to what types of mobilization?
a. Partial and full mobilization. b. Full or total mobilization. c. Partial and/or total mobilization. d. Partial, full, or total mobilization. |
d. Partial, full, or total mobilization.
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lf a planner needed to review a directive that contained general policies and guidance conceming mobilization planning and the support of combatant commands in time of war, which directive would that be?
a. War and Mobilization Plan Volume 3 (WMP-3) Part l. b. War and Mobilization Plan Volume I (WMP-I). c. War and Mobilization Plan Volume 3 (WMP-3) Part 2. d. Deliberate crisis action planning and execution segment. |
b. War and Mobilization Plan Volume I (WMP-I)
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lf a war planner needs to document total Air Force manpower and logistics requirementsrneeded to support the national military
strategy during operational planning and execution activities, what will they use? a. Deliberate crisis action planning and execution segment. b. Time-phased force deployment data. c. Unit type code. d. Operations order. |
c. Unit type code.
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All of the following are mobilization principles, except
a. Having an objective. b. Maintaining unity of effort. c. Being flexible. d. Securing resources. |
d. Securing resources.
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Deactivation processing for unit assigned Air National Guard and Reserves personnel is done by which agency?
a. By the Guard and Reserves Military Personnel Flight. b. By the Reserves Military Personnel Flight. c. By the Guard Military Personnel Flight. d. By the servicing AD Military Personnel Flight. |
a. By the Guard and Reserves Military Personnel Flight.
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In regards to special orders and travel vouchers, deactivation or demobilization is documented by using the
a. Deactivation date authorized by the secretary of the Air Force and the DD Form 214. b. Demobilization date authorized by the applicable MAICOM on the DD Form 214 and the paid travel voucher. c. Demobilization date authorized by the applicable commander and the paid travel voucher. d. Date paid on the travel voucher. |
b. Demobilization date authorized by the applicable MAICOM on the DD Form 214 and the paid travel voucher.
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Upon payment of a travel voucher, the FSO Travel Pay Section will provide a legible copy ofthe voucher and all supporting documentation to military pay for what reason?
a. For entitlement verification only. b. For posting only. c. For entitlement verification and posting. d. None of the above. |
c. For entitlement verification and posting.
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If activated personnel experience personal, financial, or medical hardship caused by mobilization, early deactivation, or demobilization, what action can they take?
a. Nothing, they have no options. b. Request to remain on active duty until they reach 18 years of service. c. Request retention on active duty. d. Request to remain on active duty for no more than 20 years of service. |
c. Request retention on active duty.
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Members with approved hardship cases may be retained on active duty for what period of time?
a. A period up to the original activation period or beyond. b. A period up to but not to exceed the original activation period. c. A period less than the original activation period. d. A period up to the original activation period or more as needed. |
b. A period up to but not to exceed the original activation period.
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When a member is interested in requesting retention on active duty for hardship reasons, the application process must be submitted at least how many days before the established deactivation or demobilization date?
a. 1 b. 5 c. 10 d. 15 |
d. 15
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What are the MPF’s responsibilities if a member is interested in submitting a hardship package?
a. Conduct an initial interview and review the member’s package. b. Request a report individual person and forward the application within 3 duty days. c. Update the personnel data system and properly distribute forms. d. All of the above. |
d. All of the above.
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Once the military processing flight receives the hardship package, reviews the package, and requests a report individual person, how
many days to they have to forward the package to the appropriate agency? a. Three duty days. b. Three days. c. Five duty days. d. Five days. |
a. Three duty days.
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How are military personnel appropriation (MPA) man-days funded?
a. Out of the military personnel appropriation account and active duty account. b. Through the congress. c. Through the Reserve funds. d. Out of the Fiscal Year-end fall out money. |
a. Out of the military personnel appropriation account and active duty account.
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Days that are allocated, or put aside, for use by Air Force Reserve and Air National Guard officers, noncommissioned officers, and Airmen are commonly referred to as
a. Reserve man-days. b. Military personnel appropriation man-days. c. Guard man-days. d. Noncommissioned officers man-days. |
a. Reserve man-days.
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Air Reserve component members on a man-day tour will comply with the dress and appearance standards of the
a. Air Reserve technician force. b. Air National Guard Force. c. Reservist force. d. Active force. |
d. Active force.
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Do man-day tours longer than 30 consecutive days accrue leave? Ifso, how much?
a. Yes; 2.5 days per month b. No c. Yes; 2 days per month d. Yes; but only limited to 15 days per year |
a. Yes; 2.5 days per month
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Man—day tours usually include how many travel days?
a. One·day maximum. b. One·day minimum. c. Two-day maximum. d. Two-day minimum. |
a. One·day maximum
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What is total force accountability?
a. The accountability of equipment and personnel b. The total recall of personnel for accountability c. The force accounting of all AF, Army, USMC, and Navy d. The accurate accounting for all Air Force personnel at all times regardless of location |
d. The accurate accounting for all Air Force personnel at all times regardless of location
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During natural disasters or national emergencies, the ability to quickly assess the status of Air Force Airmen, Department of the Air Force, nonappropriated funds civilians, and families is critical to resuming normal
a. Operations. b. Accountability. c. Response time. d. Awareness. |
a. Operations.
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Wherever and whenever possible, personnel accountability procedures should follow what two things?
a. Daily reporting requirement and the chain of command. b. The chain of command and mirror normal day-to-day reporting procedures. c. After action reports and total force accountability. d. Reporting and recording. |
b. The chain of command and mirror normal day-to-day reporting procedures.
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Whose responsibility is it to ensure an up-to-date unit recall roster is maintained and forwarded to the installation command post?
a. The personnel readiness function. b. The command post. c. Each individual member. d. The commander. |
d. The commander.
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What type of system can a commander use to make sure the individual members are aware of accountability requirements?
a. The recall roster. b. Phone calls. c. The recall system. d. Command post notification. |
c. The recall system.
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All of the following day-to-day readiness responsibilities listed below belong to the personnel readiness function except
a. Planning. b. Installation deployment plan overview. c. Manpower personnel base level systems. d. Accountability. |
b. Installation deployment plan overview.
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Who does the PRF work closely with to ensure the base’s installation deployment plan covers all aspects of processing and accounting for moving forces?
a. Installation deployment officer. b. The Operations officer. c. The Wing commander. d. The MPF. |
a. Installation deployment officer.
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Once the PRF concludes the PERSCO training, what documentation should be completed?
a. Training Summary b. Documentation ofthe training c. Sign-in sheet(s) d. Document each member’s CFETP |
d. Document each member’s CFETP
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During a national crisis or natural disaster, what will the PRF hand out to their assigned base units?
a. During a national crisis or natural disaster, the PRF will hand out to their assigned base units an overall baseline product provided by Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center! Personnel Readiness Center (HQ AFPC/PRC), listing the names, social security numbers and address information of all military branches and civilian personnel who are assigned to, or who live within the projected area of concern b. During a national crisis or natural disaster, the PRF will hand out to their assigned base units an overall baseline product provided by Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center listing only social security numbers and address information of Air Force military and civilian personnel who are assigned to, or who live within the projected area of concern c. During a national crisis or natural disaster, the PRF will hand out to their assigned base units an overall baseline product provided by PSM, listing the names, social security numbers and address information of Air Force military and civilian personnel who are assigned to, or who live within the projected area of concem d. During a national crisis or natural disaster, the PRF will hand out to their assigned base units an overall baseline product provided by Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center! Personnel Readiness Center (HQ AFPC/PRC), listing the names, social security numbers and address information of Air Force military and civilian personnel who are assigned to, or who live within the projected area of concern |
d. During a national crisis or natural disaster, the PRF will hand out to their assigned base units an overall baseline product provided by Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center! Personnel Readiness Center (HQ AFPC/PRC), listing the names, social security numbers and address information of Air Force military and civilian personnel who are assigned to, or who live within the projected area of concern
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The personnel readiness function provides all of the following personnel support for contingency operations (PERSCO) team training except:
a. Developing training templates for manpower personnel base-level operations. b. Providing PERSCO team chief with all information concerning plans, exercises, base support plans, and deployments. c. Training the PERSCO teams, personnel readiness center, and the personnel deployment function personnel to operate the MANPER-B operating system, d. Training on the reclama/shortfall process. |
d. Training on the reclama/shortfall process.
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What are the four day-to-day responsibilities of the PRF?
a. The four day-to-day readiness responsibilities of the PRF are 1) planning, 2) MANPER-B systems, 3) accountability, and 4) deployment processing b. The four day-to-day readiness responsibilities of the PRF are 1) planning, 2) accountability, 3) deployment processing, and 4) post deployment processing c. The four day-to-day readiness responsibilities of the PRF are 1) planning, 2) tasking, 3) deployment processing, and 4) post deployment processing d. The four day-to-day readiness responsibilities of the PRF are 1) Initial, 2) secondary, 3) deployment processing, and 4) post deployment processing .. |
a. The four day-to-day readiness responsibilities of the PRF are 1) planning, 2) MANPER-B systems, 3) accountability, and 4)
deployment processing |
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Once the PRF checks to see the MANPER-B system is operational, what should they do concerning the software?
a. Ensure the software is registered. b. Ensure all of the software on the system is the most current software. c. Ensure the software is checked for virus, d. None of the above. |
b. Ensure all of the software on the system is the most current software.
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ln order to determine if the manpower personnel base-level operations is working a real-world deployment or an exercise, what should the personnel readiness function do?
a. Hook up, plug in, and turn on the personnel system. b. Call Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center/Readiness section. c. Call the personnel support for contingency operations team chief d. Request the military personnel section commander verify if it’s real world or an exercise. |
a. Hook up, plug in, and turn on the personnel system.
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What seven things does the UCC do to ensure proper accountability?
a. 1.) Have a plan to quickly transfer accountability rosters and evacuation spreadsheets 2.) Receive baseline data from their servicing MPS and validate accuracy and use as a tool for their personnel accountability 3.) Properly account for family members 4.) Collect and complete accountability data from all ofthe assigned flights 5.) Consolidate rosters of those individuals on leave, on a pass or TDY 6.) Continue to report accountability until 100 percent of their personnel are accounted for 7.) lf UCC stands down prior to return of all personnel, and their families, the UCC will ensure all current information is properly transferred over to the person/office responsible for tracking all evacuees are designated by the unit commander b. 1.) Have a plan to transfer accountability rosters and evacuation spreadsheets 2.) Receive baseline data from any MPS and validate accuracy and use as a tool for their personnel accountability 3.) Properly account for members 4.) Collect and complete accountability data from all of the assigned flights 5.) Consolidate rosters of those individuals on leave, on a pass or TDY 6.) Continue to report accountability until 100 percent of their personnel are accounted for 7.) If UCC stands down prior to return of all personnel, and their families, the UCC will ensure all current information is properly transferred over to the person/office responsible for tracking all evacuees are designated by the unit commander c. 1.) Have a plan to transfer accountability rosters 2.) Receive baseline data from their servicing MPS and use as a tool for their personnel accountability 3.) Properly account for family members 4.) Collect accountability data from all of the assigned flights 5.)Consolidate rosters of those individuals on leave, on a pass or TDY 6.) Continue to report accountability until 75 percent of their personnel are accounted for 7.) If UCC stands down prior to retum of all personnel, and their families, the UCC will ensure all current information is properly transferred over to the person/office responsible for tracking all evacuees are designated by the unit commander d. 1.) Have a plan to quickly transfer accountability rosters and evacuation spreadsheets 2.) Receive baseline data from their servicing MPS and validate accuracy and use as a tool for their personnel accountability 3.) Properly account for family members 4.) Collect and complete accountability data from all of the assigned flights 5.) Consolidate rosters of those individuals on leave, on a pass or TDY 6.) Continue to report accountability until 100 percent of their personnel are accounted for 7.) lf UCC stands down prior to retum of all personnel, and their families, the UCC will ensure all current information is properly transferred over to the person/office responsible for tracking all evacuees are designated by the wing commander |
a. 1.) Have a plan to quickly transfer accountability rosters and evacuation spreadsheets 2.) Receive baseline data from their servicing MPS and validate accuracy and use as a tool for their personnel accountability 3.) Properly account for family members 4.) Collect and complete accountability data from all ofthe assigned flights 5.) Consolidate rosters of those individuals on leave, on a pass or TDY 6.) Continue to report accountability until 100 percent of their personnel are accounted for 7.) lf UCC stands down prior to
return of all personnel, and their families, the UCC will ensure all current information is properly transferred over to the person/office responsible for tracking all evacuees are designated by the unit commander |
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Who serves as the focal point for scheduling and documenting all initial or recurring ancillary deployment training and classified courier training for PT members?
a. Member’s supervisor. b. The Installation Deployment Officer (IDO). c. The Installation Personnel Readiness office. d. Force Support Squadron (FSS) unit deployment manager. |
d. Force Support Squadron (FSS) unit deployment manager.
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Personnel from what organization are eligible for assignment to the personnel support for contingency operations team?
a. Force Support Squadron. b. Military Personnel Section. c. Deployed Logistics Section. d. Services Squadron. |
a. Force Support Squadron.
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PERSCO team members will be trained to what level?
a. Go/No-Go level. b. Ready. c. Not ready. d. Upgrade training. |
a. Go/No-Go level.
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During an increased readiness posture, personnel support for contingency operations team members must be able to arrive at their assigned military personnel section within the timeliness outlined in the
a. Time phased force deployment data. b. Designed operation capability response team. c. Employments manning requirements document. · d. Air Force Instruction 10-215, PERSCO Operations. |
b. Designed operation capability response team.
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How often should in-house training sessions be conducted?
a. Bi-monthly. b. Once a year. c. Monthly. d. Every six months. |
c. Monthly.
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What is the symbol for the Office of the Deputy Chief of Staff for Manpower and Personnel?
a, AF/A3 b. AF/A1Z c. AF/A1 d. HQ AFPC |
c. AF/Al1
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Which office is responsible for providing administrative support to DCS/A1 by managing workflow and tracking correspondence, administering and monitoring security and safety programs, managing personnel programs and maintaining unit level records?
a. AF/Al b. AF/A1Z c. HQ AFPC d. HQ USAF |
b, AF/A1Z
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How many subordinate offices does the AF/Al have?
a. One b. Five c. Three d. Six |
d. Six
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What specific programs and policies is AF/A1D responsible for?
a. Commander’s Support Program, Compensation Policies, Community Support Programs, Airman Development, Academic Development and Skills Development Programs Assignment and Classification Policy, and Officer Development and Commissioning Programs in support of the United States Air Force Academy, and the Air Force Officer’s Accession and Training Schools b. Officer Development and Commissioning Programs in support of the United States Air Force Academy, and the Air Force Officer’s Accession and Training Schools c. Commander’s Support Program, Compensation Policies, Community Support Programs, Airman Development, Academic Development and Skills Development Programs Assignment and Classification Policy, and Officer Development and Commissioning Programs in support of the United States Air Force Academy d. Commander’s Support Program, Compensation Policies, Community Support Programs, Airman Development, Academic Development and Skills Development Programs Assignment and Classification Policy, and Officer Development and Commissioning Programs in support of the United States Air Force, and the Air Force Officer’s Accession and Training Schools |
a. Commander’s Support Program, Compensation Policies, Community Support Programs, Airman Development, Academic Development and Skills Development Programs Assignment and Classification Policy, and Officer Development and Commissioning Programs in support of the United States Air Force Academy, and the Air Force Officer’s Accession and Training Schools
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Which subordinate unit is responsible for providing independent analytical support directly to AF/A1 on all issues affecting Air Force
members and their families? a. AF/A1 D b. AF/AIP c. AF/AIX d. AF/A1I |
d. AF/A1I
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AF/Al utilizes the Directorate of Force Management Policy, AF/AIP, to communicate all of the following except
a. Developing objectives b. Performing analysis c. Developing force management policies d. Developing programs that help commanders meet their Airman’s needs |
d. Developing programs that help commanders meet their Airman’s needs
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What specific programs and policies is AF/AIP responsible for?
a. Total Service Management (enlisted, and officer), polices for Military Promotions/Evaluations, Officer Management, Readiness Operations, Contingency and Mobilization Plans, and Readiness Management and Retraining Policy, and Training to include Education b. Total Force Management (civilian, enlisted, and officer) and special programs, policies for Retirement/Separations and Military Promotions/Evaluations, Rated-Officer Management, Readiness Operations, Contingency and Mobilization Plans, and Readiness Systems and Analysis, Civilian Personnel Policies and Process Designs, Skills Management and Retraining Policy, and Training and Education Resources and Requirements Management |
b. Total Force Management (civilian, enlisted, and officer) and special programs, policies for Retirement/Separations and Military Promotions/Evaluations, Rated-Officer Management, Readiness Operations, Contingency and Mobilization Plans, and Readiness Systems and Analysis, Civilian Personnel Policies and Process Designs, Skills Management and Retraining Policy, and Training and Education Resources and
Requirements Management |
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What is the office symbol for the issues team?
a. AF/A1l b. HQ AFPC c. AF/Al d, USAF/A1I |
a. AF/A1l
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Which office serves as the program manager for AF/A1 infomation technology (IT) planning, programming, and development?
a. AF/AID b. AF/AIM c. AF/AlP d. AF/AIX |
d. AF/AIX
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What is the office symbol for Execute Services?
a. USAF/A1Z b. AF/AlZ c. AF/A1S d. AF/SG |
b. AF/AlZ
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Which office defines the culture of Airmen, including core standards and values and expectations?
a. AF/AID b. AF/All. c. AF/A1 P. d. AF/A1X. |
a. AF/AID
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Which agency is directly above the MAJCOM?
a. Headquarters Air Force b. Numbered Air Force c. Air Force Personnel Center d. Department of Defense |
a. Headquarters Air Force
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As of December 2000, how many MA.lCOMs are there?
a. 8. b. 9. c. 10. d. 11. |
b. 9
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Which agency is directly below the MAJCOM?
a. Mission Support Group b. Headquarters Air Force c. Numbered Air Force d. Commander Support Staff |
c. Numbered Air Force
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Who does the MAJCOM act as the functional OPR for?
a. Mission Support Group b. Base-level MPF/MPSs and CSSs c. Air Force Contact Center d. Air Force Reserve Component |
b. Base-level MPF/MPSs and CSSs
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How does the MAJCOM monitor the effectiveness of the MPF/MPS and CSS programs?
a. Through periodic staff assistance visits b. Through Unit Climate Assessments c. Through Operational Readiness Inspections d. Through Self-inspection checklist |
a. Through periodic staff assistance visits
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How many MAJCOMs are there, including provisional MAJCOMs?
a. There are 7 MAJCOMS and 5 provisional MAJCOM b. There are 9 MAJCOMs and 3 provisional MAJCOM c. There are 9 MAJCOMs and 1 provisional MAJCOM d. There are 5 MAJCOMs and 5 provisional MAJCOM |
c. There are 9 MAJCOMs and 1 provisional MAJCOM
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Where is HQ AFPC located?
a. Sheppard AFB, TX b. Whiteman AFB, MO c. Randolph AFB, TX d. Tyndall AFB, FL |
c. Randolph AFB, TX
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Which directorate is responsible for execution ofthe AEF?
a. HQ AFPC b. Directorate of Staff c. Directorate of Air and Space Expeditionary Force Operations d. Directorate of Force Operations |
c. Directorate of Air and Space Expeditionary Force Operations
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Which field operating agency (FOA) is responsible for determining requirements in order to execute wartime and home—station capabilities supporting Air Force Concepts of Operations (CONOPS)?
a. Air Force Manpower Agency (AFMA). b. Air Force Personnel Operations Agency (AFPOA). c. Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC). d. Headquarters Air Force Military Personnel Center (HQ AFMPC). |
a. Air Force Manpower Agency (AFMA).
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What is the mission of HQ AFPC?
a. HQ AFPC integrates and executes personnel operations through accountability and field assessments b. HQ AFPC is responsible for ensuring MAJCOMs take care of their base level personnel to include dependents c. HQ AFPC mission is to fly, fight and win d. HQ AFPC integrates and executes personnel operations to develop Air Force people and meet field commander’s requirements |
d. HQ AFPC integrates and executes personnel operations to develop Air Force people and meet field commander’s requirements
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HQ AFPC integrates and executes personnel operations to develop Air Force people and
a. Meet field commander requirements. b. Execute wartime and home station capabilities. c. Design, develop, and test personnel processes. d. Ensure AF/A1’s strategic goals are effectively aligned. |
a. Meet field commander requirements.
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HQ AFPC was formed during the consolidation of which 2 centers?
a. The Air Force Military Personnel Center and the Air Force Civilian Personnel Management Center b. Militaiy Personnel Flight and Services c. Military Personnel Center, the Base Exchange and the Post Office d. None of the above |
a. The Air Force Military Personnel Center and the Air Force Civilian Personnel Management Center
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When HQ AFPC needs to communicate with the rest of the AF, how many directorates do they have to choose from?
a. 3. b. 5. c. 7. d. 9. |
c. 7.
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How many personnel work at HQ AFPC?
a. 2,200 b. 2,100 c. 25 d. 1,000 |
a. 2,200
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When AF/Al is looking for the field operating agency (POA) that measures and manages the outcome of improves service delivery and efficient investment in human capital through an effective performance management system, they contact
a. Air Force Manpower Agency (AFMA). b. Air Force Personnel Operations Agency (AFPOA). c. Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC). d. Headquarters Air Force Military Personnel Center (HQ AFMPC). |
b. Air Force Personnel Operations Agency (AFPOA).
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How many directorates make up HQ AFPC?
a. 3 b. 7 c. 21 d. 9 |
b. 7
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When Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC) requires help with updating new unit type codes (UTC) and posturing, which directorate assists?
a. Assignments. b. Personnel Data Systems. c. Civilian Force Integration. d. Air and Space Expeditionary Force Operations. |
d. Air and Space Expeditionary Force Operations.
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Which directorate is responsible for managing the assignments and facilitating the professional development of all enlisted members
and officers below the grade of colonel, with the exception of chief master sergeants and members of the staff judge advocate? a. Directorate of Plans and Operations b. Directorate of Civilian Personnel c. Directorate of Assignments and Facilities d. Directorate of Assignments |
d. Directorate of Assignments
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When Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC) requires help to facilitate the professional development of all enlisted
members and officers below the grade of colonel, which directorate assists? a. Assignments. b. Personnel Data Systems. c. Civilian Force Integration. d. Air and Space Expeditionary Force Operations. |
a. Assignments.
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Which directorate is the information technology focal point for AFPC and provides life cycle management and sustainment of personnel data and records management systems for active duty military?
a. Directorate of Personnel Data Systems b. Directorate of Technology c. Directorate of Assignments d. Directorate of Staff |
a. Directorate of Personnel Data Systems
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For assistance with recruiting and training interns to provide future Air Force leaders, the Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC) contacts the directorate of
a. Assignments. b. Personnel Data Systems. c. Civilian Force Integration. d. Air and Space Expeditionary Force Operations. |
c. Civilian Force Integration.
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Which directorate manages the infrastructure resources of the center: budget and financial, manpower, civilian training and personnel
programs security, safety, facilities and civil engineering? a. Directorate of Training b. Directorate of Staff c. Directorate of Personnel Programs dr Directorate of Personnel Data Systems |
b. Directorate of Staff
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Which directorate assists Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC) with developing guidance, procedures and training for active duty, Guard, Reserve and civilian personnel accountability?
a. Assignments. b. Force Operations. c. Personnel Data Systems. d. Personnel Services. |
b. Force Operations.
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When Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC) requires help with information technology, which directorate assists?\
a. Force Operations. b. Personnel Data Systems. c. Personnel Services. d. Staff. |
b. Personnel Data Systems.
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Where is the AEFC located?
a. Hickam AFB, HI b. Osan ABS, Korea c. Lackland, AFB TX d. Randolph AFB, TX |
d. Randolph AFB, TX
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The Air and Space Expeditionary Center (AEFC) is a direct reporting unit (DRU) assigned under
a. The wing commander (Wing CC). b. A numbered Air Force (NAF). c. Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC). d. Headquarters Air Force (HAF). |
c. Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC).
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Is the AEFC a DRU, FOA, or MAJCOM?
a. Field Operating Agency (FOA). b. Manor Command (MAICOM). c. Direct Reporting Unit (DRU). d. None of the above. |
c. Direct Reporting Unit (DRU
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Why did the Air and Space Expeditionary Force Center (AEFC) move from Langley AFB, Virginia to Randolph AFB, TX?
a. There was no longer enough room at Langley AFB, Virginia for the AEFC. b. The Headquarters Air Combat Command Commander (COMACC) requested the move. c. The Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center Commander (HQ AFPC/CC) requested the move. d. To bring two centers together in order to focus on operationalizing personnel by merging permanent authorizations, wartime requirements, and assignments under a single commander. |
d. To bring two centers together in order to focus on operationalizing personnel by merging permanent authorizations, wartime requirements, and assignments under a single commander.
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What is the AEFC responsible for?
a. Executing personnel programs to the base populace during peace and wartime b. Executing the AF battle rhythm by centrally managing the scheduling and sourcing of forces to meet combatant commander requirements c. Integrating combatant commander requests with base commander requests d. Executing the AF battle rhythm with personnel readiness operations |
b. Executing the AF battle rhythm by centrally managing the scheduling and sourcing of forces to meet combatant commander requirements
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Where is the AFRC located?
a. Robins AFB, Georgia b. Shaw AFB, SC c. Nellis AFB, NV d. Scott AFB, IL |
a. Robins AFB, Georgia
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Air Force Reserve Command’s (AFRC) mission is to provide citizen Airmen to defend the US and protect its interests through
a. The Air National Guard bureau. b. The governor of the respective state. c. Robins Air Force Base, Georgia. d. Air and space power. |
d. Air and space power.
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What is the mission ofthe AFRC'?
a. To provide global support at home and abroad during peace and wartime b. To supplement the home station while active forces are deployed c. To provide citizen Airmen to defend the US and protect its interests through air and space power d. To provide citizen Airmen to defend the Nation and protect its interests through air and space power |
c. To provide citizen Airmen to defend the US and protect its interests through air and space power
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How many officer and enlisted personnel, who serve 37 flying wings, does Air Force Reserve Command (AFRC) have?
a. 54,000. b. 64,000. c. 74,000. d. 84,000. |
c. 74,000.
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The Air Force Reserve Command’s (AFRC) vision is
a. Citizen Airmen fully engaged in global vigilance, reach, and power. b. Citizen officers fully engaged in global vigilance, reach, and power. c. Citizen enlisted fully engaged in global vigilance, reach, and power. d. Citizen Air Force reservists engaged in global vigilance, reach, and power. |
a. Citizen Airmen fully engaged in global vigilance, reach, and power
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How many aircraft does the Air Force Reserve Command (AF RC) have assigned to it?
a. 400. b. 440. c. 480. d. 520. |
b. 440.
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Which office administers the ANG?
a. The AF Reserve Component b. The National Reserve Bureau c. Headquarters National Guard Bureau d. The National Guard Bureau |
d. The National Guard Bureau
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ln August 2005, Hurricane Katrina, one of the most devastating hurricanes of all time, hit the Louisiana/Mississippi Gulf Coast. Which
agency was activated to help with this natural disaster? a. Air National Guard (ANG) Bureau. b. Chief of Staff of the Air Force (CSAF). c. Headquarters Air Force Reserve Command (HQ AFRC). d. Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC). |
a. Air National Guard (ANG) Bureau.
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How many missions does the ANG have?
a. Four b. Two c. Seven d. One |
b. Two
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During peacetime, the Air National Guard’s (ANG) combat-ready units and support units are assigned to most Air Force MAJCOMs to
carry out missions compatible with a. Training, mobilization readiness, and contingency operations. b. Wing authorizations. c. Their flying mission. d. Their dependent populace. |
a. Training, mobilization readiness, and contingency operations.
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What are the names of the missions of the ANG?
a. Federal and base mission b. National and state mission c. Federal and state mission d. None of the above |
c. Federal and state mission
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When Air National Guard (ANG) units are not mobilized or under federal control, they report to the
a. President. b. Vice president. c. Governor. d. Mayor. |
c. Governor.
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How many personnel work for the ANG?
a. 108,000 ofncer and enlisted b. 200 enlisted c. 2,200 enlisted and officer d. 108 officer and enlisted |
a. 108,000 ofncer and enlisted
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What does AFSC stand for?
a. Air Force Standards of Conduct b. Armed Forces State Code c. Air Forces Secret Code d. Air Force Specialty code |
d. Air Force Specialty code
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If you were providing guidance to an enlisted retraining customer and the customer asked about the duties and responsibilities of a specific Air Force specialty code (AFSC), what reference would you refer to?
a. Personnel Services Delivery (PSD) Handbook. b. Air Force Ofhcer Classification Directory (AFOCD). c. Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory (AFECD). d. Base—Level Service Delivery Model (BLSDM) Handbook. |
c. Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory (AFECD).
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What AFI, chapter, and table explains the AFSC breakdown?
a. AFI 36-2110, Chapter l, Tale 1.1. b. AFI 36-2101, Chapter 1, Table 1.1. c. AFPAM 36-2102, Chapter 1, Table 1.1. d. AFI 34-2110, Chapter 1, Table 1.1. |
b. AFI 36-2101, Chapter 1, Table 1.1.
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The duties and responsibilities of the craftsman and the superintendent include all of the following except
a. Advise civilians on civilian personnel issues and programs. b. Create, maintain, and audit personnel records. c. Perform personnel actions. d. Provide casualty assistance. |
a. Advise civilians on civilian personnel issues and programs.
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What does the first position of an AFSC stand for?
a. Career Group (numerical) b. Specialty Code c. Career Field Subdivision d. None of the above |
a. Career Group (numerical)
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You have just been notified that you will be working as a master sergeant (MSgt) superintendent (9-level) over a section, and you will supervise two technical sergeants (TSgt) craftsmen and four staff sergeant (SSgt) craftsmen. What reference will tell you how their duties and responsibilities differ?
a. Personnel Services Delivery (PSD) Handbook. b. Air Force Officer Classification Directory (AF OCD). c. Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory (AFECD). d. Base Level Service Delivery Model (BLSDM) Handbook. |
c. Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory (AFECD).
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What number represents the craftsman skill level?
a. 5 b. 3 c. 7 d. 9 |
c. 7
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What does the second position ofan AFSC stand for'?
a. Skill level b. Career Field Subdivision (alpha) c. Career Group (numerical) d. Age Group |
b. Career Field Subdivision (alpha)
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What does the third position of an AFSC stand for?
a. Career Field Subdivision (alpha) b. Career Group (numerical) c. Grade d. Career Field Subdivision (numeric) |
d. Career Field Subdivision (numeric)
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What does the fourth position of an AF SC stand for?
a. Skill level b. Career Group c. Position Number d. Career Field Subdivision (omega) |
a. Skill level
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What number represents the superintendent skill level?
a. 7 b. 9 c. 5 d. 3 |
b. 9
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The duties of the superintendent include all of the following except:
a. Advise officers and Airmen on military personnel issues and programs. b. Create, maintain, and audit personnel records. e. Perform dormitory checks. d. Provide casualty assistance. |
e. Perform dormitory checks.
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Master sergeants function primarily in what capacity?
a. Technician, joumeyman, supervisory b. Superintendent, expert, supervisory, and higher headquarters capacities c. Superintendent, craftsman, supervisory, and management capacities d. Technician, craftsman, supervisory, and management capacities |
c. Superintendent, craftsman, supervisory, and management capacities
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The wide scope of work activities and functions that the superintendent is responsible for include all of the following except
a. Plan. b. Control. c. Coordinate. d. Implement. |
b. Control.
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What is the strategy of the AF OJ T training program?
a. To develop, manage, and execute training programs providing realistic and flexible training producing highly skilled, motivated force capable of carrying out all tasks and functions in support of the AF mission b. To provide a basis for all Air Force specialties, specifically tailored to each AFSC and grade c. To train individuals to become trainers since the military is constantly downsizing, in order to maintain a ready force d. None of the above |
a. To develop, manage, and execute training programs providing realistic and flexible training producing highly skilled, motivated force capable of carrying out all tasks and functions in support of the AF mission
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Why is it important to document interruptions to upgrade training, such as leave or TDY, in the 623 a?
a. So the Unit Training Manager (UTM) can reference the dates. b. So the Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) can reference the dates. c. If the trainee is having difficulty with upgrade training, the CFETP may become obsolete. ‘ d. lf the trainee is having difficulty with upgrade training, the documentation can be referenced. |
d. lf the trainee is having difficulty with upgrade training, the documentation can be referenced.
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Who is responsible to advise and assist Airmen to reach long-range career objectives?
a. Peers b. Additional Rater c. Commander d. The supervisor |
d. The supervisor
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If a trainee completes the mandatory CDCs, are signed off on all core tasks identified in their CF ETP and other duty position tasks
identified by the supervisor, have completed a minimum of 15 months in upgrade training (UGT), and they have been recommended by their supervisor and approved by their commander, this trainee is working towards which level of upgrade training (UGT)? a. Helper. b. Apprentice. c. Joumeyman. d. Superintendent. |
c. Joumeyman.
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What are the different training components?
a. Skill development, experience, and hands-on training b. Job knowledge, proficiency, and experience c. Job knowledge and experience d. Job knowledge, skill development and experience |
b. Job knowledge, proficiency, and experience
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What are the different skill levels?
a. Apprentice, craftsman and guru b. Apprentice, journeyman, and craftsman c. Apprentice, joumeyman, craftsman, and superintendent d. Apprentice, joumeyman, craftsman, and manager |
c. Apprentice, joumeyman, craftsman, and superintendent
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List three things the trainee is responsible for
a. Actively participate in all opportunities for upgrade and qualification training. Comprehend the applicable CFETP requirements and career path. Request assistance from the supervisor, trainer, and UTM when having difficulty with any part of the training b. Assistance Supervisors with training. Establish career path for further advancement. Maintain appropriate skill level within the assigned duty c. Actively participate in all opportunities for upgrade and qualification training. Do not maintain knowledge, qualifications, certifications, and appropriate skill level within the assigned specialty. Request assistance from the supervisor, trainer, and UTM when having difficulty with any part of the training d. Budget on- and off-duty time finish incomplete tasks, only for CDC ’s and self-study training requirements, within established time limits. Comprehend all CFETP’s requirements and all career paths. Seek out upgrade training opportunities for home station requirements. |
a. Actively participate in all opportunities for upgrade and qualification training. Comprehend the applicable CFETP requirements and
career path. Request assistance from the supervisor, trainer, and UTM when having difficulty with any part of the training |
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When do you conduct and document an initial evaluation of active duty trainee qualifications?
a. 60 days b. 30 days c. 45 days d. 15 days |
a. 60 days
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All of the following are the trainee’s responsibilities in the upgrade training process, except
a. Develop a Master Training Plan (MTP). b. Budget on- and off-duty time to complete assigned training tasks. c. Comprehend the applicable CFETP requirements and career path. d. Acknowledge and document task qualification upon completion of training. |
a. Develop a Master Training Plan (MTP).
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Within how many days of an active duty trainee’s initial assignment should a supervisor conduct and document an initial evaluation of
trainee qualifications: a. 15 b. 30 c. 60 d. 30 |
c. 60
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What does the success of quality of trainee training greatly depend upon?
a. The trainee and their study habits b. The relationship between you, the trainer, and the trainee c. Luck and knowledge of Air Force Instructions d. None of the above |
b. The relationship between you, the trainer, and the trainee
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ln what references can you find information pertaining to the proper protection and safeguarding of classified material?
a. DOD 5200. 1-R and AFI 31-401 b. DOD 5201. 1-R and AFI 31-402 c. DOD 5200 1-R and AFPAM 31-401 d. DOD 520 1-R and AFI 31-401 |
a. DOD 5200. 1-R and AFI 31-401
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When granting an individual access to classified information why is it important to use the SF 312, Classified Information
Nondisclosure Agreement (NdA)? a. To ensure all necessary access steps have been completed. b. To ensure the DOD sends the proper form to Holloman AFM, NM. c. To ensure you include this form as part ofthe Field Record Group. d. To ensure that you have a source document signed and dated by the individual that reflects the date when the attestation was completed. |
d. To ensure that you have a source document signed and dated by the individual that reflects the date when the attestation was completed.
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What is the AF’s policy on protecting and safeguarding classified material?
a. Promptly dispose of classified material no longer needed by ripping and placing pieces in separate waste baskets b. To identify, classify, downgrade, declassify, mark, protect, and destroy its classified infomation and mater consistent with base policy c. To identify, classify, downgrade, declassify, mark, protect, and destroy its classified infomtation and material consistent with national policy d. The Air Force doesn’t have a policy |
c. To identify, classify, downgrade, declassify, mark, protect, and destroy its classified infomtation and material consistent with national
policy |
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When confirming a person’s level of access to classified information, why is it imperative to complete the four-step process?
a. Because each step is an intricate piece ofthe “checks and balance" process. b. You will be unable to process the request, and therefore, the person will not get access. c. Because if you do not complete the four-step process, you will be unable to process the request. d. You will be unable to process the request, the person will not get access, and then you will have to start the process over. |
a. Because each step is an intricate piece ofthe “checks and balance" process.
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What is a nondisclosure agreement (NdA) and what is it used for?
a. A NdA is a SF IS 312, Classified information Nondisclosure Agreement (NdA). It is used for giving individuals access to classified information when required for mission-essential needs b. The NdA is the Air Force policy on speaking to the press c. A NdA is a AF FM 312, Classified information Nondisclosure Agreement (NdA). lt is used for giving individuals access to classified information when required for mission-essential needs d. A NdA is a SF 312, Classified lnformation Nondisclosure Agreement (NdA). lt is used for giving individuals access to classified information when required for mission-essential needs |
d. A NdA is a SF 312, Classified lnformation Nondisclosure Agreement (NdA). lt is used for giving individuals access to classified information when required for mission-essential needs
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When dealing with classified material why is it important to develop and implement control measures?
a. So you know where the classified information is kept. b. ln order to keep track ofthe people dealing with the classified material. c. So security forces has knowledge of where the classified information is kept. d. To help decrease the possibility of classified information falling into the wrong hands. |
b. AF Form 2587, Security Termination Statement
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Upon completion of access, individuals must sign what form?
a. AF Form 2588, Security Termination Statement b. AF Form 2587, Security Termination Statement c. AF Form 2585, Security Tennination Statement d. AF Form 2587, Security Breach Statement |
c. 50-year disposition date and it may need to be referred to again.
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What is the disposition of the nondisclosure agreement (NdA) and why is it so important the NdA be mailed off to the appropriate
agency? a. 50 year disposition and to validate the individual’s security clearance. b. 70 year disposition and it may need to be referred to again. c. 50-year disposition date and it may need to be referred to again. d. 70-year disposition date and to validate the individual’s security clearance. |
b. The exchange of ideas, messages, or information, as by speech, signals, or writing
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How does Webster’s Dictionary define communication?
a. Verbal cues and e-mail exchanges b. The exchange of ideas, messages, or information, as by speech, signals, or writing c. The exchange of theories, text messages, or information, as by speech, signals, or writing d. None of the above |
b. So they will pay attention long enough to receive and understand the message that you are sending.
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When communicating a message, why is it important to have success with your audience?
a. So you can know that you did a good job. b. So they will pay attention long enough to receive and understand the message that you are sending. c. So you can have a sense of ownership. d. So your audience can count on you for future briefings. |
b. So they will pay attention long enough to receive and understand the message that you are sending.
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What is the most common mistake when sending an e-mail?
a. Forgetting a subject line b. Misspelled words c. The message getting stuck in the outbox and not being sent out d. Forgetting to attach any/all attachments |
d. Forgetting to attach any/all attachments
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Why is it important to fight for feedback in effective communication?
a. So others will know your writing is interesting. b. So others will be able to understand the topic that you are writing about. c. So others will be able to pull information from your paper for future purposes. d. So the coordination process becomes must smoother and you get a second pair of eyes to review the communication. |
d. So the coordination process becomes must smoother and you get a second pair of eyes to review the communication.
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What are the seven steps to effective communication?
a. Analyze purpose and audience, research your topic, support your ideas, organize, draft, edit, fight for feedback b. Understand the purpose, know your audience, determine your topic, edit your purpose, organize your outline, draft your purpose, demand feedback c. Analyze purpose, gather ideas, support your facts, draft only your outline, organize, edit, fight for feedback d. Analyze your audience and purpose, make eye contact, know your audience, support your ideas, organize, draft, edit |
a. Analyze purpose and audience, research your topic, support your ideas, organize, draft, edit, fight for feedback
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What are the most important rules to consider when taking a phone message?
a. Who is the message for? What is the name of the individual that called or visited? What is the name ofthe individual that called or visited? What phone number can the sender be reached at? Ask the individual calling if there is any message to take? Next, sign your name as the person that took the message. Next, date and time the message. b. What is the name of the individual that called or visited? What is the name of the individual that called or visited? What phone number can the sender be reached at? Ask the individual calling if there is any message to take? Next, sign your name as the person that took the message. c. Who is the message for and the date and time they called. d. Who is the message for? What is the call for? What is the name of the individual that called or visited? What is the name of the individual that called or visited? What phone number can the sender be reached at? Ask the individual calling if there is any message to take? Next, sign your name as the person that took the message. Next, date and time the message. |
a. Who is the message for? What is the name of the individual that called or visited? What is the name ofthe individual that called or
visited? What phone number can the sender be reached at? Ask the individual calling if there is any message to take? Next, sign your name as the person that took the message. Next, date and time the message. |
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What is a DJMS action used to update'?
a. The Defense Focal and Accounting Site (DFAS) files b. The Defense Finance and Acclaimed Sen/ices (DFAS) files c. The Defense Finance and Accounting Services (DFAS) files d. None of the above |
c. The Defense Finance and Accounting Services (DFAS) files
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What would happen if an individual brought reenlistment paperwork into the reenlistments clerk and the clerk did not update MilPDS?
a. The reenlistment would not get updated. b. The reenlistment would not get updated and no DJMS action would be produced. c. The reenlistment would not get updated, no DJMS action would be produced, and no update would flow to finance. d. The reenlistment would not get updated, no DJMS action would be produced, no update would flow to finance, and the individual’s pay would stop. |
d. The reenlistment would not get updated, no DJMS action would be produced, no update would flow to finance, and the individual’s pay would stop.
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Who is responsible to update the reenlistment and extension DJMS transaction?
a. Reenlistments. b. Career Development c. Separations d. AFPC |
a. Reenlistments.
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Which update is used to report a reenlistment or extension to DFAS?
a. E63 b. E64 c. E62 d. E67 |
a. E63
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When performing the E6C update on the Defense Joint Military Pay System (DJMS), if the individual is in "T" status, why is it important to correct the status to "A" status before completing the update?
a. The update will produce a reject at DFAS. b. MilPDS will not allow you to perform the update. c. Then you will be able to update the "A" status to "Z" status. d. The DFAS POC will be contacting you to have you perform a status update. |
a. The update will produce a reject at DFAS.
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Which update is used to correct a member’s Master Military Pay Account (MMPA) term of enlistment (TOE)?
a. TU7 b. TE001 c. TU5 d. TU5-1 |
c. TU5
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What is the E63 update used for?
a. To update a reenlistment or extension to DFAS. b. To change the first stage/update of the E63. c. To correct the member’s MMPA TOE. d. To cancel an extension prior to the effective date. |
a. To update a reenlistment or extension to DFAS.
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Which update is used to cancel an extension?
a. TU5 b. TU3 c. TE4 d. TU6 |
d. TU6
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What does the DJMS data change TR reflect?
a. The data on transactions flowing to DFAS only b. The data on transactions flowing to DFAS plus the source document identification code c. The source identification code only d. Rejects |
b. The data on transactions flowing to DFAS plus the source document identification code
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lf a new military personnel section (MPS) commander looks at the MPS’s file monitor TR and sees an excessive amount of data in
overdue status, what can he/she conclude? a. The transactions in MilPDS did not match the transaction in the finance file. b. Information did flow properly from the PSM element over to the finance file. c. Either the proper data was not entered into Mi1PDS or items in hold status were not released. d. The Military Personnel Section (MPS) Commander did not complete their updates in a timely manner. |
d. The Military Personnel Section (MPS) Commander did not complete their updates in a timely manner.
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What does the DJMS Miscellaneous TR reflect?
a. Expired ETS only b. Rejects and discrepancies c. Expired ETS, confirmations, and AUTODIN discrepancies d. Current ETS, confirmations, and AUTODIN discrepancies |
c. Expired ETS, confirmations, and AUTODIN discrepancies
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A transaction register (TR) is a standard product designed and controlled by HQ
a. AFPC. b. ARPC. c. AMC. d. AETC. |
a. AFPC.
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What does the DJMS Rejects TR show?
a. MPS and DFAS discrepancies b. The pay effecting transactions submitted by the CPTS which rejected at DFAS c. The duty effecting transactions submitted by the MPS which rejected at DFAS d. The pay effecting transactions submitted by the MPS which rejected at DFAS |
d. The pay effecting transactions submitted by the MPS which rejected at DFAS
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Transaction registers (TR) are programmatically controlled and produced
a. Daily. b. Monthly. c. Semi-annually. d. Annually. |
a. Daily.
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What does the File Monitor TR reflect?
a. Actions that need to be taken to ensure MilPDS contains accurate, timely data b. Actions taken to ensure MilPDS contains accurate, timely data c. Records with no required action d. None of the above · |
a. Actions that need to be taken to ensure MilPDS contains accurate, timely data
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The File Monitor is divided into what two parts?
a. Reject and discrepancy b. Suspense and Details c. Suspense and notification d. Reject and Suspense |
c. Suspense and notification
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What is the purpose of the MAPs?
a. To serve as tools to help identify potential database errors and assist with database integrity issues b. To serve as tools to identify database errors only c. To update database errors and assist with database integrity issues d. To serve as tools identifying integrity issues only |
a. To serve as tools to help identify potential database errors and assist with database integrity issues
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If an individual is showing up on the MAP2-Enhancements-HYT, what conclusion can we make?
a. Individual has reenlisted, but their reenlistment paperwork has not been returned yet. b. Individual is with 1 year of separation and they do not have their separation orders yet. c. Individual is within 1 year of retirement and their request to retire was not updated in MilPDS. d. Individual is within 1 year of their HYT and their reenlistment code does not reflect the correct code. |
d. Individual is within 1 year of their HYT and their reenlistment code does not reflect the correct code.
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How often should MAPs be produced?
a. On a weekly basis b. At a minimum, on a monthly basis c. Only upon request d. At a minimum, on a quarterly basis |
b. At a minimum, on a monthly basis
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lf an inbound contacts customer service stating they have not been assigned a sponsor, their name should be reflected on MAP
a. 7A. b. 7B. c. 7C. d. 8. |
a. 7A.
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Why were the workbooks designed?
a. To identify potential system errors and correct potential database integrity issues b. To provide the work center with a reference to aid in the updating ofthe MilPDS database c. As a baseline tool to assist in the maintenance of the MilPDS database only d. As a baseline tool to aid in the clean up and maintenance of the MilPDS data base |
d. As a baseline tool to aid in the clean up and maintenance of the MilPDS data base
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lf an individual is inquiring about reenlisting, and the reenlistments clerk checks MilPDS and finds that the individual is not eligible to
reenlist because they are not a United States citizen, the reenlistments clerk sends the member to customer sewice so the customer service clerk can check MAP a. 21. b. 22. c. 25. d. 27. |
d. 27.
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What is MAP6 used for?
a. lt is used to ensure reenlistment codes and promotion eligibility codes are compatible b. It is used to ensure assignment availability codes are updated in the MilPDS database c. It is used to ensure that reenlistment codes, assignment availability codes and promotion eligibility codes are compatible d. It is used to ensure that DAV codes, AEF indicators and promotion eligibility codes are compatible |
c. It is used to ensure that reenlistment codes, assignment availability codes and promotion eligibility codes are compatible
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lf Lt Smith walks into your office and asks a question, but you cannot locate his record in MilPDS, what could this mean?
a. That he is an AFROTC accession, and his finance record has not been built yet. b. That he is an AFROTC accession, and his personnel record has not been built yet. c. That he is an AF Academy graduate, and his personnel record has not been built yet. d. That he is on his way to college to finish his undergraduate degree and his spring training. |
a. That he is an AFROTC accession, and his finance record has not been built yet.
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What is MAPl2A-Promotion Data used for?
a. It identifies members below the grade of MSgt with more than 18 years TAFMS, and within 2 years of their DOS b. lt identifies members of all ranks within 2 years of their ADSC c. 1t identihes members below the grade of Lt Col with more than 20 years TAFMS, and within 2 years of their ADSC d. It identities members below the grade of CMSgt with more than 22 years TAFMS |
a. It identifies members below the grade of MSgt with more than 18 years TAFMS, and within 2 years of their DOS
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lf a member is projected to PCS and receives a demotion, what MAP can the Career Development Section use in order to ensure
database integrity? a. MAP 3. b. MAP 4. c. MAP 5. d. MAP 6. |
d. MAP 6.
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